SUNSHINE BULAN AND JAIDE CAGAMPAN E.

none
DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE [Link], menthol, acetophenetidine and phenol
DRUG [Link] KEY will form
[Link] alteration of the prescription in order to correct [Link] combination [Link]
or prevent therapeutic incompatability requires the [Link] E. Cementation
permission of a: C. explosive combination
[Link] D. Relative 13. the manifestation in number 12 is a result of a
[Link] [Link] [Link] incompatibility [Link]
[Link] [Link] incompatability [Link] interaction
[Link] following are guidelines for reducing drug [Link] incompatability
interaction, EXCEPT: 14. the transport of a substance from one part of the
[Link] combination therapy body to another by means of blood
[Link] properties [Link] [Link]
B. identify the patient risk factor of drugs [Link] [Link]
[Link] the patient [Link]
[Link] multiple drug therapy [Link] conversion of an optically active form to an
[Link] agents are incompatible with reducing optically inactive form is called
agents. This is a: [Link] [Link]
[Link] incompatibility [Link] a and b [Link] [Link]
B. therapeutic incompatibility [Link] [Link]
[Link] incompatibilty [Link] are functions of pharmacist, EXCEPT
[Link] following are manifestations of chemical [Link] information [Link]
incompatibility,EXCEPT: [Link] [Link]
[Link] [Link] of gas [Link]
[Link] [Link] 17. Skills for patients centered pharmacy practice
[Link] formation include which of the following?
[Link] precipitation of an organic substance from a A. therapeutic planning and monitoring
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are [Link] assessment skill
added is know as: [Link] skill
[Link] [Link] D. all of the above
[Link]-out [Link] E. none of the above
[Link] [Link] is concerned with
[Link] in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a A. supply of medicine
cake at the bottom of the container. This [Link] and distribution of drugs
manifestation is known as: [Link] for medicine
[Link] [Link] [Link] of medicine
[Link] [Link] [Link] of drugs
[Link] 19. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in
7.A mathemartical model for a potentiating drug accordance to the prescription given by the physician.
effect. [Link] [Link]
A.1+1=2 D.1+1=0 [Link] [Link]
B.1+1=3 E.1+1=1 [Link]
C.0+1=2 20. A prescription should be refused when
[Link] of the following is not an outcome included in A. the patient is terribly sick
the definition of pharmaceutical care? [Link] is no available delivery service
[Link] of disease of symptoms [Link] information is missing
[Link] or reduction D. it is not signed by the pharmacist
[Link] or slowing of disease procesess [Link] relative available
[Link] of disease or symptoms 21. An example of subscription.
[Link] health care costs [Link] D.250mg capsule
[Link] following are the physiologic effects of food on B.1tab q 6 hours [Link] directed
drug action,EXCEPT: [Link] well before
[Link] gastric emplying rate using
[Link] reduces absorption of tetracycline 22. a fiiled prescription for ethical drugs must be
[Link] increase absorption of paracetamol A. returned to the patient
[Link] potentiates anticoagulant [Link] for future references
[Link] C. discarded after recording
[Link]-drug interactions that occur when one drug D. forwarded to the FDA
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and E. kept by the patient
excretion of the drug. 23. Which of the following correctly applies to this
[Link] interactions group of drugs products? Paracetamol 325mg tablet,
[Link] interactions Cortal 323mg tablet and Alvedon 325mg tablet.
[Link] interactions [Link] are generecally equivalent
[Link] interactions [Link] are brand names
[Link] interactions [Link] are OTC drugs
[Link] and cigarettes are potent enzyme [Link] are prescription drugs
inducers. As consequence [Link] are non prescription drugs
[Link] needs to increase the dose of drug 24. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
[Link] lead to drug tolerance A. freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be
[Link] is an ADR used when making suspensions.
[Link] of the above B. all suspensions will attract a 4 week discard date
C. all suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle 36. In selection of the proper package or container,
[Link] containing a suspending agent do not the pharmacist chooses the container that
need a direction to shake the bottle. [Link] the product stability
E. None [Link] with the legal requirements
25. Active listening consist of which of the following [Link] patient compliance
tasks? D. all of the above
A. focusing on what the other person says E. None of these
B. assesing the way the other person communicates [Link] a drug interaction, the drug whose action is
C. convenying an open, relaxed and unhurried affected by the combination with other drug, foods, or
attitude chemicals is called
D. all of the above A. object drug [Link] drug
E. None of the above B. precipitant drug E. None
26. Which of the following drugs is indicated as C. interactant drug
uterine relaxant for woman in labor [Link] the drug interaction, the drug causing the
A. ephedrine D. metaproterenol interaction is called the
B terbutaline E. None A. target drug [Link] drug
C. Isoethane [Link] drug [Link] drug
27. A STAT order means that the drug should be [Link] drug
administered 39. When two interacting drugs results to the
A. As needed by the patient D. Before surgery alteration of ADME, it is classified as
[Link] E. After an hour A. pharmacokinetic interaction
C. before sleep B. pharmacodynamic interaction
28. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of C. therapeutic interaction
the drug metabolized in the liver D. physical incompatibility
A a first pass effect D. Pharmacokinetics E. therapeutic incompatibility
B. drug receptor Interaction E NONE 40. Which branch of pharmacology studies the way
C. biotransformation drug works in the body
29. Milk and other Dairy products__________the A. Pharmacotherapeutics D. Pharmacodynamics
absorption of tetracycline and fluoroquinolones. B. Pharmacokinetics E. ADR
A. increase [Link] of the given choices C. Drug interactions
B. decrease [Link] 41. While teaching a patient about drug therapy for
[Link] not effect diabetes, you review the absorption, distribution,
30. levodopa-carbidopa combination has the popular metabolism and excretion of insulin and oral
brandname. antidiabetic agents. Which principle of pharmacology
[Link] [Link] are you describing?
B. Sinemet E. Voltaren A. Pharmcokinetics D. Drug potency
C. Dilantin B. Pharmcodynamics E. Alternative therapy
31. Problems that occur when two or more drugs are C. Pharmacotherapeutics
administered to a patient and the patient response is 42. A patient asked why he’s taking antibiotics for an
different from the intended are known ulcer. The pharmacist explains that antibiotics will
A. drug interactions [Link] Aand C A. destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
[Link] incompatibilities E. All B. destroy the virus causing the ulcer
[Link] incompatibilities C. prevent infection from entering through open areas
32. Which of the following factors may contribute to in the gastric mucosa
the occurence of a drug interaction? D. prevent infection occuring.
I. multiple pharmacologic effects E. None of the above
II. drug abuse 43. When caring for a patient taking a
[Link] prescriber hydrochlorothiazide, you should monitor the patient
A. I and III D.I,II and III for
B. I only E. II and only A. hypertension D. Hypoglycemia
C. I and II B. hypernatremia E. None of the above
33. What would be the appropriate auxillary label one C. hypokalemia
can cause use in dispensing dispersed system? 44. What’s the difference between a sedative and a
A. For external use only [Link] B and C hypnotic?
B. Store in a cool dry place E. all A. sedatives produces physical dependence,
C. Shake the bottle before using hypnotics don’t
34. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing B. sedatives reduces anxiety or excitement, hypnotic
prescription induce sleep.
A. Check the legal requirements C. sedatives require larger doses than hypnotics to
B. Dispense the correct product produce desired doses
C. Provide patient advice D. sedatives increase anxiety, hypnotics reduce
D. Inaptness of the prescription anxiety.
E. all E. none
35. In evaluating the appropriateness of the 45. Barriers to verbal communication are minimized in
prescription and medication order, the pharmacist which of the following settings?
should check the following EXCEPT A. The interview takes place through a window with
A. the patient’s disease or condition security bars.
B. the prescribed route of administration B. The interview takes place in front of three of the
C. the biological action of the prescribed product patients roomates.
D. the auxilary and cautionary labels C. The interview is conducted over the telephone
E. none
D. The patient is interviewed in a private consultation A. Furosemide D. Mannitol
office B. Spironolactone E. Acetaminophen
E. The patient is interviewed throug a drive in window. C. Acetazolamide
46. Which of the following drugs is found to be 59. Factors that contribute to the occurence of drug
mucolytic or reduces viscosity of mocous? interactions.
A. Dextromethorphan D. Benzonate A. Self medication D. All of the above
B. Acetylcysteine E. Benzocaine B. Use of OTC drugs E. None of the above
C. Terbutaline C. multiple prescribers
[Link] of the following is a cough expectorant? 60. What mechanism does of Bisacodyl interacts with
A. Guiafenesin D. Diphenhydramine milk?
B. Dextromethorphan E. None of these A. alteration of pH [Link] of motility rate
C. Benzonatate B. Complexation E. Conjugation
48. Used to dispense semi solid dosage form C. adsorption
A. sifter type container [Link] mouth bottles 61. A patient came to a drugstore and asked for
B. slide boxes E. Round vials Bisacodyl for his constipation. Upon asking his current
C. collapsible tubes/ointment jar medication, the pharmacist knew that the patient is in
49. If the prices of the prescriptions counts based on antacid therapy. Which of the following should the
the percent marked up. What would be the dispensing pharmacist tell to patient?
price of a drug that costs $20.00? Assume that mark A. He can take both drugs rigth after meal
up is 50%. B. Take the other drug at least one hour or two hours
A. $10 D.$ 35 after intake of the first drug
B $25 E. $ 20 C. Follow the intake of laxative with milk for enhanced
C. $ 30 effect.
50. Substance which absorb moisture from air but not D. Any of these.
in the dissolve are called E. None of the above
A. hygroscopic powders D. Anhydrous powders 62. This the body or the pricipal part of prescription
B. effervescent powders E. Amorphous powder order contains the names and quatities of the
C. deliquescent powders prescribed ingredient.
51. A smoker was prescribed with Diazepam. What A. Subcription D. Signa
would likely happen if he continously smokes while on B. Inscription E. Transcription
the drug therapy? C. Superscription
A. enhanced. effect of the drug 63. Type of packaging incopatibility caused by the
B. decrease effectiveness of the drug migration of substance from the packaging material
C. no effect into the drug product
D. delayed elemination of the drug A. sorption D. Lamination
E. none of the above B. permeation E. Transfer
52. It is the movement of drug molecules across C. leaching
different body compartments. 64. Loop diuregtics like furosemide inhibit sodium and
A. Distribution D. Absorption chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, promoting
B. Liberation E. None of the above water excretion. This agent may cause
C. Excretion A. hypecalcemia D. All of the above
53. Which of the following factors affect drug B. hypermagnesemia E. None of the above
distribution in the body? C. hypokalemia
A. Drug structure D. All of the above 65. Phenomenon by which drug can exist in more
[Link] permeability E. None of the above than one crystalline form.
C. Blood flow A. vaporization D. Polymorphism
54. The degradation of Aspirin to salycylic acid and B. votalization E. Reduction
acetic acid in the presence of water is generally C. oxidation
known as: 66. Heroine, morphine and opiuum are classified as
A. oxidation D. Empimerization A. Prohibited drugs. [Link] drugs
B. hydrolysis E. Lyophilization B. Regulated drugs E. All of the above
C. photolysis C. Exempt regulated drugs
55. Which of the following committees should review 67. Which of the following is NOT an example of live
the reported adverse drug reaction (ADR)? attenuated vaccine?
A. FDA D. DDB A. measles D. Mumps
B. P and T committee E. PRC B. diptheria E. None of the above
C. FTC C. rubella
56. The concept of drug interaction includes 68. the major biotransformation of drug in humans is
I. Drug food interactions the
II. Drug laboratory interactions A. Spleen D. Intestines
III Drug disease interaction B. Liver E. Stomach
A. I only D. I and III C. Kidney
[Link] only E. I, II, and III 69. Which of the following anesthetics is useful for
C. III only producing a short term anesthesia?
57. It is the transfer of a drug from its site of A. Lidocaine D. Nitrous oxide
administration to the bloodstream. B. Thiopental sodium E. None of the above
A. Distribution D. Absorption C. Chloroform
B. Liberation E. Elimination 70. Drugs loss due to drug and excipients with high
C. Excretion vapor pressure.
58. Which of the following drug is classified as Loop A. Polymorphism D. Gelatinization
diuretics. B. Volatilization E. None of the above
C. Racemization 85. Petition for favor of healing and warning from
71. Cyanocobalmine is a/an great care and precaution
A. Steroid D. Enzyme A. Rx D. Mark thou
B. hallucinogen E. Narcotic B. Signa E. As directed
C. Vitamin C. Magistral pharmacy
72. The first dose syncope is normally reported with 86. Amlodipine is classified as
A. Prazosin D. Captopril A. Beta blocker D. Vasodilator
B. Hydralazine E. None of the above B. Ace inhibitor E. None of the above
C. Minoxidil C. Calcium channel blocker
73. Which of the following is NOT a water soluble 87. Principal site of drug metabolism
vitamin? A. Liver D. Intestines
A. Thiamine D. Pyridoxine B. kidney E. Heart
B. Vitamin D E. None of the above C. stomach
C. Niacin 88. Which of the following antifungal is/are useful in
74. The factor in compounding prescription is cadidiasis?
A. Equipment D. Chemical and supplies I. Traconazole
B. Stability E. Environment’ II. Clotrimazole
C. Training and experience III. Nystatin
75. The degradation of aspirin involves A. I only D. I and III
A. Hydrolysis D. Photolysis B. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. Racemization E. None of the above C. II and III
C Oxidation 89. Occur immediately upon compounding like
76. Occurs when one drug increases the action of presence of precipitate, effervescence color changes
another drug A. Minor incompatibility [Link]
A. Potentiation D. Incopatability incompatibility
B. Antagonism E. None of the above B. Delayed incompatibility E. All of the above
C. Summation C. Immediate incompatibility
77. When the response of a patient in to one or more 90. Remedy when a solid substance fail to dissolve in
drugs is different nature than that intended by the a liquid.
prescriber is called A. Addition of inert ingredients
A. Antagonistic incompatability B. Prepare an emulsion
B. Chemical incompatability C. prepare a suspension
C. Therapeutic incompatability D. dispense the ingredients separately
D. Physical incompatability E. none of the above
E. None of the above 91. Route of drug administration where are drug are
78. The reaction between sodium biacarbonate and applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly in
aspirin would result to. the systemic circulation
A. Formation of precipitate [Link] changes A. Transdermal D. Rectal
B. Evolution of gas [Link] changes B. inhalation E. Sublingual
