17-05-2026

0000OMD303029250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A sphere of mass m is tied to end of string of length ℓ and rotated through the other end along a
horizontal circular path with speed v. The work done in full horizontal circle is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road in taking a turn

(1) By the gravitational force

(2) Due to lack of sufficient centripetal force
(3) Due to rolling frictional force between tyre and road
(4) Due to the reaction of the ground

3) A man running at a speed of 5 m/s, the rain drops appear to be falling at an angle of 45° from the
vertical. If the rain drops are falling vertically downwards w.r.t. ground, then velocity (w.r.t. ground)
in m/s is

(1) 5
(2) 5
(3) 5
(4) 4

4)

The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from the earth's surface (radius R) to infinity
is-

(1)

(2) 2mgR
(3) mgR

(4)

5) When we move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity(g) :-
(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same
(4) first decreases then increases

6) A disc of radius 0.1 m rolls without sliding on a horizontal surface with a velocity of 6 m/s. It then
ascends a smooth continuous track as shown in figure. The height up to which it will ascend is- (g =

10 m/s2)

(1) 2.4 m
(2) 0.9 m
(3) 2.7 m
(4) 1.8 m

7) The velocities of two particles A and B of same mass are and where a and b are

constants. The acceleration of particle A is and acceleration of particle B is (in

2
m/s ). The centre of mass of two particle will move in :-

(1) straight line

(2) parabola
(3) ellipse
(4) circle

8) A particle of mass m in a unidirectional potential field have potential energy U(x) = a +

2bx2 where a and b are positive constants. Find time period of oscillation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two cars get closer by 8 m every second while travelling in the opposite directions. They get
closer by 0.8 m every second while travelling in the same direction. What are the speeds of the two
cars?

(1) 4 m s–1 and 4.4 m s–1

(2) 4.4 m s–1 and 3.6 m s–1
(3) 4 m s–1 and 3.6 m s–1
(4) 4 m s–1 and 3 m s–1

10) Two tall buildings are 30 m apart. The speed with which a ball must be thrown horizontally from
a window 150 m above the ground in one building so that it enters a window 27.5 m from the
ground in the other building is: (Take g = 9.8 m/sec2)

(1) 2 ms–1
(2) 6 ms–1
(3) 4 ms–1
(4) 8 ms–1

11) What should be the value of mass M so that 8kg block may remain at rest ?

(1) 2kg
(2) 4kg
(3) 8kg
(4) 16kg

12) If K = find dimensional formula of K :-

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT4]

13) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 20 N
14)

A ball is dropped from a height h on a floor of coefficient of restitution e. The total distance covered
by ball before second hit is :-

(1) h(1 – 2e2)

(2) h(1 + 2 e2)
(3) h(1 + e2)
(4) he2

15) A Metal block is experiencing an atmospheric pressure of 105 N/m2. When the same block is
placed in a vaccum chamber, the fractional change in its volume : (the bulk modulus of metal is 1.25
× 1011 N/m2)

(1) 4 × 10–7
(2) 2 × 10–7
(3) 8 × 10–7
(4) 1 × 10–7

16) A new scale of temperature (which is linear) called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of
water are 39°W and 239°W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale,
corresponding to a temperature of 39°C on the Celsius scale ?

(1) 200° W
(2) 139° W
(3) 78° W
(4) 117°W

17) A Cylinder of radius R made of material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical

shell of inner radius R and outer radius 3R made of a material of thermal conductivity K2. The two
ends of combined system are maintained at two different temp there is no loss of heat across
cylindrical surface and system is in steady state calculate effective thermal conductivity of system :-

(1)

(2) K1 + K2

(3)

(4)

18) A gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The part ABC of process is
semicircular. The work done by the gas is :-

(1) 400 πJ
(2) 2456 J
(3) 200 πJ
(4) 1826 J

19) The volume of an ideal gas is V at pressure P and temperature T . The mass of each molecule of
the gas in m. The density of gas will be :-
(K is Boltzmann's constant)

(1) mKT
(2) Pm / KT
(3) P / KTV
(4) P / KT

20) The stationary wave y = 2a sin kx cosωt in a stretched string is the result of superposition of y1
= a sin(kx – ωt) and :-

(1) y2 = a cos(kx + ωt)

(2) y2 = a sin(kx + ωt)
(3) y2 = a cos(kx – ωt)
(4) y2 = a sin(kx – ωt)

21) An open pipe of length 33 cm resonates to a frequency of 1000 Hz. The mode of vibration is:
(velocity of sound = 330 m/s)

(1) Fundamental
(2) The 2nd harmonic
(3) The 3rd harmonic
(4) The 4th harmonic

22) A horizontal light ray passes through a prism (µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a
plane mirror M, that has been placed vertically. By what angle the mirror is rotated so that the ray
after reflection becomes horizontal?

(1) 1°
(2) 2°
(3) 4°
(4) 8°

23) Reading of the ideal voltmeter in circuit below is :

(1) Zero
(2) 2V
(3) 5V
(4) 6V

24) H+, He+ and O++ are projected in uniform transverse field with equal accelerating potential, then
ratio of their radii are respectively if their masses are 1 a.m.u., 4 a.m.u. and 16 a.m.u. respectively :-

(1) 1 : :2

(2) 1 : :
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) :2:1

25) Assertion :- If two particles having same mass and charge are projected with same speed in
same magnetic field then their time period of one revolution will be same.

Reason :- If a particle is revolving in a magnetic field only then its time period will be given by
where symbols have their usual meaning.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

26) For the given circuit of ideal p-n junction diode, which of the following is incorrect?
 (A) In forward biasing the voltage across R is V.
(B) In reverse biasing the voltage across diode is V.
(C) In forward biasing the voltage across diode is V.
(D) In reverse biasing the voltage across R is V.

(1) Both (A) and (B)

(2) Both (A) and (D)
(3) Both (B) and (C)
(4) Both (C) and (D)

27) In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ. The shortest
wavelength in the Brackett series is :

(1) 4λ
(2) 9λ
(3) 16λ
(4) 2λ

28) When light travels from one medium to the other of which the refractive index is different, then
which of the following will change :

(1) Frequency,wavelength and velocity

(2) Frequency and wavelength
(3) Frequency and velocity
(4) Wavelength and velocity

29) For the circuit shown in figure, the potential difference between point a and b, (Vb–Va) will be

(1) R2 – R1
(2) R1–R2

(3)

(4) zero

30)

Maxwell's modified form of Ampere's Circuital law is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The wavelength λe of an electron and λp of a photon of same energy E are related by :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) In the given circuit, the diode has a forward resistance of 8 Ω and infinite backward resistance.

