08-10-2025

2302CMD303033250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) The moment of inertia of solid sphere about a diameter is I. Determine the moment of interia
about any tangent :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Two bodies with moments of inertia I1 and I2 (I1 > I2) have equal angular momenta. If their kinetic
energies of rotation are E1 and E2, respectively, then :-

(1) E1 = E2
(2) E1 < E2
(3) E1 > E2
(4) E1 ≥ E2

3) If the radius of a solid sphere is 35 cm, calculate the radius of gyration when the axis is along a
tangent :-

(1) cm
(2) cm

(3)
cm

(4)
cm

4) In the rectangular lamina shown in the figure, AB = BC/2. The moment of inertia of the lamina is
minimum along the axis passing through :-

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) EG
(4) FH
5) Assertion (A) : A couple does not exert a net force on an object even though it exerts a torque.
Reason (R) : Couple is a pair of two forces with equal magnitude but opposite directions acting
simultaneously on a body in different lines of action.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

6) The engine delivers 150 kW at an angular speed of 600 rev/min. How much torque does the
engine provide?

(1) 125 Nm

(2)

(3)

(4) 7500 Nm

7) A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg–m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about the axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be

(1) π/12 N–m

(2) π/15 N–m
(3) π/18 N–m
(4) 2π/15 N–m

8) A particle of mass m is rotating in a plane in a circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum is
L. The centripetal force acting on the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m should be :-

(1) 9 kg
(2) 15 kg
(3) 21 kg
(4) 1 kg

10) A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has two identical beads of negligible size, each of
mass m, which can slide freely along the rod. Initially, the two beads are at the centre of the rod and
the system is rotating with angular velocity ω0 about an axis perpendicular to rod and passing
through the mid-point of rod. There are no external forces. When the beads reach the ends of the rod

the angular velocity of the system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ω0

11) In an equilateral triangle ABC, F1, F2 and F3 are three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and
AC as shown in the given figure. What should be the magnitude of F3 so that the total torque about O

is zero (O is Centroid):-

(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 8 N

12) Four similar point masses (each of mass m) are placed on the circumference of a disc of mass M
and radius R. The M.I. of the system about the normal axis through the centre O will be-

(1) MR2 + 4mR2

(2)
MR2 + 4mR2

(3)
MR2 + mR2
(4) none of these

13) What will be the value of maximum acceleration α of the truck in the forward direction so that

the block kept on the back does not topple ?

(1) ag/h
(2) hg/a
(3) ag/2h
(4) h/bg

14) From an inclined plane a sphere, a disc, a ring and a spherical shell of same radius are rolled
without slipping from the same height simultaneously. The order of their reaching at the base will be
:-

(1) Ring, shell, disc, sphere

(2) Shell, sphere, disc, ring
(3) Sphere, disc, shell, ring
(4) Ring, sphere, disc, shell

15) A rigid body can be hinged about any point on the x-axis. When it is hinged such that the hinge is
at distance x, the moment of inertia is given by I = 2x2 – 12x + 17, then x-coordinate of center of
mass is -

(1) x = 2
(2) x = 0
(3) x = 1
(4) x = 3

16) Assertion (A) :- A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionless inclined plane will undergo
slipping (not rolling motion).
Reason (R) :- For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

17) Assertion (A) :- When a diver dives, the rotational kinetic energy of diver may increase, during
several somersaults.
Reason (R) :- When diver pulls his limbs, the moment of inertia decreases and on account of
conservation of angular momentum his angular speed increases.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

18) If a ladder is not in balance against a smooth vertical wall, then it can be made in balance by :-

(1) Decreasing the length of ladder

(2) Increasing the length of ladder
(3) Increasing the angle of inclination
(4) Decreasing the angle of inclination

19) The graph between the angular momentum J and angular velocity ω for a body will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle of mass 'm' is projected on horizontal ground with an initial velocity of v making an
angle θ with horizontal. Find out the angular momentum of particle about the point of projection
when it is at its maximum height :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A uniform rod AB of length and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from

rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is , the initial
angular acceleration of the rod will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The radius of a rotating sphere decreases by 2% keeping the mass constant, the change in its
rotational kinetic energy ?

(1) 2%
(2) 1%
(3) 4%
(4) 8%

23) A disc is rolling (without slipping0 on a frictionless surface. C is its center and Q and P are two
points equidistant from C. Let VP, VQ and VC be the magnitudes of velocities of points P, Q and C

respectively, then:

(1) VQ > VC > VP

(2) VQ < VC < VP

(3)
VQ = VP, VC =
(4) VQ < VC > VP

24) Figure shows a thin metallic triangular sheet ABC. The mass of the sheet is M The moment of

inertia of the sheet about side AC is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity
is zero. In the first two seconds it rotates through angle θ1. In the next two second it rotates through

angle θ2. What is the ratio ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km/h. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and
the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg-m2. If the vehicle is brought to
rest in 15s, the magnitude of average torque transmitted by its brakes to wheel is :-

(1) 2.86 kg-m2/s2

(2) 6.66 kg-m2/s2
(3) 8.58 kg-m2/s2
(4) 10.86 kg-m2/s2

27) A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same
mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of
the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 5

28)
A solid cylinder of radius 5 cm is pure rolling on 30° inclined plane. Find out angular velocity after it
travels 6m on incline plane.

(1) 40
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) A ladder rests against a frictionless vertical wall, with its upper end 6m above the ground and
the lower end 4m away from the wall. The weight of the ladder is 500 N and its centre of gravity at
(1/3)rd distance from the lower end. Wall’s reaction will be, in N :-

(1) 111
(2) 333
(3) 222
(4) 129

30) The figure shows a horizontal block of mass M suspended by two wires A and B. The centre of
mass of the block is closer to B than A. (i) Is the magnitude of the torque due to wire A is greater,
less or equal to that due to B w.r.t. centre of mass ? (ii) Which wire A or B exerts more force on the

block ?

(1) (i) greater (ii) B

(2) (i) equal (ii) B
(3) (i) less (ii) A
(4) (i) greater (ii) A

31) Assertion (A) :- A ladder is more apt to slip, when you are high up on it than when you just
begin to climb.
Reason (R) :- When at high up a ladder, torque of gravity force about bottom point & friction
required between ground and ladder is larger than he begin to climb.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) In which case the angular acceleration will more with respect to rotational axis :-

(1) Case I
(2) Case II
(3) Same
(4) None
33) Two gear wheels which are meshed together have radii of 0.50 cm and 0.15 cm. The number of
revolutions undergone by the smaller one when the larger goes through 3 revolutions is :-

(1) 5 revolutions
(2) 20 revolutions
(3) 1 revolution
(4) 10 revolutions

34) A ring of mass 10 kg and diameter 0.4 meter is rotating about its geometrical axis at 1200
rotations per minute. Its moment of inertia and angular momentum will be respectively:-

(1) 0.4 kg-m2 and 50.28 J-s

(2) 0.4 kg-m2 and 0.4 J-s
(3) 50.28 kg-m2 and 0.4 J-s
(4) 0.4 kg-m2 and zero

35) If the earth loses its atmosphere suddenly, then the duration of day will :-

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain unchanged
(4) nothing can be definitely said

36) In an arrangement of four particles, each of mass 2 gram are situated at the coordinate
points (3, 2, 0), (1, –1, 0), (0, 0, 0) and (–1, 1, 0). The moment of inertia of this arrangement about
the Z-axis will be:-

(1) 8 units
(2) 16 units
(3) 43 units
(4) 34 units

37) If I1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis perpendicualr to its length and passing
through its centre of mass and I2 is the moment of inertia of the ring about an axis perpendicualr to
plane of ring and passing through its centre formed by bending the rod, then –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Find out moment of inertia of system about given axis of rotation.
(1) 44 kg–m2
(2) 39 kg–m2
(3) 38 kg–m2
(4) 29 kg–m2

39) Three rings each of mass m and radius r are so placed that they touch each other. The radius of

gyration of the system about the axis as shown in the figure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two identical cylinders roll from rest on two identical planes of slant lengths S and 2S but of the
same height h. Then the velocities V1 and V2 acquired by the cylinders when they reach the bottom of
the incline are related as:–

(1) V1 = V2
(2) V1 = 2V1
(3) 2V1 = V2
(4) None of the above

41) A uniform ladder of length 5 m is placed against wall as shown. If coefficient of friction μ is the
same for both walls, what is the minimum value of μ for which ladder will not slip ?

