15-05-2026

0000OMD303029250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by

F = AsinCt + BcosDx

Then the dimensions of and are given by :-

0 0
(1) MLT–2, M L T–1
0 0
(2) MLT–2, M L–1T
0 0 0 0
(3) M L T , M L1T–1
0 0 0 0
(4) M L1T–1, M L T

2) A particle is thrown above, then the correct v-t graph will :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in figure. Pressure P

at points along the axis is represented by

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A gas at the temperature 250 K is contained in a closed vessel. If the gas is heated through 1K,
then the percentage increase in its pressure will be–

(1) 0.4%
(2) 0.2%
(3) 0.1%
(4) 0.8%

5) An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume V1 to V2 and then compressed to original volume
V1 adiabatically. Initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is P3. The total work done is W. Then

(1) P3 > P1, W > 0

(2) P3 < P1, W < 0
(3) P3 > P1, W < 0
(4) P3 = P1, W = 0

6) A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 6 × 105 N/m and amplitude 4 cm, has a total energy
600 J. Select the correct statement.

(1) Maximum potential energy is 600 J

(2) Maximum kinetic energy is 480 J
(3) Minimum potential energy is 120 J
(4) All of these

7) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by
s = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4)m
The velocity, when its acceleration is zero, is :

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

8) After an elastic collision between two balls of equal masses, one is observed to have a speed of 3
m/s along the positive x-axis and the other has a speed of 2 m/s along negative x-axis. What were the
original velocities of the balls (in m/s) ?
(1)
(2) 0, 0
(3)
(4)

9) A force newtons is applied over a particle which displaces it from origin to the point
metres. The work done on the particle is :-

(1) –7 J
(2) +13 J
(3) +7 J
(4) –11 J

10) An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit at a distance r from the centre of the earth has
total energy E0. Its potential energy is :-

(1) E0

(2)

(3) 2E0
(4) 1.5 E0

11) The work done in increasing the size of a rectangular soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75
cm to
10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. The surface tension of the film (in N/m) is:

(1) 1.65 × 10–2

(2) 3.3 × 10–2
(3) 6.6 × 10–2
(4) 8.25 × 10–2

12) A wire of area of cross-section 10–6 m2 is increased in length by 0.1%. The tension produced
is 1000 N. The Young's modulus of wire is :

(1) 1012 N/m2

(2) 1011 N/m2
(3) 1010 N/m2
(4) 109 N/m2

13) In a vernier calliper of least count 0.10 mm and zero error (–0.3 mm), the reading of diameter of
sphere on main scale is 6 mm and 5th division of verneir scale coincides with one of main scale
division. The correct diameter of sphere is :-

(1) 6 mm
(2) 6.2 mm
(3) 6.5 mm
(4) 6.8 mm

14) Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to
give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

15) In a circular motion of a particle, the tangential acceleration of the particle is given by at = 9
m/s2. The radius of the circle is 4 m. The particle was initially at rest. Time after which acceleration
of the particle makes an angle of 45° with the radial acceleration is :-

(1)
sec

(2)
sec
(3) 1 sec

(4)
sec

16) A ball of mass m is moving towards a batsman at a speed v. The batsman strikes the ball and
deflectes it by an angle θ without changing its speed. The impulse imparted to the ball is given by :-

(1) mv cosθ
(2) mv sinθ

(3)

(4)

17) A body cools from a temperature 4T to 3T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume
that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10
minutes will be :-

(1)

(2) T

(3)

(4)

18) The moment of inertia of two freely rotating bodies A and B are IA and IB respectively. IA > IB and
their angular momenta are equal. If KA and KB are their kinetic energies, then :-
(1) KA = KB
(2) KA > KB
(3) KA < KB
(4) KA = 2KB

19) A flywheel (disc) of radius 2 m and mass 8 kg rotates at an angular speed of 4 rad/s about an axis
perpendicular to it through its centre. The kinetic energy of rotation is :

(1) 128 J
(2) 196 J
(3) 256 J
(4) 392 J

20) A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the use of strings A, B and C as shown in the figure,
where W is the vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in the string B is :-

(1) 100 g N
(2) zero
(3)

(4)

21) For the arrangement shown in the fig. the tension in the string is

(1) 6 N
(2) 6.4 N
(3) 0.4 N
(4) Zero
22) For a given medium find intensity ratio I1 : I2

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 16 : 25
(4) 25 :16

23) The momentum of a particle of mass m and charge q is equal to that of photon of wavelength λ
the speed of the particle is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3) qhλ

(4)

24) Which of the following circuits provides full-wave rectification of an ac input ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) 'Output is LOW if and only if all the inputs are HIGH' Indicate the logic gate for which the above
statement is true :-

(1) AND
(2) OR
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

26) A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. The ratio of
the wavelength associated with the proton to that associated with an α-particle is

(1)
(2) 2 : 1
(3)

(4)

27) A astronomical telescope has objective and eye piece of focal length 20 cm and 2cm respectively
to view an object 100 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance :-

(1) 22 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 26 cm
(4) 27 cm

28) The acceleration of an e– at a certain moment in a magnetic field is .

The value of x is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2.5
(4) 1.5

29) Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?

(1) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and
(2)
same time
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
(4)
direction of propagation of wave

30) The ratio of initial to final current through the battery when the switch is closed in the figure is:-
(1) Zero
(2) ∞

(3)

(4)

31) The impedance of the RL circuit given in the adjacent figure is expressed by the relation Z2 = A2

2
+ B . Then the dimensions of AB are

(1) [M1L2A–2T–3]
(2) [M2L4T–6A–4]
(3) [M1L–1A–2T–3]
(4) [M1L–2A–2T–4]

32) When a metal surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the stopping
potential is 5V0. When the same metal surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 4λ, the
stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface is

(1) 6 λ
(2) 1.33 λ
(3) 16 λ
(4) 8 λ

33) Energy of capacitor is given as E = , where q is charge and C is capacitance. If % error in

measurement of charge is 2% and in capacitance is 3%, find out % error in energy.