C. Hydrolytic changes C. Buccal
79. when an oxidizing agent is tritated in a mortar with 92. Which of the following does not cause therapeutic
a reducing agent, this would likely result to. incompatibility
A. Formation of damp mass A. Errors in pricing D. Storage errors
B. Discoloration of powders B. Dosage form errors E. None of the above
C Violent explosion C. Prescription writing errors
D. Volatilization of ingredients 93. An auxilary label, EXCEPT
E. Formation of heat A. Do not repeat. D. Opthalmic use
80. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is B. For external use E. None of the above
due to C. Shake well before using
A. Ozone D. Oxygen 94. Mathematical model for synergism
B. Acetanilide E. Hydrogen A. 1+1 = 2 D. 1+1 =0
C. Peroxidase B. 1+1 = 3 E. 1+1 = 1
[Link] of the label that is most likely to be presented, C. 0+1 = 2
shown or examined under customary for display for 95. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes
reatail sale. A. Anabolic steroids D. Vitamins
A. Outer label D. Auxilary label B. Dexamethasone E. None of the above
B. Principal display panel E. All of the above C. Antibiotics
C. Inner label 96. The suffix FR ( Alaxan FR) means
82. Instruction for patient in taking the medication. A. Fine release D. For release
A. Transcription D. Subscription B. Fast release E. None of the above
B. Inscription E. Signa C. Form release
C. Superscription 97. Migration of drug into a container
83. Patient-related decision factors A. Sorption D. Vaporization
A. Age D. Past medication use B. leaching E. None of the above
B. Duration of the condition E. All of the above C. Permeation
C. Demographic variables 98. Causes mydriasis by blocking the
84. Breakdown of tablets into smaller particles or parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of
granules is defined as the process of the iris
A. Disintegration D. Granulations A. Atropine D. Pilocarpine
B. Dissolution E. Trituration B. Lidocaine E. None of these
C. Rupturization C. Procaine
99. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism A. Generally display mild symptoms
A. Diazepam D. Disulfiram B. Are always easily recognized
B. Flumazenil E. Lorazepam C. Are problems that are easily medically managed
C. Zolpidem D. All of the above
100. Illustrate the drug margin of safety E. None of the above
A. therapeutic index D. Effective dose 111. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What
B. Pharmacologic category E. Normal dose would likely to happen if he continously smokes while
C. Safety index on drug therapy
101. Medication order differ fro prescription order in A. enhanced the effect of drug
which following ways? They B. decreased the effect of the drug
A. are intended for ambulatory use C. no effect
B. contain only the generic name of the medication D. delayed elimination of the drug
C. are intended for institutional use E. none of the above
D. may be transmitted electronically 112. These reactions involves the interaction of IgG or
E. contain the quantity of the medication to be IgM. Clinical manifestations of this type of reaction
dispensed. include hemplytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and
102. If a therapeutic intervention is necessary, all of granulocytopenia.
the following information should be communicated to A. cytotoxic reactions
the prescriber, EXCEPT B. anaphylactic reactions
A. a declaration that “a mistake is made” C. Immune-complex-mediated reactions
B. a brief description of the problem D. cell-mediated reactions
C. a reference that documents the problem E. all of the above
D. an alternative or suggestion to resolve the problem 113 What specific effect exemplified in the use of an
E. a description of the clinical significance of the adrenal corticoid to enhance the vasoconstrictor
problem response to epinephrine?
103. The following information should be recorded on A. Additive D. Antagonism
the prescription EXCEPT the B. Synergism E. All of the abive
A. Prescription number [Link] and the quantity C. Potentiation
B. Date of filling [Link] initiate 114. This is the phenomenon in which the
C. expiration date physiological and/or physiological response to a
104. A prescription label should contain all of the substance is decreased with continous use of the
following EXCEPT the same dose of the substance
A. Quantity dispensed D. Expiration date A. Tolerance D. Insanity
B. Lot number E. Presccriber’s name B. Dependence E. All of the above
C. Patient’s diagnosis C. Withdrawal
105. auxilary and cautionary label should be utilized 115. Cimetidine will cause
for all the following purposes EXCEPT to [Link] of absorption [Link] of elimination
A. Substitute for verbal consultation [Link] of distribution [Link] a and b
B. ensure proper usage [Link] of the metabolism
C. inform storage requirements 116. Cimetidine-Propranolol combination results in
D. comply with regulatory requirements A. Inhibition of drug metabolism
E. warn against the concomitant use of certain drugs B. Hepatic enzyme induction
or foods C. Competition for protein binding sites
106. The following item are essential for a patient D. Both a and b
profile system EXCEPT; E. Both b and c
A. The patients name 117. Smoking which stimulates drug metabolizing
B. The prescriber’s DEA registration number hepatic enzymes result in
C. The patient’s allergies A. an increase in pharmacologic effect of the drug
D. The patient birth date B. a decrease in the pharmacologic effect of the drug
E. instruction for medication use C. a longer duration of action of the drug
107. The following are drug- related problems D. a slower rate of excretion of the drug
EXCEPT E. all of the above
A. An adverse effect in the medication 118. Warfarin and vitamin K interacts by;
B. Symptoms due to under treatment A. Antagonism D. No interaction
C. A drug- drug interactions B. Synergitism E. Addition
D. An undiagnosed condition C. Potentiation
E. An allergic reaction to a medication 119. The act of pharmacist in supplying one or more
[Link] the following definition ‘one is noxious and drugs to/or to a patient, usually in supply response to
unintented and which occurs at doses normally used an order from a doctor
in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy or A. administering D. Dispensing
disease, or for the modification of physiological B. Procuring E. None of the above
function desribes C. Prescribing
A. as side effect D. Both a and b 120. Teratogenic drug cause physical defects in the
B. an adverse drug reaction E. Both b and c developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is
C. an adverse drug event characterized if adequate, well controlled studies in
109. Type A reaction are characterized by which of pregnant women have not shown an increased risk of
the following fetal abnormalities?
[Link] reactions D. All of the above A. Category A D. Category D
B.a function of patient susceptibilityE. None of these B. Category B E. Category X
C. caused by a drug-drug interactions C. Category C
110. Preventable ADR’s
121. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in the C. Osteopathy
developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is 134. The following are possible remedies for
characterized if the use of the product is liquefication of solid substance except
contraindicated in women who are may become A. Triturate separately and mix by tumbling
pregnant. B. Add adsorbents to liquid combination
A. Category A D. Category D C. Dispense powder separately
B. Category B E. Category X D, Incorporate cotton in packaging
C. Category C E. None of the above
122. Extension effect of Lidocaine 135. Drugs bound to plasma protein are considered;
A. Electyrolyte imbalance D. Arrythmia A. Pharmacologically active [Link] drugs
B. Hypoglycemia E. Anorexia B. Pharmacologically inactive E. All of the above
C. Bleeding C. Free drugs
123. In the stomach, which drug would exist in it non- 136. The following arev true regarding
ionized form? incompatibilities except.
A. Aspirin D. Hormones A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing,
B. chlorpheramine E. All of the above and drug administration
C. Dextroamphetamine B. Easier to correct than to prevent
124. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR? C. Maybe intentional
A. Type A. D. Type D D. Must be recognized by pharmacist
B. Type B E. Type E E. None of the above
C. Type C 137. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, filipinos
125. Anaphylaxis is; are considered:
A. Type A. D. Type D A. Fast acetylators [Link] as the caucasians
B. Type B E. Type E B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above
C. Type C C. Neither slow nor fast
126. The intake of phenelzine with cheddar or pickled 138. The following are true regarding
fish might result to; biotransformation except
A. Hypertensive crisis D. Hypotension A. Occurs after drug distribution
B. Sedation E. Both b and c B. Converts polar to non-polar drugs
C. Hypoglycemia C. Converts lipohilic gto hydrophilic
127. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in; D. Can influence drug elimination
A. Anemia D. Addison’s disease E. None
B. Hypertension E. None of the above 139. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
C. Parkinson’s disease have a casual relationship with the treatment is called
128. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug an/a
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and A. Both ba & c D. ADR
excretion of the drug. B. Therapeutic incompatibility E. Both C and D
A. Pharmacokinetic interactions [Link] of the above C. Adverse drug event
B. Pharmacologic interactions [Link] 140. The transport of a substance from one part of the
C. Pharmacodynamic interactions body to another by means of blood
129. Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug A. Absorption D. Excretion
such in Warfarin-Phenylburazone interactions result B. Distribution E. Storage
in: C. Metabolism
A. Hemorrhage 141. The presence of food in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Increased concentration of warfarin will most likely to reduce the absorption of some
C. Decreased activity of warfarin’ drugs like;
D. Both a and b A. Griseofulvin D. Vancomycin
E Both a and c B. Tetracycline E. Erythromycin
130. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme C. Amoxicillin
inducers. As consequence, 142. The degradation reaction of ASA involves
A. One need to increase dose of drug A. Hydrolysis D. Reduction
B. This lead to drug tolerance B. Oxidation E. Conjugation
C. This is an ADR C. Racemization
D. All of the above 143. The unsual result of triturating camphor +
E. none of the above menthol
131. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug A. Eutectuic mixture D. Hygroscopic mixture
reactions except; B. Solidification E. Synergistic effect
A. Congenital hypersensitivities C. Lowering of the melting point
B. Genetic or hereditary in origin 144. Extension/s effect of furosemide
C. Metabolic abnormality A. Electrolyte imbalance D. Both A & B
D. All of the above B. Hypoglycemia E. Both B & C
E. none of the above C. Bleeding
132. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction cause 145. The precipitation of an organic substance from a
by sulfonamides saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
A. Parkinson’s disease D. Contact dermititis added known as:
B. Steven Johnson syndrome E. Both a and b A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia
C. Hypertension B. salting out E. Hygroscopy
133. Providing the correct medicines at the right time C. Racemization
at the right dose and using the right patient is; 146. This refers to the distributing effects resulting
A. Pharmacy care D. Homeopathy from cessation of or reduction in the prolonged or
B. Rational drug therapy E. Both a and b heavy use of a substance.
A. Tolerance D. insanity 158. Standards for chemical being used in
B. Dependence E. All of the above extemporaneous compounding are found in the:
C. Withdrawal
147. This refers to the physiological or psychological A. FDA Good D. Merck index
adaptions taht occur in response to the frequent Manufacturing Process
administration of the drug B. USP/NF E. USP/DI
A. Tolerance D. Withdrawal C. Remington
B. Dependence E. Insanity
C. Both a and B 159. The active ingredient in Burrow’s solution is:
148. _________occurs when one drug increasev the
action of another drug. A. Acetic acid D. Alum
A. Potentiation D. Synergism B. Aluminium acetate E. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Antagonism E. Both A & B C. Aluminium chloride
C. Summation 160. The process of wetting Zinc Oxide with Mineral
149. Factors which affect GET; Oil in preparation for incorporation into an ointment
A. fatty food D. All of the above base is:
B. Large food particles E. None
A. Attrition D. Pulverization by
C. Cold beverages
intervention
150. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what
B. Levigation E. Tituration
mechanism
C. Milling
A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of metabolism
B. Adsorption E. Delay gastric emptying
161. The ideal weight for a vaginal suppository will be
C. Alteration of Motility Rate
approximately
151. The Primary site of absorption of orally
administered drug: A. 1g D. 10g
B. 2g E. 15g
A. Stomach D. Large intestine
C. 5g
B. Small intestine E. All of the above
C. Blood 162. A lotion formulation calls for coal tar solution.
Which of the following statements concerning coal tar
152. Side-effects to be expected with Simvastatin solution is NOT TRUE?
include:
A. Alcohol is used as a D. Solution is usually
A. Headache D. None of the above solvent diluted 1:9 with water or
B. Nausea E. All of the above ointment base
C. Abdominal pain B. L.C.D is another name E. The solution contains
of the solution only coal tar and volatile
153. Penicillin G is: solvent
A. D. Piperacillin C. The solution is for
Phenoxymethylpenicillin external use only
B. Benzylpenicillin E. Pevmecillinam 163. Methyl Salicylate is also known as:
C. Penicillin V A. Camphorated oil D. Oil of Wintergreen
154. This drug may enhance the hepatic potential of B. Peppermint oil E. Sweet oil
overdose of acetaminophen. c. Salicylamide
A. phenytion D. Vitamin E 164. Before placing a patient on a fatty oil emulsions,
B. Vitamin C E. sodium bicarbonate the clinical pharmacist should confirm that the patient
C. Silymarin does not have
155. A system that exhibit infinite viscosity A. Egg allergies D. Lactose intolerance
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system B. Sensitivities to E. Sensitivities to
B. Plastic system E. Non Newtonian disulfites tartrazine
system C. milk intolerance
C. Thixotrophy
156. Semi synthetic cellulose derivatives, except: 165. Which of the following metals is NOT included in
M.T.E- 4 or multiple trace element solutions?
A. Methylcellulose, USP D. Hydroxypropyl
cellulose A. Chromium D. Manganese
B. Carboxymthyl E. Poloxamer B. Copper E. Zinc
cellulose sodium, USP C. Iron
C. Hypromellose, USP
157. You have an anti-biotic suspension that is 166. Another trace element that the physician is likely
250mg/ml and a pediatric patient who needs 100mg. to include in TPN is
Calculate the number of millilitres of the suspension A. Lithium D. Silcon
that will contain the desired 100mg. B. Sodium E. Fluoride
A. 2ml D. 1.2ml C. Selenium
B. 2.5ml E. 1ml
C. 5.2ml 167. A dermatologist requests a prescription for
Tetracycline HCL 4% in sufficirnt Lubriderm lotion to
make 45g. How many 500mg capsule of the antibiotic C. Thixotropy
do you need for compounding this order?
176. A natural polymer, which is incompatible with
A. 1 D. 8 sodium CMC, and some drugs such as amitryptyline,
B. 3 E. 16 tamoxifen, verapanil, and aluminium hydroxide gel.
C. 4
A. Tragacanth [Link] alginate
168. Which one of the following ingredients is most B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
likely to be utilized in the formulation of a topical gel? C. Xanthan gum

