18-05-2026

0000OMD303029250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantity, then energy has the
dimensional formula :-

(1) [PA–1T]
(2) [P2AT]
(3) [PA–1/2T]
(4) [PA1/2T–1]

2) Force displacement graph of a particle is shown in fig. work done by

applied force from x = 0 to x = 4m is :-

(1) 25 J
(2) 27.5 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 32.5 J

3) A ball is suspended on a thread from the ceiling of a car. The brakes are applied and the speed of
car changes from 5 m/sec to 5/3 m/sec during the time interval of 3 seconds. Find the angle that the
thread with the ball will deviate from vertical.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The spring shown in the figure is in natural length initially and the blocks are in rest. Suddenly
block m2 receives a horizontal velocity V right ward then the maximum extension in the spring is :

(surface is smooth)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A block of wood floats in water with th of its volume submerged. If the same block just floats
–3
in a liquid, the density of the liquid (in kg m ) is :-

(1) 1250
(2) 600
(3) 400
(4) 800

6) The capillary tube is dipped in water vertically. It is sufficiently long so that water rises to
maximum height h in the tube. The length of the portion immered in water is ℓ > h. The lower end of

the tube is closed, the tube is taken out and opened again. Then-

(1) all water flow out of the tube.

(2) the length of the water column remaining in the tube will be h.
(3) the length of the water column remaining in the tube will be 2h
(4) the length of the water column remaining in the tube will be ℓ + h

7) A wheel is rotating about a its own axis. The moment of inertia of the wheel about axis of rotation.
If its angular speed is 30 rad/sec and its kinetic energy is 300 J (in kg-m2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0.6

8) The block A in figure weighs 100 N. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the
table is 0.25. The weight of the block B is maximum for the system to be in equilibrium. The value of
T1 is -

(1) 0.25 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 100.25 N

9) Which of the following measurement is most precise?

(1) 3.00 km
(2) 3.00 m
(3) 3.00 cm
(4) 3.00 mm

10) A metal rod of length 2m has cross-sectional areas 2A and A as shown in the following figure.
The two ends are maintained at temperatures 100°C and 70°C. The temperature of middle point C is

:-

(1) 80°C
(2) 85°C
(3) 90°C
(4) 95°C

11) If the heat of 110 J is added to a gaseous system and change in internal energy is 40 J, then the
amount of work done is :

(1) 180 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 110 J
(4) 30 J

12) When the kinetic energy of a body executing SHM is rd of the potential energy, the
displacement of the body is x percentage of the amplitude, where x is approximately equal to (Take
PE = 0 at the mean position)

(1) 33
(2) 87
(3) 67
(4) 50

13) In adjoining figure, motion of a planet round the sun in elliptical path is shown with sun at one
focus. The two shaded areas shown in figure are equal. If the times taken by planet to go from A to B

and from C to D are t1 and t2 respectively then :-

(1) t1 < t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 = t2
(4) There is some relation between t1 and t2

14) Two waves are represented by the equations

y1 = a sin(ωt + kx + 0.57) m and
y2 = a cos(ωt + kx) m,
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The phase difference between them is:

(1) 1.0 radian

(2) 1.25 radian
(3) 1.57 radian
(4) 0.57 radian

15) A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length ℓ and rotated in a circle with a constant speed v, if
the string is released, the stone flies :-

(1) radially outward

(2) radially inward
(3) tangentially outward

(4)
with an acceleration

16) The initial velocity of a projectile is . It is moving with uniform acceleration

. The magnitude of its velocity after 10 s is :

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

17) Consider the following statements :-

(a) COM of a uniform semicircular disc of radius R is at 2R/π from the centre.
(b) COM of a uniform semicircular ring of radius R is at 4R/3π from the centre.
(c) COM of a solid hemisphere of radius R is at 4R/3π from the centre.
(d) COM of a hemispherical shell of radius R is at R/2 from the centre
Which statement is correct ?

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) only d
(4) only a and b

18) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/sec collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 4 m/sec. After collision, two bodies stick together and
move with a common velocity which in m/sec is equal to

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/3
(3) 2/3
(4) 3/4

19) Force acting on a particle of mass 2kg is as shown in figure. If initial velocity of a particle is 5

m/s, then find final momentum.

(1) 100 N. sec

(2) 110 N. sec
(3) 105 N. sec
(4) 120 N. sec

20) Stationary waves are produced in 10m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 2 segments
and wave velocity is 20 m/sec, then the frequency is :-

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 5Hz
(3) 2Hz
(4) 4Hz

21) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the field. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm/s. The
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 c.m. is :-

(1) 2μV
(2) 2πμV
(3) π μV

(4)

22) A charged particle with specific charge S moves undeflected through a region of space
containing mutually perpendicular uniform electric and magnetic fields E & B. When electric field is
switched off, the particle will move in a circular path of radius:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) If the coefficient of mutual induction of the primary and secondary coils of an induction coil is 5
H and a current of 10 A is cut off in 5 × 10–4 s, the emf induced (in volt) in the secondary coil is :-

(1) 5 × 104
(2) 1 × 105
(3) 25 × 105
(4) 5 × 106

24) A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length ℓ and resistance RΩ and it is moving
with a speed v as shown. The setup is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the

paper. The three currents I1, I2 and I are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A coil of inductive reactance 31Ω has a resistance of 8Ω It is placed in series with a condenser of
capacitative reactance 25Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 volt . The power
factor of the circuit is :

(1) 0.56
(2) 0.64
(3) 0.80
(4) 0.33

26) An alternating emf of angular frequency ω is applied across an inductance. The instantaneous
power developed in the circuit has an angular frequency:

(1) ω/4
(2) ω/2
(3) ω
(4) 2ω

27) An electromagnetic wave of amplitude of electric field component is 20 V/m is propagating in

medium whose dielectric constant is 2.25 and relative permeability is 4, then intensity of EM wave
will be (in W/m2)

