04-05-2025

1001CMD040525001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at x = L and can be taken to be very
wide in the z direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension S and density ρ, the liquid surface
makes angle θ0(θ0 << 1) with the x-axis at x = L. If y(x) is the height of the surface then the equation

for y(x) is: (take θ(x) = sinθ(x) = tanθ(x)= , g is the acceleration due
to gravity)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube
length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope
is :

(1) 100
(2) 125
(3) 150
(4) 250

3) An electron (mass 9 × 10–31 kg and charge 1.6 × 10–19C) moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of
light) is injected into a magnetic field of magnitude 9 × 10–4 T perpendicular to its direction of
motion. We wish to apply a uniform electric field together with the magnetic field so that the
electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) is perpendicular to and its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m–1

(2) is perpendicular to and its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m–1
(3) is parallel to and its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m–1
(4) is parallel to and its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m–1
4) There are two inclined surface of equal length (L) and same angle of inclination 45° with the
horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as
much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic
friction (µk) between the object and the rough surface is close to :

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.40
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.75

5) The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying
breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If FA and FB are the forces applied by
the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio FA/FB is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is :

(1) 2.0 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 2.5 A
(4) 1.5 A

7) A bob of heavy mass m is suspended by a light string of length l. The bob is given a horizontal
velocity v0 as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point P making an angle θ from the
 0

horizontal, the ratio of the speed v of the bob at point P to its initial speed v is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ________ gate.

(1) AND
(2) NAND
(3) OR
(4) NOR

9) The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by Ez = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 × 109t) V/m.
Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the
field) :

–7 9
(1) By = 2 × 10 cos(5x + 1.5 × 10 t)T
–7 9
(2) Bx = 2 × 10 cos(5x + 1.5 × 10 t)T
9
(3) Bz = 60 cos(5x + 1.5 × 10 t)T
9
(4) By = 60 sin (5x + 1.5 × 10 t)T

10) A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a
height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 21 NS
(2) 7 NS
(3) 0
(4) 84 NS

11) AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference "VA – VB", at the instant
when current i = 2 A and is increasing at a rate of 1 amp/second is :

(1) 5 volt
(2) 6 volt
(3) 9 volt
(4) 10 volt

12) A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1 :
2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

13) In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in
contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power
(p) and magnification (m) for each lens will be, respectively

(1) 4p and 4m
(2) p4 and 4m
(3) 4p and m4
(4) p4 and m4

14) An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is
withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature
27°C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to :

[Given, J mol–1K–1, and molecular mass of O2 = 32, 1 atm pressure = 1.01 × 105 N/m]

(1) 0.125 kg
(2) 0.144 kg
(3) 0.116 kg
(4) 0.156 kg

15) In some appropriate units, time (t) and position (x) relation of a moving particle is given by t = x2
+ x. The acceleration of the particle is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 Ω, a capacitor of reactance 25 Ω and an

inductor of reactance 45 Ω are connected is series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the
phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively-

(1) 7.8 A and 30

(2) 7. 8 A and 45
(3) 15.6 and 30
(4) 15.6 and 45

17) The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the
Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be
a sphere of uniform density.

(1) 100 days

(2) 105 days
(3) 115 days
(4) 108 days

18) A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B states that the flux
passing through the orbit of the electron is n(h/e) where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant and e
is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron
in its lowest energy state will be (m is the mass of the electron)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on
the sides have thermal conductivity 2K while that in the middle has thermal conductivity K. The left
end of the combination is maintained at temperature 3T and the right end at T. The rods are
thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is T1 and that at

the right junction is T2. The ratio T1/ T2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric

constant K1 and K2 with thickness and , respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this,
the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates.
(If K1 = 1.25 K2, the value of K1 is :

(1) 2.66
(2) 2.33
(3) 1.60
(4) 1.33

21) Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction
every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus
goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite
direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed
constant) of the buses.

