23-04-2026

1001CMD303029250187 MD

PHYSICS

0
1) The dimension of where μ is permiability of free space and B is magnetic field, is :-

(1) [M1L1T–1]
(2) [M L2T2]
(3) [M L–1T–2]
(4) [M L2T–1]

2) A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value 1μF, is charged by a source of potential

difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value 16μF, is charged by
a source of potential difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination
has. The value of n1n2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1

(3)

(4) 4

3) Permanent magnet are made of steel because steel has :-

(1) High retentivity and low coercivity

(2) Low retentivity and high coercivity
(3) High retentivity and high coercivity
(4) Low retentivity and low coercivity

4) An electron beam is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V and enters a region of
electric and magnetic field, adjusted such that electron beam remain undeflected. Electric field is 2
× 104 V/m and magnetic field is 0.01 T. The value of e/m is (velocity of electrons is perpendicular to
magnetic field)

(1) 2 × 1010 C/kg

(2) 1 × 1010 C/kg
(3) 4 × 1010 C/kg
(4) 0.5 × 1010 C/kg

5) A thin circular disc of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity
ω. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the disc.
The disc now rotates with angular velocity given by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) From a sphere of radius R and mass 27M, a small sphere of mass M is removed concentrically.
The moment of inertia of the remaining sphere about an axis passing through its centre is:-

(1) MR2

(2)
MR2

(3)
MR2

(4)
MR2

7) The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by :

V/m, where t and x are in second and metre respectively. It can be inferred
that :-
(a) The wavelength λ is 60π m
(b) The wave number k is 0.033 rad/m
(c) The wave amplitude is 300 V/m
(d) The wave is propagating along +x direction
Which one of the following statements are correct :-

(1) (a) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) All of these

8) A mass of monoatomic gas (γ = 5/3) at a pressure of 3 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so

that its temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the gas in the final state is :-

(1) 8 atm
(2) 28 atm
(3) 68.7 atm
(4) 96 atm

9) A converging beam of rays is incident on a converging lens. Having passed through the lens the
rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point
where the rays meet will move 5 cm away to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :-

(1) 5 cm
(2) –10 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) –30 cm

10) Three charges each +q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of sides a each.
D is the mid points of BC and O is centre of triangle. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to O

is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

11) The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in meters in space is given by V = 4x2y volt. The
electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is :-

(1) 4 along negative Y-axis

(2) 4 along positive Y-axis
(3) 8 along negative Y-axis
(4) 8 along positive Y-axis

12) An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from higher state n to the ground state. The
wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.2 eV. If the
stopping potential of the photoelectron is 8 V, then the value of n is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

13) The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 ev. The energy of He+ ion in the
third excited state will be

(1) –13.6 ev
(2) –6.04 ev
(3) –27.2 ev
(4) –3.4 ev
14) A body is moving with velocity 6 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 8 m/s
towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3) m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

15) A person of mass 10 kg is inside a lift of mass 800 kg and presses the button on control panel.
The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 2m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension in the
supporting cable is :

(1) 8600 N
(2) 9720 N
(3) 10000 N
(4) 1200 N

16) A current of 2 A flows through a 2Ω resistor when connected across a battery of internal

resistance Ω. The same battery when connected across a 9Ω resistor supplies the current of :

(1) 0.5 A
(2) 1/3 A
(3) 1/4 A
(4) 1 A

17) When 1kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the heat supplied to it, taking latent heat of ice to
be 80 cal/gm, is - (given 1 cal = 4.186 joule)

(1) 80 J
(2) 8 × 104 J
(3) 4186 J
(4) 3.35 × 105 J

18) The emf(e) produced in an inductor coil of inductance L varies with time (t) as shown in the

figure. The variation of current (i) with time (t) would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a mono chromatic radiation of λ = 1025Å. Number
of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by :

y = 3 sin (50 t – 2 x),

where x and y are in metre and t is in second. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the
wave velocity is :-

(1) 3π

(2)

(3) 2π

(4)

21) The ratio of amplitude of electric field to the amplitude of magnetic field for an
electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to :

(1) The ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

(2) Unity
(3) The speed of light in vacuum
(4) Reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

22) An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via the process as indicated in the P-V diagram

Among the given temperatureT1, T2, T3 maximum is :-

(1) All are same

(2) T1
(3) T2
(4) T3

23) The horizontal range is 4 times of maximum height of a projectile motion. The angle of projection
of the projectile is :

(1) θ = tan–1 (2)

(2) θ = 45o
θ = tan–1
(3)

(4) θ = tan–1 (4)

24) When a string is divided into three segments of length ℓ1, ℓ2 and ℓ3, the fundamental frequencies
of these segment are 200 Hz, 300 Hz and 600 Hz respectively. The original fundamental frequency
(ν) of the string is :

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 50 Hz
(3) 550 Hz
(4) 1100 Hz

25) Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat.
The length of the boat is 3.6 m and weighs 60 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits
with him. If the boat is in still water then the boat shifts by :

(1) zero
(2) 1.1 m
(3) 3.0 m
(4) 2.3 m
26) A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. A particle of mass falling freely near the
surface of this planet will experience an force due to gravity, equal to :-

(1) /25Dp2

(2) /100Dp2
2
(3) 4GMp/Dp
2
(4) GMp/25Dp

27) The potential energy of a particle is given by where A and B are positive constants
and r is distance of particle from the centre of the field, for stable equilibrium, the distance of the
particle is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Rate of energy emission of a star of radius R and absolute temperature T, is Q. If it acts as a
black body then what would be its temperature with half the radius for 4 times rate of energy
emission ?