(1) 4%
(2) 3%
(3) 7%
(4) 11%

34) The magnetic field at the centre of coil of n turns, bent in the form of a square of side 2ℓ,
carrying current i, is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance & current will be–

(1) 400V, 2A
(2) 800V, 2A
(3) 100V, 2A
(4) 100V, 4A

36) In interference pattern, the energy is :-

(1) Created at the maximum

(2) Destroyed at the maximum
(3) Conserved but redistributed
(4) All the above

37) A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in an electric field of constant
magnitude E. The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) In the circuit shown in figure, the galvanometer G shows zero deflection. If the batteries A and B

have negligible internal resistance, the value of the resistor R will be

(1) 1000 Ω
(2) 500 Ω
(3) 100 Ω
(4) 200 Ω

39) When the electron jumps from a level n=4 to n=1, the momentum of the recoiled hydrogen atom
will be :-
(R = 1.09 × 107 m–1)

(1) 6.8 × 10–27 kg-ms–1

(2) 12.75 × 10–19 kg-ms–1
(3) 13.6 × 10–19 kg-ms–1
(4) zero

40) The stable nucleus which has a radius half of Zn64 is -

(1) Ca40
(2) S16
(3) Na21
(4) Be8

41) When an additional charge of 2C is given to a capacitor, energy stored in it is increased by 21%.
The original charge of the capacitor is :-

(1) 30 C
(2) 40 C
(3) 10 C
(4) 20 C

42) A 150 m long metal wire connects points A and B. The electric potential at point B is 50 V less
than that at point A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m, then magnitude of the
current density in the wire is equal to :

(1) 11 × 10–4 A/m2

(2) 5.5 × 10–3 A/m2
(3) 4 × 107 A/m2
(4) 20 × 106 A/m2

43) Find the current in 3Ω resistance in the circuit

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) zero

44) In the given circuit, the current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 2mA
(2) 4mA
(3) 6mA
(4) 1mA

45) Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the

adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be:-

(1) 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

CHEMISTRY

1) In phosphorous atom possible set of quantum numbers for 13th electron is :-

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = –1/2
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = +1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

2)

Column-I Column-II

a. A process carried out infinitesimally slowly p. Adiabatic

A process in which no heat enters or leaves the

b. q. ΔG = 0
system

c. A process carried out at constant temperature r. sublimation

 ΔU = 0,
d. A process is in equilibrium s.
ΔH = 0

e. A(s) → A(g) t. Reversible

f. Cyclic process u. Isothermal

(1) a→t, b→p, c→u, d→q, e→r, f→s
(2) a→p, b→q, c→r, d→s, e→t, f→u
(3) a→q, b→p, c→u, d→t, e→r, f→s
(4) a→t, b→r, c→s, d→p, e→q, f→u

3) Which one of the following leads to redox reactions ?

(1) AgNO3 + KCl

(2) KOH + HCl
(3) KI + Cl2
(4) NH3 + HCl

4) The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44g of CuCl2 in 1 kg of water will be (Given
molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4 and Kb = 0.52 K molal–1)

(1) 0.156 K
(2) 0.052 K
(3) 0.10 K
(4) 0.20 K

5) Statement-I : For the daniell cell, Zn|Zn+2||Cu+2|Cu with , the application of opposite
potential greater than 1.1 V results in the flow of electrons from Zn rod to Cu electrode.
Statement-II : During the working of a daniell cell, Zn rod is dissolved at anode and Cu is deposited
at cathode.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.

6)

For the reaction conducted in 1 L flask,

N2 + 3H2 2NH3
t = 0 1 mol 3 mol 0
NH3 formed at equilibrium required 100 ml of 5M HCl for neutralisation. Hence, KC of the reaction is
-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The amount of heat evolved when 0.5 moles of HCl is mixed with a solution having 0.3 moles of
NaOH will be -

(1) 57.1 kJ
(2) 28.55 kJ
(3) 11.42 kJ
(4) 17.13 kJ

8) Amongst the following, number of paramagnetic species are :- N2, O2, S2, B2, C2, Li2, Be2, F2

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 2

9) Which of the following statements are correct for complex K2[Zn(CN)2(O2)2] ?

(I) IUPAC name : Potassium bisuperoxidobicyanidozinc (II).
(II) Number of Geometrical isomers = 2.
(III) It is paramagnetic compound.
(IV) It shows linkage isomerism.
(V) It is inner orbital complex.
Choose the correct option from given option :-

(1) III and IV only

(2) I, II, III and IV only
(3) I, II, III, IV and V
(4) I, II and IV only

10) Number of t2g and eg electrons in [Ni F6]2– are :-

(1) 6 and 2
(2) 4 and 2
(3) 6 and 0
(4) 3 and 3

11) Select correct order according to their given property :-

(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 → order of dipole moment
(2) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 → order of bond angle
(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 → order of B–X bond strength
(4) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 → order of Lewis acidic nature

12)

SO2 and CO2 gives different observations when passed through :-

(1) Lime water

(2) Barayta water
(3) Acidified KMnO4
(4) dil HCl

13) The brown ring test is performed for the qualitative detection of :-

(1) Bromide
(2) Iodides
(3) Nitrates
(4) Phosphates

14) Most stable carbocation in following option is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

The correct order of reactivity of following alcohol with HBr is :-

(A) 1–Phenyl propan-1-ol
(B) Propan-2-ol
(C) 3–Phenyl propan-1-ol

(1) I > III > II

(2) III > II > I
(3) I > II > III
(4) III > I > II

16) Assertion :– A mixture of o–nitrophenol and p–nitrophenol can be separated by steam

distillation.
Reason :– o–nitrophenol is steam volatile but p–nitrophenol is not.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

17) Which of the following compound will not give Iodoform Test :-

(1) CH3–CH2–OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) For a first order reaction , the unit of 'A' in arrhenius equation will be-

(1) mol L–1s–1

(2) mol–1 Ls–1
(3) s–1
(4) JK–1s–1

19) Which of the following is correct regarding 15th group elements?

(1) In case of nitrogen all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in acidic solution.
In case of phosphorous nearly all intermediate oxidation states disproportionate in to +5 and –3
(2)
both in alkali and acid.
(3) The tendency to exhibit –3 oxidation state decreases down the group.
(4) All of these

20)

In which of the following reaction 'Mn' doesn't change it's oxidation state ?