8
(1) 450 ∈0 × 10
8
(2) 600 ∈0 × 10
8
(3) 200 ∈0 × 10
8
(4) 100 ∈0 × 10

28) Four equal charges of magnitude q are arranged as shown in figure. Now the charge at center C

is taken to infinite, then work done by the external force will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If heat produced in 4Ω is H cal/sec. then in 6Ω it is :– (in cal/sec.)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Find the value of R for which no current will flow through 5 V battery :-

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

31) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure:-

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

32) The maximum value of refractive index of a prism which permits the transmission of light
through it when the refracting angle of the prism is 90°, is given by :-

(1) 1.500
(2) 1.414
(3) 2.000
(4) 1.732

33) A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged with 10 μC. Another uncharged conducting
sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After that, if the spheres are separated,
then surface density of charge on the spheres will be in the ratio of :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

34) A galvanometer of resistance 20Ω is to be converted into an ammeter of range 1A. If a current of
1 mA produces full scale deflection, the shunt required for the purpose is :-

(1) 0.01 Ω
(2) 0.05 Ω
(3) 0.02 Ω
(4) 0.04 Ω

35) Draw the output wave form across the resistor :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In a single slit diffraction pattern the first minima is observed at an angle of 45°. When light of
wavelength 6000Å is incident on the slit. The second maxima is observed at an angle of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The ratio between the energy stored in 5μF capacitor to the 4μF capacitor in the given figure is :
(1) 1.2
(2) 1
(3) 1.25
(4) 3.6

38) A silver ball of radius 4.8 cm is suspended by a thread in the vacuum chamber. UV light of
wavelength 200 nm is incident on the ball for some times during which a total energy of 1 × 10–7 J
falls on the surface. Assuming on an average one out of 103 photons incident is able to eject electron.
The potential on sphere will be :-

(1) 1 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 3 V
(4) Zero

39) The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by , λ1 and λ2 are

the de-broglie wave lengths of the particle, when and x > 1 respectively. If the total
2
mechanical energy of particle is 2E0, find (λ1/λ2) :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1/2

40) Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarized beam of intensity I0 such that no light is
emitted from the second polaroid. If a third polaroid whose polarization axis makes an angle θ with
the polarization axis of first polaroid, is placed between these polaroids then the intensity of light
emerging from the last polaroid will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
4
(4) I0cos θ
41) In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass energy of a nucleus and n a neutron. The
correct options is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A nucleus [of nuclear density ρ] disintegrates into two daughter nuclei with masses in the ratio 8
: 27 density of the smaller nucleus is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ρ

43) The I-V. characteristic of a P-N junction in forward bias is shown. The approximate forward

resistance of junction is-

(1) 1Ω
(2) 0.25Ω
(3) 0.5Ω
(4) 5Ω

44) The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is caused by :-

(1) drift of holes

(2) diffusion of charge carriers
(3) migration of impurity ions
(4) drift of electrons

45) The energy stored in the capacitor as shown in the figure (a) is 4.5 × 10–6J. If the battery is
replaced by another capacitor of 900 pF as shown in figure (b), then the total energy of system is :-
(1) 4.5 × 10–6 J
(2) 2.25 × 10–6 J
(3) Zero
(4) 9 × 10–6 J

CHEMISTRY

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II : Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

2) Which of the following statement is wrong about chromyl chloride test.

(1) Test only for chloride

(2) Test for Cl–, Br– and I–
(3) Oxidation state of Cr in CrO2Cl2 is +6
(4) In this test conc. H2SO4 used

3) In the preparation method of potash alum small amount of dil H2SO4 is added why.

(1) To obtain colourless crystals

(2) To prevent hydrolysis of aluminium sulphate
(3) To obtain octahedral shape of crystals
(4) To prevent hydrolysis of potassium sulphate

4) Correct match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Name of oxyacid) (Formula)

(A) Pyrosulphuric acid (p) H2S2O8

(B) Peroxy disulphuric acid (q) H2SO5

 Peroxy monosulphuric
(C) (r) H2S2O7
acid

(D) Sulphurous acid (s) H2SO3

(1) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s
(3) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
(4) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

5) Correct IUPAC name of complex [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] :-

(1) Tetra ammine platinum (II) tetrachlorido copper (II)

(2) Tetra ammine platinum (II) tetra chlorido Cuprate (II)
(3) Tetra ammine platinate (II) tetra chlorido copper (II)
(4) Tetra ammine platinum (IV) tetra chloride cuprate (0)

6) The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6
mole of B is 10 min. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.6 mole of A to produce 0.45 mole of B
?

(1) 20 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 30 min
(4) None

7) The density of 3 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is 1.05 g/ml. Find the molality of this solution.

(1) 3.102
(2) 3.448
(3) 2.963
(4) 4.568

8) For the cell, , calculate free energy change (ΔG) at 298

K.

Given :

(1) 180.93 kJ
(2) –194.93 kJ
(3) –180.93 kJ
(4) 194.93 kJ

9) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid
(2) 3-Cyano-4-amino hexanoic acid
(3) 3-Amino-4-ethyl-5-cyano pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Amino-5-cyano hexanoic acid

10)

Which of the following statement is incorrect for SN2 reaction :-

(1) SN2 is one step process

If SN2 reaction takes place at optically active alkyl halide then inversion in configuration takes
(2)
place
(3) Rate of reaction depend on concentration of nucleophile as well as substrate
(4) Reaction proceeds through formation of carbocation intermediate

11) Lassaigne solution when react with sodium nitroprusside, the violet colour complex appear, it
shows presence of :-

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Sulphur
(4) Nitrogen and Sulphur

12) Statement-I : Reduction of with NaBH4 gives

Statement-II : Ester is more reactive than aldehyde towards nucleophile.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

13) Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in DMF-

(1) F⊖
(2) Cl⊖
(3) Br⊖
(4) I⊖

14) Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1)
Tropone is an aromatic compound
(2)
Tropolone is not an aromatic compound

(3)
is more stable than

(4)
has sp2 hybridisation of anionic carbon

15) Compare heat of hydrogenation of given compound.

(a) (b) (c)

(1) b > a > c

(2) c > b > a
(3) a > c > b
(4) a > b > c

16)

What is the change in volume on complete decomposition of 10 L NH3 gas into N2(g) and H2(g) ?