(1) T
(2) 2T
(3)

(4)

29) A coil of resistance 100Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ(Wb) linked with the
coil varies with time t (sec) as
ϕ = 5t3 + 2t + 10.
The current in the coil at t = 1 sec is :

(1) 15 A
(2) 17 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 0.17 A

30) In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. The power
factor of circuit is unity. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the

voltage and current in the circuit is . If instead of L, C is removed from the circuit then the phase
difference become.

(1)

(2) zero

(3)

(4)

31) Four point charges Q, q, –2q and –3Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The
relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is :

(1) Q = q
(2) Q = 2q
(3) Q = –q/2
(4) Q = –2q

32) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, i, on one face of a prism of angle A and
emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is µ, the angle of
incidence i, is :

(1) sin–1[μ sin(A)]

(2) sin–1[μ sin(A/2)]

(3)
sin–1[μ sin(A)]
(4) 2sin–1 [μ sin(A)]

33) Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by

the battery is :-

(1) 0.25 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.75 A
(4) Zero

34) C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is
insulator where as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because :

The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of
(1)
Si they lie in the third
The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in
(2)
the fourth orbit.
(3) In case of C the valance band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature.
(4) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature

35) In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true:

(1) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
(2) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.
(3) Electron are minority carriers and pantavalent atoms are dopants
(4) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.

36) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at point P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the

rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) g/L

(4)

37) A wire of resistance 10Ω is stretched to thrice its original length. The resistance of stretched
wire would be :-

(1) 10/9Ω
(2) 30Ω
(3) 9Ω
(4) 90Ω

38) A body dropped from the top of a tower covers a distance 5x in the last second of its journey
where x is the distance covered in first second, How much time does it take to reach the ground ?

(1) 3 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 5 sec
(4) 6 sec

39) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 2%, 4%, 1%,

2% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as , maximum % error in P is

(1) 4 %
(2) 14%
(3) 11 %
(4) 7%

40) A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is decreased, which of
the following statements is correct ?

(1) The angular width of central maximum will be unaffacted.

(2) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
(3) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
(4) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.

41)

Height of liquid raised in a capillary tube does not depend on :-

(1) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

(2) viscosity
(3) surface tension
(4) density

42) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 4 m/s . A box is gently dropped on it. The
cofficient of friction between them is μ = 0.05. The distance that the box will move relative to belt
before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10ms–2 is :

(1) 1.6 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 0.6 m
(4) 0.4 m

43) A galvanometer of resistance, 90Ω, is shunted by a resistance 10 ohm. To keep the main current
in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is :-

(1) 0.1 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 9 Ω
(4) 81 Ω

44) A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.6 J T–1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.24 T.
The magnet is in unstable equilibrium when the potential energy is :-

(1) 0.144 J
(2) – 0.144 J
(3) Zero
(4) 0.082 J

45) A block of mass M/2 is released from the top of a wedge of mass M as shown in figure. Find the
displacement of wedge when the block reaches the bottom of wedge. Neglect friction anywhere.

(1)
backwards

(2)
forward

(3)
backward

(4)
forward

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct order of electron affinities of N,O,S and Cl :

(1) N < O < S < Cl

(2) O < N < Cl < S
(3) O < Cl < N < S
(4) O < S < Cl < N

2) The electronic configuration of Eu(atomic number 63) Pd (atomic number 46) and Th (atomic
number 90) respectively.

(1) [Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Kr] 4d10, [Rn] 7s2 6d2

(2) [Xe] 4f6 6s2 5d1, [Kr] 4s1 5d8, [Rn] 7s2 5f1 6d1
(3) [Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Kr] 4d10, [Rn] 7s2 5f1 6d1
(4) [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Kr] 4d10, [Rn] 7s2 6d2

3) Statement-I : C3O2 has linear structure.

Statement-II : Each carbon atom in C3O2 is sp-hybridised.

(1) Both the statement are correct.

(2) Both the statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

4) Out of N2O, SO2, H2O, , , the linear species are :

(1) , , H2O
 N2O,
(2)

N2O, ,
(3)

(4)

5) Which of the following species does not contain dative σ-bond.

(1) COCl2
(2) LiAlH4
(3) NaBH4
(4) NH4Cl

6) Which of the following substance have the highest basic character.

(1) BaO
(2) CaO
(3) MgO
(4) SrO

7) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(element) (Atomic radii in pm)

(a) Ga (i) 117

(b) Ge (ii) 121

(c) As (iii) 122

(d) Se (iv) 135

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

8) What product is formed by mixing the solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] with the solution of FeCl3?

(1) Ferro-ferricyanide
(2) Ferri-ferrocyanide
(3) Ferii-ferricyanide
(4) Ferro-ferrocyanide

9) Which of the following reagent can be used to seperate AgCl & AgI :

(1) KCN solution

(2) Na2S2O3 solution
(3) NH4OH solution
(4) NaCN solution

10) Choose incorrect order :

(1) Reducing nature : H2O < H2S

(2) Melting point : H2O > H2S
(3) Bond angle : H2O > H2S
(4) Basic nature : H2O < H2S

11) Which halogen oxidizes water at room temperature but does not undergoes disproportionation
into it.

(1) I2
(2) Cl2
(3) F2
(4) Br2

12) Crystal field stabilisation energy for high spin d5 octahedral complex is :

(1) –0.6 Δ0
(2) –1.8 Δ0
(3) –1.2 Δ0
(4) Zero

13) In the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature :

3–
(1) [CoF6]
3–
(2) [FeF6]
3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3–
(4) [Co(OX)3]

14) Statement-I : Zinc does not show characteristic properties of transition metals.
Statement-II : In zinc outermost shell is completly filled.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct

15) Which one of the element with the following electronic configuration may exhibit the largest
number of oxidation states.

