PHYSICS

1) In meter bridge two unknown resistances A and B are connected in left and right gaps
respectively. Null point is obtained when the bridge wire gets divided in ratio of 3 : 4. When both A
and B are increased by 30 Ω, the null point divides the wire in ratio 6 : 7. The values of resistance A
and B are respectively :

(1) 12Ω, 16Ω

(2) 30Ω, 40Ω
(3) 36Ω, 48Ω
(4) 45Ω, 60Ω

2) The given circuit represents the application of Zener diode as voltage regulator. The breakdown
voltage for Zener diode is 6V. If the battery voltage VB varies from 8V to 15V, the minimum and

maximum values of current through zener diode are respectively :

(1) 0.5 mA and 6 mA

(2) 1 mA and 6 mA
(3) 1.5 mA and 5 mA
(4) 0 mA and 6 mA

3) Two diodes D1 and D2 with barrier voltages 0.3V and 0.7V respectively are connected to a supply

of 15V peak AC along with two resistors : Match the terms in

list-I with their suitable options in list-II.

List-I List-II
A. Peak current in diode D1 (in mA) P. 12.9
Peak voltage across load RL when
B. Q. 14.7
D1 is forward biased (in volts)
Peak voltage across RL when D2 is
C. R. 1.47
forward biased (in volts)
Maximum potential drop across
D. S. 13.2
100 Ω resistor (in volts)
(1) A→S, B→Q, C→P, D→R
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(3) A→Q, B→S, C→P, D→R
(4) A→Q, B→S, C→R, D→P

4) In an experiment to determine the resistance of a galvanometer by method of half deflection, the

plot of vs the resistance R of a resistance box is shown in the figure. If the source emf is 2.5V,

the figure of merit of galvanometer is given by :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–1 A/div

(2) 3 × 10–1 A/div
(3) 4.5 × 10–1 A/div
(4) 6.25 × 10–1 A/div

5) In an experiment to determine focal length of a lens by parallax method, a student obtained the
graph between object position (u) and corresponding image position (v) w.r.t. lens as shown in

figure. The focal length of lens can be estimated as :

(1) 10cm ± 0.1cm

(2) 10cm ± 0.5cm
(3) 20cm ± 0.1cm
(4) 1.0cm ± 0.25cm

6) The given graph shows the variation of angle of deviation versus change in angle of incidence for
a triangular prism kept in air. The value of angle of incidence x is :
(1) 56°
(2) 60°
(3) 66°
(4) 72°

7) In physics lab, a student is provided with four unlabelled components each exhibiting some
different current – voltage (I–V) characteristics. Match the I–V characteristic in column-I with
suitable component listed in column-II.

Column-I Column-II
A. Straight line passing through origin P. Capacitor
B. Non-linear curve with sharp knee at 0.7 V, conducts in one direction Q. LED
C. Non-linear curve with sharp knee at 1.8V, conducts in one direction with glow R. Diode
D. Does not conduct dc. But in a.c. current leads voltage by 90° S. Resistor
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
(4) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S

8) A dipole of 2 × 10–8 Cm is placed in a uniform electric field of 3 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque
on the dipole is :-

(1) 6 × 10–3 Nm
(2) 6 × 10–5 Nm
(3) 6 × 10–4 Nm
(4) 6 × 10–6 Nm

9) A metal sphere of radius R is given charge Q. Another uncharged metal sphere of radius 2R is
brought in contact with it. The ratio of final charges on them is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

10) A charge Q is divided into two parts and kept at a fixed distance r. The maximum possible force
between the two is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) An isolated sphere of radius R has a potential of 200 V at its surface. The potential at a point 2R
from centre is :-

(1) 200 V
(2) 100 V
(3) 50 V
(4) 400 V

12) A 10 Ω resistor is connected across a 10 V battery for 10 minutes. The heat produced is :-

(1) 60 J
(2) 600 J
(3) 6000 J
(4) 1000 J

13) If terminal voltage of cell A is 0, the R is equal to :-

(1) 2r2 – r1
(2) 2r1 – r2
(3) r2 – r1
(4) r1 – r2

14) The value of resistance R, for which power in it is maximum, is :-

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 4/3 Ω
(4) 22 Ω

15) The reading of ammeter is :-

(1)
A

(2)
A
(3) 1 A
(4) 0

16) Which of the following graph is correct for semiconductors ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) A spherical capacitor with outer shell earthed has inner radius R and outer radius 2R. Its
capacitance is :-

(1) 4πε0R
(2) 2πε0R
(3) 8πε0R
(4) 6πε0R

18)
Potential of point A is :-

(1)

(2) 4V

(3)

(4) 2 V

19) A closely wound flat circular coil of 25 turns of wire has diameter of 10 cm and carries a current
of 4 ampere. Determine the flux density at the centre of a coil :-

(1) 1.679 × 10–5 tesla

(2) 2.028 × 10–4 tesla
(3) 1.257 × 10–3 tesla
(4) 1.512 × 10–6 tesla

20) If a particle of charge 10–12 coulomb, moving along the -direction with a velocity 105m/s,
experiences a force of 10–10 newton in - direction due to magnetic field, then the minimum magnetic
field is :-

(1) 6.25 ×103 tesla in negative -direction

(2) 10–15 tesla in -direction
(3) 6.25 ×10–3 tesla in -direction
(4) 10–3 tesla in negative -direction

21) A current i is flowing in a straight conductor of length L. The magnetic induction at a point

distant (Perpendicular to length) from its centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

22) A long magnet is cut in two parts in such a way that the ratio of their lengths is 2 : 1. The pole
strengths of both the section will be :-

(1) In the ratio of 1 : 1

(2) In the ratio of 2 : 1
(3) In the ratio of 1 : 2
(4) In the ratio of 4 : 1

23) For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external magnetic field, it should be :-

(1) Placed inside an aluminium box

(2) Placed inside an iron box
(3) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(4) Surrounded with fine copper sheet

24) A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform magnetic induction B parallel to the axis

of the cylinder. If = constant, the graph, showing the variation of induced electric field with

distance r from the axis of cylinder, is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A closed coil of copper, whose area is 1 m × 1 m, is free to rotate about an axis. The plane of coil
is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.10 Wb/m2. It is rotated through 180° in 0.01 s. The
average induced emf and average induced current in the coil will, respectively, be (The resistance of
the coil is 2.0 Ω)

(1) 20 V, 1 A
(2) 10 V, 10 A
(3) 20 V, 10 A
(4) 5 V, 5 A

26) Find out time constant of the given LR-circuit :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) In an AC circuit, V and I are given by :

V=150sin (150t) V and

I=150 sin A.
The power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) Zero
(2) 5625W
(3) 150W
(4) 106W

28) The value of L, C and R for a series circuit are 1H, 9F and 3Ω. What is the quality factor for the
circuit at resonance?

