06-05-2026

6201CMD30302526SCHOOL04 MD

PHYSICS

1) A semicircular ring having charge density +λ on first half and –2λ on second half is kept as shown

in figure. Direction of electric field at O can be given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Consider the following charged suspended ball system. If α < β then the statements which can be

true at equillibrium out of followings :- (a) Q1 > Q2 , m1 < m2

(b) Q1 > Q2 , m1 > m2
(c) Q1 < Q2 , m1 = m2
(d) Q1 < Q2 , m1 > m2

(1) Only d
(2) Only c
(3) (c,d)
(4) (b, d)

3) You are given two concentric charged conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 such that R1 > R2,
having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively and uniformly distributed over its surface. Calculate E and V

at point B whose distance from the centre is rB as shown in figure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) E = 0, V = 0

4) Eight charge particles are placed at circumference of circle of radius r. The net electric field at

the centre of circle is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If linear charge density of a wire of length L depends on distance x from one end as .

Find total charge of wire.

(1) λ0L

(2)

(3)

(4) 2λ0L

6) There is an electric field E in the x-direction. If the work done by electric field in moving a charge
of 0.2 C through a distance of 2 m along a line making an angle 60° with the x-axis is 4 J, then what
is the value of E ?

(1) NC–1
(2) 4 NC–1
(3) 5 NC–1
(4) 20 NC–1

7) Which of the following charge is not possible to exist :-

(1) 1.35 × 105 coulomb

(2) 6.4 × 10–18 coulomb
(3) 1.2 × 107 coulomb
(4) 10–19 coulomb

8) Find flux from G.S. (Radius of sphere is R)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Five charges q1, q2, q3, q4, and q5 are fixed at their positions as shown in Fig. S is a Gaussian

surface. The Gauss’s law is given by Which of the following statements is correct?

E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from q1, q5 and q3 while q on the
(1)
RHS will have a contribution from q2 and q4 only.
E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from all charges while q on the
(2)
RHS will have a contribution from q2 and q4 only.
E on the LHS of the above equation will have a contribution from all charges while q on the
(3)
RHS will have a contribution from q1, q3 and q5 only.
(4) Both E on the LHS and q on the RHS will have contributions from q2 and q4 only.
10) The total flux associated with the given cube will be-
where 'a' is side of the cube :–

( = 4π × 9 × 109 SI units)

(1) 162π × 10–3 Nm2/C

(2) 162π × 103 Nm2/C
(3) 162π × 10–6 Nm2/C
(4) 162π × 106 Nm2/C

11) A point charge +Q is positioned at the centre of the base of a square pyramid as shown. The flux
through one of the four identical upper faces of the pyramid is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) Find the flux through the prism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) Three equal charges Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. What should be the
value of a charge so that when placed at the centroid, self energy of the system becomes zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The potential of electrostatic field is given by ϕ = xy, where x & y are coordinate. Which of the
following is correct :-

(1) Electric field at all points on positive x-axis is in positive y-direction.

(2) Electric field at all point of positive y-axis is in negative x-direction.
(3) Electric field at (2, 2) is

(4)
Electric field at x, y makes an angle with x-axis.

15) The work done by the field in moving a small positive charge from Q to P is :

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Data insufficient

16) Four equal charge Q are placed at the four corners of a body of side ‘a’ each. Work done in
removing a charge – Q to infinite from its center is

(1) 0

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) If the distance of separation between two charges is increased, the electrical potential energy of
the system

(1) May increases or decrease

(2) Decreases
(3) Increase
(4) Remain the same

18)

In a certain region a uniform field exists. If a small circle is drawn with the origin as the
centre cutting the axes at A(a, 0), B(0, a), C(–a, 0) and D(0, –a). The potential at point A, B, C, D are

VA, VB, VC, VD respectively then :-

(1) VA > VB = VD > VC
(2) VC > VB = VD > VA
(3) VA = VB = VC = VD
(4) VA > VB > VC > VD

19) The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by V = (5x2 + 10x –9) volt.
Value of electric field at x = 1m is

(1) –20 V/m

(2) 6 V/m
(3) 11 V/m
(4) –23 V/m

20) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q, which is fixed, with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest

distance of approach would be :-

(1) r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4
21)
A ring has total charge Q. Find work done by external agent to move –Q charge from point A to
centre of ring :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Figure shows two equipotential lines in xy-plane for an electric field. The x-component Ex and y-
component Ey of the field in the electric space between these equipotential lines are, respectively -

(1) + 100 V/m, –200 V/m

(2) –100 V/m, + 200 V/m
(3) + 200 V/m, 100 V/m
(4) –200 V/m, –100 V/m

23) The potential is represented by v = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz where V is in volts and x, y, z in meter,
then electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb's situated at point is (1, 1, 1) is :-

(1)
(2) 30 N
(3) 24 N
(4)

24) The variation of potential with distance R from fixed point is shown in fig. The electric field at R
= 5m is -
(1) 2.5 V/m
(2) –2.5 V/m
(3) 2/5 V/m
(4) –2/5 V/m

25) The figure shows a family of parallel equipotential surfaces and four paths along which an
electron is made to move from one surface to another as shown. (I) what is the direction of the
electric field?
(II) Rank the paths according to magnitude of work done, greatest first.

(1) Right ward; 1 > 3 > 2 = 4

(2) Left ward; 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(3) Right ward; 3 = 4 > 2 = 1
(4) Leftward; 1 > 2 > 3 = 4

26) Two bodies of mass 100 kg and 104 kg are lying one meter apart. At what distance from 100 kg
body will the gravitational force be zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

0
27) Gravitation field intensity at a distance from centre of the earth is E . Here R is the radius of
the earth. The earth expands up to radius 2R such that total mass of the earth remains unchanged.

Assume earth of uniform density in both cases. What will be the field intensity at a distance , from
the centre in final situation.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) E0

28) Mass particles of 1 kg each are placed along x-axis at x = 1, 2, 4, 8,.....∞. Then gravitational
force on a mass of 3kg placed at origin is (G = universal gravitational constant) :-

(1) 4G

(2)

(3) 2G
(4) ∞

29) If two bodies of mass M and m are revolving around the centre of mass of the system in circular
orbit of radii R and r respectively due to mutual interaction. Which of the following formula is
applicable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field with distance r
due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)
Two point charges Q1 and Q2 are placed at (2, 2)m and (0, 2)m. If a third charge Q placed at (0.5,

2)m feels no electric force then is :-

(1) 9

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

32) If a positive charge is shifted from a low-potential region to a high potential region, the electrical
potential energy :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains the same
(4) may increase or decrease

33) Two identical particles of mass M and charge Q are placed at same distance. If they are in
equilibrium under gravitational and electric force then calculate value of Q/M is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Potential energy of a system comprising of point charges is [Link] a charge q is added in the
system without disturbing other charges, the potential energy becomes [Link] potential of the point
where the charge q is placed in the system is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Assertion (A) : Under electrostatic condition, the electric field at surface of conductor can have
no component parallel to surface.
Reason (R) : The surface of conductor is equipotential and no work is done by electric field to move
the charge on surface.