(1) KMnO4 + HCl →

(2) KMnO4 + H2S

(3) KMnO4 + Conc. H2SO4 →

KMnO4 + FeSO4
(4)

21) Choose correct match.

No. of
Complex compound
isomers
 (A) Pt(NH3)(Br)(I)(H2O) (P) 6

(B) [Co(en)2(NH3)2]+3 (Q) 2

(C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (R) 3

(D) [Pt(SCN)2(NH3)2] (S) 4

(1) A→R, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(2) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(3) A→R, B→R, C→Q, D→S
(4) A→Q, B→R, C→S, D→P

22)

List-II
List-I
(Characteristic
(Molecule)
odour)

(A) CO2 (P) Rotten egg smell

(B) I2 (Q) Violet Fumes

Reddish brown
(C) H2S (R)
vapours

(D) Br2 (S) Odour less

(1) A→S, B→Q, C→P, D→R
(2) A→S, B→P, C→Q, D→R
(3) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(4) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S

23) Which of the following is correct statement?

(1) Al+ is more stable than In+

(2) Ga+ is more stable than Al+
(3) Al+ is more stable than Ga+
(4) Ga+ is more stable than In+

24) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Non-metal and metalloids exist only in the p-block of the periodic table.
(2) The Non-metallic character of elements decreases down the group.
(3) The heaviest element in each p-block group is the most metallic in nature.
(4) All of these

25) Which of the following is not a pair of reducing sugar :

(1) D-glucose and D-fructose

(2) Lactose and Sucrose
(3) Lactose and maltose
(4) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

26) Which reagent can't be used in this process?

(1) conc. H2SO4 / 443 K

(2) 20% H3PO4 / 358 K
(3) Cu/573 K
(4) alc. KOH/Δ

27) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitro benzene

(2) 4-methyl-5-chloro nitro benzene
(3) 1-chloro-2-methyl-5-nitro benzene
(4) 1-chloro-6-methyl-3-nitro benzene

28) In which of the following reaction Primary alcohol can be formed as major product -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 and 2 both

29) In sulphur estimation 0.157 gm of an organic compound gave 0.4813 gm of barium sulphate.
What is the percentage of sulphur in the compound ?

(1) 42.10 %
(2) 4.210 %
(3) 0.421 %
(4) 32 %

30) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

 Column-I Column-II
(Example of (Type of
solution) solution)

Solution of
Gaseous
(A) camphor in N2 (P)
solution
gas

Oxygen
Liquid
(B) dissolved in (Q)
solution
water

Solution of
(C) hydrogen in (R) Solid solution
palladium

Solution of
(D) (S) Lyophilic sol
starch in water
Correct match is :-
(1) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→R
(3) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(4) A→R, B→P, C→S, D→Q

31) Which of the following is incorrect match ?

(1) [Co2(CO)8] = The number of bridging carbonyl groups are = 2

(2) Fe(CO)5 = Mono nuclear
(3) [Mn2(CO)10] = The number of bridging carbonyl groups are = 2
(4) [Mn(CO)5] = Oxidising agent

32) Find the incorrect statement for physical properties of alkyl halide :-

(1) Bromoderivatives of hydrocarbon are heavier than water.

(2) Boiling point of ter. butyl bromide greater than n-butyl bromide.
For same alkyl group, the boiling point decrease in the order.
(3)
RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(4) Haloalkane are very slightly soluble in water than alcohol.

33) In haloalkane, halogen is good leaving group they shows different type of nucleophilic
substitution reaction.
R–X + Nu⊝ → R–Nu + X⊝
(From reagent)
Which is not correctly matched?

Reagent Product

(1) KCN RCN

(2) AgCN RNC

(3) aq KOH ROH

 (4) KNO2 RNO2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

Incorrect reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Mass ratio of NH3 and CO2 for maximum product formation as per reaction : 2NH3 + CO2 →
NH2COONH4

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Find the de Broglie wavelength of a 1-mg grain of sand blown by a 20 m s–1 wind :-

(1) 3.3 × 10–29 m

(2) 3.3 × 10–21 m
(3) 3.3 × 10–49 m
(4) 3.3 × 10–42 m

37) The rate constant for a first order decomposition reaction is given by :-

log K = 10 – . Then, what will be activation energy in kcal/mol ?

(1) 4.60
(2) 17.6
(3) 3.2
(4) 9.8

38) Which shows +4 oxidation state ?

(1) Eu
(2) Pr
(3) Sm
(4) Tm

39) Which of the following is anti-aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Consider the following reaction :

The product Z is:-

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Benzoic acid

41) Choose the correct alternative from the following.

(1) Ketones are more reactive than aldehydes towards NAR

(2) Aldehyde are more reactive than ketones towards NAR
(3) Formaldehyde is the least reactive carbonyl compound towards NAR
Steric hindrance does not play a role to effect the reactivity of carbonyl compounds towards
(4)
NAR
42) product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which salt will give maximum pH in aqueous solution :

(1) BaCl2
(2) NaCl
(3) CH3COONa
(4) NH4Cl

44)

In which of the following, ozonolysis reaction results into formation of only one type of product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45)

Assume that during electrolysis of AgNO3, only H2O is electrolysed and O2 is formed as :-
2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e–

O2 formed at NTP due to passage of 2 A of current for 965 s is :-

(1) 0.112 L
(2) 0.224 L
(3) 11.2 L
(4) 22.4 L

BIOLOGY

1) The members of which of the following phyla are primitive multicellular animals?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Platyhelminthes

2) Read the following (A-D) four statements :-

(A) Mouth is located ventrally
(B) Notochord is absent throughout the life
(C) Gill slits are separate and without operculum
(D) Air bladder is absent
How many of the above statements are correct for Chondrichthyes ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

3)

___ nucleus found at ___ of columnar cells :-

(1) Round, apical part

(2) Elongated, middle part
(3) Elongated, basal part
(4) Nucleus absent
4) In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom, which of the following features have evolved
for the first time in phylum annelida?
(A) Metameric segmentation
(B) Organ system level of organisation
(C) Closed circulatory system
(D) True coelom
(E) Bilateral symmetry
Select the correct answer :-

(1) A, B and E
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) Only A and B

5) (A) Bones are pneumatic

(B) Feathers are exclusive characters
(C) Crop and gizzard are present
(D) Homeothermic
Which of the above given characters related to class aves?