A. Carbomer D. Mineral oil 177. A natural polymer that is incompatible with

B. Edetate E. Vegetable oil polyvalent ions calcium and magnesium.
C. Lanolin
A. Tragacanth [Link] alginate
169. Which of the following agents has NOT been B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
suggested as an agent to be use to eradicate C. Xanthan gum
Helicobacter pylori form the GI tract?
178. A synthetic polymer which is incompatible with
A. Clarithromycin D. Itraconazole phenol, resorcinol, and high concentration of
B. Bismuth Subsalicylate E. Tetracycline electrolytes.
c. Metronidazole
A. Carbomer D. Polyvinylpyrolidone
170. Patients taking anti-tubercular drug Rifampicin B. Poloxamer E. All of the above
should be told that the drug C. Polyvinyl alcohol

A. May cause diarrhoea D. May produce nausea 179. Flocculation or break down of the suspension
and vomiting if used with may result upon the addition of electrolytes or
alcohol positively charged suspensions.
B. May cause them to be E. Should be swallowed
sun burn more easily whole (not chewed) to A. Carboxymetylicellulose D. Colooidal silicon
prevent staining of the dioxide
teeth B. Silicon Dioxide E. bentonite
C. may impart an orange C. Microcrystalline
colour to their urine and cellulose
sweet
180. Any drug reactions which does not necessarily
171. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to have any casual relationship with the treatment is
cause called an:

A. Tinnitus D. Renal tubular necrosis A. Adverse effect D. None of the above

B. Seizure E. Pseudomembranous B. therapeutic E. All of the above
enterocolitis incompatibility
C. Hepatic necrosis C. Adverse drug event

172. Which of the following would likely to render 181. Teratogenicity is a/an:
benzalkonium chloride solution inactive?
A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
A. Acetic acid D. Sodium chlorate B. type B ADR E. None of the above
B. Pseudomonas E. Ethanol C. type C ADR
aeruginosa
C. sodium stearate 182. The following are guidelines for reducing drug
interaction except:
173. Also known as the shear thinning system
A. Employ combination D. Know properties of
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system therapy drugs
B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian B. identify patient risk E. None of the above
system factor
C. Thixotropy C. Educate the patient

174. A property which pertains to the lost of 183. Enzyme inhibition Coumarins can lead to:
consistency when shear is applied and takes a minute
of time for recovery A. Hypoglycaemia D. Convulsion
B. Profuse bleeding E. None of the above
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system C. Blood clotting
B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
system 184. Anaphylaxis is a:
C. Thixotropy
175. Also knows as the shear thickening system A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
B. type B ADR E. None of the above
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system C. type C ADR
B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
system
185. In metabolizing a standard dose INH, Filipinos A. Therapeutic D. Adverse drug reaction
are considered: incompatibility
B. Chemical E. None of the above
A. Fast acetylators D. Same as the incompatibility
Caucasians C. Physical
B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above incompatibility
C. Either slow or fast
195. Most important protein to which drug can bind in
186. The following are true about biotransformation plasma:
except:
A. Lipoprotein D. none of the above
A. Occurs after drug D. Can influence drug B. albumin E. all of the above
distribution elimination C. glycoprotein
B. Converts polar to non E. All of the above
polar drugs 196. The following are the physiologic effects on drug
C. Converts lipophylic to action except:
hydrophilic drugs
A. reduces gastric D. vegetable potentiate
187. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can lead to emptying rate anticoagulants
B. milk reduces E. all of the above
A. Anaemia D. Addison’s disease absorption
B. Hypertension E. None of the above C. tea increases
C. Parkinson’s disease absorption of
paracetamol
188. A mathematical model for potentiating drug
effects: 197. The following condition/s will amplify the activity
of cardiac glycosides:
A. 1+1=2 D.1+1=0
B. 1+1=3 E. None of the above A. hypercalcemia D. none of the above
C.1+0=2 B. hypokalemia E. all of the above
C. both A and B
189. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:
198. Drug- drug interaction that occur when, one drug
A. Pharmacologically D. bioavailable drugs alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism,
active excretion of the other drug.
B. Pharmacologically
inactive A. pharmacokinetic D. all of the above
C. Free drugs interactions
B. pharmacologic E. none of the above
190. A remedy for tablet granulation containing interaction
vitamin C: C. pharmacodynamic
interaction
A. Prepare by dry D. None of the above
granulation 199. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug such
B. Use pre coated E. All of the above as in warfarin- phenylbutazone interaction, results in:
ascorbic acid granules
C. Both A and B A. hemmorhage D. both A and B
191. The precipitation of an organic substance from a B. increased E. none of the above
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are concentration of warfarin
added is known as: C. decreased
concentration of warfarin
A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia
B. Salting out E. All of the above 200. A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused
C. Racemization by sulfonamide:
192. Acacia in the presence of bismuth salts can form A. parkinson’s disease D. contact dermatitis
a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This B. steven johnson’s E. none of the above
manifestation is known as: syndrome
C. hypertension
A. Gelatinization D. Cementation
B. Hydrolysis E. None of the above 201. chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug
C. Emulsification reaction:

A. agranulocytosis D. none of the above

193. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will B. gray baby syndrome E. all of the above
form: C. both A and B
A. Eutectic combination D. Both A and B
202. A physiological state resulting from drug
B. Liquefication E. None of the above
administration:
C. Explosive combination
A. drug dependence D. drug tolerance
194. The manifestation in no.19 is a result of a: B. drug habituation
C. drug addiction 211. The conversion of an optically active form to an
optically inactive form is called:

203. An ADR experienced as a consequence of A. polymorphism D. enantiomorphism

receiving an inappropriate high dose of the drug due B. racemization E. all of the above
to patient characteristics: C. polymerization

A. idiosyncratic D. type D
B. extension effect E. none of the above 212. Precipitation can be:
C. side effect
A. physical incompatibility D. A or B
B. chemical E. none of the above
204. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis incompatibility
C. adverse drug reaction
A. epinephrine inj. D. antibiotic
B. aspirin E. all of the above
C. antihistamine 213. An impossible prescription is described by the
following, except:

205. Side effects of streptomycin: A. only the generic name D. the generic name is
is written but not legible not legible and the brand
A. headache D. none of the above name is written legibly
B. dryness of mouth E. all of the above B. both generic and E. none of the above
C. ototoxicity brand names are not
legible
C. the generic name does
206. The following is/are true regarding absorption of not correspond to the
salicylic acid: brand name
A. non-ionized from is D. absorption is
more lipid soluble & increased when taken 214. Providing the correct medicine at the right time,
absorbable with an antacid at the right dose and using the right route of
B. ionized form is more E. all of the above administration to the right patient is:
lipid soluble & absorbable
C. polar form is more A. primary care D. homeopathy
readily absorbed B. rational drug therapy E. none of the above
C. osteopathy
207. The transport of a substance from one part of the
body to another by means of blood: 215. Which of the following is not true about adverse
drug reaction?
A. absorption D. excretion
B. distribution E. all of the above A. it is a significant cause D. the suffering that the
C. metabolism of morbidity and mortality patient experience
to patients of all areas of because of the drug
health care today related events cannot be
208. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral quantified
contraceptives can lead to: B. it has been estimated E. none of the above
that from 1/3 to as high
A. decreased D. none of the above
as ½ of ADR’s are not
Phenobarbital action
preventable
B. increased E. all of the above
C. the institute of
contraceptive action
medicine reported in
C. unreliable
January 2000 that an
contraception
estimated 7000 deaths
occur each year as a
209. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of result of medication error
the drug metabolized in the liver:

A. first pass effect D. pharmacokinetics 216. Which of the following description of type A ADR
B. drug receptor E. none of the above is not true?
interaction
A. it is an extension of the D. it is predictable
C. biotransformation
drugs known
pharmacology
210. The only insulin preparation that can be given B. it is dose dependent E. all of the above
intravenously is: C. it is generally serious
and life threatening
A. lente insulin D. potassium zinc insulin
B. semilente insulin E. all of the above
C. ultralente insulin 217. All of the following are type B reactions, except:

A. idiosyncratic reaction D. drug drug interaction

B. immunological reaction E. carcinogenic
interaction
C. teratogenic interaction 226. Pigmented retinopathy is hughly associated with:

A. chlorpromazine D. haloperidol
218. Reporting of adverse reactions that are serious, B. thioridazine E. none of the above
even if causality is not proven, includes: C. clozaril

A. a patient’s death that D. congenital anomaly

is not suspected of being 227. The increase in mutual solubility of two partially
a direct outcome of ADR miscible liquids by the addition of a third substance is
B. not life threatening E. none of the above defined as:
disease
C. listed in the A. catalyst D. levigation
manufacturer’s insert as B. blending E. none of the above
a known side effect C. promoter

219. It is the process of degradation of ionic 228. Which of the following factors does not affect the
compounds into cations and anions in the presence of flow properties of a particle?
water is defined as:
A. porosity D. density
A. salvation D. degradation B. shape E. none of the above
B. hydration E. all of the above C. color
C. activation
229. The principal adverse effect of clozanil:
220. What happens to the solubility of alcohol as the
A. hypotension D. renal failure
molecular weight of alcohol increases?
B. hypertrichosis E. all of the above
A. reduces D. insoluble in water C. agranulocytosis
B. increases E. all of the above
C. remain unchanged
230. Which of the following salts produces an acidic
solution?
221. The degradation of penicillin G procaine is
A. salt of weak acid with D. salt of strong acid with
highest in:
strong base weak base
A. solution D. tablet B. salt of strong acid with E. all of the above
B. suspension E. all of the above strong base
C. elixir C. salt of weak acid with
weak base

222. Hypertrichosis is generally associated with the

use of: 231. All of the following drugs are teratogenic in
nature and should be avoided by pregnant women,
A. hydralazine D. clonidine except:
B. minoxidil E. all the above
C. methyldopa A. finasterine D. lithium carbonate
B. triretinoine E. all of the above
C. benztropine
223. An overdose of sodium nitroprusside generally
causes:
232. Which of the following is the principal adverse
A. severe hypotension D. severe edema effect of anabolic steroid?
B. hypertension E. all of the above
C. renal failure A. hypercholesteronemia D. anutia
B. peliosis hepatitis E. all of the above
C. amennorrhea
224. Which of the following is a common side effect of
metolazone?
233. Which of the following diabetic agent has the
A. seizure D. neuroleptic malignant greatest risk of hepatotoxicity?
syndrome
B. electrolyte loss E. all of the above A. metformin D. insulin
C. SLE B. troglitazone E. none of the above
C. glyburide