(1) (A) is True, (R) is True ; (R) is a correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) is True, (R) is True ; (R) is not a correct explanation for (A).
(3) (A) is True, (R) is False.
(4) (A) is False, (R) is True.

36) Electrostatic potential at the common centre O of the system shown in figure, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Find out the net electric field intensity between plates?

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

38) Statement-1 : A positive point charge initially at rest in a uniform electric field starts moving
along electric lines of forces. (Neglect all other forces except electric forces)
Statement-2 : Electric lines of force represents path of charged particle which is released from rest
in it.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
39) If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge density ρ, the
electric field at a distance r from the centre of sphere (r > R) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) On the axis of uniformly charged ring, of radius R, distance between maxima of electric field is :

(1)

(2)
(3) 2R

(4)

41) A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If is the electric flux in units of V-m
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of V-m will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) For a given ring, find electric field at centre (λ-linear charge density) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) We have a solid non conducting uniformly charged sphere. Its electric field variation with
distance from centre is shown in graph then the net charge inside the sphere (in S.I. units) is :-

(1) 144 π∈0

(2) 100 π∈0
(3) 32 π∈0
(4) None

44) Force of gravitation between two masses is found to be F, in vacuum. If both the masses are
dipped in water then, new force will be

(1) Greater than F

(2) Less than F
(3) F
(4) Cannot say

45) The force of gravitation between two objects is 1N. If the distance between them is doubled,
then the force of gravitation between them will be :

(1) 0.25 N
(2) 0.5 N

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Chelating ligands among the following are :

(a) dien
(b)
(c) gly
(d) py
(e) dipy

(1) a, b, d,e
(2) a, b, c,e
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, c, d, e

2)

What is oxidation number and Co-ordination number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– .

(1) + 1, 3
(2) + 2, 4
(3) + 3, 6
(4) + 2, 5

3) Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C-O bond?

+
(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) [Cr(CO)6]

4) IUPAC Name of K3[Al(C2O4)3] is :-

(1) Potassiumaluminooxalato
(2) Potassiumaluminium(III)trioxalato
(3) Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium(III)
(4) Potassiumtris(oxalato)aluminate(III)

5)

Which of the following aqueous solution is non-electrolyte ?

(1)
(2) CoCl3.3H2O
(3) CoCl3.5NH3.H2O
(4) CoCl3.6NH3

6) The cyano complex that exhibit highest value of paramagnetism is :-

–4
(1) [Mn(CN)6]
–3
(2) [CO(CN)6]
–3
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
–3
(4) [Cr(CN)6]
7) Predict the hybridisation of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6] complex :-

(1) sp3
(2) d2sp3
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

8) One mole of complex CoCl3.5NH3 gives 3 moles of ions then number of counter ions, total number
of ions, and σ - Bonds are respectively :-

(1) 2, 2, 6
(2) 2, 3, 21
(3) 2, 3, 6
(4) 3, 1, 15

9) Assertion : Ammonia acts as a ligand.

Reason : A lone pair of electrons on nitrogen can be donated to acceptor.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) Which of the following is not a π acid ligand :

(1) C2H4
(2) R3P
(3) CO
(4)

11)

The secondary valencey of is 6. Calculate the number of moles of when excess of

solution is added to 1.5 L of solution?

(1) 0.4 mol

(2) 0.6 mol
(3) 0.3 mol
(4) 0.8 mol

12) Secondary valency in the complex [Co(en)2ClBr)]1+ is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7
13) Which of following pairs of name and formula of complexes, is not correct ?

(A) Tetraamminecopper(II)sulphate (I) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

(B) Diamminesilver(I)chloride (II) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl

(C) Potassiumhexacyanidoferrate(III) (III) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(D) Potassiumamminepentachloridoplatinate (IV)

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

14) A complex has a composition corresponding to the formula CoBr2Cl.4NH3. What is the actual
formula if conductance measurements show two ions per formula unit? When excess silver nitrate is
added, precipitate of AgCl is obtained but no precipitate of AgBr :-

(1) [CoBrCl(NH3)4]Br
(2) [CoCl(NH3)4]Br2
(3) [CoBr2Cl(NH3)4]
(4) [CoBr2(NH3)4]Cl

15) Match column I & II & select correct relation :-

Column-I Column-II

Estimation of
(A) (i) Cis-Platin
hardness of water

(B) Detection of nickel (ii) EDTA–4

(C) Electro plating (iii) DMG

(D) Treatment of cancer (iv) [Ag(CN)2]–

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

16) Assertion (A):- Complex ion [Co(NH3)6]2+ is readily oxidized to [Co(NH3)6]3+.

Reason (R) :- unpaired electron in complex ion [Co(NH3)6]2+ is present in 4d orbital.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

17) Assertion : [Co(H2O)6]3+ is an outer d-complex.

Reason : With 3d metal ions, H2O work as strong ligand.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

18) Correct match is :

Complexes No. of unpaired electron

4–
A [CrF6] P 5
4–
B [MnF6] Q 2
C R 1
4–
D [Mn(CN)6] S 4
(1) (A – S), (B – Q), (C – P), (D – R)
(2) (A – P), (B – R), (C – Q), (D – S)
(3) (A – S), (B – P), (C – Q), (D – R)
(4) (A – R), (B – S), (C – Q), (D – P)

19) Statement-I : [Co(NH3)6]3+ Complex is a inner orbital or low spin complex.