The value of R is :-

(1) 44 Ω
(2) 48 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

33) A container is filled with water upto height 1m. Find out
diameter of disc at top of water surface from which light is coming out.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) The following configuration of gate is equivalent to :-

(1) NAND
(2) XOR
(3) OR
(4) None of these

35) In the following which of the statements is correct :-

(1) In YDSE and single slit diffraction spherical wavefront is used.

(2) In YDSE plane wavefront and in single slit spherical wavefront are used
(3) In YDSE spherical wavefront and in single slit diffraction plane wavefront is used
(4) In YDSE and single slit diffraction plane wavefront is used.

36) Two polariods are oriented with their planes perpendicular to incident light and transmission
axis making an angle of 30° with each other what fraction of incident unpolarised light is
transmitted?

(1) 25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 37.5%
(4) 42.5%

37) A hollow metallic sphere with charge q at centre is shown. Which one is correct

(1) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0, EC ≠ 0
(2) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0, EC = 0
(3) EA = 0, EB = 0, EC ≠ 0
(4) EA ≠ 0, EB ≠ 0, EC = 0

38) Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are connected by a thin wire. If q1 and q2 are the initial
charges on the two spheres then the ratio of final surface charge densities are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field which changes from B0 to 4B0 in time
interval t. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :

(1) 3A0B0/t
(2) 4A0B0/t
(3) 3B0/A0t
(4) 4B0/A0t

40) A stepdown transformer reduce the voltage of transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The
power delivered by it is 880 W and its efficiency is 88%. The input current is :-

(1) 4.65 mA
(2) 0.465 A
(3) 0.4545 A
(4) 4.65 A

41) In the circuit shown in figure, the AC source gives a voltage V = 20 cos (2000t). Neglecting

source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be :-

(1) 0 V, 2.0 A
(2) 0 V, 1.4 A
(3) 5.6 V, 1.4 A
(4) 8 V, 2.0 A

42) The binding energy per nucleon of C-12 is 7.68 MeV and C-13 is 7.48 MeV. The energy (in MeV)
required to remove the extra neutron from C-13 is very nearly equal to :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.9
(4) 5

43) In the experiment of photoelectric effect saturation current (is) is 5mA and stopping potential (vs)
is 10V. If intensity (number of photons per unit time) and frequency of light both are doubled then :

(1) is = 5mA and Vs = 10V

(2) is = 10mA and Vs = 20V
(3) is = 5mA and Vs > 20V
(4) is = 10mA and Vs > 20V

44) Given that potential difference across 1 µF capacitor is 10V. Then :-

(1) Potential difference across 4µF capacitor is 40V

(2) Potential difference across 4µF capacitor is 2.5V
(3) Potential difference across 3µF capacitor is 5V
(4) Value of E is 70V

45) An arrangement of three capacitors is connected to a battery as shown in the figure. C1 and

C2 having fixed values, if C3 is increased :-

(1) charge on C1 increases and that on C2 also increases

(2) charge on C1 decreases and that on C2 also decreases
(3) charge on C1 increases but that on C2 decreases
(4) charge on C1 decreases but that on C2 increases

CHEMISTRY

1) In given reaction :-

X is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) CH3 –CH=CH2

2) (B)
major product B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following is maximum reactive towards NAR :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A B C D C6H6,
Functional groups in A,B,C and D respectively are-

(1) –NO2, –NH2, – N = N–, –OH

(2) OH, –NH2,–N=N–, –NO
(3) –NO2, –NH2, –NH–NH–, –OH
(4) – NO2, –Cl, –ONO, – OH

5) The ortho and para-directing group among the following is :-

(1) –CHO
(2) –COCH3
(3) –NHCOCH3
(4) –C≡N

6) Which of the following is chain propagation step in monochlorination of methane :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

7) The nature of colloidal solution obtained when excess FeCl3 is added in precipitate of Fe(OH)3 ?

(1) (+) vely charged

(2) (–) vely charged
(3) No charge
(4) All of above

8) The equivalent conductivity of N/10 solution of acetic acid at 25°C is 15 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. What is
the Degree of dissociation of acetic acid ?
(Λ∞(CH3COOH) = 400 ohm–1cm2eq–1)

(1) 3.75 %
(2) 3.9 %
(3) 2.12 %
(4) 0.008 %

9) Which of the following molecule is non-polar in nature and have polar bond :-

(1) XeF4
(2) PH3
(3) NCl3
(4) NH3

10) Which of the following is not linear in shape

(1) N2O
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Among the following compound, which is both paramagnetic and coloured ?

(1) K2Cr2O7
(2) (NH4)2[TiCl6]
(3) VOSO4
(4) K3[Cu(CN)4]

12) On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide
salt, violet fumes come out. This is because:-

(1) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2

(2) HI is of violet colour
(3) HI gets oxidised to I2 by con. H2SO4
(4) HI changes to HIO3

13) Ionic chloride is tested by :-

(1) Chromyl chloride test

(2) Layer test
(3) Perchloric acid
(4) Nessler's reagent

14) Which of the following is an exception of octet rule but does not accept e– pair :-

(1) BF3
(2) PCl5
(3) NO2
(4) SiF4

15) The colour in borax bead test due to :-

(1) Meta borate of transition metal

(2) Sodium metaborate
(3) Boron oxide
(4) Boric Anhydride

16) Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond :-

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) [Fe(CO)5]

17) , B is :-

(1) Yellow ppt

(2) White ppt
(3) Red ppt
(4) Violet ppt

18)
In the above reaction product A and B are :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Identical
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Homologues

19) Number of de-Broglie waves in 4th orbit of hydrogen atom is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 3
(4) 1

20) Assertion :- Oxidation of iron is given by 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) entropy change for rection is
–549.4 kJ/mol-K at 298 K. Hence, it is a non-spontaneous process.
Reason :- For a process to be spontaneous, ΔStotal & ΔG of a system should be positive & negative
respectively.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

21) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) NaCl(s) → (p) Enthalpy of atomisation

0
(ii) NaCl(s) → (q) ΔsolH

(iii) Na(s) → Na(g) (r) Enthalpy of formation

(iv) (s) Lattice enthalpy

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ)
(1) (i)-q ; (ii)-r ; (iii)-p, (iv)-q
(2) (i)-q ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-r, (iv)-p
(3) (i)-r ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-p, (iv)-q
(4) (i)-q ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-p, (iv)-r