(1)
μ=

(2)
μ=

(3)
μ=

(4)
μ=

42) A rod of length 50 cm is pivoted at one end. it is raised such that if makes an angle of 30°, from
the Horizontal as shown and released from rest. Find work done by gravity when it passes through

the horizontal.

(1) 15 J
(2) 25 J
(3) 6.25 J
(4) 12.5 J

43) A body of mass 10kg and radius of gyration 50 cm, is being acted on by a torque of 108 dyne-cm.
The angular acceleration produced in the body is (in rad/s2) :

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

44) A triangular set square of negligible mass is suspended freely from the right angled corner and
weights are hung at the two corners. If the hypotenuse of the set square sets horizontally, then the
ratio of the weights W1/W2 is :-

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3)
(4)

45) A uniform rod of mass m and length L is suspended with two massless strings as shown in the
figure. If the rod is at rest in a horizontal position the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2 is:

(1) 1: 1
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2: 1
(4) 4: 3

CHEMISTRY

1) For a reverse reaction at equilibrium, the rate constant for the backward reaction is 7.5 × 10–4
and equilibrium constant is equal to 1.5. The rate constant for forward reaction will be :-

(1) 1.125 × 10–3

(2) 1.5
(3) 7.5 × 10–4
(4) 1.5 × 10–2

2) The role of a catalyst in a reversible reaction is to:-

(1) Increases the rate of forward reaction

(2) Decrease the rate of backward reaction
(3) Alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction
(4) Allow the equilibrium to be achieved quickly
3) Statement-I : On dilution degree of ionisation increases for weak electrolytes.
Statement-II : Acidic solutions have pH value less than 7 at 25°C.

(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true and statement-II is correct explanation for statement-I.
Statement-I is true, statement-II is true and statement-II is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.

4) Which of the following graph is correct for reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) at constant
temperature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) For the dissociation reaction :

NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)
if KP = 25 atm2; then the total equilibrium pressure of the system is :-

(1) 25 atm
(2) 5 atm
(3) 10 atm
(4) 15 atm

6) Which of the graph correctly represent condition of equilibrium for reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For a reaction; , the initial concentration of A and B are equal but the equilibrium
concentration of C is twice that of equilibrium concentration of A. Then KC is :

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/9

8) At equilibrium 500mL vessel contains 1.5 M of each A, B, C, D. If 0.5 M of C and D expelled out
than what would be the KC :–
A+B⇌C+D

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) For which of the following reaction, Kp is unit less?

(1) 2NO + O2 2NO2

(2) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(3) H2 + I2 2HI
(4) H2O(ℓ) H2O(g)

10) For equilibrium H2O H2O (g);

Statement 1 : KP depends on equilibrium pressure of H2O(g) at constant temperature.
Statement 2 : KP depends on temperature at which equilibrium is established.

(1) Both statement (1) & (2) are correct.

(2) Both statement (1) & (2) are incorrect.
(3) Statement (1) is correct but statement (2) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (1) is incorrect but statement (2) is correct.

11) For the equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g), what is the temperature at
which :-

(1) 0.027 K
(2) 0.36 K
(3) 36.54 K
(4) 273 K

12) Which is most stable oxide :-

(1) 2NO2 N2 + 2O2 K = 6.7 × 1016

(2) N2O2 N2 + O2 K = 2.2 × 1030
(3) 2N2O3 2N2 + 3O2 K = 1.2 × 1034
(4) 2N2O 2N2 + O2 K = 3.5 × 1033

13)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Assertion : - The physical equilibrium is not static but dynamic in nature.
Reason : - The physical equilibrium is a state in which two opposing process are proceeding at the
same rate.

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong
(4) If A and R both are wrong

15) Two gaseous equilibria and 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) have equilibrium
constant K1 and K2 respectively at 298 K. Which of the following relationships between K1 and K2 is
correct ?
(1) K1 = K2
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) In the melting of ice, which one of the conditions will be more favourable ?

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure

17) Assertion (A) :- In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant pressure and temperature addition of
helium at equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl5.
Reason (R) :- Helium reacts with Cl2 and hence shifts the equilibrium in forward direction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

18) In the manufacture of NH3 by Haber's process which condition give maximum yield–

(1) High temperature, High pressure and high concentration of reactants

(2) High temperature, low pressure and low concentration of reactants
(3) Low temperature, high pressure and high concentration of reactants
(4) Low temperature, low pressure and low concentration of reactants

19) Consider the following equilibrium system; ; some inert gas is

added to the above system at constant volume. Predict which of the following is true ?

(1) More of SO3 is produced.

(2) Less SO2 is produced.
(3) Addition of inert gas does not affect equilibrium.
(4) System moves to new equilibrium position which cannot be predicted theoretically.
20)
According to this graph reaction will be :-

(1) Endothermic
(2) Exothermic
(3) Spontaneous at room temperature
(4) ΔH is negligible

21) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) + heat

for above reaction identify correct statements
(A) On adding H2(g) in above equilibrium the reaction shifts backwards.
(B) On increasing temperature of above equilibrium the reaction shifts backwards.
(C) On decreasing pressure of above equilibrium the reaction shifts forward
(D) There is no effect of volume change on above equilibrium

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, D
(3) B, C
(4) C, D

22) Kc for A + B ⇌ C + D is 10 at 25°C. If a container contains 1, 2, 3, 4 mol/litre of A, B, C and D

respectively at 25°C, the reaction will proceed

(1) Left to right

(2) Right to left
(3) Already at equilibrium
(4) None of the above

23) Assertion :- When Qc = Kc, reaction is at equilibrium.

Reason :- At equilibrium ΔG ≠ 0.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding
equilibrium constant Kc is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Predict the direction of the reaction from the comparison of Qc and Kc. Mark the incorrect
statement.

(1) If Qc < Kc , reaction goes from left to right

(2) If Qc = Kc , reaction goes from right to left
(3) If Qc > Kc , net reaction goes from right to left.
(4) If Qc = Kc , reactants and products are at equilibrium

26) The [H+] in rain water of pH = 4.35 is :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–5 M

(2) 6.5 × 10–5 M
(3) 9.5 × 10–5 M
(4) 12.5 × 10–5 M

27) If pH of solution is increased from 2 to 4, then concentration of [H+] ion would :-

(1) increased 2 times

(2) decreased 2 times
(3) increased 100 times
(4) decreased 100 times

28) For which, ostwald dilution law is applicable :-

(1) NaCl
(2) HCl
(3) CH3COONa
(4) CH3COOH

29) Degree of ionization of water (in percentage) at 298 K is :-

(1) 1.8 × 10–7

(2) 0.8 × 10–9
(3) 3.6 × 10–7
(4) 3.6 × 10–9

30) A solution of NaOH contain 0.04 gm of NaOH per litre. Its pH is

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 12

31)

Common ion effect is shown by :-

(1) HCl + CH3COOH

(2) NaCN + HCN
(3) NH4Cl + NH4OH
(4) All

32) At 373 K, temp. the pH of pure H2O can be:-

(1) < 7
(2) > 7
(3) = 7
(4) = 0

33) 10–6 M HCl is diluted 100 times. Its pH is :-

(1) 6.0
(2) 8.0
(3) 6.95
(4) 9.5

34)

The pH of 0.005 M aqueous solution of H2SO4 is.....

(1) 0.005
(2) 2
(3) 2.3
(4) 0.01

35) For a polybasic acid, the dissociation constants have a different values for each step, e.g.,

What is the observed trend of dissociation constant in successive stages?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Arrange the following in increasing order of pH CH3COONa, NaCl, NH4Cl

(1) NH4Cl < CH3COONa < NaCl

(2) NH4Cl < NaCl < CH3COONa
(3) CH3COONa < NaCl < NH4Cl
(4) NaCl < NH4Cl < CH3COONa

37) Conjugate acid and base for NH3 will be respectively

– +
(1) NH2 , NH4
+ –
(2) NH4 , NH2
– –
(3) NH2 , NH2
(4) None of the above

38) For cationic hydrolysis, pH is given by–

(1)
pH = pKw + pKa + logC

(2)
pH = pKw – pKb – logC

(3)
pH = pKw + pKa + pKb

(4)
pH = pKw + pKb + logC

39) Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1M NaOH. Given that the solubility product of Ni(OH)2 is 2
× 10–15.