225. Which of the following may not cause hemolysis

in patients with G6PD deficiency? 234. Severe headaches are commonly associated
with:
A. quinine D. erythromycin
B. sulfonamide E. all of the above A. isosorbide dinitrate D. propranolol
C. nitrofurantoin B. furosemide E. none of the above
C. bumetanide 243. The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibtor
have been associated with which of the following
adverse drug reaction?
235. The most frequently reported adverse effect of
sucralfate is: A. chrge strauss D. torsades de pointes
syndrome
A. diarrhoea D. constipation B. acute liver failure [Link] ischemic colitis
B. vomiting E. body malaise C. cardiovascular
C. bleeding thrombotic events

236. Which of the following NSAIDS causes the least 244. Which of the following statement regarding drug
side effects? interaction is true?
A. ibuprofen D. rofecoxib A. all rug interaction can D. if the patient prescribe
B. naproxen E. diazepam potentially cause an drug that can potentially
C. ketoprofen adverse response in interact, the prescriber
patients should be called and a
different precipitant drug
237. Which of the following is the major effect of should be suggested
doxorubicin? B. the clinical significance E. none of the above
of each potential drug
A. pulmonary fibrosis D. agranulocytosis
interaction must be
B. seizure
considered individually
C. myocardial toxicity
C. a precipitant drug that
inhibit the metabolism of
238. All of the following are the adverse effects of the object drug causes a
atropine, except: more serious drug
interaction than a
A. photophobia D. sedation precipitant drug causing a
B. tachycardia E. dry mouth increase in the
C. diarrhoea bioavailability of the
object drug

239. Which of the following is not a manifestation of

adverse effect of cholinergic agonist? 245. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use
of a drug interaction?
A. lacrimation D. bronchoconstriction
B. bradycardia E. xerostomia A. the use of probenacid D. the treatment of
C. myopic with penicillin G to depression with a
accommodation prolong high levels to combination of citalopram
treat STD and MAO Inhibitor
B. giving aspirin to E. none of the above
240. Which of the following anti ulcer medication is warfarin to enhance
most likely to cause drug interaction and endocrine anticoagulation
side effects? C. instructing the patient
to take levofloxacin with
A. ranitidine D. cimetidine milk or antacid to
B. omeprazole E. lanoprazole decrease GI intolerance
C. famotidine to oral therapy

241. Which of the following salicylates has been 246. Which of the following is not a harmful food drug
linked to male reproductive toxicity with chronic interaction?
dosing?
A. raw green salads for D. milk and doxycycline
A. aspirin D. olsalazine patient on warfarin deep to treat helicobacter pylori
B. difflunisal E. sulfasalazine vein thrombosis
C. sodium thiosalicylate B. grapefruit juice and E. none of the above
cyclosporin to prevent
graft vesus host rejection
242. Which of the following anti gout medication act of a transplanted kidney
by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine level C. omeprazole beads in
of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stones applesauce for patients
development? with problem swallowing
capsule secondary to
A. allopurinol D. all of the following
GERD.
B. colchicines E. none of the above
C. probenecid
247. Asians are at greatest risk of all ethnic group for
genetic polymorphism in which one of the following
cytochrome p450 (CYP) isoenzymes.
A. CYP 2D6 D. CYP 1A2 B. guanabenz E. prazosin
B. CYP 3A4 E. all of the above C. methyldopa
C. CYP 2C19

248. Preventable adverse drug reaction 256. All of the following factors may increase the risk
of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except one.
A. generally display mild D. all of the above
symptoms A. concurrent cisplatin D. prolonged courses of
B. are always easily E. none of the above therapy gentamikici n therapy
recognized B. trough gentamicin E. aged. 70y/o
C. are problems that are levels, 2mg/ml
easily medically managed C. concurrent
amphoteracin B therapy

249. The phrase “one which is noxious and

unintended and which occurs on dosses normally 257. Which of the following anticonvulsant is
used in man for the prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy contraindicated in patient with a history of
of disease, or for the modification of physiological hypersensitivity to TCA?
function”, describes:
A. phenobarbital D. ethosuximide
A. a side effect D. medication error B. carbamazepine E. phenytoin
B. an adverse drug E. all of the above C. acetazolamide
reaction
C. an adverse drug event
258. What are the most common adverse effects of
anticonvulsive drugs?
250. Levodopa_carbidopa combination has the
popular brand name of A. adverse effects on D. gastrointestinal
appetite and body weight symptoms
A. tagamet D. naproxen B. alteration of cognition E. headache and
B. cinemet E. aspirin and mentation dizziness
C. dilantin C. all of the choices

251. Myopathy is an aadverse effect of all the 259. Which of the following anticonvulsive drug has a
following agents, except: higher incidence of kidney stones?

A. lovastatin D. gemfibrosil A. tiagabine D. phenytoin

B. simvastatin E. colestipol B. topiramate E. B,C and D
C. pravastatin C. gabapentine

252. Patient with angina pectoris receiving 260. Levodopa is associated with which of the
propranolol plus diltiazem must be monitored for following problems?
which adverse effects?
A. GIT problem D. all of the above
A. decreased cardiac D. both A and B B. involuntary movement E. none of the above
output C. decline in efficacy
B. decreased heart rate E. both A and C after 3-5 years
C. increased heart rate
261. The following are true regarding incompatibilities
253. Which of the following drug has a limited anti except:
arrhythmic use due to its strong anticholinergic effect?
A. problem arising during D. must be recognized by
A. disopyramide D. procainamide compounding, dispensing the pharmacist
B. flecainide E. quinidind and drug administration
C. tocainide B. easier to correct than E. all of the above
to prevent
C. maybe intentional or
254. Which of the following type III anti arrhythmic has unintentional
been reported as causing the torsaded de pointes
type of ventricular tachyarrythmia
262. oxidizingare incompatible with reducing agents.
A. diltiazem [Link] This is a:
B. flecainide [Link]
C. quinidine A. physical incompatibility D. both A & B
B. chemical E. both A & C
incompatibility
255. It is used as an anti hypertensive agent is limited C. therapeutic
due to its adverse effect as reflex tachycardia, incompatibility
headache and postural hypertension:

A. hydralazine D. captopril
263. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when 271. Which of the following characteristic of
placed on an acidc solution can result in: idiosyncratic drug reactions is the least important?

A. A conversion into free D. all of the following A. congenital D. none of the above
acid hypersensitivity
B. precipitation of E. none of the following B. genetic and hereditary E. all of the above
penicillin in origin
C. insolubility C. metabolic abnormality

264. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different 272. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by
polymorphs, each differ in the following properties the sudden release of endotoxin from various killed
except. microorganism is called:

A. solubility D. none of the above A. herxheimer reaction D. anaphylactic reaction

B. free energy E. all of the above B. lyell’s syndrome E. none of the above
C. melting point C. skin reaction

265. The following are manifestation of chemical 273. A potential problem in TPN formulation is the
incompatibilities, except: incompatibility between:

A. immiscibility D. evolution of gas A. potassium phosphate D. insulin and zinc

B. protolysis E. none of the above and calcium gluconate chloride
C. gel formation B. potassium choloride E. none of the above
and calcium gluconate
C. potassium phosphate
266. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will and zinc chloride
lead too:

[Link] of D. all of the above 274. Which of the following is the least possible
pressor amines remedies for liquefaction of solid substance?
B. increase in BP E. none of the above
C. non-metabolism of A. triturate separately and D. incorporate cotton in
tyramine mix with tumbling packaging
B. add adsorbent to liquid E. none of the above
combination
267. the following are true regarding excretion of C. dispense powders
acidic drugs except: separately
A. Exists in the ionized D. none of the above
state in acidic urine 275. Which of the following solvents is the least
B. exist in non ionized E. both A & B considered as a co-solvent.
form in alkaline urine
C. acidic urine increases A. water and mineral oil D. glycerol and sorbitol
drug interaction B. ethyl alcohol and E. none of the above
sorbitol
C. sorbitols and glycols
268. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are _________of
coumarins.
276. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic
A. enzyme induces D. agonist incompatibilities when administered at the same time,
B. enzyme inhibitor E. none of the above except:
C. antagonists
A. sedatives and D. aspirin and warfarin
stimulants
269. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme B. tannins and aloins E. all of the above
inducers. As a consequences, C. caffeine and chloral
hydrate
A. one needs to increase D. all of the above
the dose of drug
B. this lead to drug E. none of the above 277. Water is most likely to cause instability on the
tolerance following drugs, except:
C. this is an ADR
A. penicillins D. benzodiazepines
B. cephalosporins E. macrolides
270. Type F ADR’S can occur as a result of the C. alkaloids
following, except

A. antimicrobial drug D. drug instability 278. It occurs when drugs are inappropriately in
resistance syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration
B. patient compliance E. none of the above
C. counterfeit drugs A. pharmacodynamic D. all of the above
interaction
B. pharmaceutical E. none of the above A. transcription D. subscription
interaction B. inscription E. signa
C. pharmacokinetic C. superscription
interaction

285. Combination of salt substitute and potassium

279. Which statement is not true regarding lithium- sparring drugs will result to:
NSAId Combination?
A. hyperkalemia D. calcemia
A. AID impair renal D. AID inhibit
B. tachycardia E. acidosis
synthesis of broncho prostaglandin dependent
C. alkalosis
dilator prostaglandin renal excretion of lithium
B. AID antagonize the E. all of the above
renal excretion of 286. Drugs that should not be given to children with
lithium
C. AID may cause chicken pox or flu symtoms:
sodium and water
A. acetaminophen D. paracetamol
retention.
B. aspirin E. mefenamic acid
C. ibuprofen
280. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will
result to the following except: 287. Which of the following factors may make it
A. peak level decreases D. pharmacological necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
response are decreased patients?
B. accelerates E. none of the above
metabolism A. reduced enzyme D. enhanced metabolism
C. increased overall activity
elimination rate B. reduced kidney E. A and B
function
C. enhanced absorption
281. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:

A. unionized, hence D. unionized, not 288. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus
reabsorbed, decreases reabsorbed, increases increases the plasma levels of:
half life. elimination rate
B. more ionized, not E. none of the above A. mercaptopurine D. aspirin
reabsorbed, decrease B. chloral hydrate E. NOTA
half life C. disulfiram
C. more unionized, not
reabsorbed, increase half
life 289. Clindamycin is closely related to which of the
following in effective spectrum

282. Which statement is incorrect regarding A. chloramphenicol D. lincomycin

interaction involving tyramine containing substance B. tobramycin E. it is unique in spectrum
and MAO inhibitor? C. kanamycin

A. inhibition of MaO D. large amount of stored

results in the epinephrine can cause 290. The following are guidelines for reducing drug
accumulation of large hypotensive crisis interactions except:
amounts of
norepinephrine A. employ combination D. know properties of
B. decrease ion the rate E. none of the above therapy drugs
of intracellular B. identify patient risk E. NOTA
metabolism factor
C. large amount of
norepinephrine can C. educate the patient
cause severe headache
and hypertension
291. Anaphylaxis is a:
283. Petition for favour of healing and warming from A. type A ADR D. type F ADR
great care and precaution: B. type B ADR E. type C ADR
C. type E ADR
A. Rx D. Mark thou
B. signa E. subscription
C. magistral pharmacy
292. Oxidizing agents area incompatible with reducing
agents
284. Instruction for patient in taking medication:
A. physical incompatibility D. both A and B
B. therapeutic E. AOTA C. decreased activity of
incompatibility warfarin
C. chemical
incompatibility
300. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent inducers.
Therefore:
293. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
have a causal relationship with the treatment is called: A. one needs to increase D. both A and B
dose of drug
A. adverse drug reaction D. both A and B B. this leads to drug E. AOTA
B. therapeutic E. NOTA tolerance
incompatibility C. this is an ADR
C. adverse drug event

294. The precipitation of an organic substance from a

saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
added is known as:

A. polymorphism D. eutexia
B. salting out E. chelation
C. racemisation

295. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different

polymorphs, each differ in the following properties,
except:

A. solubility D. chelation
B. free energy E. NOTA
C. melting point

296. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will

lead to:

A. accumulation of D. AOTA
pressor amines
B. increase in blood E. both A and B
pressure
C. non- metabolism of
tyramine

297. The following condition/s will amplify the activity

of cardiac glycosides:

A. hypercalcemia D. both A and B

[Link] E. NOTA
C. hypernatremia

298. Drug drug interaction that occur when one drug

alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of the other drug:

A. pharmacokinetic D. pahrmaceutics
interaction interaction
B. pharmacologic E. NOTA
interaction
C. pharmacodynamic
interaction

299. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug as in

warfarin phenylbutazone interaction results in:

A. hemorrhage D. both A and B

B. increased E. NOTA
concentration of warfarin
 [Link] interactions
[Link] interactions
[Link] interactions
[Link] interactions
[Link] and cigarettes are potent enzyme
inducers. As consequence
[Link] needs to increase the dose of drug
[Link] lead to drug tolerance
[Link] is an ADR
[Link] of the above
[Link]
DISPENSING, INCOMPATIBILITIES AND ADVERSE [Link], menthol, acetophenetidine and phenol
DRUG [Link] will form
[Link] alteration of the prescription in order to correct [Link] combination [Link]
or prevent therapeutic incompatability requires the [Link] E. Cementation
permission of a: C. explosive combination
[Link] D. Relative 13. the manifestation in number 12 is a result of a
[Link] [Link] [Link] incompatibility [Link]
[Link] [Link] incompatability [Link] interaction
[Link] following are guidelines for reducing drug [Link] incompatability
interaction, EXCEPT: 14. the transport of a substance from one part of the
[Link] combination therapy [Link] properties body to another by means of blood
B. identify the patient risk factor of drugs [Link] [Link]
[Link] the patient [Link] multiple [Link] [Link]
drug therapy [Link]
[Link] agents are incompatible with reducing [Link] conversion of an optically active form to an
agents. This is a: optically inactive form is called
[Link] incompatibility [Link] a and b [Link] [Link]
B. therapeutic incompatibility [Link] [Link] [Link]
[Link] incompatibilty [Link]
[Link] following are manifestations of chemical [Link] are functions of pharmacist, EXCEPT
incompatibility,EXCEPT: [Link] information [Link]
[Link] [Link] of gas [Link] [Link]
[Link] [Link] [Link]
[Link] formation 17. Skills for patients centered pharmacy practice
[Link] precipitation of an organic substance from a include which of the following?
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are A. therapeutic planning and monitoring
added is know as: [Link] assessment skill
[Link] [Link] [Link] skill
[Link]-out [Link] D. all of the above
[Link] E. none of the above
[Link] in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a [Link] is concerned with
cake at the bottom of the container. This A. supply of medicine
manifestation is known as: [Link] and distribution of drugs
[Link] [Link] [Link] for medicine
[Link] [Link] [Link] of medicine
[Link] [Link] of drugs
7.A mathemartical model for a potentiating drug 19. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in
effect. accordance to the prescription given by the physician.
A.1+1=2 D.1+1=0 [Link] [Link]
B.1+1=3 E.1+1=1 [Link] [Link]
C.0+1=2 [Link]
[Link] of the following is not an outcome included in 20. A prescription should be refused when
the definition of pharmaceutical care? A. the patient is terribly sick
[Link] of disease [Link] is no available delivery service
of symptoms [Link] information is missing
[Link] or reduction D. it is not signed by the pharmacist
[Link] or slowing of disease procesess [Link] relative available
[Link] of disease or symptoms 21. An example of subscription.
[Link] health care costs [Link] D.250mg capsule
[Link] following are the physiologic effects of food on B.1tab q 6 hours [Link] directed
drug action,EXCEPT: [Link] well before
[Link] gastric emplying rate using
[Link] reduces absorption of tetracycline 22. a fiiled prescription for ethical drugs must be
[Link] increase absorption of paracetamol A. returned to the patient
[Link] potentiates anticoagulant [Link] for future references
[Link] C. discarded after recording
[Link]-drug interactions that occur when one drug D. forwarded to the FDA
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and E. kept by the patient
excretion of the drug.
[Link] interactions
23. Which of the following correctly applies to this B. Dispense the correct product
group of drugs products? Paracetamol 325mg tablet, C. Provide patient advice
Cortal 323mg tablet and Alvedon 325mg tablet. D. Inaptness of the prescription
[Link] are generecally equivalent E. all
[Link] are brand names 35. In evaluating the appropriateness of the
[Link] are OTC drugs prescription and medication order, the pharmacist
[Link] are prescription drugs should check the following EXCEPT
[Link] are non prescription drugs A. the patient’s disease or condition
24. Which of the following statement is TRUE? B. the prescribed route of administration
A. freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be C. the biological action of the prescribed product
used when making suspensions. D. the auxilary and cautionary labels
B. all suspensions will attract a 4 week discard date E. none
C. all suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle 36. In selection of the proper package or container,
[Link] containing a suspending agent do not the pharmacist chooses the container that
need a direction to shake the bottle. [Link] the product stability
E. None [Link] with the legal requirements
25. Active listening consist of which of the following [Link] patient compliance
tasks? D. all of the above
A. focusing on what the other person says E. None of these
B. assesing the way the other person communicates [Link] a drug interaction, the drug whose action is
C. convenying an open, relaxed and unhurried affected by the combination with other drug, foods, or
attitude chemicals is called
D. all of the above A. object drug [Link] drug
E. None of the above B. precipitant drug E. None
26. Which of the following drugs is indicated as C. interactant drug
uterine relaxantfor woman in labor [Link] the drug interaction, the drug causing the
A. ephedrine D. metaproterenol interaction is called the
B terbutaline E. None A. target drug [Link] drug
C. Isoethane [Link] drug [Link] drug
27. A STAT order means that the drug should be [Link] drug
administered 39. When two interacting drugs results to the
A. As needed by the patient D. Before surgery alteration of ADME, it is classified as
[Link] E. After an hour A. pharmacokinetic interaction
C. before sleep B. pharmacodynamic interaction
28. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of C. therapeutic interaction
the drug metabolized in the liver D. physical incompatibility
A a first pass effect D. Pharmacokinetics E. therapeutic incompatibility
B. drug receptor Interaction E NONE 40. Which branch of pharmacology studies the way
C. biotransformation drug works in the body
29. Milk and other Dairy products__________the A. Pharmacotherapeutics D. Pharmacodynamics
absorption of tetracycline and fluoroquinolones. B. Pharmacokinetics E. ADR
A. increase [Link] of the given choices C. Drug interactions
B. decrease [Link] 41. While teaching a patient about drug therapy for
[Link] not effect diabetes, you review the absorption, distribution,
30. levodopa-carbidopa combination has the popular metabolism and excretion of insulin and oral
brandname. antidiabetic agents. Which principle of pharmacology
[Link] [Link] are you describing?
B. Sinemet E. Voltaren A. Pharmcokinetics D. Drug potency
C. Dilantin B. Pharmcodynamics E. Alternative therapy
31. Problems that occur when two or more drugs are C. Pharmacotherapeutics
administered to a patient and the patient response is 42. A patient asked why he’s taking antibiotics for an
different from the intended are known ulcer. The pharmacist explains that antibiotics will
A. drug interactions [Link] Aand C A. destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer
[Link] incompatibilities E. All B. destroy the virus causing the ulcer
[Link] incompatibilities C. prevent infection from entering through open areas
32. Which of the following factors may contribute to in the gastric mucosa
the occurence of a drug interaction? D. prevent infection occuring.
I. multiple pharmacologic effects E. None of the above
II. drug abuse 43. When caring for a patient taking a
[Link] prescriber hydrochlorothiazide, you should monitor the patient
A. I and III D.I,II and III for
B. I only E. II and only A. hypertension D. Hypoglycemia
C. I and II B. hypernatremia E. None of the above
33. What would be the appropriate auxillary label one C. hypokalemia
can cause use in dispensing dispersed system? 44. What’s the difference between a sedative and a
A. For external use only [Link] B and C hypnotic?
B. Store in a cool dry place E. all A. sedatives produces physical dependence,
C. Shake the bottle before using hypnotics don’t
34. Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing B. sedatives reduces anxiety or excitement, hypnotic
prescription induce sleep.
A. Check the legal requirements
C. sedatives require larger doses than hypnotics to II. Drug laboratory interactions
produce desired doses III Drug disease interaction
D. sedatives increase anxiety, hypnotics reduce A. I only D. I and III
anxiety. [Link] only E. I, II, and III
E. none C. III only
45. Barriers to verbal communication are minimized in 57. It is the transfer of a drug from its site of
which of the following settings? administration to the bloodstream.
A. The interview takes place through a window with A. Distribution D. Absorption
security bars. B. Liberation E. Elimination
B. The interview takes place in front of three of the C. Excretion
patients roomates. 58. Which of the following drug is classified as Loop
C. The interview is conducted over the telephone diuretics.
D. The patient is interviewed in a private consultation A. Furosemide D. Mannitol
office B. Spironolactone E. Acetaminophen
E. The patient is interviewed throug a drive in window. C. Acetazolamide
46. Which of the following drugs is found to be 59. Factors that contribute to the occurence of drug
mucolytic or reduces viscosity of mocous? interactions.
A. Dextromethorphan D. Benzonate A. Self medication D. All of the above
B. Acetylcysteine E. Benzocaine B. Use of OTC drugs E. None of the above
C. Terbutaline C. multiple prescribers
[Link] of the following is a cough expectorant? 60. What mechanism does of Bisacodyl interacts with
A. Guiafenesin D. Diphenhydramine milk?
B. Dextromethorphan E. None of these A. alteration of pH [Link] of motility rate
C. Benzonatate B. Complexation E. Conjugation
48. Used to dispense semi solid dosage form C. adsorption
A. sifter type container [Link] mouth bottles 61. A patient came to a drugstore and asked for
B. slide boxes E. Round vials Bisacodyl for his conatipation. Upon asking his
C. collapsible tubes/ointment jar current medication, the pharmacist knew that the
49. If the prices of the prescriptions counts based on patient is in antacid therapy. Which of the following
the percent marked up. What would be the dispensing should the pharmacist tell to patient?
price of a drug that costs $20.00? Assume that mark A. He can take both drugs rigth after meal
up is 50%. B. Take the other drug at least one hour or two hours
A. $10 D.$ 35 after intake of the first drug
B $25 E. $ 20 C. Follow the intake of laxative with milk for enhanced
C. $ 30 effect.
50. Substance which absorb moisture from air but not D. Any of these.
in the dissolve are called E. None of the above
A. hygroscopic powders D. Anhydrous powders 62. This the body or the pricipal part of prescription
B. effervescent powders E. Amorphous powder order contains the names and quatities of the
C. deliquescent powders prescribed ingredient.
51. A smoker was prescribed with Diazepam. What A. Subcription D. Signa
would likely happen if he continously smokes while on B. Inscription E. Transcription
the drug therapy? C. Superscription
A. enhanced. effect of the drug 63. Type of packaging incopatibility caused by the
B. decrease effectiveness of the drug migration of substance from the packaging material
C. no effect into the drug product
D. delayed elemination of the drug A. sorption D. Lamination
E. none of the above B. permeation E. Transfer
52. It is the movement of drug molecules across C. leaching
different body compartments. 64. Loop diuregtics like furosemide inhibit sodium and
A. Distribution D. Absorption chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, promoting
B. Liberation E. None of the above water excretion. This agent may cause
C. Excretion A. hypecalcemia D. All of the above
53. Which of the following factors affect drug B. hypermagnesemia E. None of the above
distribution in the body? C. hypokalemia
A. Drug structure D. All of the above 65. Phenomenon by which drug can exist in more
[Link] permeability E. None of the above than one crystalline form.
C. Blood flow A. vaporization D. Polymorphism
54. The degradation of Aspirin to salycylic acid and B. votalization E. Reduction
acetic acid in the presence of water is generally C. oxidation
known as: 66. Heroine, morphine and opiuum are classified as
A. oxidation D. Empimerization A. Prohibited drugs. [Link] drugs
B. hydrolysis E. Lyophilization B. Regulated drugs E. All of the above
C. photolysis C. Exempt regulated drugs
55. Which of the following committees should review 67. Which of the following is NOT an example of live
the reported adverse drug reaction (ADR)? attenuated vaccine?
A. FDA D. DDB A. measles D. Mumps
B. P and T committee E. PRC B. diptheria E. None of the above
C. FTC C. rubella
56. The concept of drug interaction includes 68. the major biotransformation of drug in humans is
I. Drug food interactions the
A. Spleen D. Intestines A. Transcription D. Subscription
B. Liver E. Stomach B. Inscription E. Signa
C. Kidney C. Superscription
69. Which of the following anesthetics is useful for 83. Patient-related decision factors
producing a short term anesthesia? A. Age D. Past medication use
A. Lidocaine D. Nitrous oxide B. Duration of the condition E. All of the above
B. Thiopental sodium E. None of the above C. Demographic variables
C. Chloroform 84. Breakdown of tablets into smaller particles or
70. Drugs loss due to drug and excipients with high granules is defined as the process of
vapor pressure. A. Disintegration D. Granulations
A. Polymorphism D. Gelatinization B. Dissolution E. Trituration
B. Volatilization E. None of the above C. Rupturization
C. Racemization 85. Petition for favor of healing and warning from
71. Cyanocobalmine is a/an great care and precaution
A. Steroid D. Enzyme A. Rx D. Mark thou
B. hallucinogen E. Narcotic B. Signa E. As directed
C. Vitamin C. Magistral pharmacy
72. The first dose syncope is normally reported with 86. Amlodipine is classified as
A. Prazosin D. Captopril A. Beta blocker D. Vasodilator
B. Hydralazine E. None of the above B. Ace inhibitor E. None of the above
C. Minoxidil C. Calcium channel blocker
73. Which of the following is NOT a water soluble 87. Principal site of drug metabolism
vitamin? A. Liver D. Intestines
A. Thiamine D. Pyridoxine B. kidney E. Heart
B. Vitamin D E. None of the above C. stomach
C. Niacin 88. Which of the following antifungal is/are useful in
74. The factor in compounding prescription is cadidiasis?
A. Equipment D. Chemical and supplies I. Traconazole
B. Stability E. Environment’ II. Clotrimazole
C. Training and experience III. Nystatin
75. The degradation of aspirin involves A. I only D. I and III
A. Hydrolysis D. Photolysis B. I and II E. I, II, and III
B. Racemization E. None of the above C. II and III
C Oxidation 89. Occur immediately upon compounding like
76. Occurs when one drug increases the action of presence of precipitate, effervescence color changes
another drug A. Minor incompatibility [Link]
A. Potentiation D. Incopatability incompatibility
B. Antagonism E. None of the above B. Delayed incompatibility E. All of the above