(1) – 20 L
(2) + 20 L
(3) + 10 L
(4) – 10 L

17) Arrange the following in increasing order of energy :-

(i) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = –1, s = +½
(ii) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –1, s = –½
(iii) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +½
(iv) n = 5, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = –½

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(3) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)
(4) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)

18) Metals X, Y, Z have standard oxidation potentials –0.65V, –1.40V and +0.36V respectively then :-

(1) Z can oxidise X but not Y.

(2) Y can oxidise X but not Z.
(3) Z can reduce X⊕ and Y⊕ both.
(4) X⊕ can reduce Z but not Y.
19) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Energy Released (p) S → S–

(b) Energy absorbed (q) O– → O2–

Inert gas
(c) configuration (r) Sr → Sr2+
acheived

half filled
(d) configuration (s) N– → N
is achieve
(1) (a) p, s; (b) q, s; (c) q, r; (d) p
(2) (a) p, s; (b) q, r; (c) q, r; (d) s
(3) (a) p, s, r; (b) q, p; (c) q, s; (d) s, r
(4) (a) r, q, s; (b) s, p; (c) q, p; (d) s, q

20)

Consider the following molecules ;

H2O H2S H2Se H2 Te
I II III IV
Arrange these molecules in increasing order of bond angles.

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) I < II < IV < III
(4) II < IV < III < I

21) In which of the following transformations, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed ?

+
(1) C2 → C2
(2) NO+ → NO
–
(3) O2 → O2
+
(4) N2 → N2

22)

where A is limestone, select correct statement for identification of gas 'C'.

(1) coloured gas

(2) decolourize acidic KMnO4
(3) suffocating odour
(4) Gives white ppt with Baryta water and lime water
23) Product C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Two liquids A and B form ideal solution at 300 K. The vapour pressure of a solution containing
one mole of A and four mole of B is 560 mm of Hg. At the same temperature if one mole of B is taken
out from the solution, the vapour pressure of solution decreases by 10 mm of Hg. Vapour pressures
of A and B (in mm Hg) in pure state will be-

(1) 330, 550

(2) 200, 300
(3) 400, 600
(4) 800, 1200

25) The molar heat of formation of NH4NO3(s) is –367.54 KJ and those of N2O(g) and H2O(ℓ) are +81.46
KJ and –285.78 KJ respectively at 27°C and 1 atm pressure. What is ΔH for the reaction- NH4NO3(S)
—→ N2O(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)

(1) 122.56 KJ
(2) 449 KJ
(3) –122.56 KJ
(4) –449 KJ

26)

Which of the following exists as chlorobridged dimer in vapour phase :-

(1) LiCl
(2) BeCl2
(3) BaCl2
(4) MgCl2
27) Which of the following ion will be of smallest size while achieving noble gas configuration :

(1) Al+3
(2) Na+
(3) Mg+2
(4) N–3

28) Which pair of complexes are inner orbital complexes ?

+2 +2
(1) [Zn(NH3)6] & [Zn(H2O)6]
–3 –3
(2) [Fe(CN)6] & [IrF6]
–3 –3
(3) [CoF6] & [CoCl6]
+3 –3
(4) [Sc(H2O)6] & [FeF6]

29)

Correct order of boiling point

(1) CH3–Cl > CH3–CH2–Cl > CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl

(2)
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br <

(3)

(4) All of the above

30) , B compound is -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) Which of the following is an example of nucleophilic addition reaction ?

(1) Reaction of benzene with Cl2/FeCl3

(2) Reaction of acetylene with Cl2/H2O
(3) Reaction of propene with HBr/ R2O2
(4) Reaction of acetone with ethanol in presence of dry HCl

32) Which of the following reagent may be used to distinguish between phenol & benzoic acid ?

(1) Victor Meyer test

(2) Neutral FeCl3
(3) Aqueous NaOH
(4) Tollen's reagent

33) How many among the following are correctly matched :

Aqueous solution
pH
at 25°C

(i) 10–8 M HCl 8

(ii) 10–2 M NaOH 12

–2
(iii) 10 M CH3COOH 2

(iv) Pure water 7

(1) Only i
(2) ii and iv
(3) i and iii
(4) All are correctly matched

34) Assertion : For the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g); if volume of system is changed at
equilibrium the reaction is neither shifted to forward nor backward and reaction remains in
equilibrium.
Reason : For the reaction having Δng = 0, change in volume of system at equilibrium does not alter
concentrations of reactants and products.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

35) How much charge is required to oxidise 0.2 moles of Mn3O4 into in alkaline medium ?
(1) 0.5 F
(2) 1 F
(3) 2 F
(4) 4 F

36) If 'a' is the initial concentration of a substance which decomposes according to zero order
kinetics and k is rate constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is :

(1) Inifinite

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Which one contain maximum number of 90° angle among the following ?

(1) PCl5
(2) SF6
(3) IF7
(4) XeF6

38) Select the incorrect statement on the basis of following conversion :

(1) X is an ore of Fe
(2) Y is an yellow coloured solution
(3) Y is K2Cr2O7
(4) Y is stable in basic medium

39) Salt + MnO2 X (greenish yellow colour gas)

Incorrect statement :

(1) Released gas is Cl2

(2) X has pungent smell
(3) X does not show bleaching property
(4) X has oxidising property

40) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence respectively are :-

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr
(3)
C2H5Br, CH2=CH2,
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br–CH2–CH2–Br

41)
Relation between M & N is :-

(1) Functional group isomer

(2) Identical
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Position isomer

42)
Product D is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The volume of 0.1 M H2C2O4 • 2H2O that can be completely oxidised by 20 mL of 0.025 M
KMnO4 solution in acidic medium is :

(1) 12.5 mL
(2) 25 mL
(3) 37.5 mL
(4) 125 mL
44) x % H2NCONH2(aq) solution is isotonic with 0.585% NaCl(aq) solution at 27°C. If NaCl is
100% ionised, find x :-

(1) 4.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 1.2
(4) 0.6

45) How many of the following statements are correct :

(i) Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted into colloidal solution is called
peptization.
(ii) Both As2S3 sol and Fe(OH)3 sol are negatively charged.
(iii) Lyophilic sols are highly solvated as particles have great affinity for solvent.
(iv) Lyophobic sols are reversible sols so special methods are required to prepare them.