(1) 1
(2) 9

(3)

(4)

29) In series RLC, resonance frequency is 12 KHz. If R = 5Ω and XL at resonance is 300Ω, The half
power frequencies will be :–

(1) 11900 Hz, 12100 Hz

(2) 9000 Hz, 10000 Hz
(3) 200 Hz, 210 Hz
(4) None of the above

30) A single slit of width 0.20 mm is illuminated with light of wavelength [Link] observing
screen is placed 80 cm from the [Link] width of the central bright fringe will be

(1) 1mm
(2) 2mm
(3) 4mm
(4) 5mm

31) Incident unpolarised light has amplitude A and angle between axis of analyser and polariser is
60°. What will be the amplitude of light coming out finally from polariser?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) An EM wave propagating in +x-direction has a wavelength of 8 mm. The electric field vibrating
in +y-direction has maximum magnitude of 60 Vm–1. Choose the correct equations for electric and
magnetic fields if the EM wave is propagating in vacuum :
(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,

33) A point source of power 15W is placed at a certain point in the space. The amplitude of magnetic
field at a distance of 2 meter from source is

(1) 5 × 10–8 T
(2) 6 × 10–8 T
(3) 10 × 10–8 T
(4) 1 × 10–8 T

34) If a thin prism of glass is dipped in water, then minimum deviation of light produced by prism in
comparision to air, will become :-

(1)
times

(2)
times
(3) 2 times

(4)
times

35) The focal length of a convex mirror is 30 cm. Its radius of curvature will be

(1) 30 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 120 cm

36) The velocity of light in a medium is half its velocity in air. Find critical angle for this medium-air
combination.

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 15°

37) Read following statements carefully and select correct answer –

(a) Kinetic energies of emitted photo electrons are not equal even when monochromatic light is
used.
(b) Electrons are in different energy levels in a metal.
(c) Work function is related with threshold frequency.
(d) Time interval between incident of photon and emission of electron is 10–9 s or less.

(1) Only a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) All of the above

38) Light of wavelength 500 nm incident on photocathode in photoelectric effect experiment whose
work function is 1.2 eV. If anode is kept at 4 volt, find kinetic energy of fastest and slowest electrons
reaching anode.

(1) 6.28 eV and 3 eV

(2) 5.28 eV and 4 eV
(3) 3.52 eV and 4 eV
(4) 1.42 eV and 0.5 eV

39) Assertion (A) : A single experiment related to nature of light can explain both wave and
quantum nature of light.
Reason (R) : In single experiment, only one nature of light can be described.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct.

40) A planet P is revolving around sun in an elliptical orbit. Let its speeds at perihelion and
apehelion are vP and vA and its de-Broglie wavelengths at these positions are λP and λA respectively,
then

(1) λP > λA
(2) λP < λA
(3) λP = λA
(4) Data insufficient

41) If m is the mass of electron, v its velocity, r is the radius of circular orbit around a nucleus with
charge Ze; then from Bohr's second postulate, the radius of the quantised orbit in CGS system is
given by -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.
Assertion (A) :- According to classical theory the proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom
model will be parabolic.
Reason (R) :- According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated charged particle continuously
emits radiation.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

43) A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 volt is connected to a diode and resistor R in the circuit
shown so that half wave rectification occurs. If the forward resistance of the diode is negligible
compared to R, then rms voltage (in volt) across R is approximately -

(1) 200
(2) 100

(3)

(4) 280

44) The I-V characteristic of a LED is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and output C. The voltage
waveforms of A, B and C are as shown in second figure below. The logic gate is :

(1) OR gate
(2) NAND gate
(3) AND gate
(4) NOR gate

CHEMISTRY

1) Match the column :-

Complex name Property

(P) Ziese's salt (I) Obeys sidgwick EAN rule

(Q) Sodium Nitroprusside (II) Heteroleptic complex

Oxidation state of central metal

(R) Prussian Blue (III)
ion is +2

Example of π bonded
(S) Brown ring test complex (IV)
organometallic compound
(1) P → II, III, IV, Q → I, III, R → I, III, S → II
(2) P → II, III, Q → I, III, R → I, III, S → II, III
(3) P → I, IV, Q → II, R → II, III, IV, S → I, III
(4) P → II, III, IV, Q → I, II, III, R → I, III, S → II

2) How many of the following species are diamagnetic in nature.

[Ni(PPh3)4], [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4, Cr(gly)3, [Co(en)3]Cl3, [Fe(CO)5],
[Ni(NH3)6]Cl2, [Cr(NH3)6]Cl2

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 4

3) Assertion : Basicity of phosphonic acid and pyrophosphorous acid are equal.

Reason: Both the compound having similar number of OH group.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

4) Which of the following gives yellow, white, Blue and Red colour respectively during confirmation
test of basic radical?

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) IV, I, II, III

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) II, III, I, IV
(4) IV, III, I, II

5) Choose incorrect option:-

(1) SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2 Reducing property

(2) NF3 > NCl3 > NBr3 Stability
(3) GeO2 > SnO2 > PbO2 Oxidising Power
(4) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 pKa value

6) Which of the following is an correct order of λabsorb of the following complexes?

I. [Co(EDTA]– II. [Co (dien)2]+3 III. [Co(en)3]+3

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

7) Choose correct statement about the property of inert gasses.

(I) They are colourless, odourless and tasteless
(II) They are sparingly soluble in water.
(III) Helium has the lowest boiling point among of any known substance.
(IV) Helium show's maximum diffusing property.
(V) Their atmospheric abundance in dry air is ~1% by volume of which xenon is major constituent.

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) II, III, V
(4) I, III, V

8) Which of the following is not a green colour compound?

(1) FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4, 6H2O

(2) K2SO4 Al2(SO4)3. 24H2O
(3) NiCl2 (Aqueous)
(4) Cr(OH)3

9) Which of the following pair of species show's geometrical as well as optical isomerism?