C. Summation C. Immediate incompatibility
77. When the response of a patient in to one or more 90. Remedy when a solid substance fail to dissolve in
drugs is different nature than that intended by the a liquid.
prescriber is called A. Addition of inert ingredients
A. Antagonistic incompatability B. Prepare an emulsion
B. Chemical incompatability C. prepare a suspension
C. Therapeutic incompatability D. dispense the ingredients separately
D. Physical incompatability E. none of the above
E. None of the above 91. Route of drug administration where are drug are
78. The reaction between sodium biacarbonate and applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly in
aspirin would result to. the systemic circulation
A. Formation of precipitate [Link] changes A. Transdermal D. Rectal
B. Evolution of gas [Link] changes B. inhalation E. Sublingual
C. Hydrolytic changes C. Buccal
79. when an oxidizing agent is tritated in a mortar with 92. Which of the following does not cause therapeutic
a reducing agent, this would likely result to. incompatibility
A. Formation of damp mass A. Errors in pricing D. Storage errors
B. Discoloration of powders B. Dosage form errors E. None of the above
C Violent explosion C. Prescription writing errors
D. Volatilization of ingredients 93. An auxilary label, EXCEPT
E. Formation of heat A. Do not repeat. D. Opthalmic use
80. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is B. For external use E. None of the above
due to C. Shake well before using
A. Ozone D. Oxygen 94. Mathematical model for synergism
B. Acetanilide E. Hydrogen A. 1+1 = 2 D. 1+1 =0
C. Peroxidase B. 1+1 = 3 E. 1+1 = 1
[Link] of the label that is most likely to be presented, C. 0+1 = 2
shown or examined under customary for display for 95. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes
reatail sale. A. Anabolic steroids D. Vitamins
A. Outer label D. Auxilary label B. Dexamethasone E. None of the above
B. Principal display panel E. All of the above C. Antibiotics
C. Inner label 96. The suffix FR ( Alaxan FR) means
82. Instruction for patient in taking the medication. A. Fine release D. For release
B. Fast release E. None of the above in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy or
C. Form release disease, or for the modification of physiological
97. Migration of drug into a container function desribes
A. Sorption D. Vaporization A. as side effect D. Both a and b
B. leaching E. None of the above B. an adverse drug reaction E. Both b and c
C. Permeation C. an adverse drug event
98. Causes mydriasis by blocking the 109. Type A reaction are characterized by which of
parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of the following
the iris [Link] reactions D. All of the above
A. Atropine D. Pilocarpine B.a function of patient susceptibilityE. None of these
B. Lidocaine E. None of these C. caused by a drug-drug interactions
C. Procaine 110. Preventable ADR’s
99. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism A. Generally display mild symptoms
A. Diazepam D. Disulfiram B. Are always easily recognized
B. Flumazenil E. Lorazepam C. Are problems that are easily medically managed
C. Zolpidem D. All of the above
100. Illustrate the drug margin of safety E. None of the above
A. therapeutic index D. Effective dose 111. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What
B. Pharmacologic category E. Normal dose would likely to happen if he continously smokes while
C. Safety index on drug therapy
101. Medication order differ fro prescription order in A. enhanced the effect of drug
which following ways? They B. decreased the effect of the drug
A. are intended for ambulatory use C. no effect
B. contain only the generic name of the medication D. delayed elimination of the drug
C. are intended for institutional use E. none of the above
D. may be transmitted electronically 112. These reactions involves the interaction of IgG or
E. contain the quantity of the medication to be IgM. Clinical manifestations of this type of reaction
dispensed. include hemplytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and
102. If a therapeutic intervention is necessary, all of granulocytopenia.
the following information should be communicated to A. cytotoxic reactions
the prescriber, EXCEPT B. anaphylactic reactions
A. a declaration that “a mistake is made” C. Immune-complex-mediated reactions
B. a brief description of the problem D. cell-mediated reactions
C. a reference that documents the problem E. all of the above
D. an alternative or suggestion to resolve the problem 113 What specific effect exemplified in the use of an
E. a description of the clinical significance of the adrenal corticoid to enhance the vasoconstrictor
problem response to epinephrine?
103. The following information should be recorded on A. Additive D. Antagonism
the prescription EXCEPT the B. Synergism E. All of the abive
A. Prescription number [Link] and the quantity C. Potentiation
B. Date of filling [Link] initiate 114. This is the phenomenon in which the
C. expiration date physiological and/or physiological response to a
104. A prescription label should contain all of the substance is decreased with continous use of the
following EXCEPT the same dose of the substance
A. Quantity dispensed D. Expiration date A. Tolerance D. Insanity
B. Lot number E. Presccriber’s name B. Dependence E. All of the above
C. Patient’s diagnosis C. Withdrawal
105. auxilary and cautionary label should be utilized 115. Cimetidine will cause
for all the following purposes EXCEPT to [Link] of absorption [Link] of elimination
A. Substitute for verbal consultation [Link] of distribution [Link] a and b
B. ensure proper usage [Link] of the metabolism
C. inform storage requirements 116. Cimetidine-Propranolol combination results in
D. comply with regulatory requirements A. Inhibition of drug metabolism
E. warn against the concomitant use of certain drugs B. Hepatic enzyme induction
or foods C. Competition for protein binding sites
106. The following item are essential for a patient D. Both a and b
profile system EXCEPT; E. Both b and c
A. The patients name 117. Smoking which stimulates drug metabolizing
B. The prescriber’s DEA registration number hepatic enzymes result in
C. The patient’s allergies A. an increase in pharmacologic effect of the drug
D. The patient birth date B. a decrease in the pharmacologic effect of the drug
E. instruction for medication use C. a longer duration of action of the drug
107. The following are drug- related problems D. a slower rate of excretion of the drug
EXCEPT E. all of the above
A. An adverse effect in the medication 118. Warfarin and vitamin K interacts by;
B. Symptoms due to under treatment A. Antagonism D. No interaction
C. A drug- drug interactions B. Synergitism E. Addition
D. An undiagnosed condition C. Potentiation
E. An allergic reaction to a medication 119. The act of pharmacist in supplying one or more
[Link] the following definition ‘one is noxious and drugs to/or to a patient, usually in supply response to
unintented and which occurs at doses normally used an order from a doctor
A. administering D. Dispensing D. All of the above
B. Procuring E. None of the above E. none of the above
C. Prescribing 132. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction cause
120. Teratogenic drug cause physical defects in the by sulfonamides
developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is A. Parkinson’s disease D. Contact dermititis
characterized if adequate, well controlled studies in B. Steven Johnson syndrome E. Both a and b
pregnant women have not shown an increased risk of C. Hypertension
fetal abnormalities? 133. Providing the correct medicines at the right time
A. Category A D. Category D at the right dose and using the right patient is;
B. Category B E. Category X A. Pharmacy care D. Homeopathy
C. Category C B. Rational drug therapy E. Both a and b
121. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in the C. Osteopathy
developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is 134. The following are possible remedies for
characterized if the use of the product is liquefication of solid substance except
contraindicated in women who are may become A. Triturate separately and mix by tumbling
pregnant. B. Add adsorbents to liquid combination
A. Category A D. Category D C. Dispense powder separately
B. Category B E. Category X D, Incorporate cotton in packaging
C. Category C E. None of the above
122. Extension effect of Lidocaine 135. Drugs bound to plasma protein are considered;
A. Electyrolyte imbalance D. Arrythmia A. Pharmacologically active [Link] drugs
B. Hypoglycemia E. Anorexia B. Pharmacologically inactive E. All of the above
C. Bleeding C. Free drugs
123. In the stomach, which drug would exist in it non- 136. The following arev true regarding
ionized form? incompatibilities except.
A. Aspirin D. Hormones A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing,
B. chlorpheramine E. All of the above and drug administration
C. Dextroamphetamine B. Easier to correct than to prevent
124. Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR? C. Maybe intentional
A. Type A. D. Type D D. Must be recognized by pharmacist
B. Type B E. Type E E. None of the above
C. Type C 137. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, filipinos
125. Anaphylaxis is; are considered:
A. Type A. D. Type D A. Fast acetylators [Link] as the caucasians
B. Type B E. Type E B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above
C. Type C C. Neither slow nor fast
126. The intake of phenelzine with cheddar or pickled 138. The following are true regarding
fish might result to; biotransformation except
A. Hypertensive crisis D. Hypotension A. Occurs after drug distribution
B. Sedation E. Both b and c B. Converts polar to non-polar drugs
C. Hypoglycemia C. Converts lipohilic gto hydrophilic
127. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in; D. Can influence drug elimination
A. Anemia D. Addison’s disease E. None
B. Hypertension E. None of the above 139. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
C. Parkinson’s disease have a casual relationship with the treatment is called
128. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug an/a
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and A. Both ba & c D. ADR
excretion of the drug. B. Therapeutic incompatibility E. Both C and D
A. Pharmacokinetic interactions [Link] of the above C. Adverse drug event
B. Pharmacologic interactions [Link] 140. The transport of a substance from one part of the
C. Pharmacodynamic interactions body to another by means of blood
129. Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug A. Absorption D. Excretion
such in Warfarin-Phenylburazone interactions result B. Distribution E. Storage
in: C. Metabolism
A. Hemorrhage 141. The presence of food in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Increased concentration of warfarin will most likely to reduce the absorption of some
C. Decreased activity of warfarin’ drugs like;
D. Both a and b A. Griseofulvin D. Vancomycin
E Both a and c B. Tetracycline E. Erythromycin
130. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme C. Amoxicillin
inducers. As consequence, 142. The degradation reaction of ASA involves
A. One need to increase dose of drug A. Hydrolysis D. Reduction
B. This lead to drug tolerance B. Oxidation E. Conjugation
C. This is an ADR C. Racemization
D. All of the above 143. The unsual result of triturating camphor +
E. none of the above menthol
131. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug A. Eutectuic mixture D. Hygroscopic mixture
reactions except; B. Solidification E. Synergistic effect
A. Congenital hypersensitivities C. Lowering of the melting point
B. Genetic or hereditary in origin 144. Extension/s effect of furosemide
C. Metabolic abnormality A. Electrolyte imbalance D. Both A & B
B. Hypoglycemia E. Both B & C cellulose
C. Bleeding B. Carboxymthyl E. Poloxamer
145. The precipitation of an organic substance from a cellulose sodium, USP
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are C. Hypromellose, USP
added known as:
A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia 157. You have an anti-biotic suspension that is
B. salting out E. Hygroscopy 250mg/ml and a pediatric patient who needs 100mg.
C. Racemization Calculate the number of millilitres of the suspension
146. This refers to the distributing effects resulting that will contain the desired 100mg.
from cessation of or reduction in the prolonged or
heavy use of a substance. A. 2ml D. 1.2ml
A. Tolerance D. insanity B. 2.5ml E. 1ml
B. Dependence E. All of the above C. 5.2ml
C. Withdrawal
147. This refers to the physiological or psychological 158. Standards for chemical being used in
adaptions taht occur in response to the frequent extemporaneous compounding are found in the:
administration of the drug
A. Tolerance D. Withdrawal A. FDA Good D. Merck index
B. Dependence E. Insanity Manufacturing Process
C. Both a and B B. USP/NF E. USP/DI
148. _________occurs when one drug increasev the C. Remington
action of another drug.
A. Potentiation D. Synergism 159. The active ingredient in Burrow’s solution is:
B. Antagonism E. Both A & B
A. Acetic acid D. Alum
C. Summation
B. Aluminium acetate E. Hydrogen peroxide
149. Factors which affect GET;
C. Aluminium chloride
A. fatty food D. All of the above
160. The process of wetting Zinc Oxide with Mineral
B. Large food particles E. None
Oil in preparation for incorporation into an ointment
C. Cold beverages
base is:
150. Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what
mechanism A. Attrition D. Pulverization by
A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of metabolism intervention
B. Adsorption E. Delay gastric emptying B. Levigation E. Tituration
C. Alteration of Motility Rate C. Milling
151. The Primary site of absorption of orally
administered drug: 161. The ideal weight for a vaginal suppository will be
approximately
A. Stomach D. Large intestine
B. Small intestine E. All of the above A. 1g D. 10g
C. Blood B. 2g E. 15g
C. 5g
152. Side-effects to be expected with Simvastatin
include: 162. A lotion formulation calls for coal tar solution.
Which of the following statements concerning coal tar
A. Headache D. None of the above solution is NOT TRUE?
B. Nausea E. All of the above
C. Abdominal pain A. Alcohol is used as a D. Solution is usually
solvent diluted 1:9 with water or
153. Penicillin G is: ointment base
B. L.C.D is another name E. The solution contains
A. D. Piperacillin of the solution only coal tar and volatile
Phenoxymethylpenicillin solvent
B. Benzylpenicillin E. Pevmecillinam C. The solution is for
C. Penicillin V external use only
154. This drug may enhance the hepatic potential of 163. Methyl Salicylate is also known as:
overdose of acetaminophen.
A. Camphorated oil D. Oil of Wintergreen
A. phenytion D. Vitamin E B. Peppermint oil E. Sweet oil
B. Vitamin C E. sodium bicarbonate c. Salicylamide
C. Silymarin
164. Before placing a patient on a fatty oil emulsions,
155. A system that exhibit infinite viscosity the clinical pharmacist should confirm that the patient
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system does not have
B. Plastic system E. Non Newtonian A. Egg allergies D. Lactose intolerance
system B. Sensitivities to E. Sensitivities to
C. Thixotrophy disulfites tartrazine
C. milk intolerance
156. Semi synthetic cellulose derivatives, except:

A. Methylcellulose, USP D. Hydroxypropyl

165. Which of the following metals is NOT included in system
M.T.E- 4 or multiple trace element solutions? C. Thixotropy
174. A property which pertains to the lost of
A. Chromium D. Manganese consistency when shear is applied and takes a minute
B. Copper E. Zinc of time for recovery
C. Iron
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
166. Another trace element that the physician is likely B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
to include in TPN is system
C. Thixotropy
A. Lithium D. Silcon
B. Sodium E. Fluoride 175. Also knows as the shear thickening system
C. Selenium
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system
167. A dermatologist requests a prescription for B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian
Tetracycline HCL 4% in sufficirnt Lubriderm lotion to system
make 45g. How many 500mg capsule of the antibiotic C. Thixotropy
do you need for compounding this order?
176. A natural polymer, which is incompatible with
A. 1 D. 8 sodium CMC, and some drugs such as amitryptyline,
B. 3 E. 16 tamoxifen, verapanil, and aluminium hydroxide gel.
C. 4
A. Tragacanth [Link] alginate
168. Which one of the following ingredients is most B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
likely to be utilized in the formulation of a topical gel? C. Xanthan gum

A. Carbomer D. Mineral oil 177. A natural polymer that is incompatible with

B. Edetate E. Vegetable oil polyvalent ions calcium and magnesium.
C. Lanolin
A. Tragacanth [Link] alginate
169. Which of the following agents has NOT been B. Acacia E. Carrageenan
suggested as an agent to be use to eradicate C. Xanthan gum
Helicobacter pylori form the GI tract?
178. A synthetic polymer which is incompatible with
A. Clarithromycin D. Itraconazole phenol, resorcinol, and high concentration of
B. Bismuth Subsalicylate E. Tetracycline electrolytes.
c. Metronidazole
A. Carbomer D. Polyvinylpyrolidone
170. Patients taking anti-tubercular drug Rifampicin B. Poloxamer E. All of the above
should be told that the drug C. Polyvinyl alcohol

A. May cause diarrhoea D. May produce nausea 179. Flocculation or break down of the suspension
and vomiting if used with may result upon the addition of electrolytes or
alcohol positively charged suspensions.
B. May cause them to be E. Should be swallowed
sun burn more easily whole (not chewed) to A. Carboxymetylicellulose D. Colooidal silicon
prevent staining of the dioxide
teeth B. Silicon Dioxide E. bentonite
C. may impart an orange C. Microcrystalline
colour to their urine and cellulose
sweet
180. Any drug reactions which does not necessarily
171. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to have any casual relationship with the treatment is
cause called an:

A. Tinnitus D. Renal tubular necrosis A. Adverse effect D. None of the above

B. Seizure E. Pseudomembranous B. therapeutic E. All of the above
enterocolitis incompatibility
C. Hepatic necrosis C. Adverse drug event

172. Which of the following would likely to render 181. Teratogenicity is a/an:
benzalkonium chloride solution inactive?
A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
A. Acetic acid D. Sodium chlorate B. type B ADR E. None of the above
B. Pseudomonas E. Ethanol C. type C ADR
aeruginosa
C. sodium stearate 182. The following are guidelines for reducing drug
interaction except:
173. Also known as the shear thinning system
A. Employ combination D. Know properties of
A. Pseudoplastic system D. Dilatant system therapy drugs
B. Plastic system E. Non- Newtonian B. identify patient risk E. None of the above
factor 192. Acacia in the presence of bismuth salts can form
C. Educate the patient a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This
manifestation is known as:
183. Enzyme inhibition Coumarins can lead to:
A. Gelatinization D. Cementation
A. Hypoglycaemia D. Convulsion B. Hydrolysis E. None of the above
B. Profuse bleeding E. None of the above C. Emulsification
C. Blood clotting

184. Anaphylaxis is a: 193. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will

form:
A. type A ADR D. type D ADR
B. type B ADR E. None of the above A. Eutectic combination D. Both A and B
C. type C ADR B. Liquefication E. None of the above
C. Explosive combination
185. In metabolizing a standard dose INH, Filipinos
are considered: 194. The manifestation in no.19 is a result of a:

A. Fast acetylators D. Same as the A. Therapeutic D. Adverse drug reaction

Caucasians incompatibility
B. Slow acetylators E. None of the above B. Chemical E. None of the above
C. Either slow or fast incompatibility
C. Physical
186. The following are true about biotransformation incompatibility
except:
195. Most important protein to which drug can bind in
A. Occurs after drug D. Can influence drug plasma:
distribution elimination
B. Converts polar to non E. All of the above A. Lipoprotein D. none of the above
polar drugs B. albumin E. all of the above
C. Converts lipophylic to C. glycoprotein
hydrophilic drugs
196. The following are the physiologic effects on drug
187. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can lead to action except:

A. Anaemia D. Addison’s disease A. reduces gastric D. vegetable potentiate

B. Hypertension E. None of the above emptying rate anticoagulants
C. Parkinson’s disease B. milk reduces E. all of the above
absorption
188. A mathematical model for potentiating drug C. tea increases
effects: absorption of
paracetamol
A. 1+1=2 D.1+1=0
B. 1+1=3 E. None of the above 197. The following condition/s will amplify the activity
C.1+0=2 of cardiac glycosides:

189. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: A. hypercalcemia D. none of the above
B. hypokalemia E. all of the above
A. Pharmacologically D. bioavailable drugs C. both A and B
active
B. Pharmacologically 198. Drug- drug interaction that occur when, one drug
inactive alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism,
C. Free drugs excretion of the other drug.
190. A remedy for tablet granulation containing
vitamin C: A. pharmacokinetic D. all of the above
interactions
A. Prepare by dry D. None of the above B. pharmacologic E. none of the above
granulation interaction
B. Use pre coated E. All of the above C. pharmacodynamic
ascorbic acid granules interaction
C. Both A and B
199. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug such
191. The precipitation of an organic substance from a as in warfarin- phenylbutazone interaction, results in:
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
added is known as: A. hemmorhage D. both A and B
B. increased E. none of the above
A. Polymorphism D. Eutexia concentration of warfarin
B. Salting out E. All of the above C. decreased
C. Racemization concentration of warfarin

200. A drug induced hypersensitivity reaction caused

by sulfonamide:
A. parkinson’s disease D. contact dermatitis A. first pass effect D. pharmacokinetics
B. steven johnson’s E. none of the above B. drug receptor E. none of the above
syndrome interaction
C. hypertension C. biotransformation
201. chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug
reaction:
210. The only insulin preparation that can be given
A. agranulocytosis D. none of the above intravenously is:
B. gray baby syndrome E. all of the above
C. both A and B A. lente insulin D. potassium zinc insulin
202. A physiological state resulting from drug B. semilente insulin E. all of the above
administration: C. ultralente insulin

A. drug dependence D. drug tolerance

B. drug habituation 211. The conversion of an optically active form to an
C. drug addiction optically inactive form is called:

203. An ADR experienced as a consequence of A. polymorphism D. enantiomorphism

receiving an inappropriate high dose of the drug due B. racemization E. all of the above
to patient characteristics: C. polymerization

A. idiosyncratic D. type D
B. extension effect E. none of the above 212. Precipitation can be:
C. side effect
A. physical incompatibility D. A or B
B. chemical E. none of the above
204. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis incompatibility
C. adverse drug reaction
A. epinephrine inj. D. antibiotic
B. aspirin E. all of the above
C. antihistamine 213. An impossible prescription is described by the
following, except:

205. Side effects of streptomycin: A. only the generic name D. the generic name is
is written but not legible not legible and the brand
A. headache D. none of the above name is written legibly
B. dryness of mouth E. all of the above B. both generic and E. none of the above
C. ototoxicity brand names are not
legible
C. the generic name does
206. The following is/are true regarding absorption of not correspond to the
salicylic acid: brand name

A. non-ionized from is D. absorption is

more lipid soluble & increased when taken 214. Providing the correct medicine at the right time,
absorbable with an antacid at the right dose and using the right route of
B. ionized form is more E. all of the above administration to the right patient is:
lipid soluble & absorbable
C. polar form is more A. primary care D. homeopathy
readily absorbed B. rational drug therapy E. none of the above
C. osteopathy

207. The transport of a substance from one part of the

body to another by means of blood: 215. Which of the following is not true about adverse
drug reaction?
A. absorption D. excretion
B. distribution E. all of the above A. it is a significant cause D. the suffering that the
C. metabolism of morbidity and mortality patient experience
to patients of all areas of because of the drug
health care today related events cannot be
208. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral quantified
contraceptives can lead to: B. it has been estimated E. none of the above
that from 1/3 to as high
A. decreased D. none of the above as ½ of ADR’s are not
Phenobarbital action preventable
B. increased E. all of the above C. the institute of
contraceptive action medicine reported in
C. unreliable January 2000 that an
contraception estimated 7000 deaths
occur each year as a
result of medication error
209. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of
the drug metabolized in the liver:
216. Which of the following description of type A ADR 224. Which of the following is a common side effect of
is not true? metolazone?

A. it is an extension of the D. it is predictable A. seizure D. neuroleptic malignant

drugs known syndrome
pharmacology B. electrolyte loss E. all of the above
B. it is dose dependent E. all of the above C. SLE
C. it is generally serious
and life threatening
225. Which of the following may not cause hemolysis
in patients with G6PD deficiency?
217. All of the following are type B reactions, except:
A. quinine D. erythromycin
A. idiosyncratic reaction D. drug drug interaction B. sulfonamide E. all of the above
B. immunological reaction E. carcinogenic C. nitrofurantoin
interaction
C. teratogenic interaction
226. Pigmented retinopathy is hughly associated with:

218. Reporting of adverse reactions that are serious, A. chlorpromazine D. haloperidol

even if causality is not proven, includes: B. thioridazine E. none of the above
C. clozaril
A. a patient’s death that D. congenital anomaly
is not suspected of being
a direct outcome of ADR 227. The increase in mutual solubility of two partially
B. not life threatening E. none of the above miscible liquids by the addition of a third substance is
disease defined as:
C. listed in the
manufacturer’s insert as A. catalyst D. levigation
a known side effect B. blending E. none of the above
C. promoter

219. It is the process of degradation of ionic

compounds into cations and anions in the presence of 228. Which of the following factors does not affect the
water is defined as: flow properties of a particle?