(1) 3d14s2
(2) 3d84s2
(3) 3d54s2
(4) 3d64s2

16) Select the correct match :

Column-I Column-II

pKb of X–
(P) (1) 6.9
(Ka of HX = 10–6)

(Q) pH of 10–8 M HCl (2) 8

pH of 10–2 M
(R) CH3COOH (3) 10.7
(Ka = 1.6 × 10–5)

pOH of solution
obtained by mixing
(S) (4) 3.4
equal volume of solution
with pH = 3 and pH = 5
Codes :
P Q R S

(1) 1 2 4 3

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Four Separate salt solutions of NaW, NaX, NaY and NaZ has pH 7, 9, 10 and 11 respectively
when each solution was 0.1 M, then weakest acid is :

(1) HW
(2) HX
(3) HY
(4) HZ

18) If percentage dissociation for gaseous reaction PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 is 20% at 1 atm equilibrium
pressure. What will be the KP.

(1) 0.041
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.9
19) For the reaction of one mole Zn dust with one mole H2SO4 in bomb calorimeter, ΔU and w
correspond to :

(1) ΔU < 0, w = 0
(2) ΔU = 0, w < 0
(3) ΔU = 0, w = 0
(4) ΔU < 0, w > 0

20) For isobaric process the ratio of heat supplied (q) and work done on the system (w) for diatomic
gas is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 7 : 2
(3) 7 : 5
(4) 5 : 7

21) If n + ℓ = 6, then total possible subshell would be :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

22) If HNO3 changes into N2O, the change in oxidation state of nitrogen is -

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 4

23) How many gram of KOH is required to neutralise 12.2 g of benzoic acid :

(1) 12.2 g
(2) 5.6 g
(3) 11.2g
(4) 2.8g

24) For a reaction A ⇌ B, if forward activation energy is always found to be more than enthalpy of
reaction then.

(1) Reaction is endothermic in nature

(2) Reaction is exothermic in nature
(3) Forward activation energy will always be greater than backward activation energy
(4) Both option 1 & 3

25) If half life of a zero order reaction having 0.02 M initial concentration is 200 sec then rate
constant of reaction (in mol L–1s–1) & time required for 100% reaction to be completed (in sec) is
respectively :

(1) 10–3, 400

(2) 5 × 10–5, 400
(3) 5 × 10–5, 100
(4) 10–3, 100

26) What will be the vapour pressure of an ideal solution containing two volatile liquids A(Mw = 40
g/mol) & B(Mw = 80 g/mol) having mass ratio of 2 : 3 (Given = 350 mm Hg & = 210 mm Hg)

(1) 290 mm Hg
(2) 270 mm Hg
(3) 310 mm Hg
(4) 266 mm Hg

27) If ΔGo for a reaction has negative value, which of the following gives correct relationship
for & Keq :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) On electrolysis of aqueous AgNO3 solution using platinum electrode :

(1) pH of solution increases

(2) pH of solution decreases
(3) Ag is deposited at cathode
(4) Both option 2 & 3

29) Which of the following sol is prepared using oxidation method :

(1) As2S3 sol

(2) Au sol
(3) Fe(OH)3 sol
(4) Sulphur sol

30) Statement-I : Addition of ethylene glycol to water lowers the freezing point therefore, used as
an antifreeze substance.
Statement-II : Ethylene glycol is soluble in water.

(1) Both Statement I & II are correct

(2) Both Statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct

31) What is the hybridization shown by C2 and C3 carbons respectively in the given compound?
HC ≡ C – CH = CH2

(1) sp and sp2

(2) sp2 and sp
(3) sp and sp
(4) sp2 and sp3

32) The compound which shows metamerism

(1) C5H12
(2) C3H9N
(3) C3H6O
(4) C5H12O

33) Which of the following is the strongest acid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34)
Compound (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is

(1) Na/liquid NH3

(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
(3) Zn/HCl
(4) Hg+2/H+,HOH

36) Column chromatography is an example of

(1) Paper chromatography

(2) Adsorption chromatography
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above

37) Statement-I: In an organic compound when inductive and electromeric effect operate in
opposite direction, then inductive effect predominates.
Statement-II: H-effect is observed in o-cresol
In the light of the above statement. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Statement-I is True but Statement-II is False

(2) Statement-I is False but statement-II is True
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are True
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are False

38)
Compound X & Y are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Arrange the following in correct order of their boiling point.

(I) CH2Br2 (II) CHBr3
(III) CHCl3 (IV) CH2Cl2

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > III > I > IV

40) Ph–CH=CH–CHO Ph–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

Reagent is-

(1)
(2) Zn–Hg/H-Cl
(3) LiAlH4
(4) All of the above

41) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

Violet colour with

(P) (I)
neutral FeCl3
 Gives unpleasant
(Q) (II) smell with alc.
KOH & CHCl3

Gives silver mirror

(R) (III) test with Tollen's
reagent

With Lucas reagent

(S) (IV) cloudiness appears
instantly.
(1) P→II, Q→III, R→IV, S→I
(2) P→II, Q→III, R→I, S→IV
(3) P→III, Q→II, R→IV, S→I
(4) P→I, Q→II, R→III, S→IV

42)

Which of the following can produce CO2 while treating with NaHCO3.