Statement-II : In complex [CoF6]3– the oxidation state of cabalt is +3.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

20) Which is correct :-

Complex No. of Rings

–3
(1) [Co(Ox)2Cl2] 4

(2) [Ni(dmg)2] 4

(3) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 6

(4) Brown ring complex 2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Assertion : In the complex K2[PtCl6], coordination number of Pt is 6. Reason : In the complex six
coordinate bonds are formed between Pt and chloro ligands.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are the true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are the true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

22)

The donor atoms in EDTA are –

(1) Two N and Two O

(2) Two N and four O
(3) Four N and Two O
(4) Three N and three O

23) The formula of the complex tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III)sulphate is

(1) [Co(en)2SO4]
(2) [Co(en)3SO4]
(3) [Co(en)3]SO4
(4) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3

24) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II
IUPAC Name of complex Formula of complex

(a) Tetra carbonyl nickel [0] (P)

Tetra ammine aqua

(b) chlorido cobalt (III) (Q) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl
chloride

Tris (ethane-1,
2-diammine)
(c) (R) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
cobalt (III)
Sulphate

Penta ammine
(d) carbonato cobalt (III) (S) [Ni(CO)4]
chloride
(1) a → Q, b → R, c → P, d → S
(2) a → S, b → P, c → R, d → Q
(3) a → P, b → R, c → S, d → Q
(4) a → S, b → R, c → P, d → Q

25) The IUPAC name of [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2]2+ is

(1) Bis-dichlorido(triphenylphosphine)nickel(II)
(2) Dichloridobis(triphenylphosphine)nickel(IV)
(3) Dichloridotriphenylphosphinenickel(II)
(4) Triphenylphosphinenickel(II)dichloride
26) Consider the following statements : According to the Werner's theory.
(1) Ligands are connected to the central metal ions by ionic bonds.
(2) Secondary valencies have directional properties
(3) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable
The correct statements are:

(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(2) 2 and 3 are correct
(3) 1 and 3 are correct
(4) 1 and 2 are correct

27) Which compound has electrovalent, covalent, co-ordinate as well as hydrogen bond ?

(1) [Cu(H2O)4]SO4 . H2O

(2) CuSO4
(3) ZnSO4
(4) FeCl3

28)

Which of the following is not correctly matched (M.M = Spin magnetic moment)

2 3
(1) K2 [NiF6] ⇒ M.M = zero, d sp
3 2
(2) K3 [CoF6] ⇒ M.M = 4.9, sp d
–3 3 2
(3) [Fe(SCN)6] ⇒ M.M = 5.8, sp d
+2 2 3
(4) [Mn(Cl)6] ⇒ M.M = 1.78, d sp

29)

Column-I Column-II

(A) CO (P) Monodentate ligand

(B) en (Q) Anionic ligand

Form organo
metallic
(C) Gly (R)
compound with
metal

(D) Thiocyanato (S) Bidentate ligand

(T) Neutral ligand

Select the correct option -

(1) A-P,R,T B-S,T C-Q,S D-P,Q
(2) A-P,R B-S,T C-Q,R,S D-P,Q,R
(3) A-P,R,T B-S,T C-Q,S D-P,Q,R,S
(4) A-R,T B-S,T C-Q,R,S D-P,Q
30) Give the correct increasing order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solutions of following
complex entities :-
I. [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 II. [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
III. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl IV. K2[PtCl6]

(1) III < IV < II < I

(2) IV < II < III < I
(3) II < I < IV < III
(4) I < II < IV < III

31) A complex of platinum, ammonia and chloride produces four ions per molecule in the solution.
The structure consists with the observation is :

(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4
(2) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(3) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2

32) The coordination complex [Cu(H2O)6]2+ has one unpaired electron. Which of the following
statements are true according to Valence Bond Theory.
(1) The complex is octahedral
(2) The complex is an outer orbital complex
(3) The complex is d2sp3 hybridized
(4) The complex is diamagnetic
(5) The coordination number is 6

(1) 1, 4
(2) 1, 2, 5
(3) 2, 3, 5
(4) 2, 3

33) Consider the following statements regarding VBT: (A) It fails to explain the colour of
coordination compounds.
(B) It does not distinguish between weak and strong ligands quantitatively.
(C) It gives a quantitative interpretation of magnetic data.
(D) It does not explain the kinetic stabilities of complexes.
Which of the above statements are correct according to the limitations of VBT mentioned in?

(1) A, B, and C only

(2) A, B, and D only
(3) B, C, and D only
(4) A, C, and D only

34) The IUPAC name for [Pt(py)4] [PtCl4] is

(1) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II)tetrachloridoplatinate(II)
(2) Tetrapyridinetetrachloridodiplatinum(IV)
(3) Tetrachloridotetrapyridinediplatinum(II)
(4) Tetrakis(pyridine)platinum(IV)tetrachloridoplatinum(IV)

35) Statement-1 : Charge on the complex of ferric ion with EDTA4– is minus one.
Statement-2 : EDTA is a Polydentate ligand.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement 1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false, statement-2 is true

36) Ambidentate ligand among the following is:

(A) SCN–
(B) EDTA4–
(C) H2NCH2CH2NH2

(1) A only
(2) A and B
(3) A and C
(4) B and C

37) The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with
the complexes : CoCl3·6NH3, CoCl3·5NH3, CoCl3·4NH3 respectively is :

(1) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl

(2) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
(3) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl
(4) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

38) If the bond length of C–O bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128 Å then what is the value of C–O bond
length in Fe(CO)5 :-

(1) 1.15 Å
(2) 1.05 Å
(3) 1.02 Å
(4) 1.118 Å

39) The oxidation number of Co in the complex ion:-

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +6
40) Trioxalatoaluminate(III) and tetrafluoroborate(III) ions are

3–
(1) [Al(C2O4)3], [BF4]
3+ 3+
(2) [Al(C2O4)3] ,[BF4]
3– –
(3) [Al(C2O4)3] , [BF4]
2– 2–
(4) [Al(C2O4)3] , [BF4]

41) Give the name of

(1) Tetraammineaquacobaltchloride
(2) Tetraamminediaquacobalt(III)chloride
(3) Tetraamminediaquacobalt(IV)chloride
(4) None of the above

42) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect.

(a) In metal carbonyls, σ bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons of the carbonyl
carbon into a vacant orbital of metal.
(b) In metal carbonyl, π bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of
metal into the vacant antibonding π* orbital of CO.
(c) bonding in metal carbonyls is called synergic bonding

(1) a and b
(2) c only
(3) b only
(4) All are correct

43) The magnetic moment of complexes gives below are in the order :-
(i) [Ni(CO)4] (ii) [Mn(CN)6]–4
(iii) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (iv) [CoF6]–3

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv > ii > i > iii
(4) iv > ii > iii > i

44)

In which of the following including metal at least 5 atom are in a line ?

(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (B) [Ag(CN)2]–

(C) [Ni(CO)4] (D) [Pt(CN)4]–2
(1) A, C
(2) B, D
(3) A, B
(4) A, D

45) Which of the following compound has minimum coordination number :-

(1) Co2(CO)8
(2) Mn2(CO)10
(3) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl]

BOTANY

1) Which of the following is not product of double fertilization?