+
(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3 & [Co(en)2Cl2]
(2) [Zn (NH3)2Cl2] & [Pt (NH3)2Cl2Br2]
–
(3) [Cr(gly)3] & [Fe(gly) (NH3)2Cl2]
(4) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] & [Pt(NH3) (Py) (Cl) (Br) (I) (OH)]

10) Mixture of salt gives following reactions

It confirm the presence of

(1) Pb+2
(2)
(3) Ag+
(4) None of these

11) The nature of Nitric oxide and Nitrogen sesquioxide are respectively?

(1) Acidic & Acidic

(2) Amphoteric & Acidic
(3) Neutral & Acidic
(4) Neutral & Neutral
12) Which of the following contain peroxy linkage?

(1) H2S2O8
(2) H2S2O5
(3) H2S2O7
(4) H2S4O6

13) In which of the following conversion central atom doesn't change its oxidation state?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) The Lake test confirmed the presence of

(1) Al+3
(2) Fe+3
(3) Ba+2
(4) Cu+2

15) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a) K2MnO4 & KMnO4 coloured due to d–d transition
(b) In a basic medium V2O4 forms VO2+
(c) Generally transition element forms alloy due to their comparable size.
(d) In a 3d series Fe, Mn, Co can form's mixed oxide.

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) c, d
(4) a, b

16) For two first order reactions having same concentration of A and B at t = 0, use the data given
below to calculate the temperature at which both reaction occurs with same rate :-
Reaction-I A → Z, K1 = 1016e(–3000/T)
Reaction-II B → Y, K2 = 1015e(–2000/T)

(1) 434.22 K
(2) 1446 K
(3) 727.1 K
(4) 981.22 K

17) Which of the following is incorrect for an ideal solution ?

(1) ΔHmix = 0
(2) ΔVmix = 0
(3) ΔSmix = 0
o
(4) PA = P A XA

18) What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.2 M K4[Fe(CN)6] at 27°C ?

(1) 24.6 atm

(2) 49.2 atm
(3) 4.92 atm
(4) 2 atm

19) The equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution for sodium chloride, HCl and sodium acetate
2 –1
in water at 298 K are 128.0, 425.0 and 91.0 Scm eq respectively. A solution of acetic acid shows an
equivalent conductivity of 38.8 Scm2 eq–1. What is the percent dissociation of acetic acid.

(1) 5.0
(2) 10.0
(3) 20.0
(4) 30.0

20) Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction :

A2 + B2 → 2AB is given below
(i) A2 ⇌ A + A (Fast)
(ii) A + B2 → AB + B (Slow)
(iii) A + B → AB (Fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be :

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

21) A first order reaction has a rate constant of 4.62 × 10–3 s–1. The time required for 0.4 g of this
reactant to reduce to 0.1 g will be :

(1) 230.3 s
(2) 200 s
(3) 300 s
(4) 23.03 s

22) Assertion (A) : In a reversible endothermic reaction, activation energy of the forward reaction
is higher than that of the backward reaction.
Reason (R) : In a reversible endothermic reaction threshold energy of the forward reaction is more
than that of the backward reaction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

23) The following data is given for reaction between A and B :-

[A] [B] Rate

S. No.
mol. L–1 mol. L–1 mol. L–1 s–1

I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–6

II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–6

III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–6

Which of the following are correct conclusions from above data ?

(a) Rate constant of the reaction is 10–2 s–1
(b) Rate law of the reaction is, r = k[A] [B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases nine times when the concentration of both the reactant are tripled.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c only

24) If degree of dissociation of CH3COOH in its aqueous solution is 0.1 and for NaCl, HCl and
2 –1
CH3COONa are 125, 425 and 90 S cm mol respectively, then conductivity of 0.001 M CH3COOH
aqueous solution is -

(1) 3.9 × 10–5 S cm–1

(2) 1.5 × 10–5 S cm–1
(3) 8.2 × 10–5 S cm–1
(4) 6.7 × 10–5 S cm–1

25) The plot of lnk vs for the following reaction

2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) gives a straight line with the slope of line equal to –3.0 × 10–5 K. Activation
energy for the reaction in J mol–1 is -
(R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1)

(1) 1.7 × 10–4

(2) 8.6 × 10–4
(3) 4.1 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–4

26) At a certain temperature, 45 g of glucose present in 1 litre of its solution, has an osmotic
pressure of 5 atm. If the osmotic pressure of the other solution is 2 atm at the same temperature,
what would be its concentration ?
(1) 0.2 mol/litre
(2) 0.1 mol/litre
(3) 0.28 mol/litre
(4) 0.5 mol/litre

27) 5g of an unknown solute is dissolved in 295 g solvent. If molarity and density of solution are 0.05
M and 1.5 g/cc respectively. The molecular weight of unknown solute is :

(1) 375
(2) 425
(3) 400
(4) 500

28) The emf of cell

Pt | H2(P1) | H+(aq)(1M) || H+(aq)(1M) | H2(P2) | Pt,
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Assertion : In galvanic cell, chemical energy is converted into electrical work by spontaneous
redox reaction.
Reason : In galvanic cell, electrons flow from cathode to anode in external circuit.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

30) Correct matching of column I with column II is :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Lead storage battery (a) gives steady potential

(ii) Mercury cell (b) Pb is anode, PbO2 is cathode

Cell reaction :
(iii) Fuel cell (c)
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(ℓ)
(1) (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b)
(3) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c)
(4) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a)

31) Which can give haloform with X2/OH– ?

(1) CH3OH
(2) CH3CH2CH=O
(3) CH3CHO
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH

32)

Compare the rate of SN1 reaction

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II

33) Which of the following compound when reacts with CH3MgBr form 3° alcohol?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Which one among the following is expected to form a secondary alcohol on treatment with HNO2
?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Arrange the following in order of their reactivity when reacting with HCl/ZnCl2:-

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) III > II > I > IV

36)
The product "A" is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37)
Product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Product A & B respectively :-

(1)
,

(2)
,

(3)
,

(4)
,
39) D(+) Glucose react hydroxylamine (NH2OH) to give oxime. Structure of oxime is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) [A] ? A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
41) ,
Product C will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toluidine forms :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following amines from N–nitroso derivative when treated with NaNO2 and HCl ?