(1) 9 min, 40 km/h

(2) 25 min, 100 km/h
(3) 10 min, 90 km/h
(4) 15 min, 120 km/h

22) A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an
angle of 60° with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor
exerts on the rod is (take g = 10m/s2)

(1) 100 N
(2) N
(3) 200 N
(4) N

23) In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box
oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency ω(t) and average
amplitude A(t) of the system change with time t. Which one of the following options schematically
depicts these changes correctly?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A balloon is made of a material of surface tension S and its inflation outlet (from where gas is
filled in it) has small area A. It is filled with a gas of density ρ and takes a spherical shape of radius
R. When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius changes from R to 0 (zero) in time T. If
the speed v (r) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on r as ra and T ∝ Sα Aβ ργ Rδ then

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers.
Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.) The
least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at x = 0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier
callipers are closed.
If the main scale reading for the diameter is M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier division
is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is

(1) 5.18 cm
(2) 5.08 cm
(3) 4.98 cm
(4) 5.00 cm

26) A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge
density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to
displacement current is :

(1) zero at all places

(2) constant between the plates and zero outside the plates
non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries
(3)
of the plates
(4) zero between the plates and non-zero outside

27) An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at
Brewster's angle. Then -

(1) reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60°
(2) reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30°
both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and
(3)
refraction close to 60° and 30°, respectively
(4) transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30°

28) Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain
distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical
uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally
removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible
compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be
considered as point charges) is best given as :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) A container has two chambers of volumes V1 = 2 litres and V2 = 3 litres separated by a partition
made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains n1 = 5 and n2 = 4 moles of ideal gas at
pressures p1 = 1 atm and p2 =2 atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains
an equilibrium pressure of :

(1) 1.3 atm

(2) 1.6 atm
(3) 1.4 atm
(4) 1.8 atm

30) A particle of mass m is moving around the origin with a constant force F pulling it towards the
origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius r of the nth orbit and the particle's
speed ν in the orbit depend on n as

(1) r ∝ n1/3; ν ∝ n1/3

(2) r ∝ n1/3; ν ∝ n2/3
(3) r ∝ n2/3; ν ∝ n1/3
(4) r ∝ n4/3; ν ∝ n–1/3

31) The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury.
The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury ?

(1) 88 earth days

(2) 225 earth days
(3) 172 earth days
(4) 124 earth days

32) A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body
due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is :

(1) 16 N
(2) 27 N
(3) 32 N
(4) 36 N

33) A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances
are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The
net effective resistance of the combination is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is close to
(Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)

(1) 0.067 nm
(2) 0.67 nm
(3) 1.67 nm
(4) 2.67 nm

35) An electric dipole with dipole moment is aligned with the direction of a uniform
electric field of magnitude 4 × 10 N/C The dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60o with
5

respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is :

(1) 0.8 J
(2) 1.0 J
(3) 1.2 J
(4) 1.5 J

36) A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the

figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :-

(1) 1.5 A
(2) 2.0 A
(3) 2.5 A
(4) 3.0 A

37) A photon and an electron (mass m) have the same energy E. The ratio (λphoton/λelectron) of their de
Broglie wavelengths is: (c is the speed of light)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of
light shown on the x-axis?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A only
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and D

39) A sphere of radius R is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius 2R as shown in the figure. The
ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-

axis is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (D1) and (D2) is shown in the figure. If input supply

voltage Vin = 220sin (100π t) volt, then at t = 15 msec

(1) D1 is forward biased, D2 is reverse biased

(2) D1 is reverse biased, D2 is forward biased
(3) D1 and D2 both are forward biased
(4) D1 and D2 both are reverse biased

41) Two gases A and B are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of
radius rA and rB, respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly
under constant pressure, the pistons of gas A and B are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If

the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A physical quantity P is related to four observations a, b, c and d as follows :

The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 4% respectively. The
percentage error in the quantity P is

(1) 10%
(2) 2%
(3) 13%
(4) 15%

43) The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids
at 22.5° from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is (I0 is the intensity of polarised light after
passing through the first polaroid):

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring
constants k1 and k2, respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio
(AQ/AP) of the amplitude AQ of mass Q to the amplitude AP of mass P is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically
in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :

(1)

(2) f

(3)

(4) 2f

CHEMISTRY

1) The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes n = 2 →
n = 3 and n = 4 → n = 6 transitions, respectively, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

Which of the following statements are true?