(1) Zygote
(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo sac
(4) both (1) and (2)

2)

Consider the following plants :-

Coconut, cucurbits, castor, Vallisneria, papaya date palm.
How many above plants are dioecious?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

3) Which of the following are advantage of self pollination ?

(1) It ensures seed production

(2) It maintains the parental characters
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) it results in variation for evolution to occur

4) Which of the following sequence of development of embryo sac correct?

(1) Nucellus → Megaspore → Embryo sac

(2) Nucellus → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac
(3) Nucellus → Megasporangiom → Megaspore → Embryo sac
(4) Nucellus → Megagametophyte → Megaspore → Embryo sac

5) How many nuclei in the female gametophyte in angiosperms are surrounded by new cell wall?

(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 7

6) Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of -

(1) Generative Cell

(2) Nucellus
(3) Megaspore
(4) Synergids

7) In double fertilisation, total number of male nuclei and total number of female nuclei involved are
-

(1) 3,2 respectively

(2) 2,3 respectively
(3) 2,2 respectively
(4) 3,3 respectively

8) In an angiosperm, male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid, endosperm will be-

(1) Haploid
(2) Triploid
(3) Tetraploid
(4) Pentaploid

9) Cleistogamy is effectively seen in:

(1) Oriza sativa

(2) Hibiscus
(3) Allium cepa
(4) Commelina

10) Assertion(A) :- The megaspore mother cell divides mitotically to produce four spores.
Reason (R):- Megaspore mother cell is diploid and megaspore is haploid.
Mark the correct option:-

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is correct explaination of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explaination of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
11) How many of following plants show hydrophilly? Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera, water lily, Maize

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) Which of the following statement is true for anemophilous flowers ?

(1) They often possess well exposed stamens

(2) They possess feathery stigma
(3) They often have a single ovule
(4) All of the above

13) Formation of liquid endosperm in coconut takes place because:

(1) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

(2) Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis
(3) Formation of liquid endosperm is not dependent upon Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) None of the above

14) The gynoecium of papaver is

(1) Monocarpellary
(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous
(3) Multicarpellary apocarpous
(4) None of the above

15) A plant breeder employ technique of emasculation -

(1) To cover the flower with a bag

(2) To prevent self- pollination
(3) To produce female plant
(4) To prevent stamen from being contaminated.

16) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the

right option about them :-

A B C D
 Central Anti podal Filiform
(1) Synergids
cell cells apparatus

Anti podal Central Filiform

(2) Synergids
cells cell apparatus

Anti podal Central

(3) Synergids Egg cell
cells cell

Primary
Egg
(4) Apical cells endosperm Synergids
apparatus
cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Maize is best example of:

(1) Anemophily
(2) Ornithophily
(3) Entomophily
(4) Hydrophily

18) Read the Statement-A and Statement-B carefully to mark the correct options given below :
Statement - A :- Pollination by water is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
Statement - B :- Pollination by wind in flowering plants is limited to about 30 genera mostly
monocotyledons.

(1) Statement-A is correct

(2) Statement-B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

19) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

A Ovary with multiple ovules I Mangifera

B Multicarpellary apocarpus II Papaver

C Multicarpellary syncarpous III Michelia

D Ovary with single ovule IV Orchids

A B C D

(1) IV I II III

(2) III II IV I
 (3) II I III IV

(4) IV III II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option

Column I Column II

A Protandry I Pollen released before stigma become receptive

Stigma becomes receptive before the release of

B Protogyny II
pollen

C Monoecious III Maize

D Heterostyly IV Anther and stigma placed in different positions

A B C D

(1) II I IV III

(2) III II IV I

(3) I II III IV

(4) IV III II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) How many of the following terms are related with anemophilous plants?
(a) Light and sticky pollen grains
(b) Well exposed stamens
(c) Large often feathery stigma
(d) Flowers with multiple ovules in each ovary
(e) Numerous flowers are clustered to form inflorescence.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

22) In majority of flowering plants, the method of embryosac formation is called monosporic type,
because

(1) Ovule differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar region
(2) A single embryosac present in the ovule
(3) Embryosac developed from the single functional megaspore
(4) Embryosac possess single egg

23) Which of the following brings genetically different types of pollen grain to the stigma?

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Both (2) and (3)

24)

Female gametophyte is

(1) Pollen grain

(2) Ovule
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Tapetum

25) Observed the four megaspores of an ovule depicted below and find out which of these (A, B, C,
D) survive to form embryo sac and which of these (A, B, C, D) degenerated?

(1) Survives - B,C, D ; Degenerated - A

(2) Survives - D ; Degenerated - A, B, C
(3) Survives - A, B, C ; Degenerated - D
(4) Survives - A ; Degenerated - B, C, D

26) How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required to form a typical female gametophyte from
a megaspore ?

(1) One and three

(2) Three and one
(3) Zero and three
(4) One and two

27) How many meiotic divisions are necessary for the formation of 100 functional megaspores :
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200

28) The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called.

(1) Integument
(2) Chalaza
(3) Hilum
(4) Micropyle

29) For the discharge of both male gametes, pollen tube enters into the embryosac through the:

(1) Central cell

(2) Micropyle
(3) Chalaza
(4) Degenerating synergid

30) Statement I: Vallisneria and Hydrilla which grow in marine water are pollinated by water.
Statement II: In Vallisneria, pollen grain are carried actively by water currents and some of them
reach female flower.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

31) Statement I: Pollen pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed
by promotion inhibition of the pollen.
Staement II: Water hyacith and water lilly undergo water pollination.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

32) Statement I: Megaspore mother cell is a cell of the parent sporophytic generation
Statement II: Megaspore is a gametophyte.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement I is correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

33) Which of the following is genetically self pollination but ecologically cross pollination.
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy
(4) Both and (2) and (3)

34) Which of the following is the dominant biotic pollinating agent?

(1) Butterfly
(2) Bees
(3) Ants
(4) Mother

35) In 60% of the angiosperms, generative cell divides mitotically to form 2 male gametes in

(1) Stigma; post pollination development

(2) Anther: pre pollination development
(3) Stigma: Pre pollination development
(4) Anther: post pollination development.

36) Castor and maize

(1) Are monoecious and prevents geitonogamy.

(2) Are dioecious and prevents autogamy
(3) Are monoecious and prevent autogamy
(4) Are dioecious and prevent geitonogamy.