(1) Propanoic Acid

(2) 2,4 - Dinitrophenol
(3) Benzene sulphonic acid
(4) All of these

43) & Ph–CHO can be distinguished chemically by

(1) Fehling solution

(2) Sodium bisulphite test
(3) Iodoform test
(4) Benedict solution test

44) Which of the following is stable at room temperature

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Both 2 & 3

45)
Product 'C' is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Read the statements (A-D) and select the option having all the correct statements -
(A) Family has a group of related orders.
(B) Wheat, plants, mammals, dogs and humans are taxa.
(C) Panthera and Felis are different taxa at same level.
(D) Lower the taxa, lesser are the common characterstics that the members share within the taxon.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and D only

2) Function of some bacterial structures are given in column I and bacterial structures are given in
column II. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option:

Column-I Column-II
(Function) (Structure)

A. Interaction with outer environment P Cell membrane

B. Protein synthesis Q Mesosomes

C. DNA replication R Fimbriae

D. Attachment with host S Ribosomes

(1) A : Q; B : P; C : S; D : R
(2) A : P; B : S; C : Q; D : R
(3) A : R; B : Q; C : P; D : S
(4) A : R; B : P; C : Q; D : S

3) Statement-I : Asexual spores conidia are found in members of Basidiomycetes and vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common.
Statement-II : Members of ascomycetes reproduce by asexual spore known as conidia.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Statements I & II both are incorrect
(4) Statements I & II both are correct

4) Fungi reproduce sexually by different means, all are correct related to sexual reproduction of
fungi except :

(1) Ascomycetes - Somatogamy

(2) Basidiomycetes - Sex organs are absent
(3) Phycomycetes - Isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous
(4) Deuteromycetes - Zygospores

5) Match the following :

(i) Virus (a) Absent in polluted area

(ii) Prion (b) Smaller than virus

(iii) Viroids (c) Bacteriophage

 (iv) Lichen (d) Abnormally folded protein
(1) (i) - (a) ; (ii) - (b) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (d)
(2) (i) - (d) ; (ii) - (b) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (a)
(3) (i) - (a) ; (ii) - (d) ; (iii) - (b) ; (iv) - (c)
(4) (i) - (c) ; (ii) - (d) ; (iii) - (b) ; (iv) - (a)

6) Observe the following figures and identify the labelled structures P, Q, R and S:-

P Q R S

(1) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Antheridiophore Seta

(2) Antheridiophore Rhizoids Archegoniophore Capsule

(3) Antheridiophore Seta Archegoniophore Leaves

(4) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Antheridiophore Capsule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) "The vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually covered on the out side by a gelatinous coating
of algin"
This statement is correct for -

(1) Chara
(2) Volvox
(3) Laminaria
(4) Polysiphonia

8) How many of the following algae are red algae?

Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Laminaria, Spirogyra, Porphyra, Fucus, Chlamydomonas

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

9) The margin of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, it is found
in :-

(1) Cassia and Gulmohur

(2) Calotropis and Mustard
(3) Pea and Bean
(4) Lady finger and Chinarose

10) Which type of placentation is it called when the single ovule directly attached to base in a
unilocular ovary?

(1) Marginal
(2) Free Central
(3) Basal
(4) Parietal

11) The figure below shows different types of vascular bundles.

Select the correct option according to diagram given below :-

(1) A - shows concentric vascular bundle

(2) B - shows radial vascular bundle
(3) C - shows conjoint open vascular bundle
(4) A - shows conjoint closed vascular bundle

12) In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?

(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) B

13) The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis.
Select the option giving correct identification :-

(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte

(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (A) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte

14) In which of the following plants both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented ?
(a) Castor (b) Date palm
(c) Papaya (d) Coconut

(1) a and b only

(2) b and d only
(3) a and c only
(4) b and c only

15) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous because they remain

(1) Always fragrant

(2) Always close
(3) Always open
(4) Always brightly coloured

16) Which one among is mono unsaturated fatty acid ?

(1) Linoleic acid

(2) Linolenic acid
(3) Oleic acid
(4) Palmitic acid

17) Which one is the correct average composition of cell in respect of % of total cellular mass ?

Water Protein Carbohydrates Lipid Nucleic acid Ions

(1) 70-90 10-15 3 2 5-7 1

(2) 70-90 3 10-15 2 5-7 1

(3) 70-90 10-15 2 3 1 5-7

 (4) 70-90 3 10-15 2 1-3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Assertion :- Enzymes can accelerate the rate of reaction by multiple times.
Reason :- Enzymes bring down the activation energy, making the transition of 'Substrate' to
'Product' easy.
Select the correct answer :-

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Only Assertion is correct
(3) Only Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

19) Consider the given statements :

A. Presence of kranz anatomy
B. Present in tropical regions
C. Respond to very lower temperature
D. Respond to high light intensities
E. In C4 cycle first produced stable product in CO2 fixation is 3-C substance 3-PGA
How many statements are correct in relation to sugarcane/maize ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 3

20) Consider the below equation of light reaction

NADP+ + 2H+ + 2e– → NADPH + H+
Protons for this equation are taken from :-

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Lumen of thylakoid
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Cytoplasm

21) RUBP + O2 → Phosphoglycerate + Phosphoglycolate

It is the first reaction of :-

(1) C3 pathway
(2) C4 Pathway
(3) Glycolate cycle
(4) Glyoxylate cycle
22) Which of the following is not a component of complex-IV (cytochrome–C–oxidase) ?

(1) Cyt–a
(2) Cyt–a3
(3) Cyt–c
(4) Two copper centres

23) Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it
enters mitochondrial matrix and undergoes :-

(1) Reductive amination

(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Reductive carboxylation
(4) Reductive decarboxylation

24) Metabolic fate of pyruvate depends upon :-

(1) Presence or absence of mitochondria

(2) Availability and unavailability of CO2
(3) Cellular need
(4) Presence or absence of electron acceptor

25) (i) Promote nutrient mobilisation

(ii) Overcome the apical dominance
(iii) Lateral shoot growth
All the above physiological effects are related to which of the following plant growth regulators?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinins

26) Assertion (A) : Cytokinin helps in the delay of leaf senescence.