A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.
B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.
C. Ar, K+, Cl–, Ca2+, and S2– are all isoelectronic species.
D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na.
E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A, B and E only

(2) C and E only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, C and E only

3) Match List I with List II

List I List II
(Ion) (Group Number in Cation Analysis)
A. Co2+ I. Group-I
B. Mg2+ II. Group-III
C. Pb2+ III. Group-IV
D. Al3+ IV. Group-VI

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

4) Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of He+ and Li2+ are
[Given RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J, a0 = 52.9 pm]

En(Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J;

r (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(1) n
En(He+) = –8.72 × 10–18 J;
rn(He+) = 26.4 pm
En(Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–18 J;
r (Li2+) = 26.4 pm
(2) n
En(He+) = –19.62 × 10–18 J;
rn(He+) = 17.6 pm
 En(Li2+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J;
r (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(3) n
En(He+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J;
rn(He+) = 26.4 pm
En(Li2+) = –8.72 × 10–16 J;
r (Li2+) = 17.6 pm
(4) n
En(He+) = –19.62 × 10–16 J;
rn(He+) = 17.6 pm

6)

Which of the following are paramagnetic?

A. [NiCl4]2– B. Ni(CO)4
2–
C. [Ni(CN)4] D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+
E. Ni(PPh3)4
​Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and C only

(2) B and E only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, D and E only

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

8)

Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?
A. [Ne]3s1 B. [Ar]3d34s2
10 2 5
C. [Kr]4d 5s 5p D. [Ar]3d104s1
0
E. [Rn]5f 6d27s2
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) B and E only

(2) A and C only
(3) D and E only
(4) A, C and D only

9) Dalton’s Atomic theory could not explain which of the following ?

(1) Law of conservation of mass
(2) Law of constant proportion
(3) Law of multiple proportion
(4) Law of gaseous volume

10)

Consider the following compounds:

KO2, H2O2 and H2SO4.
The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

(1) +1, –1, and +6

(2) +2, –2, and +6
(3) +1, –2, and +4
(4) +4, –4, and +6

11) If the half-life (t1/2) for a first order reaction is 1 minutes, then the time required for 99.9%
completion of the reaction is closest to:

(1) 2 minutes
(2) 4 minutes
(3) 5 minutes
(4) 10 minutes

12)

The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,
A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ B. [Co(CN)6]3–
C. [Cu(H2O)4]2+ D. [Ti(H2O)6]3+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B < D < A < C

(2) B < A < D < C
(3) C < D < A < B
(4) C < A < D < B

13) Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers ?

(1) Pent-1-ene
(2) 2-Methylhex-2-ene
(3) 1, 1-Dimethylcyclopropane
(4) 1, 2-Dimethylcyclohexane

14) Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with their ionization constant values
and , respectively,
While K is the overall ionization constant.
Which of the following statements are true ?
A.
B. H3PO4 is a stronger acid than and
C.

D.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B and C only

15) Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?

(1)

(2)

(3)
H–C≡C–H.

(4)

16) If the molar conductivity of a 0.050 mol L–1 solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm2
mol–1, its extent (degree) of dissociation will be
[Assume = 349.6 S cm2 mol–1 and = 50.4 S cm2 mol–1.]

(1) 0.115
(2) 0.125
(3) 0.225
(4) 0.215

17)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II are true
18) Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum
conductance in solution?

(1) [Co(NH3)3 Cl3]

(2) [Co(NH3)4 Cl2]
(3) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)5 Cl] Cl

19)

Match List – I with List – II

List-I List-II
A. XeO3 I. sp d, linear
3

B. XeF2 II. sp3; pyramidal

C. XeOF4 III. sp3d3; distorted octahedral
D. XeF6 IV. sp3d2; square pyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

20) C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g); ΔH = –74.8 kJ mol–1

Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction?
[R → reactants; P → products]

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) Match List – I with List – II

List-I List-II
(Example) (Type of Solution)
A. Humidity I. Solid in solid
B. Alloys II. Liquid in gas
C. Amalgams III. Solid in gas
D. Smoke IV. Liquid in solid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

22) The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :

(1) N-methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine

(2) N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
(3) N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine
(4) benzenamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > N-ethylethanamine

23)