37) Which of the following are endospermic seeds

(1) Pea
(2) Bean
(3) Coconut
(4) Ground nut

38) Which of the following is a nutritive tissue?

(1) Endosperm
(2) Nucellus
(3) Zygote
(4) Both (1) and (2)

39) In artificial hybridisation.

If female parent produces unisexual flower, then which of the following is not necessary.

(1) Emasculation
(2) Bagging
(3) Tagging
(4) All of the above

40) Assertion: Non synchronised pollen release and stigma receptivity is of evolutionary significance.
Reason: It prevents self pollination and promotes more genetic variability.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

41) To study pollen germination, some pollen from flowers such as pea, chickpea, Crotolaria, balsam
and Vinca are collected and dusted on a glass slide containing a drop of .....(a)... solution about
......(b)....percent. After about ....(c).... minutes, pollen tubes coming out of the pollen grains :-

(1) (a)-Saline, (b)-5, (c)-5 to 10

(2) (a)-Sugar, (b)-5, (c)-10 to 20
(3) (a)-Saline, (b)-10, (c)-15 to 30
(4) (a)-Sugar, (b)-10, (c)-15 to 30

42) Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.

Reason: There is no chance of cross-pollen landing on the stigma.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Following diagram A and B represents?

(A) Female flowre at Hydrilla

(1)
(B) Male flower of Hydrilla
(A) Male flower of Hydrilla
(2)
(B) Female flower of Hydrilla
(A) Female flower of Vallisneria
(3)
(B) Male flower of Vallisneria
 (A) Male flower of Vallisneria
(4) (B) Female flower of Vallisneria

44) Assertion: Self incompatibility is one of the device to prevent inbreeding.

Reason: This is physiological process which prevent cross pollination.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) An example for a plant that provides safe places to lay eggs as floral rewards for pollination.

(1) Viola
(2) Amorphophallus
(3) Maize
(4) Vallisneria

ZOOLOGY

1) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(Hormone) (Function)

(i) Maintain endometrium

(a) FSH
for implantation

(ii) Develop female

(b) LH secondary sexual
characters

(iii) Contraction of
(c) Progesterone
uterine wall

(iv) Development of
(d) Estrogen
corpus luteum

(v) Stimulates follicular

development
(1) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(2) a - iv, b - v, c - i, d - ii
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - v
(4) a - v, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

2) Seminal plasma is rich in which sugar?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Glucose
(3) Fructose
(4) Maltose

3) Seminiferous tubules contain cells for providing nutrition to sperm cells.

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Interstitial cell
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Germ cells

4) For the first time theca layer is organized into theca interna and theca externa in which follicle?

(1) 1°
(2) 2°
(3) 3°
(4) Mature follicle

5) Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions and choose the
correct option.

Column-I (Part) Column-II (Function)

A. Head i. Enzymes
B. Middle piece ii. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome iii. Energy
D. Tail iv. Genetic material

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

6) Assertion: Myometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.

Reason: Myometrium lines the uterine cavity.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

7) Arrange the male sex accessory ducts in the order of sperm transport:
I. Vas deferens
II. Rete testis
III. Epididymis
IV. Vasa efferentia
(1) II → IV → III → I
(2) I → III → IV → II
(3) IV → II → I → IIII
(4) II → III → I → IV

8) Spermatogenesis begins at:

(1) Birth
(2) Puberty
(3) Old age
(4) Embryonic stage

9) Which is incorrect about sperm?

(1) Head has acrosome with enzymes.

(2) Middle piece has mitochondria.
(3) Tail for motility.
(4) Nucleus is diploid.

10) Which of the following cells formed by secondary oocyte at the end of second meiotic division?

(1) First polar body and mature ovum

(2) Second polar body and ootid
(3) First polar body and ootid
(4) Second polar body and immature ovum

11) Which of the following secretion are essential for maturation and motility of sperms?
A. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Prostate gland

(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A, C, D only
(4) A, B, C, D

12) The type of cells present in interstitial spaces of testis is/are:

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Immunologically competent cells
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Sertoli cells

13) Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. penis:

(1) Male external genitalia
(2) Made up of special tissue helps in errection of penis
(3) Foreskin is called as glans penis
(4) Erectile tissue facilitate insemination

14) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in secretions of:

(1) TSH
(2) GnRH
(3) STH
(4) All of these

15) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of:

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

16) Which condition in males is characterized by decreased sperm motility, leading to reduced
fertility?

(1) Oligospermia
(2) Azoospermia
(3) Asthenospermia
(4) Teratospermia

17) Which process describes the transformation of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte along
with the formation of polar bodies?

(1) Oogenesis
(2) Spermatogenesis
(3) Meiosis II
(4) Fertilization

18) Corpus luteum is _____________ in function.

(1) Excretory
(2) Endocrine
(3) Digestive
(4) Reproductive

19) The mammary glands are paired structure (breasts) that contain glandular tissue and variable
amount of fat. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into:

(1) 10-12 mammary lobes

(2) 12-16 mammary tubules
(3) 15-20 mammary alveoli
(4) 15-20 mammary lobes

20) A fluid filled cavity called antrum is present in :-

(1) Ovary
(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Tertiary follicle
(4) Secondary oocyte

21) Which enzyme is not found in Acrosome ?

(1) Zona lysin

(2) Corona penetrating enzyme
(3) Hyaluronidase
(4) Acetylcholinestrase

22) A primary oocyte in human, leads to the formation of:

(1) Several ova through meiosis

(2) Only one ovum through meiosis
(3) Two secondary oocytes through meiosis
(4) Four ova through mitosis

23) The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis is started respectively at:

(1) Puberty and puberty

(2) Embryonic stage and menarche
(3) Puberty and menopause
(4) Puberty and embryonic stage

24) The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous
(2)
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from
(3)
Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

25) Germ cells in female gonads and male gonads begin undergoing meiosis simultaneously. What
will be the ratio of ova and sperms produced ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

26)

What is the correct sequence of sperm formation ?

(1) Spermatid → Spermatocyte → Spermatogonia → Spermatozoa

(2) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid → Spermatozoa
(3) Spermatogonia → Spermatozoa → Spermatocyte → Spermatid
(4) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatozoa → Spermatid

27) Which of the following undergoes meiosis I division during spermatogenesis ?