(1) CH3NH2

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) relation between A and B is :-

(1) Position Isomers

(2) Homologues
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Identical

45) Match list I with II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:-

List-I List-II
(Compound) (Aplication)

(A) Aniline (a) Used in Making azo dyes

(B) Nitrobenzene (b) Sulpha Drug

Solvent in the friedal crafts

(C) Sulphanilamide (c)
reactions

(D) Trinitrotoluene (d) Used as explosive

Code is:-
A B C D

(1) a c b d

(2) a b c d

(3) c d a b

(4) d c b a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

BIOLOGY

1) What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern

(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

2) Broad palm with characteristic palm crease is visible in a person suffering from :-

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(4) Thalassemia

3) Match the Column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A single trait controlled

(A) by three or more than (i) Pleiotropy
three allele

A single trait controlled

Multiple
(B) by three or more than (ii)
allele
three genes

A single gene exhibits

Polygenic
(C) multiple phenotypic (iii)
inheritance
expression
(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii

4) Who noted that behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to behaviour of genes and used
chromosomal movement to explain Mendel's laws ?

(1) Bateson
(2) Alfred Sturtevant
(3) T.H. Morgan
(4) Sutton and Boveri

5)

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters appear as such in F2 generation.
C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in F1 generation of a monohybrid
cross.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, C, D and E only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B, C, D and E

6) Linkage was described by Morgan in Drosophila :

(a) He hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and then
intercrossed their F1 progeny.
(b) The ratio of F2 generation is same as that of 9: 3: 3: 1 in this cross.
(c) The parental combinations are observed more than recombinants.
(d) According to Morgan linkage was observed due to chemical association of genes.
(e) All the genes present on same chromosomes have same efficiency to link.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (c)
(3) (a), (c), (e)
(4) (a), (d)

7) Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
II. Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombinations.
III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show 100% recombinations.

(1) I and II
(2) III and II
(3) I and III
(4) All of these

8)

Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. Down's syndrome I. 11th chromosome

B. α-Thalassemia II. 'X' chromosome

C. β-Thalassemia III. 21st chromosome

Klinefelter's
D. IV. 16th chromosome
syndrome
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

9) Given figure depicts.

(1) Syndrome due to aneuploidy of autosome
(2) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(3) Individual have 47 chromosomes
(4) All of these

10) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to sickle-cell anaemia ?

The mutant haemoglobin of sickle-cell anaemic individual undergo polymerisation under low
(1)
oxygen tension causing sickleing of RBCs.
Sickle-cell anaemia occur due to the single base substitution (GAG → GUG) at the sixth codon of
(2)
β-globin gene.
(3) Individuals heterozygous for sicke-cell anaemia (HbSHbA ) are resistant towards malaria.
(4) All of the above

11) A DNA sequence is given: 5'-ATG AAG TCG TAA-3' After mutation, one nucleotide "A" is added
after the first codon (ATG). What will be the result of this mutation?

(1) Only one amino acid will change

(2) No effect due to degeneracy of code
(3) Frameshift mutation leading to completely altered protein sequence
(4) Formation of identical protein

12) Which of following DNA strand required many RNA primer at the time of DNA replication :-

(1) Leading strand

(2) Lagging strand
(3) Both
(4) Continuous-strand

13) DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all of the following except :-

(1) t-RNA molecule

(2) Another DNA strand
(3) m-RNA molecule
(4) Protein

14) The packaging of chromatin in eukaryotes at higher level requires set of proteins that are
collectively referred to as :-

(1) Histones
(2) Polyamines
(3) Non-Histone Chromosomal protein
(4) Globins

15) The sequence of events mentioned below are symbolized by alphabets. Choose the correct
answer where the alphabets are matched with the processes:
RNA DNA DNA m-RNA Polypeptide

A-Replication, B-Transformation,
(1)
C-Transcription, D-Translation
A-Reverse transcription, B-Translation,
(2)
C-Transcription, D-Replication
A-Replication, B-Transcription,
(3)
C-Translation, D-Tranduction
A-Reverse transcription, B-Replication,
(4)
C-Transcription, D-Translation

16) Which statement about mini-satellites in DNA fingerprinting is incorrect?

(1) Mini-satellites consist of small DNA sequences arranged in tandem repeats.

The copy number of mini-satellites varies from chromosome to chromosome within an
(2)
individual.
(3) The size of mini-satellites is relatively consistent, typically around 10 kb.
Mini-satellites show a high degree of polymorphism, resulting in varying band patterns on
(4)
autoradiograms.

17) Main steps in DNA fingerprinting are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.
(A) Autoradiography
(B) Hybridisation
(C) Blotting
(D) Gel electrophoresis
(E) Isolation of DNA
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) E,C,B,A,D
(2) E,B,A,C,D
(3) E,D,B,C,A
(4) E,D,C,B,A

18) Read the following statements.

I. A purine is heterocyclic, 9-membered double ring structure with nitrogen at 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
positions.
II. A pyrimidine is heterocyclic, 6-membered single ring structure with nitrogen at 1st and 3rd
positions.
III. Purine nucleosides have 1′-9-glycosidic linkage whereas pyrimidine nucleosides have 1′-1-
glycosidic linkage.
IV. Two nucleosides are linked by 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.
V. Ribose sugar can be represented as C5H10O4 whereas deoxyribose sugar can be represented
as C5H10O5.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Only I
(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) III, IV and V
(4) IV and V

19) Identify the correct statements about Genetic codons.

A. AUG is initiator codon and codes for Glycine
B. UAA codes for Tyrosine
C. The codons are mostly universal
D. UAG is terminator codon
E. More than one codons code for single amino acid

(1) A, D, E
(2) C, D, E
(3) A, B, C
(4) C, B, D

20) Match the list I with list II and choose the correct answer from the option givens below.

List-I List-II

Aminoacyl tRNA
A Termination I
synthetase

B Translation II Okazaki fragments

GTP dependent
C Transcription III
release factor

D Replication IV RNA polymerase

(1) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(4) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

21) A polynucleotide chain is shown in the figure. Identify X and Y (types of bond)

X Y

1 Glycosidic bond Hydrogen bond

2 Glycosidic bond Ionic bond

3 Ionic bond Covalent bond

4 Hydrogen bond Glycosidic bond

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Sigmoid growth curve is represented by :-

(1) dN/dt = rN
(2) dN/dt = rN (K – N/K)
(3) Nt = No + [B + I – D – E]
(4) dN/dt = 1 – N/K

23) "Sexual deceit" is a term used in interspecific interaction some time. This term applies to which
of the following.

(1) Honey bee & Orchid

(2) Fig and Wasp
(3) Ophrys and Orchid flower
(4) Bumble bee and Ophrys orchid

24) Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct option given below :

List-I List-II
(Interactions) (Species)

(A) Mutualism (i) +0

(B) Commensalism (ii) –0

(C) Amensalism (iii) +–

(D) Parasitism (iv) ++

A B C D

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) iv ii i iii

(4) ii iii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Assertion (A) : Predators in nature are too efficient and over exploits its prey.
Reason (R) : Predators in nature are not prudent.
(1) Assertion & Reason both are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason both are false.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion & Reason both are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

26) Consider the following four statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones:-
(a) Sparrow eating any seed is not less than a predator.
(b) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator.
(c) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be phytophagous.
(d) Thorns are the most common morphological defence mechanism.
Option :-

(1) Statements- (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) Statements- (a), (b)
(3) Statements- (a), (b), (c)
(4) Statements- (b), (d)

27) More conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May place global species
diversity at about_____.

(1) 70 million
(2) 7 billion
(3) 7 lac
(4) 7 million

28) Find out the correct match from the following table :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

In situ Endemic
(i) Hot spot
conservation species

Ex situ Zoological Critically

(ii)
conservation park endangered

Direct
Narrowly
(iii) Pollination economic
utilitarian
benefit
(1) i & ii
(2) i only
(3) ii only
(4) ii & iii

29) Statement-I : National park, Wild life sanctuaries and Biosphere reserves are the example of
Ex-situ conservation.
Statement-II : Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for the products of economic
importance known as bioprospecting.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

30) Identify correct statements w.r.t biodiversity hotspots.

a. Initially 25 biodiversity hot spots were identified in the world.
b. Now number of biodiversity hotspots are 32.
c. India have 3 hot spots i.e. Eastern Ghat, Indo Burma and the Himalayas.
d. Hot spots are example of In situ conservation.
e. All the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2% of the earth's land area.
Choose option which includes incorrect statements only.

(1) a, d and e
(2) a, b, d and e
(3) a and e
(4) b and c

31) Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an ecosystem ?

(1) gm–2
(2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3
(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1

32) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 10 billion tons

(2) 170 billion tons
(3) 55 billion tons
(4) 1 billion tons

33) Assertion : The productivity of terrestrial ecosystem is more than aquatic ecosystem.
Reason : The number of producers are more in terrestrial ecosystem compare to aquatic ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

34) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles this process is called
fragmentation.
Statement-II :- Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Choose the correct answer from the option the option the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

35)

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because -

A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time
was available for species diversification.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.
E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, C, D and E only

(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A, B and D only

36) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Trophic level represent functional level not a species as such.

(2) A same species may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem at same time.
(3) In grass land ecosystem, all pyramids of number, of energy and biomass are upright.
(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as compared to lower levels as they are physically strong.

37) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Nucellar adventive embryony is found in citrus and mango

(2) In grass family, the radical enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called coleoptile
(3) Syngamy lead to formation of a primary endosperm cell
(4) All aquatic plants use water for pollination

38) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) Pollination by wind is the most common amongst abiotic pollinations.

(2) Wind Pollination also requires that the pollen grains are light and Non-sticky.
(3) Corn cob-the tassels you see are nothing but the stigma & style
(4) Insect - pollination is quite common in grasses.

39) Choose the correct match from following table :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Coleorhiza Shoot apex

Cotyledon in
(B) Scutellum
grass family
 Primary Endosperm
(C) Diploid
nucleus

(D) Pericarp Outer layer of anther

(1) B & C
(2) only C
(3) C, B & A
(4) only B

40) Identify the correct description about the given figure :

(1) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.
(2) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy
(4) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy.

41) How many of the following statements are true ?

(i) Residual, persistant nucellus is the perisperm.
(ii) 2000 years old viable seeds of date palm excavated from arctic tundra.
(iii) Central cell after triple fusion becomes primary endosperm cell.
(iv) Emasculation is not needed if the female parent produces unisexual flowers.
Options -

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

42) Which of the following structure is not present in germ pore?

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Pectocellulose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Protein

43) Pollen grains remain viable for months in-

(1) Rosaceae and Solanaceae

(2) Poaceae and Leguminosae
(3) Brassicaceae and Poaceae
(4) Brassicaceae and Solanaceae

44) The central cell after triple fusion becomes the

(1) Megaspore
(2) Zygote
(3) Primary endosperm cell
(4) Synergid

45) All of the following are advantage of seeds in plants except-

(1) Provide mechanism of pollination

(2) Protection to embryo
(3) Means of genetic variation
(4) Nourishment to embryo

46) Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in -

(1) Spectrophotometry
(2) Tissue culture
(3) PCR
(4) Gel electrophoresis

47) Which of the following is not a property of good cloning vector DNA :-

(1) Origin of replication (ori)

(2) It contain a selectable marker
(3) Single recognition site for commonly used restriction enzyme
(4) Many recognition sites for commonly used restriction enzyme

48) If recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme galactosidase, which of
the following will occur in case of non-recombinants:-

(1) Insertional inactivation

(2) Colonies do not produce any colour
(3) Chromogenic substrate gives blue colour
(4) Inactivation of enzyme galactosidase

49) Which of the following is a vector based method to transform plants?

(1) Retroviral
(2) Ti Plasmid
(3) Micro - injection
(4) Biolistic
50) Assertion : Each restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence.
Reason : Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

(a) PCR (i) Amplification of gene

(b) Bioreactor (ii) Large scale culture

(c) Gene gun (iii) Restriction endonuclease

Transfer DNA into plant

(d) EcoRI (iv)
cell.
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

52) Statement-1 : The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the
two antibiotic resistance gene.
Statement-2 : Selection of recombinants due to activation of antibiotics is a cumbersome
procedure because it requires simultaneous plating on two plates have different antibiotics.

(1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct.

53) Read the following statements :-

(a) Enzyme linked immunosorbent (ELISA) is based on the principle of antigen antibody interaction.
(b) ADA enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.
(c) In PCR multiple copies of the gene or DNA of interest is synthesised in vivo using two set of
primer.
(d) In polymerase chain reaction two sets of RNA primers is used.
(e) During PCR repeated amplification is achieved by the use of a thermostable DNA polymerase.
Choose the option with correct statements :-

(1) a, b & c
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) a, b & e
54) Virus-free plants can be obtained through :-

(1) Meristem culture

(2) Embryo culture
(3) Protoplast culture
(4) Anther culture

55) Read the given following statements :-

(a) Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains
(b) ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction
(c) cryIAB controls corn borer
(d) ADA enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function
(e) C peptide is present in the mature insulin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (b), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (e) only
(4) (a), (c) only

56) The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organization without proper
authorisation from countries and people concered with compensatory payment it is known as :-

(1) Biopiracy
(2) Biopatent
(3) Biowar
(4) Bioremediation

57) Assertion (A) : In 1997, an American Company got patent right on Basmati rice through the US
patent and trademark office.
Reason (R) : Basmati Rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented varieties
of Basmati are grown in India.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

58) Match the column I, II & III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A Golden rice P ADA deficiency I Cystic fibrosis

Study of Vitamin A
B Tobacco Q II
disease enriched

Enhanced
C Gene therapy R III RNA interference
nutritional value
 Genetically
Transgenic Meloideyne
D S IV engineered
animal incognita
lymphocytes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A - R - II, B - S - III, C - P - IV, D - Q - I
(2) A - Q - I, B - P - III, C - S - II, D - R - IV
(3) A - P - I, B - S - II, C - R - IV, D - Q - III
(4) A - S - IV, B - Q - I, C - R - II, D - P - III

59) Biological process is carried out in which type of water treatment :

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) None of above

60) Select the group of organisms that are used as biofertilisers in organic farming.

(1) Clostridium, Glomus and Anabaena

(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus and B. thuringiensis
(3) Nostoc, Azolla and Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) Penicillium, Streptococcus and Aspergillus

61) How many of the following bioactive chemicals are produced by certain type of unicellular fungi
?
Citric acid, Butyric acid, Statins, Cyclosporin-A, Streptokinase, Acetic acid, Ethanol

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

62) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity and which may be used as fuel.
The biogas plant consists of a concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) in which bio-wastes are collected
(2)
and a slurry of dung is fed.
(3) The biogas thus produced is used for cooking and lighting.
(4) All of the above

63) Assertion :- Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.

Reason :- The signals from fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine
contraction called foetal ejection reflex this trigger release of oxytocin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

64) The pathway of milk transport is given below.

Identify the option in which (a), (b) and (c) are given correctly :-

A B C

Mammary Mammary Lactiferous

(1)
ampulla tubules duct

Lactiferous Mammary Mammary

(2)
duct ampulla tubules

Mammary Mammary Lactiferous

(3)
tubules ampulla duct

Lactiferous Mammary Mammary

(4)
duct tubules ampulla
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option giving
correct identification together with site of occurrence ?

Developmental Site of
stage occurrence

Isthms part of
(1) (a) Fertilised egg
fallopian tube

Distal part of
(2) (b) Zygote
fallopian tube

Starting point of
(3) (c) Morula
fallopian tube

(4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Leydig
A a Ovary i Inhibin
cells
Sertoli Semini-ferous
B b ii Progesterone
cells tubule
Theca
C c Testis iii Androgens
interna
Corpus
D d Follicle iv Estrogen
luteum
A → d → i; B → c → iv;
(1)
C → b → iii; D → a → ii
A → c → iii; B → b → iv;
(2)
C → d → ii; D → a → i
A → b → i; B → c → iii;
(3)
C → a → iv; D → d → ii
A → c → iii; B → b → i;
(4)
C → d → iv; D → a → ii

67) Fertilization in human take place in:

(1) Uterus
(2) Ovary
(3) Ampulla of fallopian tube
(4) Infundibulum

68) A structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body called–

(1) Umbilical cord

(2) Allantosis
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Placenta

69) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into :

(1) Uterus
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Cervix

70) Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are production by

(1) Ovary
(2) Placenta
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Glands

71) Heart sound of the foetus can be felt through the stethoscope as early as the end of

(1) 1st month

(2) 3st month
(3) 5st month
(4) 4st month

72) Medical termination of pregnancy is considered safe up to:

(1) 12 week
(2) 30 week
(3) 40 week
(4) 27 week

73) Which one of the following part is cut and tied in tubectomy :

(1) Uterus
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Cervix
(4) Vagina

74) Late detection and improper treatment of STIs leads to:

(1) Pelvic inflammatory diseases

(2) Abortions, still birth, ectopic pregnancies
(3) Infertility or cancer of reproductive tract
(4) All of these

75) Statement-I :- Cu ions suppress sperms motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm.
Statement-II :- Hormone releasing IUDs in addition make the uterus suitable for implantation and
the cervix hostile to the sperm.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I correct and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

76) The figure given below shows mode of action of AIDS virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E
labelled in it.
 A-New viral DNA introduced into cell, B-Viral RNA produced, C-Viral DNA incorporated into
(1)
host genome, D-New viral DNA, E-New viruses produced
A-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome, B-Viral DNA, C-New viral RNA introduced, D-Viral
(2)
RNA produced, E-New viruses produced
A-Viral RNA introduced, B-Viral DNA,
(3) C-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome, D-New viral RNA produced, E-New viruses
produced
A-Viral DNA introduced, B-Viral RNA,
(4) C-Viral RNA incorporated into host genome, D-New viral DNA produced, E-New viruses
produced

77) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Atropa belladona and Datura shows hallucinogenic

(2) Cannabinoids act as degressant and slows sown body function.
(3) Cocaine is very effective sedative and painkiller
(4) Marphine is commonly called as smack.

78) Match the List-I and List-II.

List-I List-II

Secondary lymphoid
A Bone marrow i
organ

B Spleen ii A lobed organ

Primary lymphoid
C thymus iii
organ

D Acid in stomach iv Physiological barriea

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(4) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
79) Statement-I : Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and non-adrenaline into
blood circulation, both the which lower blood pressure and heart rate.
Statement-II : Smoking increases carbonmmoxide (CO) content in blood and reduce the
concentration of haembound oxygen.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

80) The process of spreading the cancerous cells to distant site is known as

(1) Hyperstasis
(2) Metastasis
(3) Parastasis
(4) Parasitesis

81) Antiserum is rich in:

(1) Steroids
(2) Antibodies
(3) Antigens
(4) RBC

82) X- rays are used in

(1) ECG
(2) EEG
(3) CT -Scan
(4) Endoscopy

83) Opioids are the drugs which bind to specific opioid receptors present in our CNS and GIT.
Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically....., which is white, odourless, bitter crystalline
compound, obtained by.......of morphine ?

(1) Diacetylmorphin, methylation

(2) Diacetylmorphin, acetylation
(3) Benzodiazepines, amination
(4) Amphetamines, acetylation

84) Which one of the following options gives correct categorization of examples and the two
successive Phenomenon given in the columns?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) In 1938 a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a Coelacanth which was thought to be
extinct. These animals called lobefins evolved into the first :-

(1) Amphibians
(2) Jawless fish
(3) Reptiles
(4) Birds

86) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Neanderthal man existed (i) 18,000 years ago,
(B) Agriculture started (ii) 1,00,000-40,000 years back
(C) Pre-historic cave art developed (iii) About 15 mya
(D) Dryopithecus existed (iv) 10,000 years back
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

87) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The rate of disappearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle.
(2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(3) Branching descent is the key concept of Lamarck.
(4) According to Darwin, evolution is driven by use and disuse of organs

88) The process by which new species arise from a single common ancestor is called :-

(1) Speciation
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Natural selection

89) Which type of selection is observed in moth (Biston betularia) during industrial melanism ?

(1) Stabilising
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Artificial

90) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

Excess use of herbicides, pesticides etc, has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a
(1)
much lesser time scale.
(2) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicators.
In stabilizing selection peak gets higher and narrower because more individual a carrier mean
(3)
character value.
(4) Unit of natural selection is population.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 3 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 4 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 1 3 4 4 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

In first case : ⇒ 4A = 3B …(i)

In second case ⇒
⇒ 7A – 6B = – 30 …(ii)
Solving both equation (i) & (ii)
A = 30Ω, B = 40Ω

2) For VB = 8V,

Voltage across zener =

So, zener breakdown will not occur. Hence IZ = 0
For VB = 15V ⇒ Zener breakdown occurs.

Hence, = 9mA – 3mA

= 6mA

3) , A→Q

= 14.7 mA × 900Ω = 13.2 V, B→S

, C→P
= 14.7 mA × 100Ω = 1.47V, D→R

4)

i = kθ ⇒

...(i)
Compare (i) with y = mx + C

Slope = = 6.25 × 10–1A/div

5) u = –20cm, v = 20cm;
Least division on graph = 1cm
 ⇒ f = 10 cm

⇒ Δf = ± 0.5 cm
Measured focal length = (10 ± 0.05) cm

6) δmin = 2i – A ⇒ A = 2i – δmin = 2 × 46° – 37° = 55°

Also, δ = i + e – A ⇒ 51° = 40° + x – 55°
⇒ x = 66°

7)

For resistance, Ohms law : V = RI, straight line through origin, A → S

For Si diode, knee-voltage = 0.7V conducts in one direction, B → R
For LED, knee-voltage/cut-in-voltage 1.8V and it conducts in forward bias with glow, C → Q
Capacitor conducts a.c with current leading voltage by 90°, D → P

8)

9) (same potential) ⇒

10) For max. force, charges must be and

11) ⇒ KQ = 200 R

(for r = 2R)

12) H =

13) E – i r1 = 0

⇒
⇒ R = r1 – r 2
14) Maximum power transfer theorem, R = r ⇒ R = 6 Ω

15) ⇒ and

⇒
OR

16)

Resistivity of semiconductors decreases with the in crease in temperature.

17)
= 8πε0R

18) By Nodal analysis,

[(VA –10) + (VA – 5 – 5) + (VA – 0)] = 0

3VA = 20 ⇒ VA =

19)
= 1.257 × 10–3 T

20)

For minimum magnetic field, θ = 90°

∴ Tesla
(in negative -direction)

21) By using
Also

22) Pole strength doesn’t depend upon the length.

23) Concept of magnetic screening/shielding

24) For r ≤ R : ;

For r > R :

25) Δϕ = BA (cos θ2 – cos θ1)

Here, θ1 = 0° and θ2 = 180°
∴ Δϕ = BA(cosθ2 – cosθ1)

∴ Induced emf =

The coil is closed and has a resistance of 2.0 Ω

Therefore, i = 20/2 = 10A

26)

R2 is in series with L and battery is connected across series combination of L and R2.

So,

27)

Power
= 0.5 × 150 × 150 × cos60°
28) Q =

Q=

29) bandwidth (BW) = =

f1 = fr – = 12000 – 100 = 11900 Ω

f2 = fr + = 12000 + 100 = 12100 Ω

30)
= 4 × 10–3 m = 4 mm

31)

32)
must be direction of propagation.
So,

33) I =

B =
= 5 × 10–8 T
34)

35) R = 2f
= 2 × 30 = 60 cm

36)

θC = 30°

37)

Free electrons are at different energy levels in metal, so KE of photoelectrons emitted are not
equal even if monochromatic light is incident on metal surface.
Work function (ϕ0) = hν0,
where, ν0 → Threshold frequency time interval between incident of photon and emission of
electron is 10–9 s or less in photelectric effect.

38)
Kmax = 1.28 eV and Kmin = 0
on reaching anode
K'max = (1.28 + 4) = 5.28 eV
K'min = (0 + 4) = 4 eV

39)

A single experiment with light exhibits only one nature of light, either particle nature or wave
nature.

40) vP > vA

∵
So, λP < λA

41) .....(i)

⇒ .....(ii)
 in CGS, K = 1
using (i) & (ii), we get

42)

The proposed path of e– in rutherford model of an atom is circular.

43)

For half wave rectifier Vo/p ⇒ Vrms =

Vrms = = 100 V

44)

LED is used in forward bias, so, characteristic of LED is same as p-n junction diode.

45)

A B C
0 0 0
1 1 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
0 0 0
1 1 1
0 0 0
This truth table shows the output (C) for given inputs A and B.
It is an AND gate.

CHEMISTRY

46) Ziese's salt → K [PtCl3 (C2H4)]

Sodium nitroprusside → Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO]
Prussians Blue → Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3
Brown ring test complex → [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4

47) [Ni(PPh3)4], [Co(en)3Cl3], [Fe(CO)5] Diamagnetic species

48)

49) I – White
II – Blue
III – Red
IV – Yellow

50) PbO2 > SnO2 > GeO2 Oxidising power order

51) Order of stability / Eabsorb

[Co(EDTA]– > [Co (dien)2]+3 > [Co(en)3]+3
No. of chelating 5 4 3

52)

Ar is major constituent in atmosphere.

53) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O Potash alum

colourless

54)

[Cr(gly)3] → show G.I. & O.I.

[Fe(gly)(NH3)2Cl2] → show G.I. & O.I.

55) PbCl2 (white) soluble in HOT water.

56) NO (Nitric oxide) = Neutral

N2O3 (Nitrogen sesquioxide) = Acidic

57)
58)

59)

Al(OH)3 adsorb blue colour from the solution & forms insoluble adsorption complex named
'Lake'.

60)

(1) K2MnO4 → Only show d-d transition.

(2) In basic medium V2O4 give .

61)

K1 = K2
1016
10 =

ℓn10 =

T= = 434.22 K

62)

For ideal solution ΔSmix > 0

63)

π = iCRT
π = 5 × 0.2 × 0.0821 × 300
= 24.6 atm

64)

α= = = 0.1
= 425 + 91 – 128 = 388
65)

r = K[A] [B2]
K1[A2] = K2[A]2

[A] =

r=
r = K′[A2]1/2[B2]
Order = 1.5

66)

t=
t = 300 sec.

67)

ET same for both

68)

From data r = K[A] [B]

K= = 10–2 L/mol sec

69)

a=

= 0.1 × 390 = 39 =

K= = 3.9 × 10–5

70)

ℓn K = ℓnA –

= –3 × 10–5
Ea = 3 × 8.3 × 10–5
= 2.5 × 10–4

71)

5= × RT

T=
2 = C × RT

2=C×R×

C= = 0.1 mol/L

72)

.05 = × 1000
MB = 500

73)

H2A → + 2e– =0
+ 2e– →

Ecell = 0 –

74)

Assertion is true & Reason is false

In galvanic cell electron flow from anode to cathode in external circuit.

75)

FACT

76)

Compounds having groups form haloform when heated with .

77)

[Rate of SN1 ∝ stability of C⊕]

78) NCERT Pg # 358

Explain question : Identify which of the given carbonyl compounds, when reacted with
CH3MgBr, will produce a tertiary alcohol?
Concept : This question is based on Nucleophilic addition reaction.
Addition of RMgX.
Solution :
When ketone reacted with Grignard reagent, it will product tertiary alcohol.

So ketone (acetone) gives tertiary alcohol on react with CH3MgBr.

Final answer : option 3

79)

80) Rate towards lucas reagent ∝ [Stability of C⊕]

3°C⊕ > 2°C⊕ > 1°C⊕

81)
only benzyl alcohol can be oxidised.

82)
83)

84)

85)

86) Explain the question : Identify the final product 'C' formed in given reaction sequence?
Concept : This question is based on acylation, electrophilic substitution reaction, bromination,
hydrolysis.
Solution :

Final answer : 2

87)
 88)

89)

(A) → R–NH2
(B) → R–CH2–NH2
Both are homologues

90)

A. Aniline is used in making azo dyes by coupling reaction.

B. Nitrobenzene is used as solvent in Friedal crafts reaction bar nitrobenzene not show friedal
craft reaction.
C. Sulphanilamide is parent compound for the formation of sulpha drugs.
D. Trinitrotoluene (TNT) used as explosive.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII Pg # 69

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 92

93)

NCERT-XII, Page # 62,69

94) NCERT-XII Pg. # 81

95) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59

96) NCERT XII Pg.# 67,68

97) NCERT XII Pg. # 83 (Linkage and Recombination)

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 73, 74, 75, 76

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 92
100) NCERT Pg. # 90 (Mendelian Disorder)

101) NCERT XII, Pg # 97, 98

102) NCERT XII, Pg # 90, 91

103) NCERT XII, Pg # 90, 91

104) NCERT XII, Pg # 83, 84

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98

106) The size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb- NCERT 11TH

107) NCERT-XII Pg. # 122

108) NCERT Pg. # 96 (Structure of Polynucleotide Chain)

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 112

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104, 107, 114

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 230

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 238

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 232

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 233

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 232-238

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 259

118)

NCERT XII Pg # 265

119) NCERT Pg # 267

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 266

121) NCERT-XII Pg # 207

122)

NCERT-XII Pg#207

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243

124) NCERT, Pg # 208

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 261

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 247

127) NCERT Pg. # 13,18,19,22

128) NCERT XII Pg. # 13

129)

Question Explanation: The question is asking about the correct match

Concept: Seed and fruit

Solution: Scutellum is the single cotyledon in the grass family.

Final answer: Option 4

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

131) NCERT XII, Pg. # 33-38

132)

Answer : Sporopollenin

133) XII NCERT PAGE NO.24

134)

NCERT Pg.# 18

135) NCERT Pg.# 21, 22

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

139) NCERT Pg. No. # 200

140) NCERT Pg. # 166

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 195-204

142)

NCERT XII Pg # 170

143) NCERT Pg. # 172-173, 182-183

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 208

145) NCERT Pg. # 180,181,182 & 183

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 214

147) NCERT Pg. No. # 185

148) NCERT Pg. # 179, 180, 182, 183

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184

150) NCERT Pg # 158

151)

NCERT Pg # 153

152) NCERT, Pg. # 155-156

153)

NCERT XII, Page # 54

154) NEW NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31 (E), 33 (H)

155)

NCERT XII, Pg # 36

156)

NCERT XII, Pg # 32, 33, 34

157) Ampulla of fallopian tube

158) Placenta .

159)

NCERT XII, Pg # 48

160)

NCERT XII, Pg # 37

161)

NCERT XII, Pg # 38

162) 12 week .

163)

NCERT XII, Pg # 45, 46

164)

NCERT XII, Pg # 47

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44

166) NCERT-XII Pg#139

167) NCERT PG. # 142, 143

168) NCERT Pg. # 134 and 138

169) NCERT Pg # 160

170)

NCERT XII, Pg # 141

171)

NCERT XII, Pg # 136

172)

NCERT XII, Pg # 141

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142-143

174)

NCERT XII, Pg # 116, 117, 118

175) NCERT-XII, Pg # 122

176) NCERT Pg # 124, 125

177) NCERT Pg. # 119

178)

Question Explanation – The question is asking for the name of the process in which new
species originate from a single common ancestor.
Concept – This question is based on Speciation
Solution – When populations derived from a common ancestor undergo evolutionary changes
and become reproductively isolated, they form new species. This process of formation of new
species from a common ancestor is called speciation. Genetic drift, mutation, and natural
selection are mechanisms that contribute to evolution but do not directly define the formation
of new species.
NCERT Pg. # 119
Final Answer – Option 1

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 116

180) NCERT Pg # 116