Among the following choose the ones with equal number of atoms.
A. 212 g of Na2CO3 (s) [molar mass = 106 g]
B. 248 g of Na2O (s) [molar mass = 62 g]
C. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 40 g]
D. 12 g of H2 (g) [molar mass = 2 g]
E. 220 g of CO2 (g) [molar mass = 44 g]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) B, D and E only

24) Match List – I with List – II

List-I List-II
(Name of the Vitamin) (Deficiency disease)
A. Vitamin B 12 I. Cheilosis
B. Vitamin D II. Convulsions
C. Vitamin B2 III. Rickets
D. Vitamin B6 IV. Pernicious anaemia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

25) The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :-

(1) (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH

(2) CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > HCOOH
(3) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH
(4) HCOOH > (CH3)3CCOOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > CH3COOH

26) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.
Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr2+ ion (Z = 24) is the same as that of a Nd3+
ion (Z = 60).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

27) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Mixture) (Method of Separation)
A. CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I. Distillation under reduced pressure
B. Crude oil in petroleum industry II. Steam distillation
C. Glycerol from spent-lye III. Fractional distillation
D. Aniline-water IV. Simple distillation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

28)

For the reaction A(g) ⇌ 2B(g), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward
reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K. [Given : R = 0.0831 L atm mol–1 K–1]
KP for the reaction at 1000 K is

(1) 83.1
(2) 2.077 × 105
(3) 0.033
(4) 0.021

29)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at
273-278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
Statement II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is
prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

30) How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the

following compound ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

31) Among the given compound I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C–H bond
marked with * is :-

(1) II > I > III

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > III > I

32) Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The major product of the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point ?

(1) 0.01 M Urea

(2) 0.01 M KNO3
(3) 0.01 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.015 M C6H12O6

35) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Haber process I. Fe catalyst
B. Wacker oxidation II. PdCl2
C. Wilkinson catalyst III. [(PPh3)3RhCl]
D. Ziegler catalyst IV. TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

36) 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr.
The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is
true regarding the described solution?

(1) The solution shows positive deviation.

(2) The solution shows negative deviation.
(3) The solution is ideal.
(4) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.

37)

Sugar ‘X’
A. is found in honey.
B. is a keto sugar.
C. exists in α and β - anomeric forms.
D. is laevorotatory.
‘X’ is :

(1) D-Glucose
(2) D-Fructose
(3) Maltose
(4) Sucrose

38) Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion

 +
(1) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) H /H2O
(2) (i) AlH(iBu)2 (ii) H2O
+
(3) (i) NaBH4, (ii) H /H2O
(4) H2 / Pd-BaSO4

39) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : undergoes SN2 reaction faster than .

Reason (R) : Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

40) The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of Ba2+ is :

[Given : standard heat of formation of ion (aq) = –216 kcal/mol,
Standard heat of crystallisation of BaSO4(s) = –4.5 kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of BaSO4(s)
= –349 kcal/mol]

(1) –128.5
(2) –133.0
(3) +133.0
(4) +220.5

41) Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of
molecular formula C4H8O is :

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 11

42)

Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned

(A) H2O > NH3 > CHCl3 – dipole moment
(B) XeF4 > XeO3 > XeF2 – number of lone pairs on central atom
(C) O–H > C–H > N–O – bond length
(D) N2 > O2 > H2 – bond enthalpy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, D only
(2) B, D only
(3) A, C only
(4) B, C only

43)

Higher yield of NO in
N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) can be obtained at
[ΔH of the reaction = +180.7 kJ mol–1]
A. higher temperature
B. lower temperature
C. higher concentration of N2
D. higher concentration of O2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, D only
(2) B, C only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) A, C, D only

44) If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s–1, how much time does it take for 7.2 mol L–1
concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L–1 ? (Given : log 2 = 0.301)

(1) 69.3 s
(2) 23.1 s
(3) 210 s
(4) 21.0 s

45) Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test" ?

(1) Na + C + N NaCN
(2) 2Na + S Na2S
(3) Na + X + NaX
(4) 2CuO + C 2Cu + CO2

BIOLOGY

1) The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

(1) Cytochrome bc1

(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(4) NADH dehydrogenase

2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

(1) N2
(2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1
(4) 2N2

3)

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, D, F only
(2) A, C, D, F only
(3) A, B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C, E, F only

4) What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart
in a frog ?