(1) Sertoli cell

(2) Leydig cell
(3) Primary spermatocytes
(4) Secondary spermatocytes

28) The first meiotic division during oogenesis is completed at the stage of:

(1) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicle

(2) Primary oocyte within tertiary follicle
(3) Primary oocyte within secondary follicle
(4) Primary oocyte within primary follicle

29) Polar bodies are produced during the formation of

(1) Secondary oocyte

(2) Spermatocytes
(3) Oogonium
(4) Sperm

30) During oogenesis, the unequal division of the primary oocyte results in:

(1) Two equal-sized haploid cells

(2) Two diploid cells
(3) Four functional ova
(4) A large secondary oocyte and a tiny polar body.

31) Which of the following in an antral follicle is acellular ?

(1) Zona pellucida

(2) Theca interna
(3) Granulosa
(4) Stroma
32) In the human ovary, the mass of cells left after ovulation that acts as an endocrine gland is the:

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Tunica albuginea
(4) Corpus albicans

33) The fluid-filled cavity found in a mature Graafian follicle is known as the:

(1) Antrum
(2) Lumen
(3) Blastocoel
(4) Archenteron

34) The histological region of the ovary that contains the ovarian follicles is the:

(1) Cortex
(2) Hilus
(3) Germinal epithelium
(4) Medulla

35)

What is the correct sequence of follicular development in the ovary ?

(1) Primary → Primordial → Tertiary → Secondary

(2) Secondary → Tertiary → Primordial → Primary
(3) Primordial → Primary → Secondary → Tertiary
(4) Tertiary → Secondary → Primary → Primordial

36) The cells that surround the oocyte in a Graafian follicle and form the 'stalk' are called:

(1) Theca externa

(2) Corona radiata
(3) Interstitial cells
(4) Cumulus oophorus

37) Assertion : Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.
Reason : Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are false.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.

38) Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called :-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination

39) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(i) LH (a) Secreted by theca cells

(ii) FSH (b) Pregnancy hormone

(iii) Estrogen (c) Ovulatory hormone

(iv) Progesterone (d) Stimulate sertoli cells.

(1) i – (c); ii – (d); iii – (a); iv – (b)
(2) i – (c); ii – (b); iii – (a); iv – (d)
(3) i – (d); ii – (a); iii – (b); iv – (c)
(4) i – (c); ii – (a); iii – (d); iv – (b)

40) Statement-A: FSH helps in development of primary follicle to mature graafian follicle (MGF).
Statement-B: LH helps in rupturing of MGF.

(1) Only statement (B) is incorrect.

(2) Only statement (A) is incorrect.
(3) Both statement are correct.
(4) Only statement (B) is correct.

41)

Read the following statement and choose correct option.

(a) At the time of puberty there are 1,20,000 - 1,60,000 oogonia are left in both ovary.
(b) No sperm count is called azoospermia.
(c) 2° oocyte undergoes II meiotic division and temporarily gets arrested at metaphase-II.
(d) I meiotic division is completed prior to ovulation.
Options:

(1) a, b only
(2) c, d only
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d
42) How many statements correct about 'A'.

(1) Power house of sperm.

(2) Count is less than that is present in ova.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Helps in 1st cleavage of zygote.

43)
Find the correct description.

(1) A : Secondary follicle with antrum.

(2) A : Tertiary follicle without antrum.
(3) B : 2° oocyte / ovum released by process called ovulation.
(4) C : Secrete high amounts of estrogen.

44) Glans penis formed by extension of which erectile tissue.

(1) Dartos
(2) Cremaster
(3) Corpora cavernosa
(4) Corpus spongiosum.

45) 100 cycles of spermatogenesis yield 400 sperms then 100 cycles of oogenesis produces how
many 1st polar bodies

(1) 400
(2) 200
(3) Zero
(4) 100
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 1 1 2 1 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 4 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 3 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 3 4 4 2 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Based on direction of electric field.

2) fe same whether Q1 > Q2 or Q2 > Q1

⇒ if m1 > m2 α<β

3) by Gauss' law,

4)
Field at centre due to charge at point 1,5 & 3,7 will cancel each other field due to charge at
point (2), (6), (8) & (4) will be given as

E2 = E6 = E8 = E4 =

5)
Let us assume an element of length dx at a distance x from O.
charge on element

dQ = λ dx =

x dx ⇒ Q =

⇒Q=
Hence option (2)

6)

7)

Explaining the Question : Identify which given value of electric charge cannot physically
exist based on fundamental charge cannot physically exist based on fundamental charge
properties.

Concept : This question is based on Quantization of electric charge

Solution : Electric charge exists in discrete packets and is always an integral multiple of the
elementary charge
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C.
So any possible charge must be q = ne, where n is integer.
Check options.
6.4 × 10–18 = 40e → possible
Large charges like 1.35 × 105 C and 1.2 × 107 C can exist macroscopically

Now, 10–19 C = n (1.6 × 10–19) ⇒ n = = 0.625 = → not integer → not possible

Final Answer : Option (4)

8)

ϕ=
q = λ . λ and length

λ =2x = 2

ϕ=
9) Gauss theorem properties

10)

11)

12)

= 18
Total pieces required to keep charge at symmetric centre = 36

∴ ϕprism =

13) Explain the Question : To find value of charged placed at centroid to self energy of
system become zero.
Concept : This question is based on electric potential energy.
Solution :

Self energy =

Final Answer : option (4)

14) Question Explanation : We need to find electric field for given potential friction to select
correct option.
Concept : Relation between field and potential

Solution :

(Electric field has unit N/C or V/m, not N/m)

Final Answer : Option (2)

15)

16) Explain Question:

We have to calculate work done in taking the charge 'Q' from its center to equal infinite.

Concept:
Work done (w) =

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (3)

17) Question Explanation: We have to comment about electric potential energy when
separation of two charges is increased.
Concept:
Electric potential energy (U) is the energy stored due to interaction between two charges.
It depends on the Coulomb's Law and is given by :

U=
where :
U = Electric potential energy
k = Coulomb's constant (9 × 109 Nm2/C2)
q1 , q2 = Charges
r = distance between the charges

Solution:
If q1 and q2 are like charges (both positive or both negative)
They repel each other.
As r increases, U decreases because the charges move farther apart and have lower
interaction energy.

If q1 and q2 are unlike charges (one positive, one negative)

They attract each other.
As r increases, U increases (becomes less negative) since work is done to separate them.
Thus, electric potential energy may increase or decrease depending on whether the charges
are like or unlike.

Final Answer : Option (1)

18)
VB = VD
in direction of electric field potential will be decreased
So VC > VB = VD > VA

19) Explain Question:

Given V= 5x2 + 10x – 9
we have to calculate electric field at x = 1m.