(1) Only i
(2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements is/are false about columnar epithelium ?

(A) It is made up of tall and slender cells
(B) Free surface may have microvilli
(C) They are found in stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption
(D) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structures like bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(E) They have apical nuclei

(1) (A) only

(2) (E) only
(3) (B) and (D)
(4) (B) and (C)

2) Which type of mouth parts are found in Cockroach?

(1) Bitting and chewing

(2) Piercing
(3) Sucking
(4) Drilling

3) What is the function of tympanum in frog ?

(1) Respiration
(2) Excretion
(3) Circulation
(4) Hearing

4)

In which of the following segmentation in the body is first observed ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Mollusca

5) Which are incorrect among the following : (A) Poison sting in "Torpedo"
(B) Electric organ is found in "Trygon"
(C) Claspers present in "Scoliodon"
(D) Air bladder present in "Pristis"

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A, B & D

6) Comb plates of Pleurobrachia help in :

(1) Respiration
(2) Digestion
(3) Reproduction
(4) Locomotion

7) Acoelomate animal with radial symmetry is :

(1) Taenia
(2) Spongilla
(3) Asterias
(4) Obelia

8)

Electric organs are present in :-

(1) Torpedo
(2) Carcharodon
(3) Exocoetus
(4) Clarias

9)

How many of the following statements are correct :-

(A) Systemic circulation takes place between left ventricle and right atrium of heart
(B) Adrenal medullary hormones can decrease the cardiac output
(C) Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest or heart attack
(D) The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by a valve formed of two
muscular flaps

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

10) Trachea is a straight tube which divides into right and left bronchi at the level of :-

(1) 5th cervical vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th lumbar vertebra
(4) 1st thoracic vertebra

11)

Column-A Column-B

1. Aorta a. Carrier deoxygenated blood from the heart to lungs

2. capillaries b. Largest blood vessels

3. Pulmonary artery c. Tiny blood vessels where exchange of gases occurs

4. Veins d Blood vessels that carry blood back to heart

(1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
(2) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(3) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
(4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

12) Select the correct statement :

(1) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 50 ml of O2 to the tissue
(2) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure during inspiration
(3) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is residual volume
(4) Alveoli are the secondary sites of exchange of gases

13) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called:

(1) Renal corpuscle

(2) Malpighian tubule
(3) Malpighian body
(4) Both (1) & (3)

14) Which of the following is/are characteristic of mammalian brain ?

(1) Arachnoid layer
(2) Corpus albicans
(3) Corpora quadrigemina
(4) All of the above

15) Which part of nephron is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes ?

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct

16) Statement I :- Visceral nervous system is the part of the peripheral nervous system.
Statement II :- The PNS comprises of all the nerves of the body associated with the CNS.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

17) Pituitary gland is controlled by :

(1) Epithalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Cerebrum

18) Find out the incorrect match from the following table

Column-I Column-II
Atrial natriuretic
(1) Heart
factor
(2) Kidney Erythropoietin
(3) Gastro-intestinal tract CCK
(4) Ovary oxytocin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which hormone acts on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the
process of spermiogenesis ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Testosterone

20) Placenta is the region where :-

(1) Foetus is attached to myometrium of uterus.

(2) Foetus receives oxygen and nourishment from mother's blood.
(3) Foetus is covered by fetal membranes.
(4) Foetus is attached to mother by spermatic cord.

21) Assertion : Myometrium is essential for parturition.

Reason : Myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of baby.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

22) Assertion :- Saheli is a "once a week" pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive
value.
Reason :- Saheli is the new oral contraceptive for the females and contains a steroidal preparation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Each Fallopian tube is about _____ cm. long.

(1) 15-20
(2) 10-12
(3) 5-10
(4) 2-4

24) Given below some Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). In which find out In Vitro
Fertilisation (IVF).
(a) ZIFT (b) IUT (c) ET
(d) AI (e) GIFT (f) IUI

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) d, e, f
(4) b, e, f

25) Which of the following is advised for the male partner as a terminal method of contraception?

(1) Oral pills

(2) Vasectomy
(3) Coitus interruptus
(4) Tubectomy

26) Read the following Statements A to E.

(A) Essence of darwin's theory was branching descent
(B) Mutation theory was given by Mendal
(C) Homo Habilis has highest cranial capacity.
(D) Dryopithecus was more Ape like
(E) Long neck of Giraffe is result of natural selection
How many of following are incorrect?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) One

27) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Injection of dead/inactivated pathogen causes active immunity.
Statement-II : Antibody represented H2L4 structure.
In the light of the above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

28) The disease which is transmitted by mosquito :

(1) Dysentery
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Filariasis
(4) Amoebic dysentery

29) Serum of any animal containing antibody for specific antigen is called :-

(1) Antibiotic
(2) Vaccine
(3) Anti-serum
(4) Agglutination

30) Given below are two statements –

Statement-I : Active immunity is fast and do not take time to give its full effective response.
Statement-II : The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thyroid.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

31) Fossils found in older rocks are of ?

(1) Complex types

(2) Mixed types
(3) Simpler types
(4) Advanced types

32) Match the following-

A-Z-disc P = contains only thin filament

B-I-Band Q = separate two sarcomere

R = Contains thick filaments ,

C-A-Band
no thin filament

D-H-Zone S = Entire length of thick filament

(1) A = P, B = Q, C = R, D = S
(2) A = Q, B = P, C = S, D = R
(3) A = Q, B = R, C = P, D = S
(4) A = R, B = P, C = S, D = Q

33) In response to stress of any kind and during emergency situation hormones are secreted by :-

(1) Thymus gland

(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Thyroid gland

34) Nt = N0ert this equation is a integral form of the exponential growth in this equation what is "r"?