(1) Aorta
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Vena cava

5) Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

(2) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
(3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
(4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out
essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important
biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical
strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

7) Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Predation
(4) Amensalism

8)

From the statements given below choose the correct option :

A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

(1) A, B, C are true

(2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true
(4) B, D, E are true

9) Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) National park

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is
called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

11) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Emphysema I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

12) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nectar.
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated
flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

13) Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

(1) Whisky
(2) Brandy
(3) Beer
(4) Rum

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for
inferior ovary.
Statement II : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for
superior ovary.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
15) Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

(1) Curd production

(2) Ethanol production
(3) Liver disease treatment
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels

16) Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes ?

(1) Chromosome X
(2) Chromosome Y
(3) Chromosome 1
(4) Chromosome 10

17) Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad ?

(1) First and Second digit of fore limb

(2) First digit of hind limb
(3) Second digit of fore limb
(4) First digit of the fore limb

18) Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the
delay of leaf senescence in plants ?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Cytokinin

19) While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology
of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but
no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible
coelome of that animal ?

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate
(4) Spongocoelomate

20) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Head I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome III. Energy
D. Tail IV. Genetic material
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

21) Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the
correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametopyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, A, D, E, C
(2) B, A, E, C, D
(3) D, E, C, A, B
(4) E, D, C, B, A

22) Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by :

A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and C Only

(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) A, B and D Only

23)

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A only
(2) D only
(3) B only
(4) E only

24) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

25)
In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the
following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies ?

(1) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing medium plate

(2) Blue color colonies will be selected
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.

26) Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human
insulin ?

(1) Bacterium
(2) Yeast
(3) Virus
(4) Phage

27)

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :
S – G + S# → S + S # – G
Where, G → a group other than hydrogen
S → a substrate
S# → another substrate

(1) Hydrolase
(2) Lyase
(3) Transferase
(4) Ligase

28) Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous
(2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
(3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

29) The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) D, E, A, C, B
(2) B, E, A, C, D
(3) B, E, A, D, C
(4) D, E, A, B, C

30)

Which are correct :

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.
C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D only

(2) D and E only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and C only

31) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium II. Cell division
C. Cristae III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

32) Match List I with List II.

 List I List II
A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

33) Find the correct statements :

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and E Only

(2) B and C Only
(3) B, C, D and E Only
(4) A, C, D and E Only

34)

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich
layer called :

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Integument
(4) Aleurone Layer

35) Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule
of the Nephron.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

37)

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

38) A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA
replication and respiration is :

(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Cristae
(4) Endoplasmic Reticulum

39) Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell ?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) B, C, E only
(4) C, D, E only

40) What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern

(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

41) Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group ?

(1) RuBisCo
(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Catalase

42)

Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the
following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) C, E, A, D, B
(3) A, C, E, D, B
(4) C, E, A, B, D

43) Who is known as the father of Ecology in India ?

(1) S.R. Kashyap

(2) Ramdeo Misra
(3) Ram Udar
(4) Birbal Sahni

44) Match List-I with List-II.​​

List-I List-II
A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(4) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I

45)

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, D only
(4) B, C, D only

46)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of
recombinant DNA.
Statement II: Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are
found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

47) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I List-II
A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
D. Alanine IV. Amino acid

​Choose the option with all correct matches :

(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(2) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

48)

Consider the following:

A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male
gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for
males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of
menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B are true

(2) A and C are true
(3) B and D are true
(4) B and C are true

49) All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

(1) Free living

(2) Endoparasite
(3) Symbiotic
(4) Ectoparasite

50)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the
endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face
of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi
apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

51) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut
D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

52) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period,
the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

53) Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

54) Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

(1) Complementary dsRNA

(2) Inhibitory ssRNA
(3) Complementary tRNA
(4) Non-complementary ssRNA

55) Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy
produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
(1) Phenotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1
(2) Phenotypic ratio – 3 : 1
(3) Phenotypic ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) Phenotypic ratio – 9 : 7

56) Histones are enriched with -

(1) Lysine & Arginine

(2) Leucine & Lysine
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine

57) The first menstruation is called :

(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Diapause
(4) Ovulation

58) Match List - I with List – II.