22) Calculate the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.10 M NaOH solution. The solubility product of
Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15.
(1) 2 × 10–13 M
(2) 3.2 × 10–8 M
(3) 5 × 10–5 M
(4) 3 × 10–17 M

23) Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice :-

Column -I Column-II

(A) ΔHmix = 0, ΔVmix = 0 (i) Non - ideal solution

(B) ΔHmix ≠ 0, ΔVmix ≠ 0 (ii) Positive deviation

(C) ΔHmix < 0, ΔVmix < 0 (iii) Ideal solution

(D) ΔHmix > 0, ΔVmix > 0 (iv) Negative deviation

(1) (A)→(i), (B)→(iii), (C)→(ii), (D)→(iv)
(2) (A)→(iii), (B)→(i), (C)→(iv), (D)→(ii)
(3) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iii), (C)→(iv), (D)→(i)
(4) (A)→(iii), (B)→(ii), (C)→(i), (D)→(iv)

24) For a bimolecular elementary reaction

A + B → Products, Rate = PZAB e–Ea/RT

(1) P is called probability factor.

(2) ZAB represent collision frequency of reactants A & B.
–E /RT
(3) e a
corresponds to the fraction of molecules that have energies equal to or greater than Ea.
(4) All are correct

25) A reaction A → Product, which is of first order with respect to A has a rate constant of 6 min–1. If
we start with [A] = 0.5 M, when will [A] reach the value of 0.05 M ?

(1) 0.384 min

(2) 0.15 min
(3) 3 min
(4) 3.84 min

26) What weight of the non volatile solute urea needs to be dissolved in 100 g of water in order to
decrease the vapour pressure of water by 25% ?

(1) 100 g
(2) 111.1 g
(3) 150 g
(4) 201.5 g

27) The emf of the cell Zn|Zn+2||Ag+|Ag is independent of :-

(1) The quantity of solution of Zn+2 & Ag+ ions
(2) The molarity of Zn+2 ions in the solution
(3) Moles of Ag+ ions in unit volume
(4) Temperature

28) Which is the correct order of bond order ?

(1)
(2)
(3) N2 > O2 > F2
(4) All

29)
Find the correct statement

(1) Y gives orange ppt with 2, 4 D.N.P.

(2) Y give silver mirror test.
(3) Y can not react with NaHSO3
(4) Y give red-brown ppt of Cu2O with benedict solution

30) C6H5N2Cl
product C is :-

(1) C6H5COOH
(2) C6H5CONH2
(3) C6H5NH2
(4) C6H5CN

31) CH3–CH=CH2 Product

Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) it involves cyclic bromonium ion formation

(2) reaction proceeds with anti addition
(3) this reaction acts as test of unsaturation
(4) no color changes of Bromine takes place.

32) How many statements given below are true ?

(a) The energy of an electron in a multi electron atom depends on its principle quantum number &
azimuthal quantum number.
(b) Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decreases with increase in the atomic number.
E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)
(c) Sodium has 10 core electrons
(d) The size, shape & energy of all 3p orbitals are identical.
(e) If probability density |ψ|2 is constant on a given surface, |ψ| is also constant over the surface. The
boundary surface for |ψ|2 & |ψ| are identical.
(f) There are two d-orbitals which do not have electron density along the axis.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 6

33) Which of the following is not a disproportionation reaction.

P4(s) + + 3H2O(ℓ) → PH3(g) +

(1)

(2) S + → + + 6H2O(ℓ)
8(s)

(3) Cl2(g) + → + + H2O(ℓ)

(4) NaH(s) + H2O(ℓ) → NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

34) Which compound is formed when excess of KCN is added to aqueous solution of copper sulphate
?

(1) Cu(CN)2
(2) K2[Cu(CN)4]
(3) K[Cu(CN)4]
(4) K3[Cu(CN)4]

35) Which of the following species is paramagnetic and have bond order equal to F2 ?

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) B2
(4) Li2

36) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) Ionic character : MCl < MCl2 < MCl3

(2) Polarisibility : F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
(3) Polarising power : Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Covalent character : LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

37) Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole
moments ?
(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3
(2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3
(3) NH3 > BF3 > NF3
(4) NH3 > NF3 > BF3

38) Which of the following is square planar and paramagnetic complex?

–2
(1) [NiCl4]
–2
(2) [Pt(CN)4]
–2
(3) [Zn(OH)4]
2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]

39) Which of following halide is inert towards hydrolysis at room temperature :-

(1) SiCl4
(2) PCl3
(3) NF3
(4) NCl3

40) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following is structure of β-D-Glucopyranose ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Assertion : Staggered conformation of ethane is most stable while eclipsed conformation is
least stable.
Reason : Staggered form has the least torsional strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum
torsional strain

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reasion is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

43) Consider the following statements about chromatography.

(a) Silica gel can be used as an adsorbent in column chromatography.
(b) Thin layer chromatography is a type of adsorption chromatography.
(c) In paper chromatography, the chromatography paper contains water molecules trapped in it.
the correct statement are -

(1) a & b only

(2) b & c only
(3) a & c only
(4) a, b & c

44)

Standard electrode potentials of

Fe2+ + 2e– → Fe and Fe3+ + 3e– → Fe are –0.440 V and – 0.036 V respectively. The standard electrode
potential E° for Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ is :-
(1) –0.476V
(2) –0.404V
(3) +0.404V
(4) +0.772V

45)
For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction A → 3B, if pressure after time t was PT and initial
0
pressure was P then select correct relation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Match the column I with column II and choose the option correct.

Condensation of
(a) (i) Leptotene
chromosome starts

Pairing of homologous
(b) (ii) Zygotene
chromosomes

Recombination nodule
(c) (iii) Diplotene
formation

(d) Appearance of chiasmata (iv) Pachytene

Chromosomes are fully

(e) (v) Diakinesis
condensed
Options :
(1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv), e–(v)
(2) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iv), d–(iii), e–(v)
(3) a–(i), b–(iii), c–(ii), d–(iv), e–(v)
(4) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(i), d–(iv), e–(v)

2) Identify the incorrect statement regarding Anaphase I.

(1) Segregation or disjunction of homologous chromosome occurs

(2) Division of centromere is absent
(3) Chromosome number increase
(4) Sister chromatids remains associated at their centromere.

3) What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related
population ?
 (i) (ii)

(1) Expanding Stable

(2) Stable Declining

(3) Expanding Declining

(4) Declining Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of the following is a correct equation for exponential growth curve :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which of the following symmetry is shown in the following diagram?