(1) Population density after time t

(2) Population density at time zero
(3) Reproduction period
(4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

35) Choose the incorrect statement :-

Population ecology is an important area of ecology because it links ecology to population

(1)
genetics and evolution.
(2) A population has certain attributes whereas, an individual organism does not.
(3) Individual has birth rate and death rate.
(4) Sex ratio is characteristic of a population.
36) _______Showed that in his experiments, increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.

(1) Paul Ehrlich

(2) Robert May
(3) David Tilman
(4) Reiter

37) Which of the following was objective of world summit held in 2002 in South Africa ?

(1) Protection of Stratospheric ozone

(2) Climate change
(3) Biodiversity conservation
(4) Sustainable development

38) Choose the incorrect statement ?

Interaction of biotic and abiotic components result in a physical structure that is characteristic
(1)
for each type of ecosystem.
In an ecosystem unidirectional movement of energy towards the higher trophic levels and its
(2)
dissipation and loss as heat to the environment takes place.
A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and
(3)
sustain.
(4) Primary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumer.

39) Which one of the following is not step of decomposition ?

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Humification
(3) Stratification
(4) Mineralisation

40) The names of different cell organelles / structures are given below -
Mitochondria, Cell wall, Ribosomes, Centrioles, Microbodies, Plastids, Endoplasmic Reticulum
How many of the above are present in both higher plant and animal cells?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

41) Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)

(I) Cells actively involved in protein synthesis have larger and more numerous nucleoli along with
RER
(II) Animal cells differ from plant cells in possessing a large central vacuole
(III) Lysosomes are reservoirs of hydrolytic enzymes
(IV) Chromatin contains DNA and histones
(1) I-T II-F III-T IV-T
(2) I-F II-F III-T IV-T
(3) I-F II-T III-F IV-F
(4) I-T II-F III-F IV-T

42) Identify the given figures A and B :-

A B

(1) Anaphase-I Telophase-I

(2) Anaphase-II Anaphase-I

(3) Metaphase-II Metaphase-I

(4) Anaphase-I Mitotic anaphase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

Generally competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources but
(1)
totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resource
Considering that the parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and meals, it is not surprising
(2)
that parasitism has evolved in so many taxonomic groups from plants to higher vertebrates
Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species (measured in terms
(3) of its 'r' the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly increases in the presence of another
species
Plant-animal interactions often involve co-evolution of the mutualists to safeguard the mutually
(4)
beneficial system against 'cheaters'

44) What is the estimated total number of species described by the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) as of 2004 ?

(1) 20 to 50 million
(2) Approximately 1.5 million
(3) About 7 million
(4) About 70 million

45) Assertion :- Mitosis is also called as equational division.

Reason :- Splitting of the centromere of each chromosome at anaphase-II.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

46) Find the incorrect match :-

(A) Anaphase-I Homologous chromosomes separate

(B) Diakinesis X-Shaped structures are called chiasmata

(C) Zygotene Crossing over

The bivalent chromosomes align on the

(D) Metaphase-I
equatorial plate.
(1) Only B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and C
(4) B, C and D

47) The chromosomes in which centromere is slightly away from the middle are :-

(1) Sub-metacentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Metacentric

48) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I :- In food chain energy flow is unidirectional
Statement-II :- Shorter food chain will provide lesser energy
In the light the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

49) Assertion : Mendel obtained phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in the dihybrid cross.

Reason : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pairs of character is
independent of the other pair of character.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
50) The F2 generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete dominance exhibit

(1) Variable genotypic & phenotypic ratio.

(2) A genotypic ratio of 1 :1
(3) A phenotypic ratio of 3 :1
(4) Similar phenotypic & genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1

51) Okazaki fragments are synthesized on

(1) Leading strand, towards fork

(2) Lagging strand, towards fork
(3) Leading strand, away from fork
(4) Lagging strand, away from fork

52) (A) A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.

(B) The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or r-RNA molecule define a gene.
(C) The exons are said to be those sequences that appear in mature or processed RNA
(D) Inheritance of a character is not affected by promoter and regulatory sequence of structural
gene.
Select the set of correct statements in given option :

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B and D

53) It was George Gamow, a ____, who argued that since there are only 4 bases and if they have to
code for ____ amino acids, the code should constitute a combination of 3 bases.
Fill in the blanks, respectively :

(1) Physicist ; 20
(2) Biochemist ; 20
(3) physicist ; 18
(4) geneticist ; 20

54) Read the following statement

Statement I :- RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organism as a method of cellular defense.
Statement II :- Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that kill all the types of Bacteria.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

55) The experimental manipulation of DNA of different species and producing recombinant DNA is
known as :-
(1) Electrophoresis
(2) Recombinant DNA technology
(3) Transformation
(4) Somatic hybridization

56) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted into plasmid pBR322 using enzyme Pvu-I or Pst-I
?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Recombinants are unable to grow in presence of ampicilin
(d) Recombinants are unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a & c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

57) Which of the following statement is correct in the context of observing DNA fragments separated
by agarose gel electrophoresis ?

(1) DNA can be seen in visible light

(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

58) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
Statement-II :- DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

59) Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding to the Human Genome Project :

(1) The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed in 2003

(2) Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project
(3) The commonly used hosts were bacteria and yeast
(4) In HGP 22 autosome and X and Y chromosome has been sequenced

60) For a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine
are constant and equals one, this statement was given by :

(1) Watson and crick

(2) Erwin Chargaff
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(4) Messelson and Stahl

61) In case of Co-Dominance the F1-generation resembles :

(1) Dominant Parent

(2) Recessive Parent
(3) Both the Parents
(4) None of the Parents

62) The vitamin whose content increases when the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid
bacteria is :

(1) Vit-C
(2) Vit-D
(3) Vit-B12
(4) Vit-E

63) When Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some
produce smooth shiny colonies (S) while others produce rough colonies (R). This is because :-

(1) The S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat, while R strain does not.
(2) The R strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat, while S strain does not.
(3) Neither S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat nor R strain
(4) Both R and S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat.