List-I List-II
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
C. Gastro-intestinal tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

59) The protein portion of an enzyme is called :

(1) Cofactor
(2) Coenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme
(4) Prosthetic group

60) Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an ecosystem ?

(1) gm–2
(2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3
(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1
61) Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of
terms to explain the evolution.

(1) Analogy, convergent

(2) Homology, divergent
(3) Homology. convergent
(4) Analogy, divergent

62) With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease
and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/8
(4) Zero

63) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one
nucleus.
Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increase the efficiency of
nourishing the developing microspore mother cells
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

64) How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female
gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant ?

(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

(2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) No Meiosis and 3 Mitosis

65) Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower ?

(1) Petunia
(2) Datura
(3) Pea
(4) Chilli

66) After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with
antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:
A. thymus B. bone marrow
C. spleen D. lymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) E, A, B only
(4) C, D, E only

67) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle
in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options. given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

68) What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

(1) To separate the chromosomes

(2) To synthesize new DNA
(3) To repair damaged DNA
(4) To regulate cell growth

69) Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(2) Seeds are naked.
(3) Seeds are absent.
(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.

70) Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options/ given below:

(1) C and D Only

(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, C and D Only
(4) D Only

71) Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients ?

(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response

(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
(3) Because of structural variation
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased

72) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia

Choose the option with all correct matches :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

73) Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides ?

(1) George Gamow

(2) Francis Crick
(3) Jacque Monod
(4) Franklin Stahl

74) Match List-I with List-II :

 List-I List-II
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo IV. Extinction

Choose the option with all correct matches :

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

75) Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the
hypothalamus?

(1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

(2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(4) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

76) Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :

A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) B, D and E only

77) Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type
of defence in the human body ?

(1) Acquired Immunity

(2) Innate Immunity
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity
(4) Humoral Immunity

78) In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following ?

(1) Sexual reproduction

(2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Nutrient absorption
(4) Gaseous exchange
79) In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

(1) Liver and intestine

(2) Liver and kidney
(3) Kidney and intestine
(4) Kidney and lower part of body

80) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers of
consumers.
Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct

81) Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true ?

(1) It is active only in the dark.

(2) It has higher affinity of oxygen than carbon dioxide.
(3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
(4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP

82)

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning ?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C and D only

(2) A and B only
(3) D and E only
(4) B and C only

83) Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, C, E only
(3) A, D, E only
(4) B, D, E only

84) Which factor is important for termination of transcription ?

(1) α (alpha)
(2) σ (sigma)
(3) ρ (rho)
(4) γ (gamma)

85) Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :

(1) The statement is true for water but false for land
(2) The statement is true for both the environment
(3) The statement is false for water but true for land
(4) The statement is false for both the environment

86) Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of
the following must be true?

(1) They are monozygotic twins.

(2) They are fraternal twins
(3) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
(4) They have 75% identical genetic content.

87)

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma pulysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) C and E only

88)

Match List-I with List-II

 List-I List-II
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia
B. Relaxin II. Ovary
C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III Adrenal Medulla
D Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

89) The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant
colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the
presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method :
Statement-I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as
recombinant colonies.
Statement-II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified
as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90) Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of
population?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
For the given element, (consider length d in Z direction) Net force in upward direction =
Weight
(S sin(θ + dθ) – S sinθ) d = mg
Angle is small ∴ sinθ ≈ θ

⇒ .............(1)

tan θ = ⇒ Differentiating wrt x

.............(2)
Put dθ from (2) in (1) d take cos θ ≈ 1, we get

Alternative Solution

PA = PB = P0
PC = P0 – ρgy

dy/dx is very small

2) Here f0 =2cm, fe =4 cm, L =40 cm, D =25 cm
In the condition of normal adjustment.

3) For particle to remain undeflected

⇒ qE = qvB ⇒ E = vB

⇒ = 27 × 102 V/m
For Direction :

4)

= ⇒

5)

∵ W.D. = ΔKE ∴

⇒ ⇒

6) Simplified Diagram
7)

C.O.M.E. ......(i)

At point P : Tp + mg sin θ

∵ Tp = 0 ∴ mg sin θ =
⇒ = mg ℓ sinθ ......(ii)
From (i) & (ii)

⇒
⇒ ......(iii)
From (ii)

8)
Behaves as NOR gate

9)

= 3 × 108 m/s

= 20 × 10–8 = 2 × 10–7 T

⇒ By = 2 × 10–7 cos (5x + 1.5 × 109 t)T

10)

= –28 m/s
= 14 m/s

= 0.5 |14– (–28)|

= 0.5 × 42= 21 NS

11)

Apply K.V.L.