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Spherical symmetry
(4) Asymmetry

6) Match the common names given under list – I with the names of the animals given under list – II.
select the correct answer.
List-I List-II
A. Silver fish (i) Octopus
B. Flying fish (ii) Lepisma
C. Devil fish (iii) Myxine
D. Hag fish (iv) Exocoetus
(1) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii

7) Tissue is defined as :-

(1) Different type of cells which are different in structure and function
(2) Similar cells at different regions performing many functions
(3) A group of similar cells alongwith intercellular substances perform a specific function
(4) Similar type of cells held together by connective tissue

8) Identify labels A, B, C in the diagram of alveoli :–

(1) Alveolar cavity, Basement membrane, Endothelium

(2) Alveolar atria, Basal lamina, Alveolar wall
(3) Alveolar cavity, Basal lamina, Endothelium
(4) Alveolar cavity, Basement substance, red blood cell

9) Nitrogenous wastes, water and ions [like Na+, K+, Cl– etc] accumulated in animal body either by
…A.. or by ….B…..
In above sentence identify A and B then choose correct option.

(1) A-Metabolic Activity; B-Excess secretion

(2) A-Indigestion; B-Excess ingestion
(3) A-Metabolic Activity; B-Excess ingestion
(4) A-Metabolic Activity; B-Excess Egestion.

10) Assertion : Presence of myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of nerve impulse.
Reason : In myelinated neurons, depolarization occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier, resulting in
saltatory or jumping conduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Cardiac muscle differ from skeletal muscles on the basis of :-

(1) Sarcolemma
(2) Intercalated disc
(3) Striated
(4) Sarcoplasm

12) Normal rhythm of sleep wake cycle, Metabolism, body temperature etc. are maintained by which
hormone ?

(1) Thyroxine
(2) MSH
(3) Melatonin
(4) Insulin

13) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Adrenal cortex hormones stimulates Na+ reabsorption.

(2) Thyroid hormone helps in regulation menstrual cycle.
(3) Estradiol and oestrogen are binds with intranuclear receptors.
(4) Cortisol maintain immune system by stimulation of Antibody formation.

14) The figure given below depicts a mammary gland. Identify the structures which are marked as A,

B, C, D :-

A B C D

Muscles between Mammary

(1) Mammary lobe Nipple
ribs duct

Pectoralis major Lactiferous

(2) Ampulla Areola
muscle duct

Pectoralis Lactiferous
(3) Mammary duct Nipple
major muscle duct

Muscles between Mammary

(4) Ampulla Areola
ribs alveolus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) First polar body is released during oogenesis ?

(1) Before birth

(2) After completion of meiosis-I
(3) At the time of fertilisation
(4) At the time of formation of haploid ootid

16)

Read the following statements 'a' to 'd' and find out incorrect ones.
(a) Memory based innate immunity evolved in higher vertebrates.
(b) Higher vertebrate's immune system has ability to distinguish between self and non-self cells.
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease
(d) In autoimmune disease the body cells attacks self cells.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Read the following statements (A - D)

(A) The use of alcohol during adolescence may also have long term effects, it could lead to heavy
drinking in adult hood
(B) In adolescence male or female drug abuse may lead to severe facial and body acne
(C) Parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent discipline, has been
associated with lowered risk of substance (alcohol/drugs/tobacco) abuse
(D) The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and liver (cirrhosis)
How many of the above statement are true ?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

18) Stanley miller's experiment and evidences from meteorite were in favour of

(1) Biological evolution

(2) Chemical evolution
(3) Retrogressive evolution
(4) Organic evolution

19) In cockroach each ootheca consist of :

(1) 2000-4000 eggs
(2) 100-120 eggs
(3) 14-16 eggs
(4) 9-10 eggs

20) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III :-

I II III

A Progesterone a Corpus luteum i Maintain the endometrium

B Oestrogen b Ovary ii Help in parturition

C Relaxin c Theca interna iii Milk ejection reflex

D Oxytocin d Posterior pituitary iv Proliferation of endometrium

(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) B-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i

21) How many of the following contraceptive provide physical barrier?

Vault, Condom, Lippe's loop, CuT, Diaphragm, Cervical Cap, Multiload 375

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

22) Which one of the following option is correct for the given graph of species–area relationship ?

(1) ZA > ZB > ZC

(2) ZA < ZB > ZC
(3) SA > SB > SC
(4) (1) & (3) Both

23) (a) ER is a part of endomembrane system.

(b) ER is found inside the nucleus.
(c) ER only synthesize proteins.
Which of the above statement is correct?
(1) a only
(2) a & c only
(3) a & b only
(4) a, b & c

24) Considering the cell cycle which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) During the cell cycle DNA replication takes place

(2) Cell growth also takes place during cell cycle
(3) Cell cycle is a uncontrolled process
(4) Duplicated genome distribute equally in daughter cells during mitosis

25) Consider following features:

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda , Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

26) In cockroach a ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caeca is present at the junction
of :-

(1) Foregut and Hindgut

(2) Hindgut and midgut
(3) Midgut and foregut
(4) All of the above

27) Which of the following is correct for lymph ?

(1) It has same mineral distribution as that in plasma

(2) It is pale yellow in colour
(3) RBC are more in number
(4) Oxygen is more as compared to blood

28) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling is

(1) Thalamus
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Amygdala

29) Find the incorrect one related to PTH :

(1) Peptide hormone
(2) Hypercalcemic hormone
(3) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(4) Secreted during hypercalcemia

30) Condoms are one of the popular contraceptives because of the following reasons:

(1) These are effective barrier for insemination

(2) They do not interfere with coitus
(3) They help in reducing the risk of STIs
(4) All of the above

31) Monoclonal antibodies can be used for detection of which disease ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Cancer

32) Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:
(a) The evolution of life forms has driven by use and disuse of organs.
(b) Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory.
Which one of the following option is correct regarding the above statements?
Options:

(1) Statement (a) is true but (b) is false

(2) Statement (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) Both statements (a) and (b) are true
(4) Both statements (a) and (b) are false

33) How many sperms and ovum are formed by 100 primary spermatocyte and 100 primary oocyte ?

(1) 100 sperms & 100 ovum

(2) 100 sperms & 50 ovum
(3) 400 sperms & 200 ovum
(4) 400 sperms & 100 ovum

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect about cytoskeleton?