64) In which method, high velocity particles of gold or tungsten coated with recombinant DNA are
being bombarded :

(1) Biolistics
(2) P.C.R.
(3) Elution
(4) Microinjection

65) Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with dwarf plant what will be the ratio of dwarf plants in
the following progeny ?

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

66)

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion-(A) and other is labelled as Reason-(R).
Assertion : When one allele have multiple genes (more than two genes), this phenomenon is termed
as multiple allelism. Reason : More than two slightly different forms of the same gene may be
present in a population.
In the light of above statements choose most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

67) The proteins which are encoded by the genes cry IAc and cryII Ab. They are responsible for
controlling which of the following ?

(1) Roundworm
(2) Moth
(3) Cotton Bollworm
(4) Fruitfly

68) In case of X-linked recessive disease, which case is not possible -

(1) Diseased female

(2) Diseased male
(3) Carrier female
(4) Carrier male

69) In taxonomic hierarchy, given below organisms are representative of how many families ?
Wheat, Potato, Brinjal, Mango

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

70) ICBN stands for

(1) International classification of biological nomenclature.

(2) International class of biological nomenclature.
(3) International code of botanical nomenclature.
(4) International classification of biological naming.

71) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) After fertilization the ovule wall get transformed into pericarp
(2) Strawberry fruits are false fruits.
(3) Mango is drupe fruit.
(4) Mango fruit develop from monocarpellary superior ovary.
72) Given below two statements:
Statement - (I) : In dicots, direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of primary root.
Statement - (II) : Fibrous roots arise from the base of the stem.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

73) Which statement/s is/are correct about internal structure of dicot stem :-

(1) Hypodermis is collenchymatous

(2) Pericycle is found in patches located just above phloem bundles.
(3) The cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains
(4) All the above

74) Which statement is correct about T.S. of monocot root :-

(1) Sclerenchymatous pericycle is found in patches located just above the phloem bundles
(2) It has more than six xylem bundles
(3) It shows secondary growth
(4) Endodermis is rich in starch grains so, it is also termed as starch sheath

75) If a monochromatic light of blue colour is incident on different photosynthetic pigments, it will
be absorbed maximum by the pigment :-

(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Chlorophyll b
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Phycobilins

76) Assertion :- Protons or hydrogen ions that are produced by splitting of water accumulated
within the lumen of thylakoids.
Reason :- Splitting of the water molecules takes place on the inner side of the membrane.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

77) Which of the metabolities is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins?

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) DHAP
(4) 3 - PGAL

78) Substrate level phosphorylation (SLP) occurs during?

(1) Link reaction and Kreb's cycle

(2) Glycolysis only
(3) Link reaction and ETS
(4) Krebs cycle and glycolysis

79) The volatile substance is released from ripened oranges that __A__ the ripening of stored un-
ripened banana. It was identified as __B__.

(1) A-Reduced , B-Ascisic acid

(2) A-Hastened, B-Ethylene
(3) A-Stop, B-Auxin
(4) A-Hastened, B-Cytokinins

80) A typical angiosperm anther is

(1) Bilobed, dithecous, tetrasporangiate

(2) Bilobed, trithecous, tetrasporangiate
(3) tetralobed, dithecous, tetrasporangiate
(4) Bilobed, dithecous, bisporangiate

81) Which of the following statement is true for both Dinoflagellates and slime moulds ?

(1) Saprophytic protists

(2) Formation of red tides by rapid multiplication
(3) Formation of plasmodium
(4) Presence of membrane-bound organelles

82) Read the following example :-

Chara, Ectocarpus, Spirogyra, Volvox, Polysiphonia, Porphyra
How many examples have chlorophyll 'a' and 'b'?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

83) Select incorrect statement?

(1) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

(2) Self–incompatibility is an out breeding device
(3) Black pepper is an example of perispermic seed
(4) Pea & groundnut are example of albuminous seeds
84) Match Column-I and Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

All changes from

A. Plasticity I. germination of seed to
senescence.

Cells losing protoplasm

B. Differentiation II. to from a tracheary
element.

Formation of cork
C. Development III. cambium from
parenchyma cells.

Formation of different
structures in plants in
D. De-differentiation IV.
response to environment
or phases of life.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

85) Those enzymes catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C – C, C – halide or P–N
bonds are called :

(1) Oxidoreductases
(2) Hydrolases
(3) Transferases
(4) Lyases

86) Read the following statements carefully and identify the correct statement ?

(1) In bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperms, gametophyte is independant and free living.
In bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperms, sporophytes are independant free living and
(2)
photosynthetic.
In bryophyta, gametophytes and sporophytes both are free living and independant while in
(3)
pteridophyta and gymnosperm, gametophyte is independant, free living and photosynthetic.
In bryophyta, sporophytes depend on gametophyte while in gymnosperm, gametophyte depends
(4)
on sporophyte.

87) Read the following four statement (A to D) and select the option with all correct statement :
(A) Growth where new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem
is called open form of growth.
(B) Vascular cambium and cork cambium cause the increase in the grith.
(C) Plant growth is unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth through their life.
(D) Meristems have the capacity to divide and self-perpetuate.

(1) Only A and B are correct.

(2) Only A, B and D are correct.
(3) Only D correct.
(4) All the statement are correct.

88) Assertion :- Kreb's cycle is also called TCA cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle).
Reason :- First compound of Kreb's cycle is citric acid and in this acid 3 carboxylic groups (COOH)
are found -

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

89) In a typical fat molecule, glycerol is attached to fatty acids with the help of the bond :-

(1) Amide bond

(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Ester bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

90) Given below are two statements : Statement-I : The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse
polymerisation only in one direction that is 3' → 5'.
Statement-II : The DNA dependent DNA polymerase on their own cannot initiate the process of
replication.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 1 3 4 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 2 2 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 1 2 4 4 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Using the method of dimensions

[E] ∝ [P]a [A]b [T]c
⇒ [ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]a [L2]b[T]c
⇒ a = 1, a + 2b = 2, c – a = – 2
Solving a = 1, b = 1/2, c = –1

2)

Work done = Area under the graph from x = 0 to x = 4 = 25 J

3)

4)
Conservation of linear momentum,

M2V = M1V' + M2V'

Conservation of mechanical energy

M2V2=(M1+M2)(V')2 + Kx2

M2V2=(M1+M2) × + Kx2

OR

5) Weight of the body = Weigth of the liquid displaced

In water

...(i)
In liquid,
..(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii), we get

kg m–3
= 800 kg m–3.