Reason (R) : Cytokinin promote nutrient mobilisation.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A are R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

27) Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
(1) (a) and (d) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

28)
This is the pedigree of autosomal recessive disorder. What is the genotype of II (3) :-

(1) AA
(2) aa
(3) x°x
(4) Aa

29) A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and
normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

30) In tetrahybrid (TtRrGgAa) selfing, the possibility of plant with genotype TTRrggAa in next
generation would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In the cross AaBb × Aabb, the genotype AABb: AaBB: aabb and aaBb will be obtained in the ratio
:-

(1) 1 : 0 : 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 1 : 0 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2
32) Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations

(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
(3) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

33) If a hybrid DNA "N15 N14" is allowed to replicate in N14 medium, after three generations how
many DNA will be having N15 :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 1

34) In a given DNA segment

5' ATGACCAGGACCCCAACA 3', the fourth base gets substituted. The effect of this on coding by this
DNA segment will result in :-

(1) Complete change in the type as well as sequence of amino acids

(2) Change in the second amino acid
(3) No change in amino acids
(4) One amino acid less in the protein

35) Find out the correct options :-

1. One amino acids may have more than one codon
2. All amino acids have more than one codon
3. Codons are nearly common for all organisms
4. Codons are not found in bacteria

(1) 1, 2, 3 correct
(2) 1, 2 correct
(3) 2, 4 correct
(4) 1, 3 correct

36) Read the following statements with respect to HGP and choose the correct set of statements :
(a) Human Genome project (HGP) was called a mega project
(b) In HGP the commonly used hosts were Algae and Viruses
(c) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes and the Y has the most genes.
(d) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only
37) Match the column.

A B

A. rRNA i. Peptide bond formation

B. tRNA ii. Codon identification

C. SnRNA iii. Splicing

D. mRNA iv. Genetic information

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i

38) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species
competing for the same resource cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

39)

Which adaptation of parasite help to sustain their life in host body ?

(a) Loss of unnecessary sense organ
(b) High reproductive capacity
(c) Loss of digestive system

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) only b
(4) a, b and c

40) If decomposers are removed what will happen to the ecosystem ?

(1) Energy cycle is stopped

(2) Mineral cycle is stopped
(3) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy
(4) Productivity increased

41) The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants
during photosynthesis depends on:-
(1) Plant species inhabiting a particular area
(2) Availability of nutrients
(3) Photosynthetic capacity of plant
(4) All are correct

42)
What would be amount of energy trapped at top trophic level ?

(1) 10 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 1000 J

43) Match the following –

(a) Dodo (i) Africa
(b) Quagga (ii) Mauritius
(c) Thylacine (iii) Russia
(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

44) Strict protection of hot spots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by almost :-

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 35%
(4) 30%

45)

What percentage of total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere is produced by Amazon forest ?

(1) 50%
(2) 40%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

46) Which one option is incorrect with respect to chondrichthyes ?

(1) All are marine
(2) 2-Chambered heart
(3) Homeothermal
(4) Internal fertilisation

47) Select the correct option regarding fertilization and development in sponges?

(1) Internal, Direct

(2) External, Direct
(3) Internal, Indirect
(4) External, Indirect

48) Which of the following structures in frog directly receives blood through vena cava–

(1) Right atrium

(2) Left atrium
(3) Sinus venosus
(4) Conus arteriosus

49) Find out incorrect statement about glands.

(1) Pancreas & gonads are heterocrine glands.

(2) Goblet cell, tear gland is unicellular gland
(3) Salivary & mammary gland are exocrine gland
(4) Secretary duct is absent in endocrine gland.

50) ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle. In the
ECG of a normal healthy individual, one of the following waves is not represented ?

(1) Depolarization of atria

(2) Repolarization of atria
(3) Depolarization of ventricles
(4) Repolarization of ventricles

51) During transport of CO2, how much CO2 is delivered to alveoli by 100 ml deoxygenated blood?

(1) 20 ml
(2) 5 ml
(3) 4 ml
(4) 10 ml

52) Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements ?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Diencephalon
(4) Medulla oblongata

53) Dialysis is done when a person is suffering from:-

(1) Diabetes
(2) Uremia
(3) Polyurea
(4) Haemolysis

54) If the corpus callosum is removed in mammalian brain then what will be affected :-

(1) Coordination of Cerebrum

(2) Involuntary activity of brain
(3) Coordination of Cerebellum
(4) Behaviour and emotional disturbances

55) Which hormone is slow in action like steroid hormones ?

(1) Insulin
(2) ACTH
(3) F.S.H.
(4) Thyroxine

56) Which of the following groups of animals are ammonotelic in nature ?

(1) Marine Fishes, all amphibians, aquatic insects

(2) Mammals, birds, Reptiles
(3) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic insects.
(4) All the above

57) Which hormone triggers ovulation in females?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

58) Which of the following acts by increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus ?

(1) Condom
(2) IUD
(3) Pills
(4) M.T.P.

59) Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Periodic abstinence
(4) Vasectomy

60) Identify the type of natural selection shown in graphical representation :

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Disruptive selection

61) Sustained high fever (39 to 40°C), constipation and loss of appetite are the common symptoms of
which disease ?

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Dysentery

62) Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA technology. They are
obtained from :-

(1) Bacteriophages
(2) Bacterial cells
(3) Plasmids
(4) All eukaryotic cells

63) Which one increases strength of heart contraction?

(1) Thymosin
(2) ACTH
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Melatonin

64) Graffian follicle ruptures to release _______ from ovary by process called ovulation.