(1) 1 × 108 M
(2) 2 × 10–13 M
(3) 2 × 10–8 M
(4) 1 × 10–13 M

40)

At a certain temperature, the solubility of the salt AxBy is S moles per liter. The general expression
for its solubility product will be–

y x x+y
(1) Ksp = x y S
x+y x+y
(2) Ksp = (xy) S
x y x+y
(3) Ksp = (x y )S
x y xy
(4) Ksp = x y S
41) Solubility of AgCl is maximum in (Ksp of AgCl is 1.0 × 10–10) :-

(1) Pure water

(2) 0.1 M AgNO3
(3) 0.1 M NH3
(4) 0.1 M NaCl

42) Calculate the pH of solution when CH3COOH is 50% neutralised by strong base NaOH
(pKa CH3COOH = 4.74)

(1) 7
(2) 4.74
(3) 0.3
(4) 10

43) On adding 0.1 M solution each of Ag+, Ba+2,Ca+2 ions in a Na2SO4 solution, species first
precipitated is
(Ksp for BaSO4 = 10–11, Ksp for CaSO4 = 10–6, Ksp for Ag2SO4 = 10–5).

(1) Ag2SO4
(2) BaSO4
(3) CaSO4
(4) All of these compounds will precipitate simultaneously.

44) Which of the following will produce a buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes ?

–3 –3
(1) 0.1 mol dm NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(2) 0.05 mol dm NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(3) 0.1 mol dm NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm HCl
–3 –3
(4) 0.1 mol dm CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm NaOH

45)

Which of the following solutions does not act as buffer :–

(1) H3PO4 + NaH2PO4

(2) NaHCO3 + H2CO3
(3) NH4Cl + HCl
(4) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

BOTANY

1) These three types of vascular bundles (A, B and C) are present in respectively :-
(1) stem, root, leaf
(2) root, stem, leaf
(3) root, monocot stem and leaf, dicot stem
(4) monocot stem and leaf, dicot root, monocot leaf

2) Which of the following pair of match is not correct ?

(1) Root hairs – Help in prevent water loss due to transpiration

(2) Sieve tube elements – Its function are controlled by the nucleus of campanion cells
(3) Pith – Large and well developed in monocot root
Stomatal apparatus – Consist of stomatal aperture, guard cells and surrounding subsidiary
(4)
cells

3) Innumerable vascular bundles, lack of cambium and lack of well demarcate pith is found in :-

(1) Sugar Cane

(2) Sunflower
(3) Pea
(4) Tomato

4) Vascular tissues of angiosperms differ from those of gymnosperms in :-

(1) Presence of vessels in the xylem

(2) Presence of well developed seive tubes in phloem
(3) Presence of companion cells in phloem
(4) All of the above

5) Stele in a young dicot stem includes :

(1) endodermis, pericycle, xylem, phloem, cambium, pith and pithrays

(2) pericycle, xylem, phloem, cambium, pith and pith rays
(3) Xylem, phloem, cambium, pith and pith rays
(4) Xylem, phloem and cambium

6) Which type of vascular bundles are given in the following diagram :-

(1) Radial
(2) Conjoint and open
(3) Conjoint and closed
(4) Conjoint, bicollateral and open

7)

How many cells in the list given below are dead ?

Tracheids, Sieve tube elements, Xylem fibre, Companion cell, Vessel, Xylem parenchyma

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

8) Find out the incorrect match pair ?

(1) Radial vascular bundles → Roots

(2) Conjoint Bicollateral V.B. → Cucurbita Stem
(3) Conjoint open V.B. → Monocot Leaf
(4) Conjoint closed V.B. → Dicot Leaf

9) Identify the given figure and what are A, B and C ?

Conjoint closed vascular bundle,

(1)
A = Phloem, B = Cambium, C = Xylem
Radial vascular bundle,
(2)
A = Xylem, B = Cambium, C = Phloem
Conjoint open vascular bundle,
(3)
A = Phloem, B = Cambium, C = xylem
Conjoint open vascular bundle,
(4)
A = Xylem, B = Cambium, C = Phloem

10) Which of the following is not a part of ground tissue system ?

(1) Endodermis
(2) Trichomes
(3) Pericycle
(4) Medullary rays

11) Ground tissue includes:

(1) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

(2) All tissues external to endodermis
(3) Epidermis and cortex
(4) All tissues internal to endodermis

12) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A : Cambium is present between xylem and phloem in conjoint collateral, open vascular
bundles.
Statement B : Polyarch radial vascular bundles are present in monocot stem

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

13) Xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of V.B., is the character of....

(1) Stem and root

(2) Stem and leaf
(3) Root and leaf
(4) (1) and (2)

14) Assertion : Radial vascular bundles are found in roots.

Reason : In roots xylem and phloem lies within a vascular bundle and are arranged on same radii.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Statement-I : The root hairs in monocots are unicellular, and are formed due to elongation of
the epidermal cells.
Statement-II : Epidermal hair called trichome in dicots can be secretory in function.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
16) All the tissues on the innerside of the endodermis constitute:-

(1) Bark
(2) Stele
(3) Wound bark
(4) Cambium

17) Statement-I : In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the Xylem and phloem are jointly situated
along the same radii of vascular bundles.
Statement-II : Vascular bundles of monocot stem have ability to form secondary xylem and
secondary phloem.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

18) Read the following statements and answer the question.

(i) They are present on the stem as epidermal hairs.
(ii) They are usually multicellular.
(iii) They may be branched or unbranched and soft or stiff.
(iv) They help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.
Which part of epidermal tissue system is being described by the above statements?

(1) Stomata
(2) Guard cells
(3) Cuticle
(4) Trichomes

19) Which of the following is correct for the structure marked as B in the diagram?

(1) It regulates the opening and closing of stomata

(2) It is dead at maturity
(3) It is part of stomatal apparatus
(4) It is guard cell

20) Find the correct statement for guard cells

Statement I. Bean-shaped in all plants and enclose stomatal pore.
Statement II. Have differential thickening in their walls and possess chloroplasts.
(1) Both I and II are incorrect
(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) II is correct but I is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are correct

21) Mark out the incorrect statements

A. Epidermal cells are collenchymatous with a small amount of cytoplasm.
B. Root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil.
C. Trichomes are usually unicellular.
D. Trichomes may be branched or unbranched.
E. Epidermal cells have large vacuole.

(1) B,C and E

(2) A,C and E
(3) C and E
(4) A and C

22) Cortex of primary stem made up of

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Aerenchyma

23) Arrange the following cell layers in inner to outer side: (a) Hypodermis (b) Pericycle
(c) Endodermis (d) Epidermis
(e) Pith

(1) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d)

(2) (e), (c), (b), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (a), (b), (c), (e)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b), (e)

24) Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following options all the four
parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified?

A B C D

Stomatal Subsidiary Epidermal

(1) Guard cell
aperture cell cell
 Epidermal Stomatal Subsidiary
(2) Guard cell
cell aperture cell

Epidermal Subsidiary Stomatal

(3) Guard cell
cell cell aperture

Subsidiary Epidermal Stomatal

(4) Guard cell
cell cell aperture
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Parenchymatous structure with intercellular space is

(1) Epidermis
(2) Endodermis
(3) Cortex
(4) Pericycle

26) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

27) Which of the following statements are correct for chemiosmosis :

(a) Decrease of protons in stroma
(b) Decrease in pH in stroma
(c) Conformational change of F1 portion of ATP synthase
(d) Conformational change of F0 portion of ATP synthase (e) Facilitated diffusion of protons

(1) a, c, e
(2) a, b, c
(3) d,e
(4) b,d,e

28) What is not true about plants with Hatch and Slack Pathway?

(1) They have special leaf anatomy

(2) They have high temperature optimum
(3) They have a process called photorespiration
(4) Basic pathway of sugar synthesis in plants with Hatch & Slack pathway is Calvin pathway

29) For the synthesis of two hexose molecules, how many ATP and NADPH molecules
respectively are used by C3 plants ?

(1) 30 and 12
(2) 24 and 12
(3) 36 and 24
(4) 60 and 24

30) Which statement is incorrect with respect to above diagram :

(1) Graph showing the absorption spectrum of light by chloroplast pigment.

(2) Graph includes chlorophyll b, chlorophyll a, phycobilins.
Graph showing that most of the photosynthesis takes place in the blue and red regions of
(3)
spectrum.
(4) Graph showing the absorption of light spectrum by chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b and cartenoids.

31) Graph showing the absorption spectrum of various pigments identify the A,B,C :-

(1) (A)-Chlorophyll a, (B)-Chlorophyll b, (C)-Xanthophyll

(2) (A)-Chlorophyll b, (B)-Carotenoids, (C)-Xanthophyll
(3) (A)-Chlorophyll b, (B)-Carotenoids, (C)-Chlorophyll c
(4) (A)-Chlorophyll b, (B)-Carotenoids, (C)-Chlorophyll a

32) Statement I : Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.

Statement II : Wavelengths at which there is maximum absorption of chlorophyll a, i.e. in the blue
and red region also show higher rate of photosynthesis.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

33) Match the pair :-

Column I Column II

(A) Chlorophyll a (i) Yellow green

(B) Chlorephyll b (ii) Yellow

(C) Xanthophylls (iii) Blue green

(D) Carotenoids (iv) Yellow - yellow orange

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

34) Identify the A,B, C :-

(1) A-Grana, B-Stroma lamella, C-Stroma

(2) A-Grana, B-Grana lamella, C-Stroma
(3) A-Stroma, B-Grana, C-Grana lamella
(4) A-Stroma lamella, B-Grana, C-Stroma

35) Match the pair :-

Column I Column II

(i) T.W. Engelmann (a) Candle, Mint plant

(ii) Joseph Priestley (b) Purple and green bacteria

(iii) Cornelius Van Niel (c) Aquatic plants

(iv) Jan Ingenhousz (d) Cladophora

(1) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-c
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-a, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c

36) Match the pair :-

 Column I Column II

(i) T.W. Engelmann (a) Sun light is essential for plant process.

(ii) Joseph Priestley (b) O2 comes from H2O in green plants.

(iii) Cornelius Van Niel (c) Plants restore the air.

Describe first action spectrum of

(iv) Jan Ingenhousz (d)
photosynthesis.
(1) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-a, (iv)-c
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d

37) In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation occurs in _(a)_ and _(b)_ cells respectively. Select the
option which correctly fills the blanks (a) and (b)-

(1) a-Mesophyll, b-Bundle sheath

(2) a-Bundle sheath, b-Mesophyll
(3) a-Bundle sheath, b-Bundle sheath
(4) a-Mesophyll, b-Mesophyll

38) Observe the diagram given below and identify A, B, C and D.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) RuBisCO :

(1) Can bind CO2 but not O2

(2) Is the least abundant enzyme on Earth
(3) With respect to binding of CO2 and O2 is a non-competitive action
(4) Has a much greater affinity for CO2 than for O2

40) Binding of O2 to RuBisCO results in

(1) 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate

(2) 2 molecules of phosphoglycolate
(3) One molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate (3C) and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (2C)
(4) One molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate (2C) and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (3C)

41) [Link] cultured Cladophora in a suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture
by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of:

(1) Violet and green light

(2) Indigo and green light
(3) Orange and yellow light
(4) Blue and red light

42) Bundle sheath cells have these following characters except

(1) Large size chloroplast

(2) Agranal chloroplasts
(3) Thick cell walls
(4) With intercellular spaces

43) Stroma lamellae lacks all except

(1) PS-II
(2) NADP reductase
(3) PS-I
(4) Water splitting complex

44) Which of the following is crucial to continue Calvin cycle in an uninterrupted manner ?

(1) Oxidation of CO2

(2) Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor
(3) Formation of hexose
(4) Release of CO2

45) During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from :

(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) Both H2O and CO2
(4) O2 in air

ZOOLOGY

1) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

2) Which of following decreases the blood pressure :-

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Nor-adrenaline

3) Which of the following disorders occur due to hypersecretion of cortisol ?

(1) Grave's disease

(2) Addison's disease
(3) Cushing's syndrome
(4) Cretinism

4) Assertion : Glucagon is a Hyperglycemic Hormone.

Reason : Insulin is a Hypoglycemic Hormone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5)

Hormones of fight and flight are responsible for :-

(1) Inhibition of sweating

(2) Pupilary contraction
(3) Piloerection
(4) Increase strength of heart relaxation

6) Assertion : The immune responses of old person becomes weaker.

Reason : Thymus get degenarated in old individuals.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

7) Statement-I : Progesterone also acts on mammary glands.

Statement-II : Progesterone stimulate the formation of Alveoli.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

8) Observe the below diagrammatic representation and identify A to D.

(1) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Hypothalamic Artery, C-Posterior Pituitary

(2) A-Pituitary, B-Hypothalamic Vein, C-Pars distalis, D-Pars Intermedia
(3) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Portal Circulation, C-Anterior Pituitary, D-posterior Pituitary.
(4) A-Hypothalamic Neurons, B-Portal Circulation, C-Posterior Pituitary, D-Anterior Pituitary

9) Statement-I : Cortisols produces anti Inflammatory reactions.

Statement-II : Cortisols Increases the Immune response.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

10) Which part of thyroid does not secrete any hormone-

(1) Thyroid follicle

(2) Isthmus
(3) Parafollicular cells
(4) Cubical cells of thyroid

11) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action
of a steroid hormone. :-
(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP
(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Biochemical response
(3) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
(4) B-C-AMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation

12) Select the correct option :-

(1) A–Ventro lateral position of thyroid gland, D–Dorsally located parathyroid

(2) A–Dorso lateral position of thyroid, D–Ventrally located parathyroid
(3) A–Dorsally located thyroid, D–Ventrally located parathyroid
(4) A–Dorsally located parathyroid, D–Ventrally located thyroid

13) Which one is an organised endocrine gland ?

(1) Kidney
(2) GIT
(3) Liver
(4) Pineal

14) Which is not an example of secondary messenger?

(1) C-AMP
(2) IP3
(3) Ca++
(4) PRL

15)

Column A Column B

A. Pineal gland i. Produces melatonin

B. Hypothalamus ii. Controls body temperature and hunger

C. Pituitary gland iii. Master gland of endocrine system

D. Thyroid gland iv. Secretes thyroxine

Match the correct pairs from Column A and Column B.
(1) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
(2) i-D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-B
(3) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C
(4) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A

16) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Endocrine gland) (Disease)

(a) Thyroid gland (i) Acromegaly

(b) Adrenal gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus

(c) Piuitary gland (iii) Grave's disease

(d) Pancreas (iv) Addisons Disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

17) Read the following features in a baby and choose the disorder in which they are well observed ?
a. Abnormal skin
b. Low intelligence quotient
c. Deaf-mutism
d. Stunted growth
e. Mental retardation

(1) Cretinism
(2) Grave's disease
(3) Exophthalmic goitre
(4) Simple goitre

18)

Glucocorticoids stimulates :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Lipolysis

(C) Proteolysis
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

19) The adrenal cortex hormone, which are involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called ?

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Gonadocorticoids
(3) Mineralocorticoids
(4) Glucocorticoid

20) Hormones produced by kidney are-

(1) Renin, Erythropoietin

(2) ADH, Vasopressin
(3) Oxytocin, ADH
(4) ANF

21) Which hormone stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas ?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) CCK
(4) GIP

22) A hormone that increases deposition of Ca+ in bones by decreasing blood calcium level. It is
antagonistic to a hormone secreted from a gland found at back side of most famous gland. Identity:-

(1) Parathyroid hormone

(2) Thyrocalcitonin
(3) Aldosterone hormone
(4) Calcitriol hormone

23) Limbic system includes

a. Amygdala
b. Hippocampus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Midbrain
e. Corpora quadrigemina

(1) a, c, d
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, e

24) Nissl's granules exist in

(1) Cell body and axon

(2) Axon and synaptic knob
(3) Cell body and dendrites
(4) Axon and dendrites

25)

Which is not a part of brain stem ?

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain

26) Electrical synapse differs from chemical synapse in that

(1) It is more common in our system

(2) Pre and post synaptic neurons are separated by a large gap called synaptic cleft
(3) It resembles impulse conduction along a single axon
(4) Impulse transmission is slower in them

27) Assertion :- Na+-K+ pump always remains open/active except depolarization.

Reason :- Na+-K+ pump always try to maintain. resting stage or normal polarised state.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.

28) Assertion : Cerebral cortex refered to as grey matter.

Reason : Neuronal cell bodies are concentrated here.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Assertion : Cerebellum has very convulated surface.

Reason : Cerebellum provides additional space for many more neurons.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Read the following flow regarding to voltage :-

at which potential Na+–K+ pump is closed :-

(1) A
(2) A & B
(3) B,C & D
(4) A & D

31) Regulation of sexual behaviour is joint activity of :-

(1) Hypothalamus and cerebral cortex

(2) Thalamus and Hypothalamus
(3) Hypothalamus and limbic system
(4) Thalamus and pons

32) Which is the correct match in given table regarding this diagram :-

(1) A Post-synaptic membrane Action potential site

(2) B Post-synaptic membrane dendrites

(3) C Mitochondria stores neuro-transmitter

Binds to receptor on pre-syneptic

(4) D Neuro-transmitter
membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
33) Site of sensory and motor signaling is :-

(1) e
(2) f
(3) d
(4) i

34) Statements 1 :- The midbrain is located between the thalamus/hypothalamus of the hindbrain
and pons of the fore brain.
Statements 2 :- The ventral part of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings called
corpora quadrigemina.
Choose the correct answer from the following options :-

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false

(2) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.

35) Part of brain which is associated with fine and skillful voluntary movements.

(1) Diencephalon
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Olfactory lobe

36) Statement-I :- Hypothalamus is the major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
Statement-II :- The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

37) Match the following cranial meninges with their position over human brain & select the correct
option :-

Cranial Position
meninges of Layer

(i) Piamater (a) Outer most

 (ii) Arachnoid (b) Middle layer

(iii) Duramater (c) Inner most

(1) (i)-a,(ii)-b,(iii)-c
(2) (i)-c,(ii)-b,(iii)-a
(3) (i)-c,(ii)-a,(iii)-b
(4) (i)-b,(ii)-c,(iii)-a

38) Match the column-A and column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

(a) Cerebral hemispheres (i) Intersensory association

(b) Corpus callosum (ii) Urge for eating & drinking

(c) Association areas (iii) Connect two hemispheres

(d) Hypothalamus (iv) Cerebrum divided into two halves

Choose the correct match for above :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

39) Simplest neural organisation is present in :-

(1) Hydra
(2) Insect
(3) Worms
(4) Vertebrates

40) Axoplasm contains high concentration of :-

(1) K+
(2) Na+
(3) Cl–
(4) Ca2+

41) The axons transmits nerve impulse :-

(1) Away from cell body

(2) Towards a neuro-muscular junction
(3) Towards the cell body
(4) Both (1) and (2)

42) The region responsible for complex functions like memory, communication and intersensory
associations is :-
(1) Motor area
(2) Sensory area
(3) Association area
(4) Broca's area

43) The part of hind brain containing centres which control respiration, cardio-vascular reflexes, and
gastric secretion is :-

(1) Medulla
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons Oblongata
(4) Hypothalamus

44) The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pons

45) At the time of depolarisation :

(1) Na+ VGC – Open ; K+ VGC – Open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open ; K+ VGC – Closed
(3) Na+ VGC – Closed ; K+ VGC – Open
(4) Na+ VGC – Closed ; K+ VGC – Closed
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 4 1 2 4 4 3 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 2 3 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 3 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 4 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

I= MR2

MR2 = I ....(i)
M.I. about tangent

I' = MR2 =

I' = I

2) Asking About :
Comparison of rotational kinetic energies given equal angular momentum and different
moments of inertia.

Concept :
Rotational kinetic energy is given E = L2/2I, where L is the angular momentum. For the same
L. Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to I.

Formula :
E = L2/2I

Calculation/Explanation :
• Some I1 > I2, from the formula,

• Since I2 is smaller, E2 will be larger than E1, meaning E1 < E2.

3)

MI about tangent,

I = ICG + MR2 =

or MK2 = MR2

4) The moment of inertia is minimum about FH because mass distribution is at minimum

distance from FH.

5) Question Explanation:
We are given an Assertion (A) about how a couple exerts torque but not a net force, and a
Reason (R) describing the nature of a couple. We need to determine whether both are correct
and whether (R) explains (A).
Concept:
A couple is a system of two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action do not coincide. It
creates pure rotation (torque) without causing translational motion, hence no net force.
Formula:
Fnet = F - F = 0
Torque by a couple :
τ = F.d (where d = perpendicular distance between forces)
Calculation:
The forces in a couple cancel each other → net force is zero.
Since they act on different lines, they produce a torque.
The reason clearly explains why a couple causes only torque, matching the assertion.
Final Answer option (4)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

6) ω = 600 rev/min = = 20πrad/s

P=τω
150 × 103 = τ × 20 π

τ= Nm

7)

8) Explain : A particle is rotating in a plane. Find centripetal force acting on particle.

Concept : Angular momentum centripetal force

Formula :
L = Angular momentum = mvR

Calculation :
Centripetal force, ...(i)
and angular momentum, L = mvr

so,
puting value of v in (i),

9) Moment of forces about pivot should be equal to zero.

12g (ℓ) – mg (ℓ/2) – 3g =0

⇒ 12 –

⇒ ⇒ m = 15 kg
Hence option (2).

10)

11)

τnet = 0
τACW = τCW
F1 × r + F2 × r = F3 × r
4r + 2r = F3r
F3 = 6N

12)
13)
Block will not topple if

14) Time taken by the rolling body to reach the bottom

trolling =
Here, θ, h and g are constant

∴ trolling ∝

∴ tsphere < tdisc < tshell < tring

15) I = 2x2 – 12x + 17

M.O.I about C.O.M. is minimum

So = 0 ⇒ 4x – 12 = 0
x=3

16) Asking about: Whether the wheel rolls or slips on a frictionless inclined plane and if the
reason given is valid.

Concept: Slipping on inclined plane and pure rolling on inclined plane.

Solution:
Formula: Torque = fR needed for angular acceleration
Calculation/Explanation:
On a frictionless plane, f = 0, so torque is zero no angular acceleration no
rolling, only translational motion (slipping).
Also, in rolling without slipping, static friction does no work (since point of contact is
instantaneously at rest).

Answer is option (1).

17) Asking about : Correction of assertion & reason

Concept : Conservation & angular momentum
Formula : I1ω1 I2ω2
Clarification :

Assertion is correct or KE ⇒
Reason also correct because L = const. I reduced and w increases.
Final Answer : Option-4

18)
Increasing angle causes equilibrium.

19) Explain Question: Ask to find graph between angular momentum and angular velocity.
Concept: This question is based on J = I * w
Solution: = Iω where ‘I’ is constant. So graph will be straight line.

20) L = mvcosθ H

L = mvcosθ

21) The moment of inertia of the uniform rod about an axis through one end and perpendicular
to its length is,

where m is the mass of the rod and l is the length.

τA = IA.α

22) KEr ∝ r–2

 [by keeping angular momentum constant]

∵ r ↓ by 2%
∴ rotational KE by 4%

23) For rolling without slipping =

and distance OP < OC < OQ.
Hence, VQ > Vc > VP

24)

Question Asking About:

Moment of inertia of a right angled triangular sheet about side AC.

Key Concept:
Use standard formula for moment of inertia of a right angled triangular sheet about one side.

Formula

(about side perpendicular to base or height)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Here, triangle ABC is right angled at B with both base AB and height BC =l
moment of inertia about side AC (hypotenuse ) using known result:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

25) (1) Asking About

We need to find the ratio of the angle θ2 rotated by the wheel in the second 2-second interval
to the angle θ1 rotated in the first 2-second interval.
(2) Concept
When an object undergoes uniform angular acceleration, the angular displacement θ in a given
time interval can be calculated using the kinematic equation for rotational motion:

Here:

A. wo: Initial angular velocity (which is zero in this case).

B. α : Angular acceleration.
C. t : Time duration.
If the angular acceleration is uniform, the displacement for successive time intervals grows
according to the square of the elapsed time. This principle helps us compare θ1 and θ2.
(3) Formula
For θ1 (angle rotated in the first 2 seconds):

For θ2 (angle rotated in the next 2 seconds, i.e., from t = 2 to t = 4):

Now, the ratio is:

( 4) Solution/Explanation

A. In the first 2 seconds, the wheel rotates through 2α.

B. In the next 2 seconds, it rotates through 6α.
C. The increase in angular displacement occurs because the wheel's angular velocity increases
uniformly due to uniform angular acceleration.
D. The ratio of θ2 to θ1 is 3.

(5) Final Answer

The ratio is 3.
Correct Option: 3.

26) Velocity of the automobile

=15 m/s

rad/s
so angular acceleration

rad/s2

so Torque = Iα = = 6.66 kg-m2/s2

27) Esphere =

Ecylinder =

28)
mgh =

29) The ladder touches the wall at A and the normal reaction is denoted by R. The whole
system is in equilibrium.
Take moments of forces about B.

R × 6 = 500 ×

or R = or R = 111 N.

30)
(i) Given, the centre of mass is closer is closer to B than A
∴ rA > rB
Torque
For rotational equilibrium
τA = τB
TArA = TBrB

(ii) TArA = TBrB ⇒

∴ rA > rB ⇒ TB > TA

31)

As we climb up perpendicular distance of gravity increases , as a result torque inreases.

32)

(1) Asking About:

 Comparing angular acceleration for two different mass distributions under the same applied
force and rotation axis.
(2) Concept:

Angular acceleration , where torque , and moment of inertia I depends on how

mass is distributed relative to the axis.
(3) Formula:

A.
B.
C.
(4) Calculation / Explanation:

Case I:

A. Masses: 2 kg at at l
B.
C. , so

Case II:

A. Masses: 1 kg at 0,2 kg
B.
C.

Since l , Case I has greater angular acceleration.

(5) Final answer:

Angular acceleration is greater in Case I.

(6) Correct Option: 1

33) r1 = 0.5 × 10–2 m; r2 = 0.15 × 10–2 m

⇒ 2π r1 × 3 = 2π × r2 × n
∴ 0.5 × 10–2 × 3 = 0.15 × 10–2 × n ⇒ n = 10

34) Question Explanation :

Calculation of moment of inertia and angular momentum.

Concept :
This question is based on Moment of inertia, angular momentum.

Solution :
I = mR2 = 10(0.2)2 = 0.4 kg-m2

ω= rad/sec.
ω = 40π rad/s
Angular Momentum L = Iω = (0.4) (40π)
Hence,
Option (1) is correct : 0.4 kg-m2 and 50.28 J-s

35) Explain Question: What would happen to the duration of a day (Earth's rotation period) if
the Earth suddenly lost its atmosphere.
Concept: This question is based on Conservation of angular momentum.
Solution: L = Iω
The atmosphere contributes a small amount to the Earth's total mass and extends outwards,
increasing the effective average radius of the rotating mass. When the atmosphere is lost, this
mass is effectively removed from a larger radius and the overall mass slightly decreases.
IT causes a decrease in the moment of inertia (I). Since L = Iω is conserved, if I decreases, in
the period of rotation T (duration of a day). Therefore, the duration of the day will decrease.
Final Answer: decrease

36)

= 4 + 26 + 4 + 0 = 34 units.

37)
ℓ = 2πR

38) I = 5(2)2 + 1(3)2 + 1(3)2 = 38 Kgm2

39)

I = I1 + I2 + I3

I1 = I2 = mr2

I3 =
∴ I = I1 + I2 + I3 = mr2

Moment of inertia = 3mk2 where k is radius of gyration.

3mk2 = mr2 ⇒ k =

40)

41)
N2 = fr1

fr1 = μN1
fr2 = μN2
fr2 = μ(fr1)
fr2 = μ(μN1)
fr2 = μ2N1
Taking torque about A

= N1 × ℓ cos θ

Solving about equation

42) Wg = mgh =

=12.5 J
 43)

τ=Iα
(∵ I = MK2)

44)

W1(y cot30°) = W2 ycot60°

45)

Question Asking About:

We need to find the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2, to ensure equilibrium of the rod.

Key Concept: Translational and rotational equilibrium.

Equilibrium (net force is Zero & net torque is ZERO)

Formula
magnitude of torque = (magnitude of force) (the perpendicular distance)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Net torque about the centre of mass is ZERO

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

CHEMISTRY

46)
⇒ kf = 7.5 × 10–4 × 1.5
= 1.125 × 10–3

47)

Explanation:
A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy. This
lowering of activation energy affects both the forward and backward reactions equally.
Concept:
By lowering the activation energy for both the forward and backward reactions to the same
extent, a catalyst speeds up both rates. This allows the system to reach equilibrium faster.
However, it does not change the relative rates at equilibrium, and therefore, it does not affect
the equilibrium constant.
Answer: Option (4), (Allow the equilibrium to be achieved quickly).
 48)

On dilution degree of ionisation increases for weak electrolytes so thatn Keq remains constant.

49) NCERT Pg # 191, Fig-7.4

50)

NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)

t = teq P' P'
2
25 = P' + P' ⇒ (P') = 25 ⇒ P' = 5 atm
Total pressure at equilibrium
= P' + P' = 5 + 5 = 10 atm

51)

Concept

A graph correctly representing equilibrium for A ⇌ B will show that:

A. Rate vs. Time: The rate of the forward reaction (A → B) and the rate of the backward reaction

(B → A) become equal and constant over time.

52) A + B C+D
a a 0 0
(a – x) (a – x) x x
x = 2(a – x)

and

53)

54) For reaction having Δng = 0, Kp is unit less.

55) Equilibrium constant KC & KP depends only on temperature.

 56)

Question Asking:

For the reaction SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g), find the temperature at which Kp(atm)/Kc(M) =
3.

Concepts:

Formula:
Kp = Kc(RT)Δn
Solution:

1. Calculate Δn:

A. Δn = (moles of products) – (moles of reactants)

B. Δn = (1 + 1) – 1 = 1

2. Use the given information:

A. Kp/Kc = 3, so Kp = 3Kc

3. Substitute into the Kp = Kc(RT)Δn equation:

A. 3Kc = Kc(RT)1
B. 3 = RT

4. Solve for T :

A. T = 3 / R
B. T = 3 / 0.0821 L atm / (mol K)
C. T ≈ 36.54 K

Therefore, the temperature at which Kp(atm)/Kc(M) = 3 is approximately 36.54 K.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

57)

Explain Question : Compare given equilibrium constants for oxide → elements reaction to
determine most stable oxide.

Concept : This question is based on Stability of reactant ∝ 1/K(c)

Solution :
Given K values:
Option 1: K = 6.7 × 1016
Option 2: K = 2.2 × 1030
Option 3: K = 1.2 × 1034
Option 4: K = 3.5 × 1033
Smallest K = 6.7 × 1016 → highest stability.

Final Answer : option (1)

58)

59)

Option (1) is correct

60)

2SO3 2SO2+O2

∴ or

61)

Ice ⇌ H2O(ℓ) ; ΔH = + ve
more volume less volume

on increasing pressure, equilibrium shifts towards less volume means shifts forward.

62)
on adding inert gas constant pressure equilibrium will shift in forward direction.

63)

Option (3) is correct

Low temperature, high pressure and high concentration of reactants

64) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Given Data:
Inert gas is added to the system at constant volume.
Concept: Adding an inert gas at constant volume does not affect the partial pressures of the
reactants and products. This is because the total pressure increases, but the mole fraction of
each gas remains constant.
Mathematical Calculation: N /A (Conceptual understanding is sufficient)

65) Explanation:- For Chemical Equilibrium.

Concept:- If Δ H = +ve slope is - ve

 66)

Optionc (2) is correct

67)

So Forward direction.

68)

NCERT Pg#184

69)

70) [Old NCERT Page-206]

71)

[H+] = 10– 4.35

= 10–5 + 0.65
= 10–5 × 100.65 = 4.5 × 10–5

72) Explanation:
We need to find concentration of [H+] ion.

Given Data:
• Initial pH = 2
• Final pH = 4

Concept:
• pH is defined as –log[H+].
• Therefore, [H+] = 10(–pH)

Calculation:
1. Initial [H+] :

A. [H+] = 10(–2) M

2. Final [H+] :

A. [H+] = 10(–4) M

3. Change :
 A.

Answer: option 4, decreased 100 times

73) Concept: Ostwald's dilution law applies to weak electrolytes.

NaCl (sodium chloride), HCl (hydrochloric acid) and CH3COONa (sodium acetate) are strong
electrolyte
CH3COONa (acetic acid ) is a weak electrolyte
Answer : Option-4 (CH3COOH)

74) As per theory

75) 0.04 g of NaOH

⇒ = 10–3 moles of NaOH

⇒ NaOH Na OH
–3
10 0 0
–3
0 10 10–3
–3
∴ [OH–]= 10
⇒ p[OH] = 3
⇒ pH = 14 – 3 = 11

76)

Explain Question : We are to identify which combinations show the common ion effect.

Concept : This question is based on Common ion effect.

Solution :
Each pair contains a weak electrolyte and a strong electrolyte having a common ion:

A. HCl + CH3COOH → common ion: H+

B. NaCN + HCN → common ion: CN–
C. NH4Cl + NH4OH → common ion: NH4+

All show the common ion effect.

Final Answer : option (4)

77)

373 K ⇒ 100°C
pH < 7

78)
 = 10–8 + 10–7

79)

80) [Old NCERT Page-223]

81)

NH4Cl < NaCl < CH3COONa

82) NCERT Pg # 208, Coloured box

83)

For cationic hydrolysis

pH = pKw – pKb – logc

84)

NaOH is a strong base

α = 1 for NaOH

NaOH(aq) → Na⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) 3

0.1 M 0.1 M

Ni(OH)₂ ⇌ Ni²⁺(aq) + 2OH⁻(aq)

S (0.1 + 2S)

Ni(OH)₂ is less soluble, hence 0.1 >>> 2S

Ionic product = [Ni²⁺][OH⁻]²

2 x 10⁻¹⁵ = [S][10⁻¹]²

2 x 10⁻¹³ = S
 85)

AxBy(S) xAy+ (aq.) + yBx– (aq.)

Kap =
= (xS)x (yS)y
= (xxSx) (xySy)
xxyySx+y

86)

Due to opposite ion.

87) pH = pKa + log = pKa = 4.74

88) Compound with lowest solubility value, will precipitate first.

89) In 0.1 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm–3 HCl, complete HCl reacts with NH4OH to form
NH4Cl and some NH4OH will be left unreacted. Thus, the resultant solution contains NH4Cl
and NH4OH which will produce a buffer solution.

90)

Question Asking About:

The question asks you to identify which of the given pairs of solutions does NOT act as a
buffer. A buffer solution
Concept:

Buffer Solution:

A. H₃PO₄ + NaH₂PO₄: H₃PO₄ is a weak acid, and NaH₂PO₄ is its conjugate base (dihydrogen
phosphate). This is a buffer.
B. NaHCO₃ + H₂CO₃: H₂CO₃ is a weak acid, and NaHCO₃ is its conjugate base (bicarbonate). This
is a buffer.
C. NH₄Cl + HCl: NH₄Cl is the salt of a weak base (NH₃), but HCl is a strong acid. This is NOT a
buffer.
D. CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa: CH₃COOH is a weak acid, and CH₃COONa is its conjugate base
(acetate). This is a buffer.

The solution that does NOT act as a buffer is NH4Cl + HCl

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct

BOTANY

91)
Question Explanation:

Identifying three types of vascular bundles.

Concept:

Vascular Bundle Types

Solution:

(A) shows Radial bundles (xylem and phloem separate, alternating) typical of Roots.

(B) shows Conjoint, collateral, closed bundles (xylem inward, phloem outward, no cambium)
typical of Monocot stems (and leaves).

(C) shows Conjoint, collateral, open bundles (with cambium between xylem and phloem)
typical of Dicot stems.

Final Answer:

root, monocot stem and leaf, dicot stem

92) NCERT XI, Page No. # 72,74

93) NCERT Pg. # 75-76

94) NCERT Pg # 87, 88 (old NCERT)

95) OLD NCERT (XI) Pg # 91

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 92

97)

Tracheids, Xylem fibre, Vessels

98)

Allen Module Page No. 121

99)

Question Explanation:

Identifying a vascular bundle.

Concept:
Vascular tissue system.

Solution:

The figure shows a conjoint open vascular bundle. This is because xylem and pholem are
arranged together on the same radius, and a cambium is present between them. This allows
for secondary growth. In this arrangement, phloem is typically located towards the outside and
xylem is towards the inside. Therefore, A is pholem, B is cambium and C is xylem.

Final Answer:

Conjoint open vascular bundle.

100) Question Explanation: Identify the structure that is not part of the ground tissue
system.

Concept: Plant Tissue Systems.

Solution: The ground tissue system is the bulk of the plant body, including the cortex, pith,
and the tissues that fill the space between the dermal and vascular tissue systems. The
endodermis, pericycle, and medullary rays are all part of the ground tissue system.
Trichomes, however, are epidermal hairs that belong to the epidermal tissue system.

Final Answer: Trichomes.

101)

102)

Question Explanation: Evaluating statements on plant vascular bundles.

Concept: Types and arrangement of vascular bundles.
Solution:Statement A: Correct. In a conjoint collateral open vascular bundle (typical of a Dicot
stem), the xylem and phloem are on the same radius (conjoint collateral), and a strip of
cambium is present between them, which makes it open (allowing for secondary growth).
Statement B: Incorrect. Radial vascular bundles (where xylem and phloem are on different
radii) are characteristic of roots (both monocot and dicot). Polyarch (having many xylem
groups) is a feature specific to monocot roots. Monocot stems have conjoint collateral closed
vascular bundles which are scattered, not polyarch and radial.
REASON: Statement A accurately defines a conjoint collateral open bundle. Statement B
wrongly places polyarch radial bundles (a root feature) in a monocot stem.
Final Answer: Only B is incorrect

103) OLD NCERT 11th Page No. 90

104)

Question Explanation: Assertion and Reason analysis regarding root vascular bundles.
Concept: Arrangement of vascular tissues (xylem and phloem).
Solution:
Assertion (A): Radial vascular bundles are found in roots. This is True. Radial bundles are a
characteristic feature of [Link] (R): In roots xylem and phloem lies within a vascular
bundle and are arranged on same radii. This is False. When xylem and phloem are on the same
radius (e.g., in stems), the bundle is called conjoint. In a radial bundle, xylem and phloem are
arranged on different or alternate radii.
REASON: Assertion is correct, but the Reason gives the definition of a conjoint vascular
bundle (found in stems), not the radial vascular bundle found in roots.
Final Answer: Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

105)

Question Explanation: Root hairs and trichomes are epidermal appendages.

Concept: Epidermal tissue system
Solution: Statement I: Root hairs in monocots and dicots are unicellular elongations of
epidermal cells and are responsible for increasing the surface area for water and mineral
absorption. Therefore, this statement is correct.
Statement II: Epidermal hairs are also called trichomes, and they can be branched or
unbranched. They can be secretory (glandular trichomes) or non-secretory, and serve
functions such as protection from herbivores or reducing water loss. Therefore, this statement
is also correct.
Final Answer: option (1)
Statement-I and Statement-II are both correct.

106) Old NCERT Pg No: 91

107) Question Explanation: This question is about evaluating two statements related to the
types of vascular bundles and the ability of monocot stems to undergo secondary growth.
Concept: Plant Anatomy and Vascular Tissues.
Solution: In conjoint vascular bundles, the xylem and phloem are located on the same radius,
which is what Statement-I says, making it correct. Monocot stems typically lack cambium and
therefore cannot produce secondary xylem and phloem, which makes Statement-II incorrect.
Final Answer: Option 2 Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.

108) OLD NCERT Page No.: 89

109) NCERT Pg 72

110) NCERT pg- 72

111) Question Explanation

Identifying incorrect statements about epidermal tissues.
Concept
 Plant Anatomy: Epidermal Tissues.
Solution
We need to identify the incorrect statements from the provided list. Let's analyze each one:

A. A. Epidermal cells are parenchymatous, not collenchymatous. Incorrect.

B. B. Root hairs absorb water and minerals. Correct.
C. C. Trichomes are usually multicellular, not unicellular. Incorrect.
D. D. Trichomes can be branched or unbranched. Correct.
E. E. Epidermal cells have a large central vacuole. Correct.

Based on the analysis, statements A and C are incorrect.

Final Answer
A and C.

112)

NCERT pg- 75

113) The option (e), (b), (c), (a), (d) correct answer. (e), (b), (c), (a), (d)- which means:

A. Pith is innermost.
B. The pericycle follows the pith.
C. Endodermis comes next.
D. Hypodermis is further out.
E. Epidermis is the outermost lay

114) Allen Module 1 Page No. 113

115) Ncert Page 74.

116) Question Explanation : The question asks you to count how many of the listed factors
are external factors that affect photosynthesis in plants.
Concept:
This question is based on FACTORS AFFECTING PHOTOSYNTHESIS.

Solution:
The correct answer is 3.4

Explanation :
External factors = 4
Light, CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water

Final answer: 3. 4

117)

Ncert Pg No: 215, 2021-2022

 118)

Ncert Page 145.

119)

OLD NCERT : Class XI, Page No. 218

120)

NCERT XI Page # 137

121)

NCERT XI Page # 137

122)

NCERT XI Page # 137

123)

NCERT XI Page # 137

124)

NCERT XI Page # 136

125)

NCERT XI Page # 134-135

126)

The correct answer is 3. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

Let's break down the contributions of each scientist:

A. (i) T.W. Engelmann - (d) Described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis: Engelmann
used algae, aerobic bacteria, and a prism to split light into its spectrum. He observed that
bacteria clustered around the algae in the red and blue light regions, demonstrating that these
wavelengths were most effective for photosynthesis. This experiment mapped the action
spectrum of photosynthesis.
B. (ii) Joseph Priestley - (c) Plants restore the air: Priestley's experiments with a bell jar, a candle,
and a mouse showed that plants "purify" or restore air that has been made "impure" by
burning a candle or by a mouse breathing. He didn't know about oxygen yet, but he observed
that plants revitalized the air.
C. (iii) Cornelius Van Niel - (b) O2 comes from H2O in green plants: Van Niel studied purple sulfur
 bacteria and concluded that the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from water, not
from carbon dioxide. This was later confirmed in plants.
D. (iv) Jan Ingenhousz - (a) Sunlight is essential for plant processes: Ingenhousz built upon
Priestley's work and showed that the "purification" of air by plants only occurs in the presence
of sunlight. He also observed the release of oxygen by aquatic plants in light.

Therefore, the correct pairings are:

A. (i) - d
B. (ii) - c
C. (iii) - b
D. (iv) - a

127)

The correct answer is:

Option 4: a-Mesophyll, b-Mesophyll
Explanation:

A. In C3 plants:
A. The primary carboxylation occurs in the mesophyll cells, where RuBisCO fixes CO2 into
3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) via the Calvin cycle.
B. In C₄ plants:
A. The primary carboxylation also occurs in the mesophyll cells, but it is catalyzed by PEP
carboxylase, forming oxaloacetate (OAA).
B. The CO2 is later transported to the bundle sheath cells, where the Calvin cycle takes
place.

Thus, in both C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation occurs in the mesophyll cells, making option 4
(a-Mesophyll, b-Mesophyll) the correct answer.

128)

The Correct answer is 3. 3

129)

The correct answer is: Has a much greater affinity for CO2 than for O2.
Explanation:

A. RuBisCO (Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) is the enzyme responsible for fixing

carbon dioxide (CO2) during the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis.
B. While RuBisCO can bind both CO2 and O2, it has a much greater affinity for CO2. However, in
conditions with high oxygen concentrations, it may preferentially bind O2 in a process called
photorespiration, which is less efficient for the plant.
C. RuBisCO is one of the most abundant enzymes on Earth, not the least.
D. The binding of CO2 and O2 to RuBisCO is not non-competitive, as the two molecules compete
for the same active site, which makes the interaction competitive.

130)
 Ncert page 147.

131)

NCERT Page # 135

132)

NCERT Page # 145

133)

NCERT Page # 140

134) NCERT Page No. 144

135) Nurture Module-3 Pg. # 180

ZOOLOGY

136)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
• Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.

137) Explain Question:

Identify the factor that lowers blood pressure.
Concept: This question is based on Hormones of heart.
Solution: The correct answer is option 2, as ANF promotes vasodilation and fluid loss.

A. 1. Thyroxine – Increases metabolic rate → can raise blood pressure

B. 2. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) – Lowers blood pressure by causing vasodilation and
promoting sodium & water excretion
C. 3. Aldosterone – Promotes sodium and water retention → increases blood volume & pressure
D. 4. Nor-adrenaline – Causes vasoconstriction → raises blood pressure

Final answer: 2

138)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The disorder that occurs due to hypersecretion of cortisol is Cushing's syndrome.
The correct answer is 3. Cushing's syndrome.

139) NCERT Pg. # 337

140) Explain Question:

Hormones of fight and flight are responsible for :-

Concept :
This question is based on Adrenal medulla hormones.

Explanation : Fight and flight response involves adrenaline/noradrenaline, which cause

increased heart rate, blood pressure, sweating, pupillary dilation, and piloerection.
Final answer : 3

141) NCERT XI Page No. # 334

142) NCERT Pg .# 337

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 332

144)

NCERT Pg. # 337

145) NCERT 333

146) NCERT Pg # 339

147)

NCERT XI Pg # 333

148) NCERT Pg. No. # 331

149)

Explanation :
The correct answer is 4. PRL
Solution: IP3​ , Ca+2 , and cAMP are well-established secondary messengers in cell signaling
pathways. PRL stands for Prolactin, which is a protein hormone and acts as a primary
messenger, not a secondary messenger.

150)
 NCERT Pg. # 317-319

151)

NCERT XI Page No. # 330-337/332-341

152) NCERT Page no 335

153) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

154) NCERT Pg # 335, 22.2.7

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 341

156)

NCERT Pg#247

157) NCERT Pg. # 334

158) NCERT Page no 321

159) NCERT page no 316, 317

160)

NCERT Pg no 321

161) NCERT Page no 318, 319

162)

The correct answer is 1. Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
Explanation/Solution :

A. Assertion: The Na+/K+ pump is indeed always active, except during depolarization. It
continuously pumps sodium ions (Na+) out of the cell and potassium ions (K+) into the cell.
This active transport process requires energy in the form of ATP.
B. Reason: The primary function of the Na+/K+ pump is to maintain the resting membrane
potential of the cell. By pumping out Na+ and pumping in K+, it creates a concentration
gradient across the cell membrane. This difference in ion concentrations is crucial for
establishing the negative charge inside the cell, which is characteristic of the resting
 potential.

Therefore, both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
The Na+/K+ pump's constant activity is essential for maintaining the resting membrane potential,
which is crucial for the proper functioning of neurons and other excitable cells.

163) NCERT Page No. # 321

164) NCERT Page No. # 321

165) The correct answer is 3: B, C & D.

• B (-55mV), C (0mV), and D (+10mV) represent states where the membrane potential is
depolarized. During depolarization, other channels (like voltage-gated sodium channels) are
opening and driving the membrane potential away from the resting potential. The Na+/K+
pump is still functioning at these potentials, but it's having to work against these other forces.

166) NCERT-XIth Pg # 321 (E), 321 (H)

167) NCERT Pg.# 319

168) NCERT Pg. # 320, 321

169) NCERT XI [Link].321

170) NCERT XIth Pg.# 321

171) NCERT, Pg # 235,236

Statement I is incorrect, whereas statement II is correct.

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 235

173) NCERT Pg. # 321

174) Correct Answer: 1. Hydra

Explanation:

A. Hydra belongs to the phylum Cnidaria, which represents some of the simplest multicellular
animals. Their nervous system is a nerve net, a diffuse network of interconnected neurons
with no centralized control center like a brain. This is considered the most basic form of neural
organization.

175) NCERT Pg. # 317, 21.3.1

176) NCERT, Pg. # 317, 1st Paragraph

177) NCERT, Pg. # 321, 1st Paragraph

178) NCERT, Pg. # 321, last paragraph

179) NCERT, Pg. # 321, middle paragraph

180) NCERT XIth Pg.# 318