6)
Point 1 to 2

y = 2h

7)

8)

WB = T1 = 0.25 × 100 = 25 N

9) Precision for a set of measurement is seen by least count of instrument.

10) Here, K1 = K2, l1 = l2 = 1m

A1 = 2A, A2 =A
T1 = 100°C and T2 = 70°C
∴ Temperature at C be T, then
or T = 90°C

11) FLOT

110 = 40 + W
W = + 70 J

12) K (A2 – x2) =

⇒ A2 – x2 =

⇒ A2 =

⇒x= A = 0.87 A

∴ × 100% = 87
⇒ x = 87

13)

Areal speed is constant.

If shaded areas are equal then t1 = t2

14) y1 = asin(ωt + kx + 0.57)

∴ Phase, ϕ1 = (ωt + kx + 0.57)

y2 = acos(ωt + kx) = asin(ωt + kx + )

∴ Phase, ϕ2 = ωt + kx +
Phase difference, Δϕ = ϕ2 – ϕ1

15) Newton First Law

16) = + =

Its magnitude is
17)

COM of :

Semicircular Disc =

Semicircular Ring =

Solid hemisphere =

Hemispherical shell =

18)

(2 × 3) + (1 × 4) = (2 + 1)

m/s

19)

m = 2kg
u = 5 ms–1
I = FΔt = Δp = Area under curve

pf – pi = × 20 × 10
pf = 100 + 2 × 5 = 110 N. sec

20)

21)

ε = πμ Volt

22) qE = qvB
v = E/B

{and }

R=

23) = volt
24)

25)

26) Vi = V0 sinωt

Ii = I0 sin (ωt – ) = – I0 cosωt

instantaneous power (P) = ViIi
P = –V0I0 sinωt cosωt

P=– sin2ωt (∵ 2 sinθcosθ = sin2θ)

So angular frequency = 2ω

27)

I=

28)

[Link] force = –P.E.

29)

30)

If no current flows through 5V battery, then potential difference across f and e is 5V. So
potential difference across d and c is also 5V.

31) Since aperture of lens reduces so brightness will reduce but there will be no effect on size
of image.

32)

r1 + r2 = 90
r2 = iC
r1 = 90 – ic
Snell's law on first surface
sini = µsinr1
sini = µcosic

For µmax sin2i = 1

So,

33)

After touching & separation of spheres

34)

(I – ig) S = igG

S= = 0.02 Ω
35)

For – ve half cycle diode R.B. So NO current how in circuit voltage across resistance is zero.
For +ve half mole diode is F.B. current flow we obtained output across load resistan
resistance.

36) a sinθ = Δ
a sinθ = nλ

...(1)

...(2)
(1)/(2)

37)

P.d. across 4μF

–4 × 1 – 2 × 1 + v1 = 0 ⇒ v1 = 6V
P.d. across 5 μF
–2 × 1 – 4 × 1 + V2 = 0 ⇒ V2 = 6V
Energy stored in 4μF & 5μF

38) So no. of
39)

40) I1 =

I2 = cos2θ

I3 = cos2 (90 – θ)

= sin2θ cos2θ

= sin2 2θ

41)

Rest mass of parent nucleus is always greater than the product. So rest mass energy is also
higher.

42)
ρ' = ρ

43)

44) Question Explanation :

Explain the formation of the depletion layer at the p-n junction in a semiconductor.
Concept :
This is based on the formation of the p-n junction.
Explanation:
At the junction, there's a high concentration of holes in the p-type region and electrons in the
n-type region.
And the holes diffuses from the p-side to the n-side, and electrons diffuse from the n-side to the
p-side leaving behind immobile ionized impurities
Thus a layer is formed called a diffusion layer at the junction.

45) Energy stored in the capacitor

Q = CV = 900 × 10–12 F × 100V

Energy of the capacitor when fully charged

 The total charge is conserved. In figure (b), total capacitance = C' = 2 × C = 2 × 900 pF.

∴ Final energy =
∴ Final energy

CHEMISTRY

46)

ΔHeg ⇒ Cl > F > Br > I

⇒ S > Se > Te > Po > O

47)

NaCl + Conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7 → CrO2Cl2

chromyl chloride

49)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104

51)

and
∴ t = 10 min.

52) NCERT XII Part I Pg # 39 Intext Que. 2.5

53)

= (1.18 – 0.14) – 0.03 log

= 1.04 – 0.03 log10 = 1.01 volt
ΔG= – n F Ecell
 = – 2 × 96500 × 1.01
= – 194.93 KJ

54) B. Given Data: C. Concept:

A. IUPAC Nomenclature for Organic Compounds with Multiple Functional Groups: When
a compound has more than one functional group, a priority order determines the parent name
and the suffixes/prefixes used.
B. Priority Order: Carboxylic acids (-COOH) have higher priority than nitriles (-CN) and amines
(-NH2).
C. Nitrile as a Substituent: When a nitrile is not the principal functional group, it is named as a
"cyano" substituent.
D. Amine as a Substituent: When an amine is not the principal functional group, it is named as
an "amino" substituent.

D. Answer Explanation: 1. Identify the Main Functional Group: The

compound contains a carboxylic acid (-COOH), a nitrile (-CN), and an amine (-NH2). Carboxylic acids
have the highest priority, so the parent name will be based on the carboxylic acid.
2. Number the Carbon Chain: Start numbering from the carboxylic acid carbon (which gets the
number 1). The chain is six carbons long, making the parent chain "hexanoic acid."
3. Identify and Name Substituents:

A. At carbon 3, there is an amino group (-NH2), making it "3-amino."

B. At carbon 4, there is a cyano group (-CN), making it "4-cyano."

4. Combine the Parts: Combine the substituent names alphabetically with the parent chain name:
"3-amino-4-cyanohexanoic acid."
The correct IUPAC name is 3-amino-4-cyanohexanoic acid
E. Final Answer: (Option 1).