(1) ABCD
(2) ABC
(3) BCD
(4) ACD

6) Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Eosinophil resists infection.

Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administration of anti-Rh antibodies to mother
(2)
immediately after first delivery.
(3) During pregnancy blood of mother and foetus are well separated by placenta.
(4) Person with AB blood group is universal donor

7) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing :

(1) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes.

(2) Inspiration is an active process where expiration is Passive Process
(3) Inspiration and Expiration are Active Process
(4) Inspiration is an Passive Process where as expiration is an Active Process

8) Match the following

1 Tidal volume (a) 2500-3000 ml

2 IRV (b) ERV + TV + IRV
3 FRC (c) 500 ml
4 VC (d) RV + ERV
5 IC (e) TV + IRV
Select the correct one :-
(1) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–d ; 4–b ; 5–e
(2) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–b ; 5–e
(3) 1–c ; 2–d ; 3–a ; 4–e ; 5–b
(4) 1–c ; 2–a ; 3–e ; 4–b ; 5–d

9) Which of the following diagramatic presentation of a standard E.C.G. is correct :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

Which ion is responsible for depolarisation ?

(1) K+
(2) Na+
(3) Cl–
(4)

11) Match column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) ADH (i) Glucocorticoids

(b) ACTH (ii) Mineralocorticoids

(c) Aldosterone (iii) Diabetes mellitus

(d) Insulin (iv) Diabetes insipidus

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Choose the correct match :-

Column–A Column–B

(a) Apolar neuron (i) Olfactory epithelium

Most of the neurons

(b) Pseudounipolar neuron (ii)
present in vertebrates

(c) Bipolar neuron (iii) Hydra

Dorsal root ganglia

(d) Multipolar neuron (iv)
of spinal cord

Option:-
a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) i iii ii iv

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iii iv ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) T4 (i) Hypothalamus
(b) PTH (ii) Thyroid
(c) GnRH (iii) Pituitary
(d) LH (iv) Parathyroid

a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) ii iv iii i

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which substances are reabsorbed in the collecting duct ?

(1) Urea, water
(2) Water, glucose
(3) H+, K+ ions
(4) Water, H+ ions

15) Which hormone causes strong uterine contraction during parturition ?

(1) PRL
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Relaxin
(4) Inhibin

16)

Which of the following function is performed by insulin?

(1) Increase glycogenesis

(2) Increase glycogenolysis
(3) Increases gluconeogenesis
(4) Breakdown of Protein

17)

Glomerulus filtration rate per day of a healthy adult human is :-

(1) 5 L
(2) 1.2 L
(3) 120 L
(4) 180 L

18) Which option best explains the location of the humerus ?

(1) Knee to Ankle

(2) Elbow to wrist (medial side)
(3) Elbow to wrist (Lateral side)
(4) Shoulder to elbow

19) HCG is secreted during :-

(1) Pregnancy
(2) Menstrual cycle
(3) Ovulation
(4) Lactation

20)
 Column-A Column-B

(a) Mons pubis Cushion of fatty tissue

(b) Labia majora Fleshy folds of tissue

(c) Labia minora Paired folds of tissue

(d) Clitoris Tiny finger-like

In the above matching-pair table how many pairs are correct ?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

21) Assertion :- Interferons protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Reason :- Fungus infected cells secrete glycoproteins called interferons.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Identify the incorrect option :-

(1) Prokaryotes-2 bya

(2) Invertebrates - 500 bya
(3) Jawless fishes - 350 mya
(4) Sea weeds - 320 mya

23) Assertion : The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.
Reason : The epididymis leads to vas-deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the
urinary bladder.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

24)

What is function of interstitial cells of testis ?

(1) Synthesis of estrogen

(2) Gamete production
(3) Synthesis of androgen
(4) Gamete transfer
25) Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease :

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Influenza
(3) Typhoid
(4) Haemophilia

26) Assertion : Sperm head contain acrosome.

Reason : Acrosome have no role in fertilisation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

27) Under ZIFT procedure, zygote or embryo with up to 8 blastomeres can be transferred in to :

(1) Uterus
(2) Placenta
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Cervix

28) Statement-I : Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever.
Statement-II : Bacteria like Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease pneumonia.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

29) A vector borne disease characterised by enlargement of spleen, jaundice and low haemoglobin
concentration. All these feature associated to RBC destruction by protozoa. This disease may be?

(1) Chikungunya
(2) Malaria
(3) Filariasis
(4) Dengue

30) Which is incorrect match from given columns-I and II ?

Column-I Column-II

1. Australopithecus 2-million years ago

2. Homo habilis First human being like

3. Homo erectus Probably ate meat

 Lived in east
4. Neanderthal man
African grassland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospore and aplanospores in members of phycomycetes
(2) All members of phycomycetes are obligate parasite on plants
(3) In Albugo mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(4) Some member of phycomycetes are aquatic

32) Identify the above diagram -

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Taxus
(4) Ginkgo

33) In liverworts sporophyte is diffrentiated into –

(1) Root, Leaves, Stem

(2) Root, Stem, Rhizoids
(3) Protonema, Capsule, Seta
(4) Foot, Seta, Capsule

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect about chrysophytes?

(1) Float actively in water currents

(2) They are immotile
(3) The walls are embedded with silica
(4) Chief producers in the oceans

35) Racemose type of inflorescence is identified by :

(1) Acropetal arrangements of flower on peduncle

(2) Presence of sessile flowers on peduncle
(3) Continuous growth of (Peduncle) main axis
(4) Both 1 and 3
36) Given diagrams A, B & C represents which type of vascular bundles, respectively ?

(1) Radial, conjoint collateral close, conjoint collateral open

(2) Conjoint collateral close, conjoint collateral open, radial
(3) Conjoint collateral close, conjoint collateral open, concentric
(4) Bicollateral, concentric, radial

37) Statement - I : In angiosperm zygote is final product of sexual reproduction.