Concept:
Relation between electric filed and potential.

Solution:
Final Answer: Option (1)

20)

21)

22) Explain Question:

As shown in figure find component of electric flied Ex and Ey.

Concept:
Equipotential surface.

Solution:

Final answer: option (2)

23)

24)

25) Question Explanation: Field direction & work done.

Concept: Potential Gradient & Work.

Solution:
The electric field always points from higher potential to lower potential, which is rightward (80
V to 40 V).
Work done depends only on the potential difference between the initial and final
points.
26)

27) Case I :

0
E =
Case II :

28) Explain Question:

The question asks to find net gravitational force on 3kg mass.

Concept:
Newton haw of Gravitational.

Solution:

Fg =

Fg =

Fg =

Fg =

Fg =

Final answer: Option(1)

29)

30) Explain Question:

A particle is placed at a distance r form the center C of a thin spherical shell; we need the
variation of gravitational field with r.

Concept:
Gravitational field of a thin spherical shell.

Solution:
Inside a thin spherical shell, the gravitational field is zero; outside, beavers as if all mass were

all the center :

For r ≤ R: g = 0 (field is zero inside shell)

For r ≥ R: (inverse–square law outside)

Final answer: option (4)

31) Explain Question:

If charge 'Q' is in equilibrium then we have to calculate ratio of Q1 and Q2.

Concept: Electric force.

Solution:
If 'Q' is in equilibrium.

Final Answer: Option (1)

32)

33)

⇒ =

34) U2 = U1 + qV ⇒ V =
35) Theory

36) Question Explanation:

The goal is to find the net electrostatic potential at the common center O of three concentric
spherical shells with radii a, b, c and surface charge densities +σ, –σ, +σ.

Concept:
The potential inside a charged spherical shell is constant and equals the potential at its
surface.

Formula:

Potential at surface (V) in terms of surface charge density (σ): (Derived from V =
where Q = σ . 4πR2)
Brief Calculation:
The center O is inside all three shells, so the total potential is the sum of the surface potentials
of each shell: Vnet = Va + Vb + Vc

Final Answer: Option (2)

37) Explain Question:

The question asks for the net electric field between two infinite charged planes: one with
surface charge density +σ and the other with +2σ.

Concept:
Electric Field of Infinite Plane.

Solution:

(away form plate is 'σ' positive)

net electric field

Final answer: Option (1)

38)
Explain Question:
A positive point charge initially at rest in a uniform electric field. We have to examine the truth
of the given statement about the motion of the charge and the meaning of electric lines of
force, considering only electric forces.

Concept:
Electric field lines

Solution:
In a uniform electric field, the electric an a positive charge acts along the direction of the
electric field. Since the charge start from rest and no other forces act on it, it accelerates
along the electric field lines. Hence statement - 1 is true.

Electric lines of force indicate the direction of the electric field at each point, but they do not
represent the actual path followed by a charged particle in general. Therefore, statement - 2 is
false.

Final Answer: Option (3)

39) E =

where q = ρ πR3

40)

41)
 42)

Question Explanation :

We need to find net electric field at the centre of the ring from the given linear charge densities.

Concept :

Electric field due to changed circular arc.

Solution :

From the figure -

(E1 + E3) = sin 45°

(E1 + E3) = = E .... (1)

At θ = 45° from vertical

(E2 + E4) = sin 45°

= at θ = 45°

⇒ (E2 + E4) = = E at θ = 45°

Net field at center = (2 E cos θ)

=2 cos 45°

ER =

Final answer : Option(4)

43) Electric field inside a solid non conducting sphere E =

E & r plotted against y & x axis respectively.

than
⇒ Q = 144 πε0

44)
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Chelating ligands are polydentate ligands that can bond to a central metal atom through two
or more donar atoms, forming a ring structure.

47)

* Oxidation Number: Let the oxidation state of Platinum be x.

* Ethylene is a neutral ligand
* Chloride has a charge of -1.
* The total charge of the complex is -1.
* Equation: x + 0 + 3(-1)=-1

* Coordination Number: Ethylene is a monodentate ligand (occupies one site via its pi-bond),
and there are three chloride ligands.
* Total sites = 1+3=4.

48)

The strength of the Bond in metal carbonyls depends on Back bonding.

49)

50)

A non-electrolyte does not dissociate into ions in a solution. can be represented

as Since there are no iionisable chloride ions out side the coordination
sphere, it does not conduct electricity.

51)

(A) is

is a strong field ligand, so it's low spin unpaired electron.

(B) Low spin unpaired electrons.

(C) :Low spin unpaired electron.

(D) Configuration is always unpaired electrons.

52)

In it, Fe is in +2 oxidation state.

The electronic configuration of

Since, is the SFL, therefore pairing takes place.

Hybridisation

53)

Here is the breakdown of how to find each value for the complex
Total Number of Ions: The problem states that 1 more of the complex gives 3 moles of ions.
Number of Counter Ions: Since the complex produces 3 ions in total, one must be the complex
coordination sphere and the other 2 must be the chloride counter ions
to balance the charge.
1. Formula:
Total Bonds:
* bonds: There are 5 ligands, each forming 1 bond with Cobalt = 5.
* bond: 1 Chlorine is inside the coordination sphere forming
* bonds: Each of the molecules has bonds ( 5 ligands 3 bonds each)=15.
* Total: 5+1+15=21.

54)

55)

56)
57)

58)

59)

CoBr2Cl.4NH3
Co+3 C.N. = 6
∴ [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl

[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ Cl–
with
Excess

60)

The correct option based on your list is:

** (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)**

61)

(A)

= 37 =36 Satisfying
EAN
(R)

unpaired electron is present in 4d orbital.

since electron is promoted to 4d - it is
very loosely held, hence it can be
easily lost making the oxidations of
into easily possible.

62) is generally WFL but in presence of will behave as SFL,

63) [CrF6]4–
⇒ Cr2+ → 3d4
F– → WFL → No pairing
so unpaired e– = 4
(b) [MnF6]–4
Mn2+ → 3d5
F– → WFL → No pairing
unpaired e– = 5
(c)

→ unpaired e– = 2
(d) [Mn (CN)6]4– ⇒ 3d5,

⇒ d2sp3
–
unpaired e = 1

64)
65)

66)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

67)

68)

Ncert Based

69)

Ncert Based

70)

Ncert Based

71)

Ncert Based
Question explanation : Question is asking about correct Werner theory statements for
complexes.
Concept : This question is based on Werner theory explains primary and secondary valency
behaviour in complexes.
Solution:
(1) Incorrect → Ligands attached by coordinate covalent bonds, not ionic.
(2) Correct → Secondary valencies (coordination number) are directional.
(3) Correct → Secondary valencies are non-ionisable; they remain inside the bracket.
Thus, only 2 and 3 are correct.
Final answer : Option 2

72)

73)

74)

75)

No. of ions electrical conductance.