(1) Corpus luteum

(2) Corpus albican
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Primary oocyte
65) Which uterine layer has glandular nature?

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Mesometrium

66) Stabilizing selection favours

(1) Both extreme forms of a trait

(2) Intermediate forms of a trait
(3) Environmental differences
(4) One of extreme form over the other.

67) The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cell is/are?

(1) Thymus
(2) Peyer's patches and bone marrow
(3) Bone marrow and thymus
(4) Tonsils and spleen

68) Golgi body is not included in

(1) Formation of glycolipid

(2) Formation of glycoprotein
(3) Packaging of macromolecule
(4) Formation of protein

69) Production of beverages and antibiotics on an industrial scale requires growing microbes in very
large vessels called

(1) Settling tank

(2) Bioreactors
(3) Impeller
(4) Agitator

70) The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:-

(1) Bioprocessing
(2) Biofortification
(3) Downstream processing
(4) Upstream processing

71) Choose the incorrect match :

(1) Universe - Huge cluster of galaxies

(2) Earth - Formed 4.5 billion years back
(3) Origin of life - 500 million years back
(4) Appearance of first cellular forms of life - 2 billion years ago

72) Which statements are incorrect ?

(A) During muscle contraction A-band decreases.
(B) Red muscle fibers contains high quantity of myoglobin.
(C) M line join A-band
(D) Length of Myofilament decrease during muscle contraction.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

73) Match the following lists :

List-I List-II

Doubling the number of

(A) I. G1-phase
chromosomes

Synthesis of the
(B) II. S-phase
cell organelles

(C) Replication of the DNA III. G2-phase

(D) Doubling the number of cells IV. Anaphase

V. Cytokinesis

The correct match is

A B C D

(1) II I IV III

(2) II III IV V

(3) IV I II V

(4) IV I II III

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Assertion : Prolactin and oxytocin hormones of the mother take part in feeding the infant on
milk.
Reason : Prolactin from anterior pituitary stimulates mammary glands for the formation of milk, and
oxytocin released from the posterior pituitary causes the ejection of milk when the infant sucks
breast.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

75) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Gonadotropins increases during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle.
Statement-II : Low level of progesterone are main cause of shedding endometrium during
menstrual cycle.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

76) Which of the following pair is correct for given diagram ?

Diagram is Involve in

(1) Nuclear membrane DNA Synthesis

(2) E.R. Steroid Synthesis

(3) Golgi complex Glycoprotein formation

(4) E.R. Protein synthesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) In water transport system water enters through ......A...... into a central cavity .....B..... from
where it goes out through .....C...... Here A, B and C are respectively -

(1) A → Ostia; B → Spongocoel; C → Osculum

(2) A → Osculum; B → Spongocoel; C → Ostia
(3) A → Ostia; B → Osculum; C → Spongocoel
(4) A → Spongocoel; B → Ostia; C → Osculum

78) Match List-I with List-II relating to major features of embryonic development at different timings
of pregnancy:
 List-I List-II
(No. of Weeks) (Major features)

Eye–lids separate and

A. After one month of pregnancy I.
eyelashes are formed

B. After 12 weeks of pregnancy II. Heart is formed

Limbs and digits are

C. After 24 weeks of pregnancy III.
developed

External genital organs

D. End of second month of pregnancy IV.
are well developed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

79) Assertion :- Parathormone & thyrocalcitonin are antagonist to each other.

Reason :- Parathormone maintains Ca+2 concentration in blood and it's receptors are present in
Chondrocyte cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

80) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I : Some of the infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal.
Statement-II : Among non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of death.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

81) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of impulse conduction through an axon.

Select the option with the incorrect information about impulse

conduction at points A and B.

An electric current flows on the inner surface from site A to B and on outer surface, from site B
(1)
to A to complete the circuit.
(2) Action potential generated at site A arrives at site B
(3) Polarity at the site-B is reversed and hence called repolarised
The electric potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site A is called the action
(4)
potential

82) Which is incorrect for circulatory system of cockroach?

(1) Blood vessels are poorly developed.

(2) Plasma, haemocytes, erythrocytes are present.
(3) Heart chamber possess ostia on either side.
(4) Paired alary muscles are present.

83) Match the abnormal conditions given in Column I with their explanations given in Column II and
choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in Glomerulus

Mass of crystallised salts within the

(C) Glomerular nephritis (iii)
kidney

(D) Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i

84) Which one of the following is incorrect match ?

(1) Scoliodon - Viviparous

(2) Hippocampus - Oviparous
(3) Bufo - Internal fertilization
(4) Chelone - Poikilothermal

85) Read the following statements about the frog and choose the correct option-
(A) The undigested solid waste moves into the rectum and passes out through anus.
(B) RBC's are enucleated and contain haemoglobin.
(C) The ventricle opens into a sac like conus arteriosus.
(D) It is an ammonotelic animal.
(E) On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Only A, B, C and D are incorrect
(3) Only D is incorrect
(4) Only A, B and D are incorrect
86)

Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

Sexual behaviour
1 Pons a Cerebral cortex i
and emotions

Below mid brain and on upper Memory and

2 Association area b ii
side of medulla communication

Inner part of cerebral hemisphere and

3 Limbic system c iii Pneumotaxic centre
amygdala and hippocampus
(1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i, 3–c–iii
(2) 1–a–i, 2–b–ii, 3–c–iii
(3) 1–c–iii, 2–b–ii, 3–a–i
(4) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i

87) Read the following statements and choose the correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
(A) Menstrual cycle runs in non primate mammals.
(B) Menopause is the initiation of first menstrual cycle, occurs at puberty.
(C) Absence of menstrual cycle may be considered as the sign of pregnancy.
(D) In female primates menstruation repeats cyclically between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and D only

88) Read the following statements :-

(A) Human body is protected by a defensive system called immune system
(B) Immune system can be specific or may be non specific
(C) Specific or non specific immunity both are present by birth in human
(D) Specific immune system can identify self and non self cell
How many of above statements is/are wrong ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

89)

Select the correct statements from the following :-

(A) The size of prokaryotic ribosome is 15-20 μm.
(B) ATP synthesis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast.
(C) Tonoplast is the membrane of lysosome.
(D) Cellular membranes and organellar membranes are selectively permeable.
(E) Both Golgibodies and RER are involved in secretion.