Statement - II : Black pepper and beet have persistent nucellus which is called perisperm.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

38) The total number of ATP produced by one Acetyl Co–A ?

(1) 8 ATP
(2) 12 ATP
(3) 16 ATP
(4) 20 ATP

39) In Chloroplast, chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments are present in :-

(1) Granal thylakoids

(2) Stromal thylakoids
(3) Stroma
(4) Both 1 and 2

40) All of the following can be used during tissue culture experiment for callus differentiation along
with auxins, except -

(1) Yeast extract, Kinetin

(2) Coconut milk, old DNA
(3) Extract of Gibberella, Human urine
(4) Extract of vascular tissue, Yeast extract

41) Which of the following is incorrect about ABA :-

(1) It is also known as stress hormone

(2) It induces abscission and senescence of leaves
(3) It helps to open stomata during stress condition
(4) It is generally a plant growth inhibitor

42) Satatement-1 : Introduction of alien species is responsible for extinction of indigenous species.
Satatement-2 : Alien species have no natural predator.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

43) Which of the following is incorrect about a predator ?

(1) Predators help in maintaining species diversity.

(2) Predators keep prey populations under control.
(3) Predators act as conduits for energy transfer.
(4) Predators over-exploit their prey.

44) Observe the following table

The correct order of a, b, c, d would be :

(1) Commensalism, Parasitism, Predation, Mutualism

(2) Predation, Competition, Amensalism, Commensalism
(3) Amensalism, predation, commensalism, Parasitism
(4) Parasitism, Predation, Amensalism, Commensalism

45) How many statement are incorrect ?

(a) Cuscuta is a photosynthetic plant
(b) Galapagos island was inhabited by goats and goat were eliminated by Abingdon tortoise
(c) Calotropis weed produces cardiac glycoside for defence
(d) Clown fish is benefitted when living with sea anemone

(1) a, b
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, d

46) Assertion (A) : Lice on humans and ticks on dogs are ectoparasites.
Reason (R) : Ectoparasites feed on the external surface of the host organism.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

47) A pyramid with pre-reproductive individuals being more than reproductive individuals, the
population is said to be__a__with__b__age pyramid.

(1) (a) declining (b) urn shaped

(2) (a) expanding (b) triangular
(3) (a) stable (b) bell shaped
(4) (a) expanding (b) bell shaped

48) The values of r for Norway rat and flour beetles are respectively :-

(1) 0.015, 0.0205

(2) 0.12, 2.71828
(3) 0.015, 0.12
(4) 0.0205, 0.015

49) How many of the following are broadly utilitarian reasons for conserving biodiversity?
(a) Firewood
(b) Fibres
(c) Pollination
(d) Product of medicinal importance

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

50) Which of the following is wrong about hotspots?

(1) They occupy less than 2% area of earth

(2) They show high degree of endemism
(3) They are rich in biodiversity
(4) They represent ex-situ conservation

51) How many characters related to colour were studied by Mendel in garden pea plant?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52) A normal woman, whose father had colour blindness, married a normal man. What is the chance
of occurrence of colour blindness in the progeny?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 75%

53) The ratio in a dihybrid test cross between two individuals is given by :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

54) A complete heavy nitrogen containing [Link] is allowed to grow into a medium with normal
14
NH4Cl for 1 hr. Then-

(1) 50% progeny of [Link] show hybrid density of DNA molecules.

(2) 25% progeny of [Link] show hybrid density of DNA molecules.
(3) 6.25% progeny of [Link] show heavy density of DNA molecule
(4) 87.5% progeny of [Link] show heavy density of DNA molecule.

55) Match the column I with column II.

Column I Column II

(A) Curd production (I) LAB

Monascus
(B) Ethanol (II)
purpureus

Immunosuppressive
(C) (III) Yeast
Agent

(D) Statins (IV) Cyclosporin A

(1) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(2) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
(3) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

56) How many of the following are the example of chlorophyceae –

Chara, Fucus, Volvox, Ulothrix, Dictyota, Spirogyra.

(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

57) Which of the following is an incorrect match ?

(1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach
(2) Asymmetrical flower - Canna
(3) Hypogynous flower - Chilli, mustard
(4) Monoadelphous stamen - Pea, gram

58) Which of the following is not a common function of root ?

(1) Absorption of water and minerals from soil

(2) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant part
(3) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(4) Food formation

59) Assertion : In dicot stem, endodermis is also referred to as starch sheath.

Reason : In dicot stem the cell of endodermis are rich in starch grains.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60) In which of the following plant, both Autogamy and Geitonogamy are prevented ?

(1) Date palm

(2) Castor
(3) Coconut
(4) Maize

61) Find out the correct representation of the diagram :

(1) Link reaction

(2) Lactic acid fermentation
(3) Alcoholic fermentation
(4) Glycolysis

62) Match column–I and column–II to choose correct answer :

Column–I Column–II
A Invest of oxygen during aerobic respiration i Pathway taking place in cytoplasm
B Consumption of ATP ii In matrix of mitochondria
C α–Ketoglutaric acid iii F1 particle
D Oxidative phosphorylation iv ETS
(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(2) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
(3) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv

63) Select the correct statement :-

(1) Reducing power required for CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle comes from z-scheme only.
(2) The regeneration step involves phosphorylation of RuBP to form RuMP.
(3) Phosphoglycerate is the first sugar formed during C4-cycle.
(4) Carboxylation of RuBP requires ATP.

64) In a given food chain suppose the amount of energy at the fourth tropic level is 6 kJ, what will be
the energy at producer level?

(1) 0.5 kJ
(2) 60 kJ
(3) 600 kJ
(4) 6000 kJ

65) Find out correct statement about transcription :

(1) In transcription of DNA only one strand is copied into RNA.

In all eukaryotes single DNA polymerase is capable of catalysing all the three steps of
(2)
transcription, which are initiation, elongation and termination.
(3) In all prokaryotes transcription and translation take place in the different compartments.
(4) In all eukaryotes primary transcript contain exons only.

66) Cytoskeleton is made up of :-

(1) Proteinaceous filaments

(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils

67) Which pair is true ?

Structure Presence

(1) Cristae Chloroplast

(2) Cisternae Golgi body

(3) Grana Mitochondria

(4) Tubule Lysosome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
68) Which of the following is called as semi-autonomous cell organelle ?

(1) Ribosome
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Golgi body
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

69) In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 are represented by :-

(1) Nitrogen bases

(2) Fatty acids
(3) Nucleosides
(4) Lecithin

70) Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides?

(1) Glucose, fructose, lactose

(2) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(3) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose
(4) Galactose, starch, sucrose

71) Which of the following is not a technique of molecular diagnosis :-

(a) Serum analysis
(b) PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Urine analysis
(e) Recombinant DNA Technology

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) b, c, e
(3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d, e

72) The term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other
organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment is

(1) Bioprospecting
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Biofortification
(4) Bioinformatics

73) Statement-I : Toxicity testing in GM animals will allow us to obtain results in more time.
Statement-II : Transgenic mice can not be used to test the safety of the polio vaccine.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

74) What is the correct order of 3 steps of PCR ?

(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

(2) Extension, denaturation, Annealing
(3) Annealing, Extension, denaturation
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

75) Which of the following is not a cloning vector ?

(1) YAC
(2) pBR322
(3) Probe
(4) BAC

76) Choose the incorrect statement ?

(1) Phospholipid molecule is amphipathic in nature

(2) Head of Phospholipid is Hydrophobic
(3) Tail of Phospholipid is Hydrophobic
(4) Plasma membrane is quasi fluid in nature.

77) Phospholipid bilayer, Glycoprotein,

Glycolipid, integral protein cholesterol molecule.
Choose the correct regarding to A, B, C, D, E

A-Phospholipid bilayer, B-Glycoprotein,

(1)
E-Glycolipid
A-Glycoprotein, E-Cholesterol molecule,
(2)
D-Integral protein
A-Phospholipid bilayer, D-Glycoprotein,
(3)
E-Cholesterol molecule
 A-Cholesterol molecule, C-integral protein,
(4)
E-Glycolipid

78) How many of the following statements [A-D] are correct :-

(A) Tyrosine & Valine are neutral amino acids
(B) Lysine & Arginine are basic amino acids
(C) Alanine is basic amino acid
(D) Tryptophan is the simplest amino acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) In gel-electrophoresis, all the DNA fragment move towards the base of the gel with variable
velocities because :-

(1) DNA is positively charged

(2) DNA is negatively charged
(3) DNA fragments have different molecular weights
(4) Both 2 and 3

80) How many species are present in the following group of organisms ?
Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, Panthera leo, Panthera pardus, Solanum nigrum.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Ten
(4) Three

81) In below representation of trophic levels in an ecosystem (a), (b) & (c) are respectively-

(1) (a) – Primary consumer (b) – Second trophic level (c) – Birds
(2) (a) – Secondary producer (b) – First trophic level (c) – Cow
(3) (a) – Primary consumer (b) – Third trophic level (c) – Lion
(4) (a) – Primary consumer (b) – First trophic level (c) – Lion

82)

Select the option which includes all the correct ones only :-
(A) Diatoms → Chief consumer of ocean
(B) Dinoflagellate → bioluminescence
(C) Slime mould → Decomposer nature
(D) Euglenoids → Sometime behave like predator

(E) Protozoa → unicellular prokaryotes

(1) pair A, B and C
(2) pair A, B, C and D
(3) pair B, C, D and E
(4) pair B, C and D

83) What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II Product if meiocyte contain 30pg DNA in G1 phase
:

(1) 30 pg
(2) 60 pg
(3) 15 pg
(4) 120 pg

84) Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of

(1) Pachytene
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diakinesis

85) What is not true about cell cycle.

a. During G1 phase their is active synthesis of RNA and proteins but no change in its DNA content.
b. In synthesis or S phase, each chromosome duplicates set of genes.
c. During G2 phase, a cell contains double the amount (4C) of DNA present in the original diploid cell
(2C)
d. In S-phase a cell doubles the original diploid (2n) chromosome number.

(1) c and d
(2) b and c
(3) d only
(4) b, c and d

86)

Column-I Column-II

I. Primers A. PCR

Separation and purification of

II. B. C2H5OH
products

Uptake of foreign DNA by

III. Precipitation of DNA C.
bacterium

IV. Transformation D. Down stream pro-cessing

(1) I - A, II - D, III - B, IV - C
(2) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(3) I - B, II - A, III - C, IV - D
(4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

87) Match the column A with column B and select the correct option from given below :

Column A Column B

a Auxins i Antagonist of GAs

b Gibberellines ii Overcome apical dominance

c Cytokinins iii Speed up malting process in brewing industry

d ABA iv Promote flowering in pineapple

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

88) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Polymorphism can range from single nucleotide change to very large scale changes.
(b) DNA fingerprinting cannot be used in determining population and genetic diversities.
(c) Size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20kb.
(d) DNA polymorphism play important role in evolution & speciation.
(e) Satellite DNA codes for many proteins.

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, c and e
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, d and e

89) Identify the correct statements -

(A) Some essential life processes such as metabolism, translation, splicing etc. evolved around RNA.
(B) RNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes
(C) RNA being a catalyst was reactive and more stable.
(D) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable.

(1) A & B only

(2) A & D only
(3) B, C & D only
(4) A, B, C, D all

90)

(i) Stamen is equivalent to a whereas carpel is equivalent to b .

(ii) Pollen grain represents d whereas embryo sac represents c :-
 (a) megasporophyll (b) microsporophyll
(1)
(c) female gametophyte (d) male gametophyte
(a) microsporophyll (b) megasporophyll
(2)
(c) male gametophyte (d) female gametophyte
(a) megasporophyll (b) microsporophyll
(3)
(c) male gamete (d) female gamete
(a) microsporophyll (b) megasporophyll
(4)
(c) female gametophyte (d) male gametophyte
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 3 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 4 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) F = A sin C t + B cos Dx
[Ct] = 1 ⇒ [C] = [T–1]
[A] = [F], [B] = [F] and [D]= [L–1]

⇒ and

2) Explain question : A particle is projected upward the velocity time graph will be-
Concept : This question is based on graphs in kinematics.
Solution :

Final Answer : 1

3) AV = constant If A ↓ then speed ↑ and pressure ↓

4) At constant volume

5)

Here P3 > P1 and w < 0

6) (K.E)max = KA2 = (6 × 105) (16 × 10–4)

 ⇒ (K.E.)max = 480 J
T.E. = (K.E)max + (P.E)min
⇒ 600 = 480 + PEmin
⇒ (PE)min = 120J
⇒ (P.E.)max = 600 J when K.E. = 0

7)

s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4

Velocity, v =
= 3t2 – 12t + 3 m/s …(i)

Acceleration, a = =3×2t–12×1+0 = 6t–12 m/s2

Acceleration is zero at time t given by 6t – 12 = 0
⇒ t = 2 seconds
So, velocity v at t = 2 seconds is,
v = (3t2 – 12t + 3)t = 2s
= 3 × (2)2 – 12 × 2 + 3 = –9 m/s

8)

In head on elastic collision, if masses are equal than velocities of particles will be inter
changed with each other.
,
so, ,

9)

10)

U = 2E0

11) W = T × 2ΔA ⇒ T=

=
= 3.3 × 10–2 N/m

12)

13) Reading = MSR + (VSR × LC) – ZE

= 6 mm + (5 × 0.1)mm – (–0.3 mm)
= 6.8 mm

14)
Now divide 1 second into 1, 1, 2 equal divisions

By eliminating common time instants, total maxima in one second is 2.

So, two beats per second will be heard.

15)

∵
acp = aT
ω2r = 9

⇒
∵ ω = ω0 + αt

ω=

⇒t= sec.

16)
17) Newton's law of cooling

...(i)

...(ii)

By solving (i) and (ii)

18) In a rotating body, kinetic energy (K) = and angular momentum (J) = Iω

Hence K =
If I↑ K↓
∴ KA < KB

19)

E=

=
= 128 J

20)
TA = TC sin45° ...(1)
TB = TC cos45° ...(2)
by eq (1) & (2)
TB = TA = 100g N

21)

mg sinθ = T + f
here
fi = μ mg cos θ
 fi = 0.8 × 1 × 10 ×
fi = = 4 × 1.732
fi = 6.928 N
mg sinθ = 1 × 10 × sin 30° = 5 N
⇒ Required friction f = mg sinθ = 5 N
hence, T = 0

22)

23)

24) i/p → opposite polarity

o/p → same polarity

25)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

26)
v → same

So

27)

v0 = 25 cm
L = v0 + fe = 25 + 2 = 27 cm

28)

As

or
So, ⇒
⇒ 2x + 3 – 4 = 0
⇒

29) Electric & magnetic field vectors are perpendicular to each other so option (4) is false.

30) at t = 0

finally

31) ∵ Z2=A2 + B2
∴[Z]=[A]=[B]
∴[AB]=[Z]2=[ohm]2
Now,

= ML2T–3A–2
∴[AB]=[M2L4T–6A–4]

32) ....(1)
 ....(2)
From (1) & (2)

λ0 = 16 λ

33)
= (2 × 2) + 3 = 7%

34) B at centre due to one side

B1 = (sin 45° + sin 45°)

=
B at centre due to all 4 side

BC = 4B1 =

due to 'n' turns ; BC =

35)

XL = XC ⇒ VLC = 0

(A) =
(V) = V = 100V

36)

Energy is conserved only redistribution take place.

37)

∵u=0
v = u + at

v=0+

K.E. =
=

38)

I × 500 = 12 – 2 = 10 V
I = 20 mA

IR = 2 ⇒ R = = 100 Ω

39) Momentum of the recoiled hydrogen atom

= momentum of the emitted photon

= 6.6 × 10–34 × 1.09 × 107

= 6.8 × 10–27 kg-ms–1

40) Question explanation:

The question asks which nucleus has a radius equal to half of the radius of Zn64.

Concept: Nuclear radius.

Formula: Nuclear radius is .

Solution:
Let the radius of Zn64 be R1 and required nuclear radius be R2.

The nucleus with mass number 8 is Be8.

Final answer: Option (4)

41) Let original charge be Q0

then

⇒
 42)

j= and i = ⇒j=

using R = j= (or as J = σ E)

using values j = 20 × 106 A/m2

43)

44) voltage drop at 1 kΩ = 20 –12 = 8V

∴ current through 1kΩ = = 8mA

and current through 2kΩ =

∴ Iz = 8 – 6 = 2 mA

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) 15P - 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3

n = 3, ℓ = 1
m = –1 or + 1 or 0
s = –1/2 or + 1/2

47)

(A) A process carried out infinitesimally small - reversible process

(B) for a process no heat exchange takes place - adiabatic process
(C) A process carried out at constant temp. - isothermal process
(D) for a process at equilibrium - ΔG = 0
(E) Conversion of solid directly into gas - sublimation
(F) cyclic process : same initial and final state no change in value of state function

48)
AgNO3 + KCl → ppt of AgCl
KOH + HCl → Acid Base reaction
NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl (Non-redox)

49) ΔTb = iKb ⋅ m

ΔTb = 3 × 0.52 × = 0.156

50)

51)
= 500 mmol = 0.5 mol.
N2 + 3H2 2NH3
t=0 1 3 –
eq. (1 – x) (3 – 3x) 2x = 0.5
⇒ x = 0.25
∴ = 1 – 0.25 = 0.75
= 3 –3 (0.25) = 2.25

Kc =

52) for 1 mol of each reacted, ΔHneu. (magnitude) = 57.1 kJ

∴ for 0.3 mol of each reacted, ΔH = 57.1 × 0.3 = 17.13 kJ

53)

54)

55)

56)
57)

58)

59) Resonance with complete octet

60)

61)

Both assertion and reason are correct and correctly explain.

62)

Ethyl alcohol, alkan -2-ol, aldehyde & ketone having –COCH3 group gives haloform reaction.

63) k = Ae–Ea/RT(e–Ea/RT is unitless)

∴ unit of A is same as k.

64) NCERT-XII Pg.#172

65)

66)

67)

68) Ga+ is more stable than Al+ due to inert pair effect.

69) NCERT-XII, Pg.316

70)

71)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#330, 331, 332

72)
2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitro benzene

73)

74) Molecular mass of BaSO4

= 137 + 32 + 64 = 233gm
233 gm BaSO4 contains 32 gm sulphur
0.4813 gm BaSO4 contains

= gm sulphur

% of sulphur =

75) NCERT-XII, part-1, Pg.#2

76) NCERT-XII, Pg.#262

77)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#390, 391

78) NCERT-XII, Pg.#392 (table-10.4)

79) NCERT-XII, Pg.#335, 362, 386, 393

80)
2 mol 1 mol
Mass 2 × 17 1 × 44
34 g 44 g

Ratio =

81)

Question Explanation
We need the de Broglie wavelength of a sand grain (1 mg) moving with velocity 20 m s⁻¹.

Concept
de Broglie relation: λ = h / (mv).

SOLUTION

Given Data:
m = 1 mg = 1 × 10⁻⁶ kg
v = 20 m s⁻¹
h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s

λ = h / (mv)
= (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴) / (10⁻⁶ × 20)
= 3.3 × 10⁻²⁹ m

Final Answer - option 1.

82) log K = log A .....(1)

log k = (given) ...(2)

Compairing equ. (1) & (2)

Ea = 4.60 k cal mol–1

83)

84)
* Cyclic
* Planar
* Complete cyclic resonance of 4 πe–s
∴ It is Anti aromatic
85)

86)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the correct statement about carbonyl compound reactivity towards NAR.

Concept:- Reactivity towards NAR ∝ ⊕ve charge on carbonyl carbon .

Solution :- Reactivity of carbonyl compounds is influenced by steric hindrance and electronic
effects.
Less sterically hindered and more electrophilic carbonyl carbon is more reactive towards NAR,
Let analize the option:-
(1) Ketones are more reactive than aldehydes towards NAR = incorrect.
(2) Aldehyde are more reactive than kentones towards NAR ⇒ incorrect.
(3) Formoldehyde is the least reactive carbonyl compound towards NAR ⇒ incorrect.
(4) Steric hindrance does not play a role to effect the reactivity of carbonyl compounds
towards NAR ⇒ incorrect.
Therefore option (2) statement is correct.
Final Answer :- Option (2)

87)
Electrophile Br⊕ attack according to +M because it activates benzene ring.

88)
Salt hydrolysis :

due to OH–(aq) pH will be greater than 7

89)

Explaining the Question :- In the given ozonolysis reaction results into formation of only
one type of product.
 Concept:- This question is based on Reductive ozonolysis.

Solution :-

Final Answer :- 2

90) =

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 49

92)

93)

94)

95) NCERT XI, [Link]. 58-59

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 280-281

97)

98)

99)

100)

101)

102)

103)

104)

105)

106)

107)
 108)

109)

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 46, para–3(E),

Pg. # 49,50, para–5,1(H)

111) NCERT XII Pg # 151

Correct reason → Viral infected cells secrete glycoprotein called interferon.
िवषाणु सं िमत कोिशकाय लाइकोोटीन कहते है , ावण करती है ।

112) NCERT Pg. # 138

113) NCERT Pg # 43
Assertion (A) describes only list of mole accessory ducts and reason (R) describes only
structural arrangement of epididymis and vasa-deferens but it is not explain why they are
called male accessory ducts.
कथन (A) म केवल नर जनन सहायक निलकाओं की सूिच िद गई है । तथा कारण (R) केवल एिपडीडाइिमस एवं वसा
डे फर स के सं रचनामक यवथा को विणत करता है ले िकन इनको नर जनन सहायक निलकाय कहा जाये इसकी
याया नहीं करता है ।

114)

115)

116) NCERT Pg # 48
Acrosome has imp. role in fertilization as it contains spermlysins so reason is false.

117)

118)
119)

120) NCERT XII, Page # 140-141

121) NCERT XIth, Page : 23, Para-2.3.1

122) NCERT, Pg.# 39

123) NCERT XI, Pg # 35

124) NCERT XI

125) NCERT Pg. No.72

126) NCERT Pg. 90

127) NCERT-XII Pg. # 36

128) NCERT XI [Link].232

129) NCERT XI Pg # 209, Fig. 13.2

130) NCERT Pg.#248, Para-II

131) NCERT Pg.#250, Para-V

132)

NCERT XII Pg.265

133) NCERT, Pg. No. 233 (E), 255, 256(H)

134)

NCERT XII Pg. 232

135)

NCERT XII Pg # 234, 235

136) NCERT XII, Pg. # 236
Lice on humans & ticks on dogs are feed on body surfaces of their hosts.
So that they are ectoparasites.

137)

NCERT XII Pg. # 227

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 230

139)

NCERT XII Pg. # 265

140)

NCERT XII Pg # 266

141)

NCERT XII [Link].71

142)

NCERT XII Pg. # 88

143)

NCERT XII Pg. # 74, 75

144)

NCERT XII Pg # 105

145)

NCERT XII Pg. # 181,182,183

146) NCERT XI, Pg # 32, Para 3

147) NCERT Pg. No.72

148) NCERT-XI,Pg. # 66
149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 92
In dicot stem the innermost layer is endodermis, cells of which are rich in starch grains and
the layer is known as starch sheath.

150) NCERT-XII, 30-31

151) NCERT XI [Link].230

152) NCERT XI [Link].229 to 233

153)

NCERT XI Pg. # 216, 217, 219

154)

NCERT XII Pg. # 247

155)

NCERT XII Pg # 107, 108

156)

157)

158)

159) NCERT XI, pg.# 145

160)

161) NCERT-XII Pg. # 212 / 12.2.3

162)
163) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 211-212

164)

NCERT - 202

165) NCERT XII Pg # 199 & 119

166) Module-2, Pg#163

167)

168) NCERT Pg. # 144, 2rd para

169)

NCERT [Link].198

170) NCERT-XI Pg. # 9

171) NCERT-XII Pg. # 246

172) NCERT XI, Pg. # 20,21, para-5, 1, 2, 3

173)

174)

175) NCERT Pg # 163

176)
177)

XI NCERT Pg # 248, 249, 250

178) NCERT XII Pg.# 121,122

179) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104

180) NCERT XII Pg.#21,22,24,26