III < IV < II < I
76) Answer-Option (3)
Explanation - The question asks for the platinum complex that dissociates into four ions in
solution.
Concept- [Pt(NH3)5CI]CI3
The coordination sphere contains [Pt(NH3)5,CI]3+, and 3CI– are outside.
In solution:
[Pt(NH3)5 CI]CI3 → [Pt(NH3),CI]3+ + 3C–
Total ions = 4

77)

hybridization
outer orbital complex

78)

Explain Question: Identify correct limitations of VBT.

Concept: VBT limitations.

Solution:
A correct → VBT cannot explain colour.
B correct → cannot quantitatively distinguish ligands.
C incorrect → VBT gives qualitative, not quantitative magnetic data.
D correct → cannot explain kinetic stability.

Final Answer: Option (2)

79)

80)

81)
82)

[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 → 3 AgCl
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 → 2 AgCl
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl → 1 AgCl

83)

Explain Question:
Find bond length of C – O in complex Fe(CO)5 is higher or lesser than carbon monoxide bond
length.

Concept:
Synergy bonding, π back bond, bond length.

Solution:
In Fe(CO)5 there exists a synergic bond between Fe and CO. Due to synergic bond formation
between metal and CO, the bond order of CO decreases.
As bond order decreases the Bond length increases. Here the only option having greater bond
length than 1.128A° is option (1).

Final Answer: Option (1)

As there is synergistic effect, C-O bond length will be increased. So it should be greater than

84)

85)

trioxalatoaluminate (III) - [Al(Ox)3]3–

tetrafluoroborate (III) - [BF4]–

86)

87)
 88)

Explain Question: Arrange given complexes in decreasing magnetic moment.

Concept: Unpaired electrons (spin‐only μ).

Solution:
• [Ni(CO)₄]: Ni⁰ is d¹⁰ CO is strong → low-spin, 0 unpaired electrons → 0 B.M.
• CN- strong → law-spin, 1 unpaired electron → 1.73 B.M.
• strong → 3 unpaired ( t2g3) → 3.87 B.M.
• weak → high-spin, 4 unpaired → 4.90 B.M.
order of magnetic moments: [CoF6]–3 > [Cr(NH3)6]+3 > [Mn(CN)6]–4 > [Ni(CO)4]

Final answer: option (2)

89)

90)

BOTANY

91)

92)
93)

94) NCERT-XII, Pg # 9-11

95) NCERT-XII, Pg # 11,

96) NCERT-XII, [Link]. # 11

97) NCERT-XII, [Link]. #18

98)

99)

100) NCERT-XII, [Link]. 9,10

101)

102)

103)

104)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the structural classification of the gynoecium
of Papaver.

Concept: Gynoecium Types

Solution: The gynoecium of Papaver (poppy) is characterized by multiple carpels that are
fused together. This is classified as multicarpellary. syncarpous.

Final Answer: Option (2)

105)

106) NCERT (XII) Page # 26,27

107)

108)

109)

110)

111)

112)

113)

114)

115)

116)
117)

118) NCERT PG. NO. 25

119)

120)

121)

122)

123)

124)

125)

126)

127)

128)
 129)

130)

131)

132)

133)

134)

135)

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT Page No. 31-33

137) NCERT Page No. 32

138) NCERT Page No. 27

139) Module

140) NCERT Page No. 32

141) NCERT Page No. 30

142) Ncert Pg No: 27
Solution: Sperms move from seminiferous tubules to rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis,
vas deferens.
Final Answer : (1)

143) Ncert Pg No: 31

Solution: Starts at puberty due to GnRH increase.
Final Answer : (2)

144) Solution: Sperm is haploid.

Final Answer : (4)
Ncert Pg No: 32

145) NCERT Page No. 32

146) (a) Epididymis - Functional maturity

(b) Vas deferens - Transport & maturation
(c) Seminal vesicles - energy source
(d) Prostate gland - Sperm motility and survival

147) NCERT Page No. 27

148) NCERT Page No. 28

149) NCERT Conceptual.

150) Module/Conceptual.

151) Solution : Asthenospermia is characterized by reduced sperm motility, which can impair
the ability of sperm to reach and fertilize the oocyte.
Final Answer : (3)

152) Solution : Oogenesis is the process by which primary oocytes mature into secondary
oocytes with the formation of polar bodies.
Final Answer : (1)

153)

Module

154)

Ncert Pg No: 30
155) NCERT XII, Pg. NO: 33

156)

Module

157) NCERT(XII) Pg No: 33

158) Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to increased GnRH secretion, while oogenesis is
initiated during embryonic development.

159) This correctly identifies spermiogenesis as the formation of spermatozoa and spermiation
as their release into the seminiferous tubules.

160) 1 cycle of oogenesis produces 1 ovum.

1 cycle of spermatogenesis produces 4 sperms.

161)

NCERT Pg: 33

162) NCERT Pg: 33

163) The surge of LH induces the completion of meiosis I just before ovulation, when the
oocyte is within a mature tertiary follicle.

164) The first meiotic division of the primary oocyte results in formation of a secondary oocyte
and the first polar body.

165) This asymmetry preserves the bulk of the cytoplasm and organelles for the secondary
oocyte, while discarding half the chromosomes in the polar body.

166) Zona pellucida is a thick, non-cellular glycoprotein coat secreted by the oocyte and
granulosa cells.

167) Corpus luteum secretes high amounts of progesterone and low amounts of estrogen.

168) The antrum is the characteristic fluid-filled space that enlarges as the follicle matures.

169) The ovarian cortex is the outer layer where oogenesis and follicular development take
place.
170)

This follows the logical progression from the simplest resting follicle to the most mature stage.

171) The cumulus oophorus is the mound of granulosa cells that anchors the oocyte to the
follicle wall.

172)

NCERT Pg # 44

173) Explain Question : To identify the term used for Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells.
Concept : This question is based on Spermatogenesis.
Solution : Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called Spermiation.

174)

NCERT Conceptual.

175)

NCERT Based.

176)

NCERT Conceptual.

177)

NCERT Conceptual.

178)

NCERT Based. 33

179) Allen Module.

180) NCERT Based Pg No: 33