(1) A and C only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) B, D and E only

90) Feather like gills which helps in excretion and respiration are present in :

(1) Pila
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Ophiura
(4) Laccifer
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 1 1 4 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 4 4 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 4 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 4 2 1 3 4 4 1 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 3 1 1 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) = Energy density

= [M1L–1T–2]

2)

Put C1 = 1μF, C2 = 16 μF
than n1 n2 = 1

3)

Permanent magnet have high retentivity and high coercivity.

4)

Potential difference is 100 V

For beam remain undeflected

E = v × B sin 90°

5) By conservation of angular momentum

6) Inet = Isphere – Iremoved

7)

A = 300 V/m, ω = 107 ⇒ ω = 2πn =

= 0.033 rad / m
wave propagate along -x direction.

8) In adiabatic process = constant

so P2 = P1 = (3 atm)
= (3 atm) (4)5/2
= (3 atm) (25) = 96 atm

9) Here u = + 20 cm
v = + 15 cm

By lens maker formula

⇒ f = 60 cm

10)

Wext = UO – UD

11)

at (1, 0, 2) = –4
 0 0
12) = eV + ϕ = 8 eV + 2.2 eV
= 10.2 eV
Photon of energy 10.2 eV is emitted when electron in Hydrogen atom make transition from n =
2 to ground state

13)

= 3.4 ev

14)

| | = 10 m/s

15) T = (Total mass) (g + a)

T = (10 + 800) 12
T = 810 × 12
T = 9720 N

16)
case (I)

⇒ volt
case (II)

17) Heat supplied

ΔQ = mLf = (1000) (80) cal
as 1 cal = 4.186 J ⇒ ΔQ = 3.35 ×105 J

18)

19)
therefore electron in ground state will jump in state n = 3.

no of spectral lines =

20) y = 3 sin (50 t – 2x)

Maximum particle velocity = Aω

Wave velocity v =

Required ratio =

=
= 3π

21) As E = cB so required ratio

22) Higher the temperature farther an isotherm away from origin.

23) R = 4 Hmax

tanθ = 1
θ = 45o

24) Fundamental frequency

∴ and
also ℓ1 + ℓ2 + ℓ3 = ℓ

ν = 100 Hz

25)
Let boat shifts by x m in forward direction -
65x + 5s(x–3.6) + 60 x = 0
26)

27)

at
so equilibrium is stable.

28)

29)

At t = 1,
i = 0.17 A

30) cosϕ = 1

⇒ R = Z ⇒ XL = XC

tanϕ1 = & tanϕ2 =

⇒ tanϕ2 = – tanϕ1 ∵ XL = XC
31)
∵ Distances from charges are equal so at centre
Potential ∝ charge
So –3Q –2q + Q + q = 0
–2Q–q = 0
Q = –q/2

32) Here r2 = 0 so r1 = A
By using snell's law
1 × sin i = μ × sin r1 = µsinA
i = sin–1[μ sin(A)]

33)

34)

In C(Z = 6) : 1s2 2s2 2p2 In Si(Z = 14) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
In silicon valence electrons are 3rd orbit so it is easy to remove valence electron from silicon as
compared to carbon.

35)

In n-type semiconductor electrons are majority charge carriers and pentavalent impurity is
added which are donar.

36)

37)
38)
Time to reach the ground = 3 sec

39)

=
= 11%

40) As speed of electrons is decreased so wavelength of electrons will increase. Therefore the
angular width (∝ λ) of the central maximum of diffrection pattern will increase.

41)
h does not depend on viscosity

42)
a = μg

43) given G = 90 Ω, S = 10 Ω

Total current remains same only when total resistance remains same

44) U = in unstable equilibrium

so θ = 180°
 Therefore U = +MB = + (0.6) (0.24) = – 0.144 J

45)
x = L/3

CHEMISTRY

46) Chlorine has the highest value of electron affinity.

47) NCERT

48) O = C = C = C = O
sp sp sp

49) they are linear.

50)

51) MgO < CaO < SrO < BaO (basic character)

52) Left to right atomic radius decrease.

53) FeCl3 + K4[Fe(CN)6] – Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Ferri-ferrocyanids

54) AgCl + NH4OH → [Ag(NH3)2]Cl

Soluble
AgI + NH4OH → [Ag(NH3)2]I [not possible]
Insolbule

55) Basic nature : H2O > H2S

56) F2 + H2O → HF + 1/2 O2

57)
C.F.S.E = –0.4 Δ0 × 3 + 0.6 Δ0 × 2 = zero

58) [Co(OX)3]3– : diamagnetic

59) Zn : Outermost shell is incompletely filled.

60) 3d54s2 : Mn show largest number of oxidation states.