(1) Cytoskeleton maintains shape of cell

(2) Tubulin protein is structural component of flagellum
(3) Cytoskeletal fibers are proteinaceous in nature
(4) Plastids are also a part of cytoskeleton

35) Statement-A : In Anaphase-II, Sister chromatids move towards opposite ploes of the cell.
Statement-B : In prophase-II, Chromosomes once again get enclosed by a nuclear envelope.
(1) Statement-A is correct and B is incorrect
(2) Statement-A is incorrect and B is correct
(3) Statement-A is correct and B is correct
(4) Statement-A is incorrect and B is incorrect

36) Which statement is incorrect regarding function of predator ?

(1) Predators act as conduits for energy transfer across trophic level
(2) Predators over exploits its prey
(3) Predators keep prey populations under control
(4) Predators maintain species diversity in a community

37) Assertion : Pyramid of energy is always upright, never be inverted.

Reason : When energy flow from a particular trophic level to next trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat at each step.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Fill in the blanks with most correct option :

In an airplane (____'x'____) all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets (____'y'____)

(1) x = Species, y = Biome

(2) x = Ecosystem, y = Key stone species
(3) x = Ecosystem, y = Species
(4) x = Biome, y = Species

39) How many of the following are considered under "Evil Quartet" of biodiversity lose ?
Co-evolution, Parasitism, Co-extinction, Predation, Alien species invasion, Amensalism

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

40) Identify the given animals and choose the correct answer in reference of given animals.

Animal Phylum Characters

Found in polyp form,

(1) Cnidaria it's common name is
jellyfish
 Porous body, Fresh
(2) Porifera
water Sponge

Developed muscular
(3) Platyhelminthes
pharynx, Pseudocoelomate

Body is covered by
calcereous shell,
(4) Mollusca
Respiration by
book-lungs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Which one of the following cnidarian shows Metagenesis ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Adamsia
(3) Aurelia
(4) Obelia
42) In given graph some points are labelled i.e. P and Q.

Identify the various sites of circulatory system labelled A, B, C, D in

diagram and match them with point given in graph.

(1) P–A,B Q–B,D

(2) P–B,D Q–A,B
(3) P–A,B Q–C,D
(4) P–A,C Q–B,D

43) Match the terms given in column I with their physiological processes given in Column II and
choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

A Proximal convoluted tubule i Formation of concenterated urine

B Distal convoluted tubule ii Filtration of blood

Reabsorption of 70-80% of
C Henle's loop iii
electrolyted

D Counter-current mechanism iv Ionic balance

 Maintenance of concentration
E Renal corpuscle v
gradient in medulla
(1) A-iii B-v C-iii D-ii E-i
(2) A-iii B-iv C-i D-v E-ii
(3) A-i B-iii C-ii D-v E-iv
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-v E-ii

44) How many of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The number of RBC in human female is 1.5 - 3.0 millions/mm3.
(B) RBCs are the most abundant cells of blood
(C) Human's RBCs is oval and non nucleated.
(D) Average life span of RBCs is 120 days.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) During muscle contraction -

A. I bands get reduced
B. A band retain the length
C. Length of sarcomere decrease.
D. Breakdown of ATP
E. H-zone remain unchange.

(1) Only A, B, C are correct

(2) Only A, B, C and D are correct
(3) Only A, B, C and E are correct
(4) All are correct statements

46) Statement-I :- There may even be some far-reaching implications of drug alcohol abuse.
Statement-II :- The adverse effects of drug alcohol abuse are just not restricted to the person who
is using them.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is not correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct.
(4) Statement-I is not correct but statement-II is correct.

47) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) A single organism can feed at several trophic levels

(2) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level
(3) Primary consumers are herbivores
(4) Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to diminish at higher trophic levels
48) Assertion (A) : Population ecology is a link of ecology to population genetics and evolution.
Reason (R) : Natural selection operates at population level to evolve desired traits.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

49) What will be the percentage of pure plants in F2 generation of Mendal's monohybrid cross :-

(1) 12.5%
(2) 50%
(3) 6.25%
(4) 87.5%

50) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A father will never pass the gene for haemophilia to his sons.
Reason (R) : Haemophilia is sex-linked (X-linked) recessive trait.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

51) Assertion (A) : Genetic code is nearly universal.

Reason (R) : It is same for all organism except in mitochondria & some protozoans.
Choose the correct answer:-

(1) (A) is correct while (R) is incorrect

(2) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

52)

Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Aspergillus niger is bacterium which is used for obtaining acetic acid & citric acid
(2) Streptokinase is used as a clot buster
(3) Monascus purpureus is responsible for production of large holes in Swiss cheese
(4) Toddy is manufactured by Lactobacillus

53) All of the following are true w.r.t satellite DNA known as VNTRs except -

(1) Small DNA sequences arranged tandemly in many copy number.

(2) Their copy number varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
(3) Their DNA sequences are usually code for various type of proteins.
(4) The number of repeats show very high degree of polymorphism.

54) If substrate 'S' is transformed into product 'P' with the help of enzyme 'E'. Enzyme 'E' has been
introduced from wild Allele 'A'. After mutation 'A' changes into modified forms as follows :

After considering the above findings, which of the following allele pair will produce recessive
phenotype ?

(1) a, α
(2) a, β
(3) A, a
(4) β, γ

55) The bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at home,
this is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of:

(1) Pectinases
(2) Proteases
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

56)

Read the following statements and choose the option which have all the correct statements only:-
(a) RNA interference is used to prevent infestation of pest in plant
(b) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms.
(c) RNA interference is a method of cellular defense in eukaryotic organisms
(d) RNA interference involves the silencing of a specific mRNA by preventing its formation from the
corresponding gene.
Options

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

57) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Transgenic cow (Rosie) produced more balanced milk for human babies than
natural cow-milk.
Reason (R) : The milk produced by the cow, Rosie, contained human alpha-lactalbumin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

58) Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM
organisms for public services?

(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
(4) Bio-safety committee

59) The diagram represents the schematic structure of a transcription unit, choose the correct

combination of labelling :

(1) (A) coding strand (B) Terminator (C) Template strand

(2) (A) coding strand (B) Promoter (C) Terminator
(3) (A) Template strand (B) Promoter (C) Structural gene
(4) Coding strand (B) Operator (C) Terminator

60) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modification that make it :

(1) Least stable

(2) More stable
(3) Unstable
(4) Catalyst

61) How many type of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is heterozygous for 4 loci
:-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 32

62) Fill in the blanks :

The replication occur within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as _________.
(1) Origin of Replication
(2) Replication fork
(3) Continuous and discontinuous strand
(4) Template strand

63)

Bacterial colonies that have a foreign DNA fragment inserted in to the plasmid will appear white
because-

(1) X-gal can be cleaved by β-galactosidase

(2) Gal gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA
(3) Gal gene is active
(4) X-gal can be cleaved by permease

64) The protein product of the following Bt toxin genes cry IAb controls :-

(1) Cotton bollworms

(2) Corn borer
(3) Round worm
(4) Fruit fly

65) Which one of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) In a monohybrid cross of Mendel F1 always resembled either one of the parents
(2) Self pollination of tall F1 plant produces only tall plant.
Punnett square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible
(3)
genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.
(4) The contrasting traits did not show any blending at either F1 or F2 stage in monohybrid cross.

66) Fill in the blanks :

___(A)___ has evolved from ___(B)___ with chemical modification that make it ___(C)___.

(1) RNA, DNA, less stable

(2) DNA, RNA, less stable
(3) RNA, DNA, move stable
(4) DNA, RNA, more stable

67) Match the following list of microbes and their importance :

(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (i) Production of immunosuppressive agents

Ripening of
(b) Monascus purpureus (ii)
Swiss cheese
Commercial production of
(c) Trichoderma polysporum (iii)
ethanol
Production of blood cholesterol lowering
(d) Propionibacterium sharmanii (iv)
agent
 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) In eukaryote RNA polymerase-III is resposible for transcription of........

(1) tRNA, 5srRNA, snRNA

(2) mRNA, 23srRNA
(3) 16srRNA, 18srRNA
(4) 28srRNA, 18s and 5.8s rRNA

69) The experiment shown in the figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of
linkage and recombination. If in cross-I genes are tightly linked and in cross-II, genes are loosely
linked then what will be the percentage of recombinants produced in cross-I & cross-II respectively ?

(1) 98.7% and 62.8%

(2) 1.3% and 37.2%
(3) 37.2% and 1.3%
(4) 62.8% and 98.7%

70) If both parents are carrier of sickle cell anaemia, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in
a carrier child ?

(1) 0%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

71) According to two Kingdom classification all autotrophs are placed in Kingdom Plantae but R.H.
Whittaker grouped them in various Kingdoms. They are :

(1) Monera, Protista and Fungi

(2) Prostista, Fungi and Plantae
(3) Plantae, Monera and Fungi
(4) Monera, Protista and Plantae

72) Which of the following is the incorrect statement.

(1) Gemmae are non-green, multicellular and asexual buds.

(2) Sphagnum is moss.
(3) Ectocarpous is a filamentous brown algae.
(4) In member of pheophyceae class, 2 unequal flagella are present in zoospores.

73) Which of the following statement are correct for Gymnosperm

I. Having adventitious root system
II. Leaves of gymnosperms can withstand extreme temperature, humidity and wind
III. Microspores are produced in microsporagia
[Link] include medium or tall sized tree and shrubs

(1) I and II
(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I and IV

74) Choose correct statement :

(1) Cytochrome–c is a small protein attached to outer membrane of mitochondria.

(2) Cytochrome-c Transfer electrons–between complex II and complex III
(3) Cytochrome c–oxidase is a complex IV
(4) Complex III – cytochrome a and a3 and two copper centres

75) Which of the following is a correct match :

Column–I Column–II

(1) gamete + gamete Endosperm

(2) gamete + Polar nuclei Syngamy

(3) gamete + Secondary nucleus Triple fusion

Synergid
(4) gamete + gamete cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxylase.
(b) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is a coenzyme.
(c) Haem act as prosthetic group of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
to water and oxygen
(d) Cofactor is the part of enzyme which does not affect the catalytic activity of the enzyme

(1) Statements (b) and (d)

(2) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Statements (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

77) Which statement is not correct for conditions of growth :

(1) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy.

(2) Environmental signals such as light and gravity, affect certain phase/stage of growth.
(3) Every plant organism has an optimum temperature range best suited for its growth
(4) Enzymatic activities needed for growth does not require water as a medium

78) Which type of chemical composition is found in cell wall of chrysophytes?

(1) Cellulose and Calcium carbonate

(2) Cellulose and Pellicle
(3) Cellulose and Silica
(4) Peptidoglycan and Silica

79) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of root. Identify the parts labelled P,Q,R and S select the

right option about them :-

P Q R S
Region of
Region of Region of
(1) meristematic Root cap
maturation elongation
activity
 Region of
Region of Region of
(2) Root cap meristematic
elongation maturation
activity
Region of
Region of Region of
(3) Root cap meristematic
elongation maturation
activity
Region of
Region of Region of
(4) meristematic Root cap
maturation elongation
activity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Identify structure A, B and C ?

(1) A = Alanine, B = Serine, C = Glycine

(2) A = Glycine, B = Serinem, C = Alanine
(3) A = Glycine, B = Alanine, C = Serine
(4) A = Glycine, B = Alanine, C = Valine

81) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and dry places

(2) Fungi which are coprophilous, grow in/on air water, soil, animal and plants
(3) Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and habitat
(4) In fungi asexual reproduction take place by ascospores or basidiospores

82) In Cycas plant :

(1) Both male & female cones are present on same plant
(2) Male & female cones are present on different plants
(3) Only male cone present female cones are absent
(4) Only female cone present male cones are absent.

83) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram :

 A B C D

(1) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp

(2) Mesocarp Epicarp Epicarp Endocarp

(3) Mesocarp Epicarp Endocarp Seed

(4) Epicarp Mesocarp Endocarp Seed

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Assertion : Immediately after light becomes unavailable, the biosynthesis process continues for
some time, and then stops.
Reason : Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis does not directly depend on light but is dependent on
the products of light reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

85) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct, among the options given below :-

In high light intensity conditions, chloroplast are alligned as their flat surfaces perpendicular to
(1)
incident light.
(2) There is role of only chlorophyll a in the light reaction.
Overlapping between absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and action spectrum of
(3)
photosynthesis, is not a complete one to one overlapping.
(4) Both 1 and 2.

86) Fill in the blanks a,b,c and d by observing the characters given in the table and choose the
correct answer from the options :-

Female sex
Plant group Main body Fertilization Vascular tissue
organ
Bryophyta Gametophyte Zoodiogamy Absent (c)
Pteridophyta (a) Zoodiogamy (b) Archogonium
Siphonogamy
Gymnosperm sporophyte and Present (d)
oodiogamy
Option :-
a b c d
(1) Sporophyte Present Archegonium Archegonium
(2) Sporophyte Absent Oogonium Archegonium
(3) Gametophyte Present Archegonium Carpel
(4) Gametophyte Absent Archegonium Carpel
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) How many of the following structures are common in between monocotyledonous root
and dicotyledonous root ?
Radial vascular bundles, pericycle, endodermis, exarch xylem, cortex, epidermis.

(1) four
(2) three
(3) six
(4) five

88) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Plants, monocots and wheat represent taxa at different levels.

(2) Carnivora, includes families like Felidae and Canidae.
(3) Diptera is the family of housefly.
(4) Mango belongs to family anacardiaceae

89) Spraying juvenile conifers with GA-

(1) hastens the early seed bearing

(2) delays their maturity
(3) elongates their fruits
(4) promotes bolting in them

90) During Kreb’s cycle succinyl co–A is formed :

(1) When condensation of OAA with acetyl group takes place

(2) By two successive decarboxylations of citric acid
(3) During oxidation of malic acid to OAA
(4) During conversion of succinic acid into malic acid
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 4 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 4 1 2 1 4 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) WD = F.d cos 90° = 0

2)

3)
VR/G = VM/G = 5 m/s

4)

K.E = = mgR.

5) Acceleration due to gravity increases from equator to Poles.

6) Let the mass of the disc = m

Then translational kinetic energy of the disc

KT = ....(i)
When it ascends on a smooth track its rotational kinetic energy will remain same while
translational kinetic energy will go on decreasing.

At highest point KT = mgh or = mgh

or h= = 1.8 m
7)

8) F = – 4bx ⇒ K = 4b

9) (v1 + v2) × 1 = 8 ...... (1)

(v1 – v2) × 1 = 8 ...... (2)
2v1 = 8.8
v1 = 4.4 m/s
v2 = 3.6 m/s

10) Horizontal projection from height

30 = 5 × 4
u = 6 m/s

11)
For 8kg :- 4T = 8g
T = 2g
For m :- T = mg
2g = mg
M = 2kg

12) = [LT–4]

13)

Question Explanation: Calculating the weight of a block held stationary against a wall using
 friction.

Concept: Static Friction

Solution :

N = 10 (In horizontal direction)

⇒ f = mg (but f = µN)
⇒ µN = mg ⇒ (0.2) (10) = mg
⇒ mg = 2N

Final answer : Option (3)

14)
Let ball hit floor by V1 just before first collision.
Energy conservation :

⇒ ....(1)

e=
[V2 = Velocity with which ball rises after Ist collision]
Let it attains height h' after first collision.
Energy conservation

mV22 = mgh'

⇒
⇒ h' = e2h ....(2)
So, Total distance travelled before second collision = h + 2h'
= h + 2e2h = h(1 + 2e2)

15)

B= ⇒ =
 = = 8 × 10–7

16)

⇒
⇒ x = 117 °W

17)

Question Explanation : The problem asks for the effective thermal conductivity (Keq) of a
composite cylindrical system consisting of a central solid cylinder (radius R, conductivity K1)
surrounded by a cylindrical shell (outer radius 3R, conductivity K2). The heat flows lengthwise
through both materials simultaneously between two different
temperatures.

Concept: Heat Conduction – Parallel combination (composite system)

Formula : Equivalent Conductivity (Parallel):

Solution:
The cylinder and shell act as parallel conductors sharing the same temperature difference.

Area of inner cylinder

Area of outer shell
Total Area

Formula:

Final Answer: Option(3)

18)

Explain question : Work done by the gas for the cyclic process
ABCDA ⇒
WABCDA = ?
Concept : This question is based on work done in a cyclic process
Formula : Work = Area under the cycle
Solution : Work = Area under the cycle ABCDA

=
= 200 π Joule
∵ The cycle is clock wise in nature
W = +ve
So w = +200 π joule
Final Answer: Option (3)

19)

20) y1 = a sin(kx – ωt)

y2 = a sin(kx + ωt)
According to the principle of superposition, the resultant wave is
y = y1 + y2
= a sin(kx – ωt) + a sin(kx + ωt)
Using trigonometric identity
sin(A + B) + sin(A – B) = 2 sin A cos B
we get
y = 2a sin kx cos ωt

21) For open organ pipe

⇒2=n

∴ 2nd harmonic

22)
δ = (1.5 – 1) 4° = 2°
If mirror is rotated by angle θ then reflected light ray rotated by 2θ. So, if mirror is rotated by
1° reflected light rotate by 2°.

23)

E= = 5V
Reading of (V) = 5V

24)

25) Charge particle in uniform magnetic field then time period

T=

26)

in f.B voltage across diode is zero

in R.B. voltage across R is zero

27) Shortest wavelength in Balmer series (∞ → 2)

 =R (1)2

⇒∴λ= ⇒R=
Shortest wavelength in Brakett series :-
(∞ → 4)

⇒
∴

28)

Frequency of wave not depend on medium while wavelength and velocity depend on medium.

29) Vb – Va = i1(R1) – i2(R2)

30)

31) λe = λp = ⇒E=

∴ λe =

∴ λe =

λe ∝
∴ ∝ λp

32)

33)

sin θc =
 ⇒

or x=

∴ r = 3x = d=

34)

= X – OR gate

35)

36) Ι = cos2 θ

⇒ Ι= cos2 30°

37)

38)

After connection
V1 = V2
Here,
, - final charge on spheres

39) ]

40)
= 1000 W

= 0.4545 A

41)

XL = ωL = 2000 × 5 × 10–3 = 10 Ω

XL = XC case of resonance

i = 1.4 A
V = iR = 1.4 × 4 = 5.6 V

42)

Value of reaction
12 × 7.68 – 13 × 7.48 = 92.16 – 97.24 = –5.08
∴ Required energy = 5 MeV

43) As number of photons incident per second doubles number of electrons emitted also
doubles so saturation current doubles.
But eVS1 = hν – ϕ
eVS2 = 2hν – 2ϕ + ϕ
eVS2 = 2 eVS1 + ϕ
 VS2 > 2VS1
Stopping potential > 20 V

44) The circuit above can be reduced as drawn in figure below.

In series combination potential is divided in inverse ratio of capacitances so we use the ratio of
potential differences across first and second capacitor is

⇒
Similarly we use

45) As capacity of circuit increases then charge on C1 will increase. Also charge on C2 will
decrease because C3 increases.

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48) Steric hindrance decrease reactivity of NAR

49)
 Question Explanation :
The question asks to identify the functional groups of the intermediate products A, B, C, and D
in the given reaction sequence.
Concept:
This question is based on Reduction, Diazotization, Hydrolysis, Reduction (aromatic)
Solution:

So, functional groups are: −NO2​, −NH2​, −N=N−, −OH.

Final Answer: Option (1)

50)

51)

52)

53)

Question Explanation: Degree of dissociation (α) of a weak electrolyte is obtained from its
equivalent conductivity at a given concentration and at infinite dilution.

Concept: α = Λ / Λ∞, % dissociation = α × 100

Solution:

Given:
Λ = 15 ohm⁻¹ cm² eq⁻¹
Λ∞ = 400 ohm⁻¹ cm² eq⁻¹

α = 15 / 400 = 0.0375

% dissociation = 0.0375 × 100 = 3.75 %

Final Answer: Option 1

54) ⇒ μnet = 0, but Xe – F bond is polar

55)

M≡M→0 N ≡ N :→ N–
sp, linear sp, linear

56) Question Explanation: Identifying the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured.
Concept: Color, Paramagnetism, and Electronic Configuration.
Solution: The compound must have unpaired d−electrons (d1−9). VOSO4​ (V+4,d1) is
Paramagnetic and Coloured. Final Answer: VOSO4​

57) H2SO4 + I– → I2

58)

59) → total 7e– in octate

60)

M(BO2)x → where M is transitional metal & x is it's oxidation state.

61)

–ve charge ∝ Back bonding ∝ Strength of M-C bond

62)

63) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 393, 394

64)

65)

66)

67)

68)

Ideal sol ⇒ ΔHmix = 0, ΔVmix = 0

Non ideal ⇒ ΔHmix ≠ 0, ΔVmix ≠ 0
Positive deviation ⇒ ΔHmix > 0, ΔVmix > 0

69)

70)

Kt = 2.303 log

6 × t = 2.303 log

t= = 0.384 min

71)

wB =

72)
73)

74) Y is

X is

75)

NCERT XII [Link].409

76)

Reaction based

77)

78)

79)

80)

Question Explanation: Identify the species that is paramagnetic and shares the calculated
bond order of F2
Concept: This question is based on Molecular orbital theory
Solution: F2 has 18 electrons and a bond order of 1. B2 has 10 electrons, a bond order of 1,
and two unpaired electrons in π2p orbitals, making it paramagnetic.
B2 = σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px1 = ​π2py1
Final Answer: Option (3)

81) Ionic character ∝

As positive oxidation state increases or, size of cation decreases, polarizing power of cation
increases hence, the correct order of ionic character is :
MCl > MCl2 > MCl3
82) µ = NH3 > NF3 > BF3
µ = 1.47 D µ = 0.24 D µ = 0

83) [Cu (NH3)4]+2

0
Cu+2 = 4s 3d9

84) Question Explanation: Find the halide inert to hydrolysis.

Concept: Hydrolysis based on d-orbitals.
Solution:
NF3 + H2O → No reaction
NF3​ is inert to hydrolysis at room temperature because nitrogen lacks vacant d-orbitals to
accept a lone pair from a water molecule.
Final Answer: (3) NF3​

85)

Duo to localized lone pair is the strongest base

86)

Fact

87)

Fact

88)

a, b & c

89)
= 0.772

90) Question Explanation: We need to derive the expression for rate constant k for the first-
order gaseous reaction A → 3B. where the initial pressure is P0 and total pressure after time t
is Pr.
Concept: This question is based on first-order kinetics and pressure-extent of reaction
relationship.
 Solution:
Reaction:
A → 3B

Species Initial Pressure Change Final Pressure

A P0 –P0α P0(1-α)

B 0 +3P0α 3P0α

Total (Pr) - - Pr = P0(1+2α)

From total pressure relation:

For a first-order reaction: kt = In

Substituting PA = P (1–α) =
0

k= In In

Final answer: option (4)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Page No. # 168

92) NCERT XI Page No. # 169

93)

94)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 230

95)

NCERT Pg.# 47

96) NCERT Pg.# 53,54,56

97) NCERT Pg. # 100

98)
99) NCERT XII Pg.# 00

100)

101)

102) NCERT Pg.# 334

103) NCERT Page # 334, 335, 336

104)

105)

NCERT Pg # 48

106) NCERT XII (Bio)_Pg-153

107)

108) NCERT XII Pg # 127

109)

NCERT XI Pg # 115

110)

111) NCERT-XII, Pg#60

112) NCERT XII [Link]. 262 (15.1.2)

113) NCERT–XI, Pg#133

114) NCERT Page No. # 162

115)

116)

117) NCERT–XI, Pg#282, 18.2

118)

119) NCERT XIth Pg.#335

120) NCERT-XII, Pg#60

121)

122)

123)

124) NCERT–XI, Pg#136,137

125) NCERT Page No. # 169,170

126)
NCERT XII Pg. # 253

127)

NCERT XII English page # 272

128) NCERT XII [Link]. 263 (15.1.3)

129)

NCERT XII Pg. # 288

130)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 46,50,52,53

131)

132)

133)

134) NCERT–XI, Pg#279, 18.1.2

135)

136)

137)

138)
139)

140)

141) NCERT XII Pg.# 112

142)

143) NCERT XII Pg.# 121/122

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. no. 76,77

145)

146)

147)

148)

149) NCERT XII [Link].108

150) NCERT XII [Link].104

151)
152) NCERT XII [Link].106

153) NCERT Pg. # 229, 230, 231

154)

155) NCERT Pg. # 70,71

156) NCERT XII [Link].104

157)

NCERT XII Pg. # 197

158) NCERT XII Pg.# 111

159)

NCERT XII Pg. # 93

160)

161) NCERT XIth Pg.#17 Table-2.1

162) NCERT-XI Pg # 32, 35, 34

163) NCERT XI Pg # 38/39

164) NCERT XI [Link].233

165)

NCERT XII Pg. # 34

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 154 to 158

167) NCERT XI Pg.#244

168)

169)

170) NCERT XI, Pg.# 145

171) NCERT XIth, Page : 22, Para-2.3

172) NCERT Pg # 39

173) NCERT XI Pg.# 76

174) NCERT XI Pg. # 215

175) NCERT XI Pg # 210 Para 4th, Pg. 209 Para 2nd

176)

177) NCERT Page : 90, 91

178)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 7, 10, 11 and 13

179) NCERT Pg.#249, Para-IV

180) NCERT XI [Link].231–232