A. salvation D. degradation A. porosity D. density

B. hydration E. all of the above B. shape E. none of the above
C. activation C. color

220. What happens to the solubility of alcohol as the 229. The principal adverse effect of clozanil:
molecular weight of alcohol increases?
A. hypotension D. renal failure
A. reduces D. insoluble in water B. hypertrichosis E. all of the above
B. increases E. all of the above C. agranulocytosis
C. remain unchanged
230. Which of the following salts produces an acidic
221. The degradation of penicillin G procaine is solution?
highest in:
A. salt of weak acid with D. salt of strong acid with
A. solution D. tablet strong base weak base
B. suspension E. all of the above B. salt of strong acid with E. all of the above
C. elixir strong base
C. salt of weak acid with
weak base
222. Hypertrichosis is generally associated with the
use of:
231. All of the following drugs are teratogenic in
A. hydralazine D. clonidine nature and should be avoided by pregnant women,
B. minoxidil E. all the above except:
C. methyldopa
A. finasterine D. lithium carbonate
B. triretinoine E. all of the above
223. An overdose of sodium nitroprusside generally C. benztropine
causes:

A. severe hypotension D. severe edema 232. Which of the following is the principal adverse
B. hypertension E. all of the above effect of anabolic steroid?
C. renal failure
A. hypercholesteronemia D. anutia
B. peliosis hepatitis E. all of the above
C. amennorrhea
 C. sodium thiosalicylate

233. Which of the following diabetic agent has the

greatest risk of hepatotoxicity? 242. Which of the following anti gout medication act
by decreasing serum levels but increasing urine level
A. metformin D. insulin of uric acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stones
B. troglitazone E. none of the above development?
C. glyburide
A. allopurinol D. all of the following
B. colchicines E. none of the above
234. Severe headaches are commonly associated C. probenecid
with:

A. isosorbide dinitrate D. propranolol 243. The selective cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 inhibtor

B. furosemide E. none of the above have been associated with which of the following
C. bumetanide adverse drug reaction?

A. chrge strauss D. torsades de pointes

235. The most frequently reported adverse effect of syndrome
sucralfate is: B. acute liver failure [Link] ischemic colitis
C. cardiovascular
A. diarrhoea D. constipation thrombotic events
B. vomiting E. body malaise
C. bleeding
244. Which of the following statement regarding drug
interaction is true?
236. Which of the following NSAIDS causes the least
side effects? A. all rug interaction can D. if the patient prescribe
potentially cause an drug that can potentially
A. ibuprofen D. rofecoxib adverse response in interact, the prescriber
B. naproxen E. diazepam patients should be called and a
C. ketoprofen different precipitant drug
should be suggested
B. the clinical significance E. none of the above
237. Which of the following is the major effect of
of each potential drug
doxorubicin?
interaction must be
A. pulmonary fibrosis D. agranulocytosis considered individually
B. seizure C. a precipitant drug that
C. myocardial toxicity inhibit the metabolism of
the object drug causes a
more serious drug
238. All of the following are the adverse effects of interaction than a
atropine, except: precipitant drug causing a
increase in the
A. photophobia D. sedation bioavailability of the
B. tachycardia E. dry mouth object drug
C. diarrhoea

245. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use

239. Which of the following is not a manifestation of of a drug interaction?
adverse effect of cholinergic agonist?
A. the use of probenacid D. the treatment of
A. lacrimation D. bronchoconstriction with penicillin G to depression with a
B. bradycardia E. xerostomia prolong high levels to combination of citalopram
C. myopic treat STD and MAO Inhibitor
accommodation B. giving aspirin to E. none of the above
warfarin to enhance
anticoagulation
240. Which of the following anti ulcer medication is C. instructing the patient
most likely to cause drug interaction and endocrine to take levofloxacin with
side effects? milk or antacid to
decrease GI intolerance
A. ranitidine D. cimetidine to oral therapy
B. omeprazole E. lanoprazole
C. famotidine
246. Which of the following is not a harmful food drug
interaction?
241. Which of the following salicylates has been
linked to male reproductive toxicity with chronic A. raw green salads for D. milk and doxycycline
dosing? patient on warfarin deep to treat helicobacter pylori
vein thrombosis
A. aspirin D. olsalazine B. grapefruit juice and E. none of the above
B. difflunisal E. sulfasalazine cyclosporin to prevent
graft vesus host rejection 254. Which of the following type III anti arrhythmic has
of a transplanted kidney been reported as causing the torsaded de pointes
C. omeprazole beads in type of ventricular tachyarrythmia
applesauce for patients
with problem swallowing A. diltiazem [Link]
capsule secondary to B. flecainide [Link]
GERD. C. quinidine

247. Asians are at greatest risk of all ethnic group for 255. It is used as an anti hypertensive agent is limited
genetic polymorphism in which one of the following due to its adverse effect as reflex tachycardia,
cytochrome p450 (CYP) isoenzymes. headache and postural hypertension:

A. CYP 2D6 D. CYP 1A2 A. hydralazine D. captopril

B. CYP 3A4 E. all of the above B. guanabenz E. prazosin
C. CYP 2C19 C. methyldopa
248. Preventable adverse drug reaction

A. generally display mild D. all of the above 256. All of the following factors may increase the risk
symptoms of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except one.
B. are always easily E. none of the above
recognized A. concurrent cisplatin D. prolonged courses of
C. are problems that are therapy gentamikici n therapy
easily medically managed B. trough gentamicin E. aged. 70y/o
levels, 2mg/ml
C. concurrent
249. The phrase “one which is noxious and amphoteracin B therapy
unintended and which occurs on dosses normally
used in man for the prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy
of disease, or for the modification of physiological 257. Which of the following anticonvulsant is
function”, describes: contraindicated in patient with a history of
hypersensitivity to TCA?
A. a side effect D. medication error
B. an adverse drug E. all of the above A. phenobarbital D. ethosuximide
reaction B. carbamazepine E. phenytoin
C. an adverse drug event C. acetazolamide

250. Levodopa_carbidopa combination has the 258. What are the most common adverse effects of
popular brand name of anticonvulsive drugs?

A. tagamet D. naproxen A. adverse effects on D. gastrointestinal

B. cinemet E. aspirin appetite and body weight symptoms
C. dilantin B. alteration of cognition E. headache and
and mentation dizziness
C. all of the choices
251. Myopathy is an aadverse effect of all the
following agents, except:
259. Which of the following anticonvulsive drug has a
A. lovastatin D. gemfibrosil higher incidence of kidney stones?
B. simvastatin E. colestipol
C. pravastatin A. tiagabine D. phenytoin
B. topiramate E. B,C and D
C. gabapentine
252. Patient with angina pectoris receiving
propranolol plus diltiazem must be monitored for
which adverse effects? 260. Levodopa is associated with which of the
following problems?
A. decreased cardiac D. both A and B
output A. GIT problem D. all of the above
B. decreased heart rate E. both A and C B. involuntary movement E. none of the above
C. increased heart rate C. decline in efficacy
after 3-5 years

253. Which of the following drug has a limited anti

arrhythmic use due to its strong anticholinergic effect? 261. The following are true regarding incompatibilities
except:
A. disopyramide D. procainamide
B. flecainide E. quinidind A. problem arising during D. must be recognized by
C. tocainide compounding, dispensing the pharmacist
and drug administration
B. easier to correct than E. all of the above
to prevent
C. maybe intentional or
unintentional B. this lead to drug E. none of the above
tolerance
C. this is an ADR
262. oxidizingare incompatible with reducing agents.
This is a:
270. Type F ADR’S can occur as a result of the
A. physical incompatibility D. both A & B following, except
B. chemical E. both A & C
incompatibility A. antimicrobial drug D. drug instability
C. therapeutic resistance
incompatibility B. patient compliance E. none of the above
C. counterfeit drugs

263. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when

placed on an acidc solution can result in: 271. Which of the following characteristic of
idiosyncratic drug reactions is the least important?
A. A conversion into free D. all of the following
acid A. congenital D. none of the above
B. precipitation of E. none of the following hypersensitivity
penicillin B. genetic and hereditary E. all of the above
C. insolubility in origin
C. metabolic abnormality

264. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different

polymorphs, each differ in the following properties 272. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by
except. the sudden release of endotoxin from various killed
microorganism is called:
A. solubility D. none of the above
B. free energy E. all of the above A. herxheimer reaction D. anaphylactic reaction
C. melting point B. lyell’s syndrome E. none of the above
C. skin reaction

265. The following are manifestation of chemical

incompatibilities, except: 273. A potential problem in TPN formulation is the
incompatibility between:
A. immiscibility D. evolution of gas
B. protolysis E. none of the above A. potassium phosphate D. insulin and zinc
C. gel formation and calcium gluconate chloride
B. potassium choloride E. none of the above
and calcium gluconate
266. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will C. potassium phosphate
lead too: and zinc chloride
[Link] of D. all of the above
pressor amines 274. Which of the following is the least possible
B. increase in BP E. none of the above remedies for liquefaction of solid substance?
C. non-metabolism of
tyramine A. triturate separately and D. incorporate cotton in
mix with tumbling packaging
B. add adsorbent to liquid E. none of the above
267. the following are true regarding excretion of combination
acidic drugs except: C. dispense powders
separately
A. Exists in the ionized D. none of the above
state in acidic urine
B. exist in non ionized E. both A & B 275. Which of the following solvents is the least
form in alkaline urine considered as a co-solvent.
C. acidic urine increases
drug interaction A. water and mineral oil D. glycerol and sorbitol
B. ethyl alcohol and E. none of the above
sorbitol
268. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are _________of C. sorbitols and glycols
coumarins.

A. enzyme induces D. agonist 276. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic

B. enzyme inhibitor E. none of the above incompatibilities when administered at the same time,
C. antagonists except:

A. sedatives and D. aspirin and warfarin

269. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme stimulants
inducers. As a consequences, B. tannins and aloins E. all of the above
C. caffeine and chloral
A. one needs to increase D. all of the above hydrate
the dose of drug
 norepinephrine can
cause severe headache
277. Water is most likely to cause instability on the and hypertension
following drugs, except:

A. penicillins D. benzodiazepines 283. Petition for favour of healing and warming from
B. cephalosporins E. macrolides great care and precaution:
C. alkaloids
A. Rx D. Mark thou
B. signa E. subscription
278. It occurs when drugs are inappropriately in C. magistral pharmacy
syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration

A. pharmacodynamic D. all of the above 284. Instruction for patient in taking medication:
interaction
B. pharmaceutical E. none of the above A. transcription D. subscription
interaction B. inscription E. signa
C. pharmacokinetic C. superscription
interaction

285. Combination of salt substitute and potassium

279. Which statement is not true regarding lithium-
sparring drugs will result to:
NSAId Combination?

A. AID impair renal D. AID inhibit A. hyperkalemia D. calcemia

synthesis of broncho prostaglandin dependent B. tachycardia E. acidosis
dilator prostaglandin renal excretion of lithium C. alkalosis
B. AID antagonize the E. all of the above
renal excretion of
lithium 286. Drugs that should not be given to children with
C. AID may cause chicken pox or flu symtoms:
sodium and water
retention. A. acetaminophen D. paracetamol
B. aspirin E. mefenamic acid
C. ibuprofen
280. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will
result to the following except:
287. Which of the following factors may make it
A. peak level decreases D. pharmacological necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
response are decreased patients?
B. accelerates E. none of the above
metabolism A. reduced enzyme D. enhanced metabolism
C. increased overall activity
elimination rate B. reduced kidney E. A and B
function
C. enhanced absorption
281. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:

A. unionized, hence D. unionized, not 288. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus
reabsorbed, decreases reabsorbed, increases increases the plasma levels of:
half life. elimination rate
B. more ionized, not E. none of the above A. mercaptopurine D. aspirin
reabsorbed, decrease B. chloral hydrate E. NOTA
half life C. disulfiram
C. more unionized, not
reabsorbed, increase half
life 289. Clindamycin is closely related to which of the
following in effective spectrum

282. Which statement is incorrect regarding A. chloramphenicol D. lincomycin

interaction involving tyramine containing substance B. tobramycin E. it is unique in spectrum
and MAO inhibitor? C. kanamycin
A. inhibition of MaO D. large amount of stored
results in the epinephrine can cause 290. The following are guidelines for reducing drug
accumulation of large hypotensive crisis interactions except:
amounts of
norepinephrine A. employ combination D. know properties of
B. decrease ion the rate E. none of the above therapy drugs
of intracellular B. identify patient risk E. NOTA
metabolism factor
C. large amount of
C. educate the patient A. pharmacokinetic D. pahrmaceutics
interaction interaction
B. pharmacologic E. NOTA
291. Anaphylaxis is a: interaction
C. pharmacodynamic
A. type A ADR D. type F ADR interaction
B. type B ADR E. type C ADR
C. type E ADR
299. Displacement of plasma protein bound drug as in
warfarin phenylbutazone interaction results in:
292. Oxidizing agents area incompatible with reducing
agents A. hemorrhage D. both A and B
B. increased E. NOTA
A. physical incompatibility D. both A and B concentration of warfarin
B. therapeutic E. AOTA C. decreased activity of
incompatibility warfarin
C. chemical
incompatibility
300. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent inducers.
Therefore:
293. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily
have a causal relationship with the treatment is called: A. one needs to increase D. both A and B
dose of drug
A. adverse drug reaction D. both A and B B. this leads to drug E. AOTA
B. therapeutic E. NOTA tolerance
incompatibility C. this is an ADR
C. adverse drug event

294. The precipitation of an organic substance from a

saturated solution when highly soluble salts are
added is known as:

A. polymorphism D. eutexia
B. salting out E. chelation
C. racemisation

295. Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different

polymorphs, each differ in the following properties,
except:

A. solubility D. chelation
B. free energy E. NOTA
C. melting point

296. MAOI and food rich in tyramine like cheese will

lead to:

A. accumulation of D. AOTA
pressor amines
B. increase in blood E. both A and B
pressure
C. non- metabolism of
tyramine

297. The following condition/s will amplify the activity

of cardiac glycosides:

A. hypercalcemia D. both A and B

[Link] E. NOTA
C. hypernatremia

298. Drug drug interaction that occur when one drug

alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and
excretion of the other drug: