24-04-2026

1016CMD303031250063 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moves in xy plane according to the law x = sint, y = 1 – cost. Find the distance travelled
by the particle in 2 seconds.

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

2) The horizontal range of a projectile is R and the maximum height attained by it is H. A strong
wind now begins to blow in the direction of motion of the projectile, giving it a constant horizontal
acceleration = g/2. Under the same conditions of projection, the horizontal range of the projectile
will now be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A person in a lift is holding a water jar, which has a small hole at the lower end of its side. When
the lift is at rest, the water jet coming out of the hole hits the floor of the lift at a distance d of 1.2 m
from the person. In the following, state of the lift's motion is given in List-I and the distance where
the water jet hits the floor of the lift is given in List-II. Match the statements from List-I with those in
List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

Lift is accelerating
P. 1. d = 1.2 m
vertically up.

Lift is accelerating
vertically down with
Q. an acceleration less 2. d > 1.2 m
than the gravitational
acceleration.

List is moving
R. vertically up with 3. d < 1.2 m
constant Speed

No water leaks
S. Lift is falling freely. 4.
out of the jar
(1) P-2, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(2) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(3) P-1, Q-1, R-1, S-4
(4) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-1

4) Statement-I : In LED, monochromatic light photons are emitted due to formation of e-hole pairs.
Statement-II : In LED energy of emitted photons is equal or slightly less then forbidden energy gap
of material used in LED.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

5) In a double slit experiment, when the width of one slit is made twice as wide as the other in
compared to normal YDSE having slits of equal width. Then, in the interference pattern

(1) the intensities of both the maxima and the minima increase.
(2) the intensity of the maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity.
(3) the intensity of the maxima decreases and that of the minima increases.
(4) the intensity of the maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity.

6) The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two waves

y1 = a sin ​ and y2 = a sin ωt is :

(1) a
(2) a
(3) 2a
(4) a

7) Assertion (A) : If a charged particle is projected in transverse electric field its de-Broglie
wavelength remains constant.
Reason (R) : In transverse electric field charged particle have uniform circular motion.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) & (R) incorrect
(4) (A) incorrect while (R) correct

8) Which of the following parameters are the same for all hydrogen like atoms and ions in their
ground state :-

(1) radius of the orbit

(2) speed of the electron
(3) energy of the atom
(4) orbital angular momentum of the electron

9) Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The emitted power is 2 ×

10–3 W. How many photons per second on an average are emitted by the source {h = 6.63 × 10–34 J-s}
:-

(1) 9 × 1018
(2) 6 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1015
(4) 7 × 1016

10)

Light of wavelength 400 nm incident on a metal of work function 1.1 eV then minimum de-Broglie
wavelength of photoelectron will be nearly :-

(1) 8.58 × 10–10 m

(2) 5.63 × 10–10 m
(3) 1.34 × 10–10 m
(4) 7.37 × 10–10 m

11) If object is at infinite. If objective lens of gallelian telescope is of focal length 1 m, eye piece is of
focal lengh 10 cm then distance between lenses for normal adjustment will be :

(1) 100 cm
(2) 110 cm
(3) 90 cm
(4) 1120 cm

12) A convex lens forms a real image on a screen placed at a distance 60 cm from the object . When
the lens is shifted towards the screen by 20 cm , another image of the object is formed on the
screen. The focal length of the lens is :

(1) 45 cm
(2) 40 /3 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 12 cm

13) A proton, deutron and alpha particle are moving with same kinetic energy enters in a magnetic
field B perpendicularly, then for which particle time period of the circular path will be minimum :

(1) proton
(2) deutron
(3) alpha
(4) same for all

14) A circular coil of wire carries a current. PQ is a part of a very long wire carrying a current and
passing close to the circular coil. If the directions of currents are those shown in figure, what is the
direction of force acting on PQ ?

(1) Parallel to PQ, towards P

(2) Parallel to PQ, towards Q
(3) At right angles to PQ, to the right
(4) At right angles to PQ, to the left

15)

In given circuit, find the reading of ammeter and voltmeter.

(1) 2.5 A, 50 V
(2) 2.5 A, 25V
(3) 5 A, 25V
(4) 5A, 50V

16) Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a non reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
surface has a area of 20 cm2. Find the average force exerted on the surface during 30 minute span.

(1) 1.2 × 10–6 N

(2) 1.2 × 10–4 N
(3) 1.2 × 10–5 N
(4) 1.2 × 10–8 N

17) A person brings a mass of 1 kg from infinity to a point A. Initially the mass was at rest but it
moves at a speed of 2 m/s as it reaches A. The work done by the person on the mass is –3J. The
gravitational potential at A is -

(1) – 5 J/kg
(2) – 3 J/kg
(3) – 2 J/kg
(4) None of these

18) A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1. It is falling through a liquid
of density . Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional
to the square of its speed v, i.e., Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). Then terminal speed of the ball is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Figure shows two particles, each having momentum . Which of the points O1 and O2, shown in
the figure, can be chosen as origin so that the two particles have the same angular momentum

vector, about the origin?

(1) O1
(2) O2
(3) Either of the two
(4) Neither of the two

20) A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown in figure with a translational velocity v

m/s. If it is to climb the inclined surface then v should be :-

(1)

(2)
(3) 2gh

(4)

21) A block of mass m is given a velocity 20 m/sec on horizontal rough surface of length x m. After
rough surface their is a vertical circular path of radius 2m which is frictionless. The block enters on
the circular path with minimum velocity so that it can complete the path. What is the length of rough

surface x if coefficient of friction is μ = 0.5.

(1) 30 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 16 m

22) A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, wavelength λ and frequency ƒ is travelling on a

stretched string. The maximum speed of any point on the string is , where v is the speed of
propagation of the wave. [If a = 10 m and v = 10 m/s], then λ and ƒ are given by :–
–3

(I) λ = 2π × 10–2 m (II) λ = 10–3 m

(III) ƒ = Hz (IV) ƒ = 104 Hz

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) II, III

23) The average speed of a body undergoing SHM according to equation from t = 0

to is . Find value of n (all the units are in SI).

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 7

24) The number of particles is given by crossing a unit area perpendicular to x-axis in
unit time, where n1 and n2 are number of particles per unit volume for the value of x meant to x1 and
x2. Find dimensions of diffusion constant D.

0
(1) [M LT2]
0
(2) [M L2T–4]
0
(3) [M LT–3]
0
(4) [M L2T–1]

25) A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a time period proportional of PadbEc
where P is the static pressure, d is the density of water and E is the energy of explosion. Then a, b
and c are respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1, 1
26) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If magnitudes of is equal to n times of
magnitude of , then the angle between and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A trolley of mass 8 kg is standing on a frictionless surface inside which an object of mass 2 kg is
suspended. A constant force F starts acting on the trolley as a result of which the string stood at an

angle of 37° from the vertical. Then choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) acceleration of the trolley is 7.5 m/sec2.

(2) force applied F is 60 N
(3) force applied F is 75 N
(4) tension in the string is 25 N

28) Two semicircular rings of linear mass densities λ and 3λ and of radius R each are joining to form
a complete ring. The distance of the centre of the mass of complete ring from its geometrical centre
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A rocket of mass M is launched vertically from the surface of the earth with an initial speed V.
Assuming the radius of the earth to be R and negligible air resistance, the maximum height attained
by the rocket above the surface of the earth is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

30) The displacement of a particle of mass 100 gm from its mean position is given by y = 0·05 sin4π
(5t + 0·4), where y is in meter and t is in second, then correct options are :
(a) The maximum acceleration of particle is 10π2 ms–2
(b) The total energy of the particle is 0·05π2 Joule
(c) The force acting on the particle is zero when displacement from mean position is 0·05 m
(d) The period of motion is 0·1 second

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

31) A fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes changes of pressure and volume starting at L, as shown

in Figure. Which of the following is correct :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) A solid cylinder of radius 4 cm and length 50 cm, emissivity 0.85 and temperature 127°C is
radiating energy at rate P1 in surrounding at temperature 27°C. If cylinder is stretched and new

radius is 2 cm then energy transfer rate is P2. Then find :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Logarithms of readings of pressure (in KPa) and volume (in litre) for an ideal gas were plotted on
a graph as shown in figure. By measuring the gradient, it can be shown that the gas may be -

(1) Monoatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change

(2) Monoatomic and undergoing an isothermal change
(3) Diatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change
(4) None of these

34) A certain mass of an ideal diatomic gas contained in a closed vessel is heated; it is observed that
the temperature remains constant; however, half the amount of gas gets dissociated; into
monoatomic gas the ratio of the heat supplied to the gas and initial internal energy of the gas will be
:-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 5
(4) 1 : 10

35) A current through a wire depends on time as i = α0t + βt2 where α0 = 20 A/s and β = 8 As–2. Find
the charge crossed through a cross-section of the wire in 15 s.

(1) 2250 C
(2) 11250 C
(3) 2100 C
(4) 260 C

36) Read the following statements carefully :

Y : The resistivity of semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature.
Z : In a conducting solid, the rate of collisions between free electrons and ions increases
with increase of temperature.
Select the correct statement (s) from the following :

(1) Y is true but Z is false

(2) Y is false but Z is true
(3) Both Y and Z are true and Z is not correct reason for Y
(4) Both Y and Z are true and Z is the correct reason for Y

37) The Charge on 2µF capacitor during steady state is :-

(1) 18 µC
(2) 21.6 µC
(3) 10 µC
(4) 11.8 µC

38) There are two parallel wire having charge density λ and –3λ at 2r distance apart, then find
electric field at mid point between them.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Two short dipoles are placed according to given figures, then torque on P2 will be :

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The following configuration of gates is equivalent to :–

(1) NAND
(2) OR
(3) XOR
(4) NOR

41) In finding out refractive index of glass slab the following observations were made through
travelling microscope 50 vernier scale division = 49 MSD; and in each cm of main scale there are 20
divisions. For mark on paper
MSR = 8.45 cm, VSR = 26
For mark on paper seen through slab
MSR = 7.12 cm, VSR = 41
For powder spread on the top surface of the glass slab
MSR = 4.05 cm, VSR = 1
(MSR = Main Scale Reading, VSR = Vernier scale reading)
Refractive index of the glass slab is:

(1) 1.42
(2) 1.52
(3) 1.24
(4) 1.35

42) A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.3 m. The area of its cross-section is 1.2 ×
10–3 m2. Around its central portion a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2 amp in the
solenoid is reversed in 0.25 sec, the emf induced in the coil is equal to :-

(1) 6 × 10–4 V
(2) 48 mV
(3) 6 × 10–2 V
(4) 48 kV

43) Consider the situation shown in figure. The wires P1Q1 and P2Q2 are made to slide on the rails
with the same speed 5 cm/s. Find the electric current in the 19 Ω resistor if (a) both the wires move
towards right and (b) if P1Q1 moves towards left but P2Q2 moves towards right.

B = 1T

(1) 0.1 mA, zero

(2) 1A, zero
(3) 2 mA, 0.1 mA
(4) 0.1 mA, 1A

44) A drop of liquid of density ρ is floating half immersed inside a liquid of density σ(ρ > σ/2). If the
surface tension of the drop is T, then its radius R is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

45) Assertion :- In meter bridge experiment to protect galvanometer from damage, a high
resistance is always connected in series with a galvanometer.
Reason :- As resistance increases, current through the circuit increases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

CHEMISTRY

1) Choose the correct answer T for true & F for false statement
(I) For Mn, the order of energy is 3s = 3p = 3d for shell number 3
(II) 32 elements are present in 5th period of long form periodic table
(III) For Zr+2 ion, µm = BM
(IV) General valence shell electronic configuration for ƒ-block elements is (n – 2) ƒ1–14(n – 1) d10 ns2

(1) T T F T
(2) T F F T
(3) F F T F
(4) F T T F

2) In which of the following process maximum energy releases

(1) O+2 → O
(2) N → N¯
(3) F → F¯
(4) Be+ → Be

3) Application of hybridisation and Bond parameters

Correct relation is :

(1) X1 > X2
(2) X1 > X5
(3) X8 > X2
(4) X3 > X4

4) Which of the following bond angle order is not correct ?

(1) BCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3

(2) H2S < SF2 < NH3 < BF3
(3) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O
3– 2– –
(4) PO4 < SO4 < ClO4

5) The 1st , 2nd and the 3rd ionization enthalpies, I1, I2 and I3, of four atoms with atomic numbers n,
n+1, n+2 and n+3 , where n < 10, are tabulated below. What is the value of n?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 9
(4) 8

6) If we consider no mixing of 2s and 2p orbitals, then the bond order and magnetic nature of the
diatomic molecule C2 is :-

(1) 3 and diamagnetic

(2) 2.5 and diamagnetic
(3) 2 and diamagnetic
(4) 2 and paramagnetic

7) Consider the complex ion, [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(C2O4)]– .What is the :-

(i) Oxidation number of the metal ion ?
(ii) Co-ordination number of the metal ion but oxidation state of central metal remain same.
(iii) Charge on the complex if all ligands were chloride ions but oxidation state of central metal
remain same ?

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) –1 6 –3

(B) +3 6 –3

(C) +3 6 –1

(D) –1 5 –3

Choose correct option :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
8) If number of low spin complexes are 'X' then find the value of .
[Co(NH3)6]+3, [CoF6]–3, [Fe(CN)6]–4, [Fe(H2O)6]+2, [CoBr2Cl2]–2

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.50
(4) 2

9) The stepwise formation of is given below

The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4 are 104, 1.58×103, 5×102 and 102 respectively. The
overall formation constant of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x × 1011. Determine the value of x.

(1) 7.9
(2) 8.5
(3) 7.5
(4) 6.58

10) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) The maximum number of atoms in one plane in B3N3H6 are 12.
(2) There is no S — S bond is S3O9.
–
(3) Maximum number of identical bond angles in ClO4 are 4.
(4) Number of bridging oxygen in P4O10 are 6.

11)

Number of P–OH bonds in sodium dihydrogen pyrophosphate –

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Total number of vacant orbitals in outermost shell of Br when it forms maximum covalent bond.

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) zero
13) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

Blood red
(p) ZnCl2 + H2S (basic) (a)
colour

CuSO4 + NH4OH White

(q) (b)
(excess) ppt form.

deep blue
(r) FeCl3 + KSCN soln (c)
solution

Yellow
(s) Pb(NO3)2 + KI (d)
ppt form
(1) p-c, q-a, r-d, s-b
(2) p-b, q-c, r-a, s-d
(3) p-d, q-b, r-a, s-c
(4) p-b, q-a, r-c, s-d

14) In acidic solution of sodium nitroprusside when H2S gas is passed then -

(1) Violet colour form

(2) Violet ppt form
(3) H2S will form 'S'
(4) No colour is observed

15) (X) is a very important laboratory reagent which is prepared by its naturally occurring ore which
is called pyrolusite. Pyrolusite when fused with alkali in the presence of O2, green compound (Y) is
produced. (Y) is converted into (X) by electrolysis or by using ozone.
Oxidation state of central metal present in
oxo-anion of compound (Y) = a
Number of equivalent bonds in oxo-anion of compound (X) = b
Determine, (a – b)

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

16) The correct order of acid strength in the following

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(V) (VI)

(1) III > IV > VI > V > II > I

(2) III > IV > VI > V > I > II
(3) III > IV > V > VI > I > II
(4) IV > III > VI > V > I > II

17)

Aniline → 1, 3, 5-Tribromo benzene

The correct sequence of reagents for above conversion is :

(1) NaNO2 + HCl, Br2 + H2O, H3PO2

(2) Br2 + H2O, NaNO2 + HCl, H2O/Δ
(3) Br2 + H2O, NaNO2 + HCl, C2H5OH/Δ
(4) Br2 + H2O, NaNO2 + HCl, HI

18) How will you bring about the following conversion (not more than two step)
Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde

(1) NaOH CaO/Δ & PCC

(2) NaBH4 , PCC
(3) B2H6 , PCC
(4) KMnO4, PCC

19) Which of the following can be used to distinguish acetaldehyde and acetone :-

(1) Sodium bisulphite

(2) Fehling's test
(3) 2, 4 DNP test
(4) I2 + NaOH

20) Which of the following represents the anomer of given compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21)
Number of functional group reduced by NaBH4 and LiAlH4 respectively are :-

(1) 2, 2
(2) 3, 4
(3) 3, 3
(4) 2, 3

22)
How many (x) moles of HI consumed ?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 2

23)

In which of the following reaction product will not be an Aldehyde ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2OH

(4)

24)

Alcohol (Y) gives Lucas test immediately. Thus (X) and (Y) respectively are :-

(1) CH3COOC2H5 ; (CH3)3C–OH

(2) HCOOC3H7 ; C2H5CH(CH3)OH
(3) C2H5COOCH3 ; (C2H5)3COH
(4) HCOOC3H7 ; CH3(CH2)3OH

25) In which reaction Aryl halide is obtained ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which of the statements is incorrect about below reaction ?

(1) The given reaction follows SN2 mechanism

(2) Reaction rate depends on concentration of nucleophile.
(3) This reaction involves racemisation.
(4) (b) and (d) are achiral molecule

27)
Which of the following reaction is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Assertion (A) :– A mixture of o–nitrophenol and p–nitrophenol can be separated by steam
distillation.
Reason (R) :– o–nitrophenol is steam volatile but p–nitrophenol is not.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are wrong.

29) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both, bond angles and bond length remains same
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

30)

How many Homologus series in given has CnH2nO general formula

[Aldehyde, Ketone, unsaturated alcohol, cyclic alcohol, cyclic ether, unsaturated ether]
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) Molar conductivity of divalent cation and trivalent anion are 57 S cm2 mol–1 and 73 S cm2 mol–1
respectively. The molar conductivity and equivalent conductivity of solution of an electrolyte with
above cation and anion are respectively.

(1) 52.83 S cm2 mol–1 and 317 S cm2 eq–1

(2) 317 S m2 mol–1 and 52.83 S m2 eq–1
(3) 317 S cm2 mol–1 and 52.83 S cm2 eq–1
(4) 52.83 S m2 mol–1 and 317 S m2 mol–1

32) If 50 ml of 2 M NaOH is required to neutralise 40 ml of xM NaHC2O4. Then how many ml of this

NaHC2O4 solution is require to react with 20 ml of 0.2 M KMnO4 in acidic medium.

(1) 2 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 10 ml

33) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(1) Number of d-orbitals having same shape (P) 2

Number of axial orbitals in third orbit of helium

(2) (Q) 4
atom

Number of orbitals having same energy in p-

(3) (R) 3
subshell of a multi electron species

(4) Total nodes present in 3s orbital (S) 5

(1) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(2) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P
(3) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S
(4) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R

34) The decomposition reaction

N2O5(g) → N2O4(g) + O2(g)

is started in a closed container under isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm.
After y × 103 sec. The pressure inside the container is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of
reaction is 5 × 10–4 sec–1. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, the value of y is

(1) 2.3
(2) 4.6
(3) 6.9
(4) 1.15

35) Statement-I : 0.1 M solution of glucose will always be isotonic with 0.05 M NaCl solution.
Statement-II : Solutions which have same osmotic pressure are isotonic with each other.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are wrong.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

36) The maximum pH at which precipitation of Mg(OH)2 does not start from a solution containing
10–2 M Mg(NO3)2

(1) 4.7
(2) 9.3
(3) 11.3
(4) 2.3

37) 0.1 M solution of KI react with excess of H2SO4 and KIO3 solution according to equation (not
balance)
5I¯ + IO3¯ + H+ → I2 + H2O
(A) 50 ml of KI solution react with 0.004 mol of KIO3
(B) 400 ml of KI solution react with 0.008 mol of KIO3

(C) Equivalent weight of I2 is =

(D) 0.5 L of KI solution produced 0.03 mol of I2
Choose the correct from the option given below

(1) A and D only

(2) B, D only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) B, C, D only

38) Assuming ideal behaviour the magnitude of log Keq for following reaction at 27°C
3A A3
Given ΔH°reaction = – 250 KJ / mol

(1) 60
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 80

39) Select the correct relation between mole fraction of NH3 (XA) and molality (m) of it's aqueous
solution.

(1)
m= × 55.5
 m=
(2)

(3)
m=
m=
(4)

40) For titration of 400 ml, 0.2 M FAS (FeSO4•(NH4)2SO4•6H2O) in acidic medium how much volume
of 0.4 M KMnO4 is required and what indicator is used

(1) 20 ml, KMnO4

(2) 40 ml, KMnO4
(3) 40 ml, starch
(4) 80 ml, starch

41) 1.8 ml of acetic acid having density 1.06 g ml–1 is dissolve in 3 litre of water. The depression in
freezing point observe for this strength of acid was 0.0205°C. What is vant hoff factor, and
dissociation constant of acid respectively (Kf = 1.86K Kg mol–1)

(1) 1.4, 0.4

(2) 1.04, 0.04
(3) 1.04, 1.7 × 10–5
(4) 1.4, 1.7 × 10–5

42) The density of Cu is 8.4 g/ml. Find out the number of coulomb needed to plate an area of 15 × 5
cm2 and a thickness of 10–2 cm using CuSO4 solution as electrolyte (Atomic wt Cu = 63)

(1) 19300 coulomb

(2) 9650 coulomb
(3) 515 coulomb
(4) 5150 coulomb

43) Which of the following statement is/are true

(a) For particular first order reaction time taken for 40% reaction is constant irrespective of initial
concentration.
(b) For particular zero order reaction number of moles consumed in particular time is constant
irrespective of initial mole of reactant
(c) For first order reaction value of specific reaction rate depend on initial concentration of reactant
(d) For zero order reaction value of reaction rate depend on initial concentration of reactant

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) c, d
44) Consider the following redox reaction
Cr2O72– + H+ + C2O42– → Cr3+ + H2O + CO2

What is equilibrium constant and pH of solution when Ecell = 1.54 V if [Cr2O72–] = [C2O42–] = [Cr+3] =
1M and = 1 atm

82
(1) Keq = 10 , pH = 5
182
(2) Keq = 10 , pH = 5
82
(3) Keq = 10 , pH = 2
182
(4) Keq = 10 , pH = 2

45) For the cell

Pt |H2(0.8 atm)|H+(pH=2)||(H+)(pH=4)|H2(1.2 atm)|Pt
The measured potential at 25°C

(1) + 0.125 V
(2) – 0.125 V
(3) 2.5 V
(4) – 2.5 V

BIOLOGY

1) In the given examples below how many plants belongs to Algae, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta
respectively ?
Spirogyra, Salvinia, Equisetum, Sphagnum, Polysiphonia, Funaria, Adiantum, Polytrichum, Porphyra,
Marchantia

(1) 3, 3, 4
(2) 4, 3, 4
(3) 3, 4, 3
(4) 4, 3, 3

2) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Phycomycetes i. Agaricus a. Reproduce only by conidia

B. Basidiomycetes ii. Albugo b. Sex organs absent

Sexual spores called

C. Ascomycetes iii. Aspergillus c.
ascospores

Mycelium is aseptate and

D. Deuteromycetes iv. Alternaria d.
coenocytic
(1) A – ii – c, B– i – a, C – iii – b, D – iv – d
(2) A – ii – d, B– i – a, C – iii – b, D – iv – c
(3) A – ii – d, B– i – b, C – iii – c, D – iv – a
(4) A – iv – b, B– iii – c, C – i – d, D – ii – a

3) Which of the following is responsible for red tides ?

(1) Gelidium
(2) Gonyaulax
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Trypanosoma

4) Which one of the following includes all the others?

(1) Phylum
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Species

5) Which of the following statement is not incorrect?

(1) In Pinus coralloid roots are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria.

(2) In gymnosperms the male and female gametophytes do not have dependent living existence.
(3) In gymnosperms the microspore develop into a male gametophyte is known as megasporangium
(4) In gymnosperms the female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia or female sex organs.

6) Assertion (A) : Selaginella is known as heterosporous fern.

Reason (R) : Selaginella produce two kinds of spores, microspore (small) and megaspore (Large).

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

7) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Bacteria are the sole members of a prokaryotic kingdom protista.
(B) Bacteria shows most extensive metabolic diversity.
(C) Autotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature.
(D) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission under unfavourable conditions.
(E) Nostoc and Anabaena are nitrogen fixing heterotrophic bacteria.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

8) The symbol '⊕' stands for __A__ symmetry and is present in __B__.
(1) A = Bilateral, B = Cassia
(2) A = Radial; B = Datura
(3) A = Actinomorphic; B = Gulmohar
(4) A = Zygomorphic; B = Mustard

9) Match list-I and list-II and select the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(A) Epigynous flowers (i) Citrus

(B) Vexillary aestivation (ii) Lily

(C) Epiphyllous stamens (iii) Sunflower

(D) Polyadelphous stamens (iv) Pea

Options :-
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

10) How many of the following characters are common for both Brassicaceae and Malvaceae families
?
(a) Actinomorphic flowers
(b) Bisexual flowers
(c) 5 petals
(d) Axile placentation
(e) Hypogynous flowers
(f) superior ovary
(g) Monoadelphous
(h) Non-endospermic seeds
Options :-

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three

11) In roots, epidermal cells are different from those in aerial parts because they -

(1) Possess thick cuticle

(2) Lack cuticle and bear root hairs
(3) Have chloroplasts
(4) Form stomata

12) Select the incorrect statements from the following :-

(i) Pith is large and well-developed in both dicot and monocot roots.
(ii) Polyarch xylem bundles are usually present in monocot roots.
(iii) The cells of endodermis of monocot stem are rich in starch grains.
(iv) The dicot stem has sclerenchymatous hypodermis and large number of scattered vascular
bundles.
Options :-

(1) Only (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

13) How many of the following are correctly match in column-I, column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ribosome Site of protein synthesis

(B) Microbody Present only in plant cell

(C) Kinetochore Site of attachment for spindle fibre

(D) Plastid Present in plant cell

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One

14) Which sub stage of prophase-I shows fully condensed chromosomes and disappearance of the
nucleolus ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

15) Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location.
This gives the appearance of a small fragment called _____.

(1) Centromere
(2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Chromatin

16) Select correct statements :-

(i) Fluid mosaic model was given by Singer & Nicolson in 1980.
(ii) Primary cell wall is capable of growth.
(iii) In Amoeba, the contractile vacuole is important for osmoregulation and excretion.

(1) All are correct

(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i) and (ii)
(4) Only (i) and (iii)

17) Statement-I :- Mitochondria unless specifically stained are not easily visible under the
microscope.
Statement-II :- Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal bodies.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

18) If in prophase-I number of tetrad is 12, then number of chromosomes in each daughter cell after
meiosis-I and meiosis-II respectively are.

(1) 12 and 6
(2) 12 and 12
(3) 6 and 6
(4) 24 and 24

19) In a laboratory slide showing meiotic division, a student observes homologous chromosomes
moving toward opposite poles of the cell, but the centromere do not divide and sister chromatids
remain attached together. This stage is responsible for reducing the chromosome number in
daughter cells.
This stage is ?

(1) Anaphase of mitosis

(2) Anaphase-I of meiosis
(3) Anaphase-II of meiosis
(4) Metaphase-I

20) Match the column A with column B.

Column A Column B
(Component) (% of total cellular mass)

(A) Protein (i) 5 - 7%

(B) Carbohydrates (ii) 2%

(C) Lipids (iii) 3%

(D) Nucleic acids (iv) 10 - 15%

(1) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)
(2) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii)
(3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv)
21) How many of the following are secondary metabolites ?
Abrin, Anthocyanins, Lecithin, Uridine, Curcumin, Serine, Concanavalin A

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

22) Which of the following is a cofactor for proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase?

(1) Iron
(2) Magnesium
(3) Copper
(4) Zinc

23) How many A.T.P and NADPH molecules will be used in reduction step of calvin cycle for
production of one molecule of sucrose?

(1) 6 A.T.P & 6 NADPH

(2) 12 A.T.P & 12 NADPH
(3) 18 A.T.P & 12 NADPH
(4) 24 A.T.P & 24 NADPH

24) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

J. Priestley : 1770 : Bell Jar experiments : Revealed essential role of air in growth of green
(1)
plants
Membranous system of chloroplast : Site of light reaction : Synthesis of A.T.P & NADH : Release
(2)
of oxygen
(3) Blackman : 1905 : Law of limiting factors : For process affected by more than one factor
(4) C4 plants : Sugarcane : 30 – 40°C temperature optimum : 360 μℓ L CO2 saturation point
–1

25) Given below are the two statements -

Statement-I : During the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is
synthesized via substrate level phosphorylation.
Statement-II : Cytochrome C is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner
mitochondrial membrane and act as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III
and complex IV.
In the light of above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

26) Read the following statement carefully and select the option which includes correct statement.
(A) In fermentation, there is a net gain of only two molecules of ATP when each molecule of glucose
degraded to pyruvic acid.
(B) The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with citric acid and water to produce
oxaloacetic acid.
(C) Yeast poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.
(D) Respiration is strictly catabolic process which involves breakdown of glucose to release energy.

(1) Only (A) and (B) are correct.

(2) Only (A) and (C) are correct.
(3) Only (B) and (C) are correct.
(4) All are correct.

27) Which of the following event is common between aerobic and anaerobic respiration ?

(1) TCA cycle

(2) Electron transport system
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

28) Which one of the following hormone play important role in seed development, maturation and
dormancy :-

(1) ABA
(2) IAA
(3) GA
(4) CK

29) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Phototropism in canary grass (I) E. kurosawa

Charles Darwin
(B) Bakane (Foolish seedling) disease (II)
& Francis Darwin

(C) Volatile substance from ripened orange (III) F.W. Went

Isolation of auxin from tip of oat

(D) (IV) Cousins
coleoptile
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

30) Why does the water content of a seed reduce as it matures?

(1) To initiate germination

(2) To increase metabolism
(3) To prepare for dormancy
(4) To increase division in cells

31) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Only a small proportion of flowering plants use abiotic agents for pollination.
(2) Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of right type of pollen on the stigma only.
When the insect pollinated flowers are large, a number of flowers are clustered into an
(3)
inflorescence to make them conspicuous.
(4) Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism to prevent inbreeding.

32) Assertion (A) : In flowering plants, most zygotes divide after certain amount of endosperm is
formed.
Reason (R) : This is an adaptation in flowering plants to provide assured nutrition to the developing
embryo.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the not correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of -

(1) Organic matter present in waste water

(2) Inorganic matter present in waste water.
(3) Micro-organisms present in waste water
(4) Chemical properties of waste water.

34) Identify the micro organism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive
molecule cyclosporin A.

(1) Trichoderma polysporum – Ascomycetes

(2) Claviceps purpuria – Ascomycetes
(3) Trichoderma polysporum – Deuteromycetes.
(4) Streptococcus purpureus

35) Match the following -

(i) 3 : 1 in F2 generation (a) Linkage

Deviation of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 Independent
(ii) (b)
in F2 generation assortment

(iii) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in F2 generation (c) dominance

1 : 2 : 1 in F2 generation
Incomplete
(iv) with an inbetween (d)
dominance
phenotype
(1) i – c, ii – d, iii– a, iv – b
(2) i – c, ii – a, iii– b, iv – d
(3) i – c, ii – a, iii– d, iv – b
(4) i – a, ii – b, iii– c, iv – d

36) Statement-I : In F2 generation of Mendel's monohybrid cross th

of the plants were

th th
phenotypically tall and genotypically were Tt and were TT.

Statement-II : The ratio of TT : Tt : tt in F2 generation is mathematically condensable to

the form of the binomial expression (ax + by)2, that has the gametes bearing genes T or t in equal

frequency of .

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

37) Given below are few statements with respect to some chromosomal genetical disorders.
(A) Failure of segregation of chromatids during meiosis results in the gain of a chromosome called
aneuploidy.
(B) In Down's syndrome affected individual is short statured with a small rounded head, furrowed
tongue and partially open mouth.
(C) Turner syndrome is caused due the absence of one of the sex chromosomes, i.e.44 with XO, such
females are sterile.
(D) Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by Gynaecomastia, i.e, famale with masculine characters.
Select an option with only correct statments.

(1) A, B,C and D

(2) A, B and D
(3) A and B
(4) A,B and C

38) Study the following pedigree and find out the probability of the birth of 6th child having
homozygous diseased genotype in III generation–

(1) 0%
(2) 100%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%
39) Who postulated the presence of an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and
on other hand would bind to specific amino acid ?

(1) Francis Crick

(2) James Watson
(3) Maurice Wilkins
(4) Friedrick Meischer

40) Select incorrect statement from the following ?

One of the hallmarks of the proposition of double helix was base pairing between the two
(1)
strands of polynucleotide chains.
By 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance had reached molecular
(2)
level.
(3) A failure in cell division after DNA replication results into polyploidy.
(4) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion with punctuations.

41) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Adapter RNA (i) Vector

(B) UTR (ii) Polynucleotide phosphorylase

(C) Severo ochoa enzyme (iii) Inverted L-shaped

(D) Ori (iv) Efficient translation

(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

42) Assertion : DNA replication is a semi- conservative process.

Reason : On one strand replication is continuous and on another strand it is discontinuous.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

43) Read the following statements

Statement-I : There is a convention in defining the two strands of the DNA in the structural gene of
a transcription unit. The strand with polarity 5' → 3' acts as template and other strand with polarity
3' → 5' is the coding strand. Statement-II : The promoter is said to be located at 5' end (upstream)
of the structural gene. It is the DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase and it
is the presence of promoter in a transcription unit that defines template and coding strands.
In the light of above statements, choose correct option.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

44) Following is the DNA sequence.

5' ATGCAGGCAAAC 3'
3' TACGTCCGTTTG 5'
The DNA sequence undergoes transcription to form mRNA. If mRNA undergoes translation, find the
correct order of entry of tRNA?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → A → D → B
(3) B → A → C → D
(4) A → C → B → D

45) Interspecific competition can occur between :-

(1) Totally unrelated species feeding on same resources.

(2) Closely related species feeding on same resources
(3) Different species feeding on same and unlimited resources.
(4) All of the above

46) Assertion (A) : - Size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) : - Size of a population decreases on increasing activity of it's predator.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct Explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct, R is correct.

47) For measurement of population density total number is generally most appropriate parameter
but in some cases it is difficult to determine or become meaningless. In such case, we estimate
population size indirectly, without actually counting them.
Statement I : In a dense laboratory culture of bacteria, population density is measured it terms of
total number.
Statement II : For population density total number is not an easily adoptable measure, if the
population is huge and counting is impossible.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

48) Plants capture only __A__ of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living
world.

(1) A = 2 - 10%
(2) A = 1 - 5%
(3) A = less than 50%
(4) A = More than 50%

49) Which of the following is not a method of in-situ conservation ?

(1) National park

(2) Biosphere reserve
(3) Wild life sanctuaries
(4) Wild life safari parks

50) Match the items in column-I with those in column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) NPP of the biosphere (i) 55 billion tons

(b) NPP of the land (ii) 170 billion tons

(c) PAR captured by plants (iii) 2-10%

(d) NPP of the ocean (iv) 115 billion tons

Select the correct option from following :

(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

51) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and
plants to extinction.
Statement-II : Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for the product of economic
importance known as bioprospecting.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

52) An ideal pyramid of energy is given above calculate the energy at the TC
level ?

(1) 10,000 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 10 J

53) Identify the correct statements :

(A) India has more than 50000 genetically different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango.
(B) India share of the global species diversity is an impressive 8.1%.
(C) Paul Ehrlich observed that with in a region species richness increased with increasing explored
area but only up to a limit.
(D) Amazon forest is estimated to produce 20% of the total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) A, C, D only

54) Assertion : In cockroach, gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.

Reason : The outer layer of gizzard has six highly chitinous plate like structure called teeth.

(1) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.

(2) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
If both the assertion and the reason are true and reason are correct explanation of the
(3)
assertion.
If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(4)
assertion.

55) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Squamous epithelium (1) Kidney tubules

(B) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Alveoli of lungs

(C) Columnar epithelium (3) Intestine

Option :
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3

56) Cloaca in frog is chamber for :-

(1) Digestive system only

(2) Reproductive system only
(3) Excretory system only
(4) Digestive, excretory and reproductive system

57) Consider the following statement and find out correct option.
(A) Mammals have four chambered heart and are warm blooded
(B) Fertilization in amphibians is internal
(C) Chondrichthyes have cycloid scales and 5 to 7 pairs gills
(D) Cyclostomes are jawless chordates

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) A & B are correct
(3) A & D are correct
(4) B, C & D are correct

58) Round worms belong to phylum aschelminthes possess a cylindrical body covered by cuticle.
Their body cavity is not lined by mesoderm.
Statement-I :- Aschelminthes possess a pseudocoelom, fluid present in it acts as hydrostatic
skeleton.
Statement-II :- In pseudocoelom, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead the mesoderm
is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

59) Match the following features (Column-I) with the animals (Column-II) and choose the correct
option.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Water transport system (i) Pila

(B) Water vascular system (ii) Asterias

(C) Nephridia (iii) Pheretima

(D) Radula (iv) Spongilla

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

60) Assertion (A) :- Members of phylum coelenterata exhibit radial symmetry.

Reason (R) :- Any plane passing through the central axis of the body of coelenterates divides the
organism into two identical halves.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

61) Read the following statements carefully.

(A) Mostly arteries carry oxygenated blood.
(B) Veins have thick elastic walls.
(C) Valves are primarily present in heart and veins to maintain unidirectional blood flow and open
and close due to pressure difference.
(D) All vertebrates possess ventral muscular heart with 2,3 or 4 chambers.
(E) Mollusca and Arthropods have close circulation.
From the given statements identify the correct statement and choose the correct option.

(1) B and E only

(2) B,C and D only
(3) A, C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D only

62) What is the appropriate explanation for diaphragm?

(1) It is a cartilaginous flap at the top of trachea that stops food or water from being inhaled.
(2) The cup like structure found at the base of lungs that helps in gaseous exchange
It is branching network of tubes inside the lungs, which transport atmosphere air to exchange
(3)
zone.
It is muscular sheath beneath the lungs, which divide trunk is into thoracic and abdominal
(4)
cavity and essential for breathing.

63) Statement-I : The partial pressure of oxygen is a major factor that can affect the binding of CO2
to hemoglobin.
Statement-II : A specialised centre present in medulla region of hind brain called respiratory
rhythm centre is primarily responsible for regulation of breathing.
Select the correct option from the following.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

64) Hormone of fight and flight are responsible for :-

(1) Inhibition of sweating
(2) Pupilary contraction
(3) Piloerection
(4) Increase strength of heart relaxation

65) Glucocorticoid stimulates :-

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipolysis
(C) Proteolysis

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) A, B and C all

66) Assertion : Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in hypothyroidism and enlargment of thyroid
gland.
Reason : Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid.
So choose the correct option :

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

67) Match the column-I with column-II and column-III and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Stimulate estrogen
(A) Prolactin (i) (a) Lactation hormone
secretion

Growth of mammary
(B) TSH (ii) (b) Regulated by TRH
gland

Stimulate cortisol Used in infertility

(C) ACTH (iii) (c)
secretion treatment

Stimulate thyroxin
(D) FSH (iv) (d) Regulated by CRH
secretion
(1) A-ii-c ; B-iii-d ; C-i-b ; D-iv-a
(2) A-i-d ; B-ii-a ; C-iv-b ; D-iii-c
(3) A-ii-a ; B-iv-b ; C-iii-d ; D-i-c
(4) A-ii-a ; B-iv-d ; C-i-b ; D-iii-c

68) Read the passage :-

The hind brain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata. Pons has fibre tracts
interconnecting different regions of brain. Cerebellum has a highly convoluted surface of
accomodate many neurons. Medulla is connected to the spinal cord.
Which statement is correct ?

(1) Pons directly controls gastric secretions and heart rate.

(2) Cerebellum is mainly for visual and auditory inputs from eyes and ears only.
(3) Medulla controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
(4) Hindbrain has no connection with spinal cord.

69) Regarding a typical myelinated neuron, which statements are correct ?

(I) Myelinated axons are enveloped by Schwann cells forming myelin sheath.
(II) Nodes of Ranvier are gaps between adjacent myelin sheath.
(III) Myelinated fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
(IV) Unmyelinated fibres are not enveloped with schwann cells.

(1) I and II only

(2) I, II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) I, III and IV only

70) Which of the following is a correct match of joint and their example?

(1) Ball and socket joint - Between femur and glenoid cavity.
(2) Pivot joint - Between Atlas and axis
(3) Gliding Joints - Between ulna and metacarpals
(4) Hinge Joint - Between femur , Patella and fibula

71) Which of the following option is not related to myasthenia gravis?

(1) Auto immune disorder

(2) Neuromuscular junction affected
(3) Fatigue
(4) Weakening and fatigue of smooth muscles

72) Identify the correct match.

A B C D

1 K+ Urea H2O NaCl

 2 Urea NaCl K+ H2O

3 H2 O K+ NaCl Urea

4 NaCl H2 O K+ Urea
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) In which of the following condition ketone bodies may appear in urine?

(1) Diabetes insipidus

(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Renal Calculi
(4) Glomerulo nephritis

74) A patient infected with HIV may remain apparently healthy for several years despite the
presence of the virus in the body. During this time, the virus multiplies within immune cells and
gradually destroys the immune system.
Based on the above information, which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) HIV directly destroys all immune cells immediately after infection causing rapid death.
(2) The decline in immune function occurs gradually due to progressive reduction in helper T-cell .
(3) HIV infection does not affect the immune system until symptoms of AIDS appear.
(4) HIV infects only B-lymphocytes and prevents antibody production.

75) Statement-1 :- Benign tumours remain localized at their original site and do not invade
neighbouring tissues or spread to distant parts of the body through the blood or lymphatic system.
Statement-2 :- Metastasis is the process in which cancer cells detach from the primary tumour and
spread to distant organs of the body through blood circulation or lymphatic vessels, forming
secondary tumours.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement-2 correctly explains statement-1
(2) Both statements are correct but statement-2 does not explain statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct

76) Match column-I (Drug/Substance) with column-II (source or description).

Column-I Column-II

Obtained from leaves of Erythroxylum coca and acts

A. Heroin 1. as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous
system producing intense euphoria

Obtained from resin of Cannabis sativa plant and

B. Cocaine 2. affects cardiovascular system, memory and motor
coordination
 A commonly abused substance produced from
morphine obtained from latex of papaver
C. Marijuana 3.
somniferum and usually taken by sniffing or
injection

A depressant substance consumed in beverages

D. Alcohol 4. which slows down central nervous system activity
and impairs judgement and coordination.
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

77) Consider the following statements :

(1) Psychological dependence causes an intense desire to continue drug use because of emotional
satisfaction, relief from anxiety, or a sense of well-being produced by the drug.
(2) Physical dependence results in withdrawl symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, nausea and
sweating when the drug is discontinued.
(3) Individuals suffering from addiction can easily stop using drugs without medical or psychological
assistance because addiction does not involve any changes in brain chemistry.
(4) Long-term drug abuse may affect not only the individual's health but also their social
relationships, academic performance and occupational productivity.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

78) Identify the correct sequence of evolution

(1) Proteins → Monomers → Cells → Aminoacids

(2) Inorganic molecules → Organic molecules → Non-cellular life → Cell
(3) Cells → Molecules → Organic polymers → Lipid
(4) DNA → RNA → Proteins → Lipid

79) Genetic drift is due to

(1) Natural selection

(2) Mutation only
(3) Chance events
(4) Migration only

80) Consider the following statements related to human oogenesis :

(A) Oogonia are formed in the fetal ovary and are continue to be produced throughout a woman's
reproductive life.
(B) The primary oocyte gets arrested in prophase-I of meiosis until puberty.
(C) The first meiotic division in oogenesis results in the formation of a secondary oocyte and a first
polar body.
(D) Completion of meiosis-II in oogenesis occurs only during fertilization.
Choose the incorrect statements.

(1) A only
(2) B and D
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

81) Match the following contraceptive methods with their correct examples:

Method Example

A. Natural method 1. Periodic abstinence

B. Barrier method 2. Condom

C. Intrauterine device 3. Copper-T

D. Oral contraceptive 4. Saheli

Choose the correct option :

(1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

82) Assertion (A) : Sertoli cells are stimulated by Follicle stimulating Hormone (FSH).
Reason (R) : FSH is secreted by the posterior pituitary and helps in testosterone production.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

83) Which of the following statements related to female reproductive physiology is incorrect?
A. Zona pellucida is an acellular layer in the antral follicle.
B. GnRH pulse frequency is regulated by estrogen and progesterone.
C. Inhibin from granulosa cells inhibits FSH secretion.
D. Ovulation is triggered by a fall in estradiol levels.

(1) A only
(2) D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and D only

84) Which of the following pairs of contraceptive methods, examples, and mechanisms are correctly
matched?
 Column A Column B Column C
(Method) (Example) (Mechanism)

Prevents ovulation by
Lactational
A. Natural method hormonal suppression during
amenorrhea
lactation

Physically prevents sperm

B. Barrier Method Diaphragm
entry into uterus

Inhibits sperm motility and

C. IUD Cu-T
fertilizing capacity

Weekly pill; block estrogen

Oral
D. Saheli receptors in endometrium
contraceptive pill
with minimal side effects.

Cutting of vas deferens to

E. Surgical Method Vasectomy
prevent sperm transport
(1) A, B and D only
(2) B,C, D and E only
(3) A, C and E only
(4) A, B,C, D and E

85) Which of the following statements related to fertilization, implantation, and hormonal regulation
are incorrect?
(A) Fertilization occurs only when sperm and ovum meet at the ampullary-isthmic junction of the
cervix.
(B) hCG maintains the corpus luteum and stimulates estrogen and progesterone secretion.
(C) High levels of estrogen and progesterone prevent menstruation and support endometrial
thickening.
(D) Low levels of FSH and LH during the luteal phase prevent development of new follicles.

(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) D only
(4) B and C only

86) The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These
fragments can be separated by a technique known as:

(1) PCR
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Spooling
(4) Elution

87) How many copies of DNA samples are produced in PCR technique after 8-Cycles?

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 128
(4) 256

88) Statements related to gene therapy are given below.

Which statements is/are correct about gene therapy?
(a) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl.
(b) The girl was suffering from adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
(c) It can be cured permanentally by bone marrow transplantation.
(d) The disorder is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
(e) It can be cured permanentally by enzyme replacement therapy.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) b only
(2) c and d only
(3) c, d and e only
(4) a, b and d only

89) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column I Column II

Genetically engineered
(a) (i) Golden Rice
Insulin

(b) Restriction Endonuclease (ii) Flavr-savr variety of tomato

(c) G M plants (iii) EcoRI

(iv) Palindromic sequence

A and B chain linked by disulphide

(v)
bond.

C-peptide is not present in mature

(vi)
hormone.
(1) a-i, ii ; b-iii, iv ; c-v, vi
(2) a-v, vi ; b-iii, iv ; c-i, ii
(3) a-iii, iv ; b-v, vi ; c-i, ii
(4) a-v, vi ; b-i, ii ; c-iii, iv

90) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Several nematode parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals including human
beings. A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and cause a great
reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the
process of RNA interference (RNA i).
Statement-II : Going beyond the morality of such issues, the biological significance of such thing is
also important. Genetic modification of organisms can not have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 1 4 3 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 4 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 2 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) s = v × t = 2m

2)

X= = R + 2H

3)

Match the column

When lift is at rest :

(P) geff > g

(Q) geff < g

(R) geff = g

(S) gett = 0 No water leaks out of the jar

4) In LED photons are emitted due to recombination of e-holes.

5) Case - I
When slits are of equal width, if I0 is intensity of light then
Imax = I0 + I0 + = 4I0
Imin = I0 + I0 – =0
Case - II
When slits are of unequal width, intensity from one slit would increase to twice, then
Inew max = 2I0 + I0 + = 5.83 I0
Inew min = 2I0 + I0 – = 0.17 I0
Therefore intensities of both the maxima and the minima increase.

6)

7)

Due to electric force speed as well as de-broglie wave length will change.

8)
It is independent of Z atomic number of element

9) n = 5 × 1024 × P × λ

= 5 × 1024 × P ×

=
= 5 × 1015

10) Kmax = hν – ϕ0

= 2 eV

Å
= 12.27 × 0.7 × 10–10 m
= 8.58 × 10–10 m

11)

For normal adjustment of Gallelion telescope distance between lenses L = |fo| – |fe|
= 100 cm – 10 cm
= 90 cm

12)
13)

Time period of a charged particle in a magnetic field

For a constant B,

Proton:

Deuteron:

Alpha particle:

Proton has the smallest ratio.

The time period is minimum for the proton.

14) due to circular coil is vertically upward. So, force on wire PQ is leftward according to
.

15)

Reading of ammeter =
Reading of voltmeter = Irms (XL – XC)
= 2.5 (10)
= 2.5 V

16) F =

=
= 1.2 × 10–6 N

17) M = 1 kg
V = 2 m/s
W = –3J

W = PE + KE
PE = W – KE
PE = –5J

Potential per unit mass =

18) for terminal speed FB + FV = mg
ρ2Vg + Kv2 = ρ1Vg

19)

For top particle LO1 = LO2 = pb (–k)

For bottom particle LO1 = LO2 = pb (k)
Magnitude of is same, but direction is opposite.

20)

From conservation of energy

Potential energy = translational KE + rotational KE

or or v ≥

21) Velocity at the bottom of the circle =

= 10 m/sec
on rough surface
u = 20 m/s v = 10 m/s a = – μg = – 5 m/s2
v2 – u2 = 2ax
102 – 202 = – 2 × 5 × x
x = 30 m

22)

Aω =

Aω =
Aω = 1
10–3ω = 1
ω = 103

⇒
V = fλ

λ = 2π × 10–2 m

23)

x=1

Now average speed

24)
= [L2T–1]

25)

T ∝ PadbEc
0 0
[M L T1] = [M1L–1T–2]a [M1L–3]b [M1L2T–2]c
0 0
[M L T1] = M(a+b+c) L(–a–3b+2c) T(–2a–2c)
Comparying :
a+b+c=0 ...(1)
–a – 3b + 2c = 0 ...(2)
–2a – 2c = 1 ...(3)
by solving (1) (2) (3)
a = –5/6
b = 1/2
c = 1/3

26)

27) ⇒a=
acceleration of trolley a = 7.5 m/s2
Tension in string is T then

T sin 37° = ma ⇒
T = 25 N
Force applied is F = (2 + 8)a
F = 10 × 7.5 = 75 N

28)

Let the geometric centre of the full ring be the origin.

Take the axis along which both semicircles lie.
Mass of semicircle with density λ:
M1 = λ(πR)
Mass of semicircle with density 3λ:
M2 = 3λ(πR)

Each semicircle's COM lies at distance from the centre, but on opposite sides. Choose +x
toward the heavier semicircle.
Thus, position are :

COM of system :

Substitute values :

Simplify numerator :

Cancel common terms :

29) ΔK.E. = ΔU

⇒ MV2 = GMeM .... (i)

Also g = .... (ii)

On solving (i) and (ii) h =

30)
(a) = 20π2 m/s2

(b)
(c) F = – kx = 40 π2 (0.05) ≠ 0

(d)

31)

L to M ⇒ Isobaric ⇒ T ∝ V
M to N ⇒ Isothermal ⇒ T = constant & V↑

32)

Since volume does not change so after stretching new length of cylinder is:-
V1 = V2
π × 42 × 50 = π × 22 × ℓ2
ℓ2 = 200 cm
and P = er σ A (T4 – T0 )
4

P1 = er σ 2πr1 (ℓ1 + r1) (T4 – T0 )

4
......(i)
and P2 = er σ 2πr2 (ℓ2 + r2) (T – T0 ) ......(ii)
4 4

By Eq. (i) ÷ Eq. (ii)

33) PVn = C
logP + n logV = logC
logP = –n logV + logC

n= (Diatomic & Adiabatic)

34)

and U2 = U2 = U1 + Q
 35)

i = 20t + 8t2

i= ⇒

⇒q=

q=

q = 10 × (15)2 +
q = 2250 + 9000
q = 11250 C

36) In semiconductor resistance decrease with increase in the temperature. Therefore

resistivity also decrease. In conducting solid resistance increase with increase the temperature
because the rate of collisions between free electron and ions increases with increase of
temperature both the statements are true. but here Y is for semiconductor and Z for
conductor.

37) During steady state 4Ω can be remove d.

Q=

38)
Enet = Eλ + E3λ
=

39)
τ2 = P2E1 sin90°

40)

=
=
=

41) The refractive index of a glass slab is the ratio of its real thickness to its apparent
thickness. The readings from the traveling microscope are used to find these thicknesses. The
least count is calculated from the main scale and vernier scale divisions.

1 MSD = = 0.05 cm

1 VSD = MSD = × 0.05 cm = 0.049 cm

LC = 1MSD – 1VSD = 0.001 cm
For mark on paper, L1 = 8.45 cm + 26 × 0.001 cm = 84.76 mm
For mark on paper through slab, L2 = 7.12 cm + 41× 0.001 cm = 71.61 mm
For powder particle on top surface, ZE = 4.05 cm + 1 × 0.001 cm = 40.51 mm
∴ actual L1 = 84.76 – 40.51 = 44.25 mm
actual L2 = 71.61 – 40.51 = 31.10 mm

42) |ε| =

ε=

ε = 48 mV
 43) (a) When both wires move towards right P1 and P2 are at high potential and potential
difference = Bℓv
= 1 × (4 × 10–2) (5 × 10–2) = 2 × 10–3 volt

current =
2Ω and 2Ω are in parallel.
(b) When P1 Q1 moves towards left and P2 Q2 moves towards right both conductors become
battery of equal & opposite polarity,
So current through 19 Ω is zero.

44) 2πrT + FTh = Mg

r=

45)

The assertion is correct because a high resistance in connected in series with the game to
protect from damage.
However, the reason is incorrect because increasing resistance decreases the current in the
circuit as per Ohm's law.

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation:

Identify true or false
Concept:
This question is based on electronic configuration.
Solution:
(I) F. The order of energy for a multi-electron atom like Mn is 3s < 3p < 3d. The energies are
equal only for a hydrogen atom or hydrogen-like ions.
 (II) F. The 5th period of the long-form periodic table contains 18 elements.
(III) T. The ground state electronic configuration of Zr(Z = 40) is [Kr]5s24d2. For the Zr+2 ion,
the configuration becomes [Kr]4d2, which has n = 2 unpaired electrons. The magnetic moment
is calculated using the spin-only formula BM, resulting in
BM.
(IV) F. The general valence shell electronic configuration for f-block elements is (n – 2)f 1–14(n –
1)d 0–1ns2, where the d-orbital can have 0 or 1 electron, not a full 10 electrons.
Final Answer:
The correct option is (3)

47)

Explain Question : The most exothermic process is.

Concept : This question is based on E.A in process (1) 2e– addition takes place.
Solution :
(1) O+2 O exothermic
–
(2) N N exothermic
(3) F F– exothermic
+
(4) Be Be exothermic
Final answer : 1

48) Explain the Question:Compare s/p character in N–H and P–H bonds
Concept:Hybridisation, Bent’s rule, bond parameters
Solution:

• Molecules shown are NH3 and PH3

• In NH3, nitrogen is sp3 hybridised, so lone pair and N–H bonds have mixed s and p character
• In PH3, phosphorus uses almost pure p orbitals for P–H bonding due to poor s–p mixing
• Hence, P–H bonds have higher p-character than N–H bonds
• Lone pair on N has more s-character than lone pair on P
• Therefore, %p in P–H bond (X8) is greater than %p in N lone pair (X2)

Final Answer:Option-3

49)

As as equivalent hybrid orbitals.

50) By observing
the values of I1, I2 & I3 for atomic number (n+2), it is observed that I2 >>I1.
This indicates that number of valence shell electrons is 1 and atomic number (n+2) should be
an alkali metal.
Also for atomic number (n+3), I3 >> I2.
This indicates that it will be an alkaline earth metal which suggests that atomic number (n+1)
should be a noble gas & atomic number (n) should belong to Halogen family. Since n < 10;
hence n = 9 (F atom)
Note : n = 1 (H atom) cannot be the answer because it does not have I2 & I3 values.

51) If there is no 2s - 2p mixing then C2 has 2 unpaired electron.

52) [CrCl6]–3
Co-ordination no. = 6 Charge =–3

53)

Low spin complexes = [Fe(CN)6]4–, [Co(NH3)6]3+

54) K = K1 × K2 × K3 × K4
= 104 × 1.58 × 103 × 5 × 102 × 102
= 7.9 ×1011

55)
The complete structure is planar hence, all 12 atoms are is same plane.
Structure of S3O9 is :-

There is no S—S bond

Structure of Cl is :-

In this tetrahedral structure indential bond angles are 6.

Structure of P4O10 is :-

In this structure 6 P—O—P linkage are present.

56) Sodium dihydrogen pyrophosphate - Na2H2P2O7

57)
⇒ 9 vacant orbitals present.

58)

ZnCl2 + H2S → ZnS (white ppt)

CuSO4 + NH4OH → [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (deep blue)
(excess) solution
FeCl3 + KSCN solution → Fe(SCN)3 (Blood red)
Pb(NO3)2 + KI → PbI2 (Yellow ppt)

59) No free S2– ion available in acidic medium of H2S.

60) (x) is KMnO4 . In MnO4– , 4 equivalent bonds are present. b = 4

(y) is a=6
a–b=6–4=2

61)

Acidic strength ∝ stability of conjugate base ∝

62)

63)

64)

Aldehydes give Fehling test but not ketones.

65) Position of –OH group & – CH2OH are on same side on C1 & C4 carbon

66) NaBH4 can not reduced ester.

67)

68)

CH3–C≡C–CH3

69)

70)

71) SN2 does not show racemisation.

 72)

(1) Nitrobenzene does not give frieldel craft

(2)

(4)

73)

Question Explanation:
The question asks whether steam distillation can separate o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol and
why.

Concept:
Steam distillation, Intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Volatility.

Solution:

A. Assertion (A) : Correct, because o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by steam
distillation.
B. Reason (R) : Correct, o-nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bonding more volatile steam
distillable. P-nitrophenol has intermolecular H-bonding less volatile not steam distillable.

Thus, (R) correctly explains (A).

Final Answer: Option (1)

74)

NCERT, Hydrocarbon

75)

Facts

76)

A2+ B3– A3 B 2
λm = 57 × 3 + 73 × 2 = 317 S cm2 mol–1
λeq = = = 52.83 S cm2 eq–1

77) eq. of NaOH = eq. of NaHC2O4

1 × 2 × 50 = 1 × x × 40 x = 2.5
eq. of NaHC2O4 = eq. of KMnO4
2 × 2.5 × Vml = 5 × 20 × 0.2
Vml = 4 ml

78) (1) Number of d-orbitals having same shape → 4 (dxy, dyz, dzx, )
(2) Axial orbitals in 3rd shell of H-atom → 5 (px, py, pz, , )
(3) Same energy orbitals in P- sub shell → 3 (px, py, pz)
(4) Total nodes in 3s = n – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2

79)

N2O5 N2O4 + O2
1–2x 2x x
1+x = 1.45
∴ x = 0.45
→ initial = 1
→ final = 0.1

80) Statement-I is incorrect reason. Both solution will be isotonic only at same temperature
not always.

81) KSP = (Mg2+) (OH¯)2

4 × 10–12 = 10–2 (OH¯)2
(OH¯) = 2 × 10–5
pOH = 4.7
pH = 9.3

82) → 3I2 + 3H2O

+6H+

= = eq of I2

V.F = 1 V.F = 5 V.F =

83) ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS°

= – 250 –
ΔG° = – 172 kJ / mol = – RT ln Keq

log Keq = = 29.94

84)

m=

= × 55.5

85) KMnO4 = FAS self indicator

5 × 0.4 × V = 1 × 0.2 × 400
V = 40 ml

86) m = = 0.0106
ΔTf = i Kf × m = i × 1.86 × 0.0106
i = 1.04
α = 0.04

Ka =

87) V.F. × mole = → charge in coulomb

–2
WCu = V × d = 15 × 5 × 10 × 8.4 = 6.3 g

= I × t = No. of coulomb
Q = 20515 C

88)

α = 1 – e–kt / first order

At = A0e–kt
At = A0–kt zero order.

89) Cr2O72– + 3C2O42– 2Cr3+ + 6CO2 + 7H2O

+ 14H⊕

V
E°cell = 1.82 V
 Keq =

Ecell = E°cell –

1.542 = 1.82 – 0.01 log

0.01 log = 0.28

– 14 log (H+) = 28
– log (H+) = pH = 2

90)

Cell reaction

=
E = – 0.125V

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 26 to 32

92) NCERT Pg. # 17, 18

93) NCERT Pg. # 15

94) NCERT Pg. # 7, 8

95) NCERT Pg. # 32-33

96) NCERT Pg. # 32

97) NCERT Pg. # 12 to 14

98) NCERT XI, Pg. # 62

99) NCERT XI, Pg. # 63,64

100) NCERT XI, Pg. # 67,68

101) NCERT XI, Pg. # 72

102) NCERT XI, Pg. # 74,76

103) NCERT Pg. # 97 98, 102

104) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126

105) NCERT-XI Pg. # 102

106) NCERT Pg. # 94, 96

107) NCERT Pg. # 96, 99

108) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126

109) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126

110) NCERT Pg # 109

111) NCERT Pg # 108

112) NCERT Pg # 118

113) NCERT Pg # 144

114) NCERT Pg # 134-151

115) NCERT Pg. # 159, 160

116) NCERT Pg. # 155 157, 158

117) NCERT Pg. # 154

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 178

Explaining Question: Identify which plant Hormone plays a crucial role in seed development
maturation, and dormancy
Concept: This question is based on plant growth Regulators.
Solution: The hormone that plays a crucial role in seed developments maturation, and
dormancy is Abscisic Acid (ABA).

119) NCERT Pg. # 174,175

120) NCERT-XII Pg. # 20

121) NCERT-XII Pg. # 12, 14, 15

122) NCERT-XII Pg. # 19

123) NCERT _ Pg. # 154

124) NCERT _ Pg. # 153

125) NCERT _ Pg. # 59, 60, 63, 67

126) NCERT_ Pg. # 58

127) NCERT Pg. # 75, 76

128) NCERT Pg. # 73

129) NCERT-XII Pg. # 98

130) NCERT-XII Pg. # 81, 84, 91, 96

131) NCERT-XII Pg. # 98, 99, 96, 90

132) NCERT-XII Pg. # 90

133) NCERT-XII Pg. # 92

134) Find the codon on mRNA and find the respective anti-codon on tRNA from 3' → 5'
direction.

135) NCERT Pg. # 198

136) NCERT Pg. # 192

137) NCERT Pg. # 192

138) NCERT Pg. # 209

139) NCERT Pg. # 224

140)

NCERT Pg. # 207

141) NCERT Pg. # 222

142) NCERT Pg. # 213

143) NCERT Pg. # 217

144)

Module

145)

Module

146)

NCERT XI, Pg # 83

147) NCERT XI Pg. # 47, 51

148) NCERT Pg. # 43

149) NCERT, Pg. # 40,43,44,45

150) NCERT, Pg. # 41

151) NCERT Pg. # 198-201, 202, 46, 44

152) NCERT-XI_Pg. # 184, 185

153) NCERT-XI_Pg. # 189, 190

154) NCERT Pg. # 244

155) NCERT Pg. # 245

156) NCERT Pg. # 242

157) NCERT Pg. # 241

158) NCERT Pg. # 236

159) NCERT Pg. # 232

160) NCERT Pg. # 227

161) NCERT Pg. # 227

162) NCERT Pg. # 210

163) NCERT Pg. # 213

164)

NCERT-XII_Pg. # 140

165)

NCERT-XII_Pg. # 141

166)

NCERT-XII_Pg. # 143
167)

NCERT-XII_Pg. # 145

168) NCERT XII, Pg. # 111,112

Hint : Chemogeny & biogeny

169) NCERT XII, Pg. # 121

Hint : Definition of genetic drift

170) NCERT Pg. # 32

NCERT (H)_Pg. # 35,36

171) NCERT Pg. # 44, 45

NCERT (H)_ Pg.# 49, 50

172) NCERT Pg. # 31

NCERT (H)_Pg. # 34

173) NCERT Pg. # 32, 33, 34

NCERT (H)_ Pg. # 35, 36, 37, 38

174) NCERT Pg. # 44, 45

NCERT (H)_ Pg. # 49, 50

175) NCERT Pg. # 33, 34, 35

NCERT (H)_Pg. # 36,37, 38

176) NCERT-XII_ Pg. # 168

177) NCERT-XII_Pg. # 172, 173

178) NCERT_XII-Pg. # 182

179) NCERT_XII-Pg. # 166-167, 179, 181, 182

180) NCERT_XII-Pg. # 180, 184