56) fact

57) Statement (I) :

It is false statement because NaBH4 cannot reduces ester.

Statement (II) : Ester is more reactive than aldehyde towards nucleophile.
It is a false statement because ester is less reactive than aldehyde to wards nucleophile due to
+M effect of –OR group

which reduced the electrophilicity of group.

∴ Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

58) is the best nucleophile in the polar aprotic solvent like DMF.

60)

Heat of hydrogenation ∝

61)

2NH3 → N2 + 3H2
10L 5L 15L
Change in volume = 20 – 10 = 10L

62) Greater the value of (n + ℓ) more will be the energy of orbital. If two orbitals have same (n
+ ℓ) value then the orbital having greater n value have greater energy.

64)

S – S– → Exothermic process
O– → O–2 Endothermic process
Sr → Sr+2 Endothermic process
(inert gas configuration)
–
N → N (Half filled configuration)

65)

66)
⇒ Covalent and coordinate bonds are present.

67)

CaCO3 CaO + CO2

(A) (B) (C)
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
(B) (D)
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 ↓
(D) (C) (Milky)
68)

69) = 560 .....(1)

= 550 .....(2)

(1) – (2) ×

= 120 ⇒ = 600
From eq (1) = 400

70) ΔfH = 81.46 – 2 × 285.78 – (–367.54)

= 449 – 571.56
= –112.56 kJ

71)

74)

75)

76) NCERT XII, Pg. # 359

Aldehyde, Ketone

78) 10–8 M HCl ⇒ slightly less than 7

10–2 M NaOH ⇒ [OH–] = 10–2
pOH = 2
pH = 14 – 2 = 12
10–2 M CH3COOH ⇒ CH3COOH is a weak acid so, pH will be less than 2
At 25°C, pH of pure water is 7.

79) For the reaction having Δng = 0, change in volume of system at equilibrium does not alter
number of moles of reactants and products but concentration changes.

80) Mn3O4 →

(+6)

vf of Mn3O4 = × 3 = 10
Q = mole × vf = 0.2 × 10 = 2 F

81) [A]t = [A]0 – kt

0 = [A]0 – kt

85)

86) X →

Y→

M&N→ ​

88) MnO4– + H2C2O4 → Mn2+ + CO2

v.f. 5 2
meq. of KMnO4 = meq. of H2C2O4
M1 × V1 × Vf = M2 × V2 × Vf
0.25 × 20 × 5 = 0.1 × V2 × 2

V2 = = 12.5 mL
 89) π1 = π2
i1C1RT = i2C2RT

x = 1.2

90) (i) and (iii) are correct.

As2S3 is negatively and Fe(OH)3 is positively charged solution.
Lyophilic sols are highly solvated.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT E & H Pg.#101

92)

NCERT Pg. # 112

94)

NCERT XI # 52

95) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 57

97) NCERT, Pg # 47, 49

98)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 57

101) NCERT Page No. # 201

102) NCERT, Pg # 271

104)

NCERT XI Pg # 321

105) NCERT XI Page No. # 294

106) NCERT-Page No. 316

109) NCERT-XII, Pg # 47

110)

111) NCERT Pg # 46

112) NCERT XII, Page # 61

113) NCERT-XII, Pg # 45

114) NCERT-XII, Pg # 64

115) NCERT Page-62

116)

NCERT XII Page No. # 118, 119, 124

117) NCERT Page No. # 151, 152

118) NCERT Page No. # 147

120) NCERT-XII Pg. # 152, 154

121) NCERT XII, Pg.# 129, para 7.3

123) NCERT XI Page No. # 336/338

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 230

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 227

126)

NCERT XII Pg. No :- 263

127)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 267

128) NCERT XII Pg#242-243

129) NCERT-XII Pg. # 243

132)

133) NCERT-XII, Pg # 234,235,237(E),

257,258,260(H)

134)

NCERT XII Pg. # 259

135) NCERT Page No. # 164, 169

136) NCERT Page No. # 168, 169

137) NCERT Page No. # 139

138) NCERT XII Pg. # 245

139) NCERT-XII Pg. # 80

Mendel considered seed shape and seed colour in dihybrid cross which were present on non
homologous chromosomes that showed independent assortment leading to new phenatype.

140) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 76

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 107, Fig. 6.8

142) NCERT XII Pg#108-109

143) NCERT XII Pg#111

144) NCERT XII Pg # 209

145)
NCERT [Link].194

146) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199

147)

NCERT XII Pg. # 198

148)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 121, 122

149) NCERT XIIth Pg # 118, 119

150)
th
NCERT XII Pg # 97

151)

NCERT XII Pg. # 77

152)

NCERT XII Pg. # 181

153)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 100

154) NCERT, Pg # 201

155) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 10

156) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 77, 78

157) NCERT Page # 211 & 213

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 39

159) NCERT-XI Pg. No. 9,11

(Table 1.1)

160) NCERT-XI Pg. No. 6

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

162)

NCERT XII Pg. # 4

163) NCERT XI Pg. 92

164)

NCERT XI Pg. 91, 92

165) NCERT XI Pg # 210, Fig. 13.3 a

166) NCERT-XI Pg. # 213, 13.6.3

Water split to released proton and electrons move to reaction centre of PS-II and proton
accumulated to lumen of thylakoid, The site of splitting of water is inner side of thylakoid
membrane so proton accumulated in lumen.

167) NCERT XI Pg: 236

168) NCERT-XI Pg. # 232

169) NCERT-XI, Pg # 248

170) NCERT XII, Pg. # 21

171) NCERT-XI Pg. # 21

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32, 33, 40

Chara, Spirogyra, Volvox

173) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 28, 31, 36

174)
NCERT XI Pg # 245, 246

175)

NCERT XI Pg. # 158

176) NCERT XI Page No. # 35, 38, 39

177) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 240, 241

178) NCERT XI Pg. # 231

180) NCERT XII, [Link].#106