61) (P) Ka of HX = 10–6 ⇒ pKa of HX = 6

pKb of X– = 14 – 6 = 8
(Q) pH of 10–8 M HCl ⇒ [H+] = 10–8 + 10–7 = 1.1 × 10–7 = 6.95

(R)
pH = 3.4

(S) = pH
= 3 + log 2
pOH = 11 – log 2 = 10.7

62) pH ∝ basic strength

Order of basic strength : Z– > Y– > X– > W–
Order of acid strength : HZ < HY < HX < HW

63) PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2

P1 1 0 0
Peq 0.8 0.2 0.2

= 0.041

64) Bomb calorimeter is constant volume apparatus so w = 0 reaction of Zn dust with H2SO4 is
exothermic
∴ ΔU < 0

65) For isobaric process q = nCPΔT

w = –PΔV = nRΔT
66) n + ℓ = 6
Possible subshell
n=6 ℓ=0 6s
n=5 ℓ=1 5p
n=4 n=2 4d

67)
change in oxidation state = + 4

68) C6H5COOH + KOH

0.1 mol 0.1 mol
Mass of KOH = 0.1 × 56
= 5.6 g

69) For endothermic reaction (Ea)f is always greater than ΔH.

70)

K=
= 5 × 10–5 and t100% = 2t1/2 = 400 sec.

71)

72) If ΔGo < 0 (spontaneous)

then
,
↓ ↓
0
ΔG = ΔGo = –2.303 RT log Keq

73)

On electrolysis of aqueous AgNO3, Ag+ is reduced at cathode and oxidation of water occur at
anode giving O2 gas & H+ ion.

74) Oxidation method

2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S(sol)
75) Ethylene glycol dissolves in water & lowers the freezing point.

76)

77) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–O–CH3 and CH3–CH2–CH2–O–CH2–CH3

78) Acidic strength ∝ ∝

79)

80)

81) Column chromatography is an example of adsorption chromatography.

82) In , –CH3 group shows Hyperconjugation

83)

84) B.p. ∝ M.W.

 85)

86) → Carbyl amine test

1°-Amine

→ Silver mirror test

Hemiacetal

Turbidity at once
Ph–OH Violet colour

87) Carboxylic acid, sulphonic acid, Dinitrophenol trinitrophenol react with NaHCO3 to
give CO2

88)

Ph–CHO No test

89) is stable at room temperature.

90)

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

92) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 90, 91

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

94)

NCERT XI, Pg # 17, 18

95)

NCERT-XI, Page # 20,21

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

97) NCERT XI, Pg # 27

98)

NCERT-XI, Page # 28

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

100)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 65

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

103)

NCERT XII, Pg # 5, 6

104) NCERT XII Pg # 15

 105)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 12

106)

Module : It has 18 carbon chain with 1 double bond.

107) Explain Question :

Find the correct one out based on the average composition of a cell by percentage.

Concept :
This question is based on Biomacromolecule.

Solution :

Component % of the total cellular mass

Water 70-90

Proteins 10-15

Carbohydrates 3

Lipids 2

Nucleic acids 5-7

Ions 1

Final Answer : option (1)

108)

Explain Question: Question asks about evaluating an assertion and its reason related to
enzyme action.

Concept: How do enzyme bring about such high rate of chemical conversion

Solution: The assertion is true because enzymes can increase reaction rates many times. The
reason is also true and correctly explains the assertion, as lowering activation energy
facilitates the S → P conversion.

Final answer: Option 1

109)

NCERT XI, Pg # 145-146

110) NCERT Pg. # 214

111)

NCERT XI, Pg # 147

112) NCERT, Pg. # 233

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158

114) NCERT XI, Pg # 156

115) NCERT XI Eng. Page no. # 250 (Ist para)

116) NCERT Pg.# No. : 177

117)

NCERT XII, Pg # 75, 76

118)

NCERT XII, Pg # 73

119)

NCERT XII, Pg # 73

120)

TtRrGgAa X TtRrGgAa
↓
TTRrggAa = ?

Tt × Tt = , Rr × Rr = ,

Gg × Gg = , Aa × Aa =

So TTRrggAa =

121) NCERT XII, Pg # 59

122)

NCERT_XIIth, Pg. # 72
123)

NCERT_XIIth, Pg. # 89

124)

NCERT XII, Pg # 97

125)

NCERT_XIIth, Pg. # 96

126)

NCERT_XIIth, Pg. # 102,103,104

127)

NCERT_XIIth, Pg. # 93,94,95

128) NCERT XII Pg # 199

129)

NCERT XII, Pg # 200

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 207, 208

131)

NCERT XII Pg # 207

132)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 213

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223

134)

NCERT XII, Pg # 224

135) NCERT XII, Pg. # 224

136)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 47

137)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 40

138)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 82

139) Module

140)

NCERT Pg. No. # 201

141)

NCERT_ Pg. # 190

142)

NCERT Pg. No. # 190

143)

NCERT Pg. No. # 213

144)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 236

145)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 248

146)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 205

147)

NCERT Pg. # 33

148)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 44

149)

NCERT Pg # 51

150)

NCERT Pg. No. # 136

151) NCERT Pg # 146

152)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 165

153) NCERT Pg. No. # 244

154)

NCERT Pg. No. # 49

155) NCERT Pg. No. # 46

156)

NCERT Pg. No. # 136

157) NCERT Pg # 154

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

159)

NCERT Pg. No. # 174

160)
NCERT Pg. No. # 174

161)

NCERT Pg. No. # 127

162)

NCERT Pg. No. # 222

163) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121-124

164)

NCERT Pg. No. # 241

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 50

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 95, 96

167)

NCERT Pg.#49

168) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 38

169)

NCERT Pg. No. # 242, 243

170) NCERT Pg # 146

171)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 318

172)

Module
173)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 299

174)

NCERT Pg. No. # 48

175)

NCERT Pg. No. # 79, 80, 81

176)

NCERT Pg. No. # 236

177) NCERT-XII Pg # 33

178)

NCERT Pg. No. # 150, 151

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93-98

180) NCERT Pg. No. # 45