⇒
= 1 × 1 + 5 + 2 × 2 = 10 V

12) Magnetic moment M = IA = I(πr2)

⇒ ⇒

13) When a combination of lens is used then total power

 pnet = p + p + p + p = 4p
Total magnification mnet = m × m × m × m = m4

14)

[Pabs = 12 atm]

nf = 14.544
∴ moles removed = 18.2 – 14.544 = 3.656

∴ mass removed = 3.656 × kg

= 0.116 kg

15)

t = x2 + x ⇒

⇒ ⇒ v = (2x + 1)–1 ...(i)

a = –1(2x + 1)–3 × 2 = –2(2x + 1)–3

16)

Here XC = 25Ω, XL = 45Ω

⇒ ϕ = 45

17)

Angular Momentum conservation

I1ω1 = I2ω2 M = same

⇒ R2 = 2r1
I ∝ r2

But I2 = 4 I1
T1 = 27day
So T2 = 4T1 = 4 × 27
⇒ T2 = 108 days
18)

Magnetic moment

M = IA = I(πr2) … (1)

Given B (πr2) =

⇒ … (2) (∵ n = 1)

And when charge moving in external magnetic field then

… (3) (∵ q = e)
Put value from equation (2) & (3) in equation (1)

19)

In steady state ⇒

6T – 2T1 = T1 – T2 ....(i)
and 2T2 – 2T = T1 – T2 ....(ii)
By (i) + 3 × (ii) we have

6T2 – 2T1 = 4T1 – 4T2 ⇒ 10T2 = 6T1 ⇒

20) C1 = ε0A/d

0
C2 = 2C1 ⇒ = 2ε A/d
21)

Let speed of bus = vB,

speed of scooty = vS = 60 kg/h
and distance between two consecutive buses = d Now according to question
d = (vB + vS) (10 min) = (vB – vS) (30 min)
⇒ vB + vS = 3vB – 3vS ⇒ vB = 2vS = 120 km/h

Time period,

22) N2 = mg = 200 N

Taking torque about A:

fSLcos60o + mg sin60o = N2 Lsin60o

⇒
⇒

23)

The part of sand being removed takes away a part of energy.

∴ Total energy decreases.
∴ Energy of SHM decreases
As a result Amplitude also decreases.
24)

T → Time [T1]
S → Surface Tension

A → Area [L2]
ρ → Density [M1L–3]
R → Radius [L1]
With Dimensional Analysis → T ∝ Sα Aβ ργ Rδ
[M0 L0 T1] = [MT–2]α [L2]β [ML–3]γ [L]δ
[M0 L0 T1] = [Mα + γ L2β + δ – 3γ T–2α]

⇒ –2α = 1 ⇒ &α+γ=0⇒
By checking options we can say that correct answer is (3)

25) 1 M.S.D. = 0.1 cm (Given)

10 V.S.D. = 9 M.S.D. ⇒ 1 V.S.D. = 0.9 M.S.D.
1 V.S.D. = 0.9 × 0.1 cm = 0.09 cm
L.C. = 1 M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D.
= (0.1 – 0.09) cm = 0.01 cm
Reading = 5.08 cm
Positive zero error = 0.1 cm (Given)
∴ Final Corrected reading = (5.08 – 0.1) cm
= 4.98 cm

26)

Id = (EA cos0°)

Id =

Id =

⇒ Id = = constant
Also B due to Id is maxm at surface of imaginary cylinder
27)

When unpolarised light is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle
then reflected light is completely polarised.
Using Brewster's Law : μ = tan(ip)
⇒ 1.73 = tan(ip) ⇒ ip = 60°
By Law of reflection, ip = r = 60°

28)

Here, Force between A and B :

After touching A & C, q'C = q'A =

After touching B & C, q'B = q''C =

Therefore new force between A and B

29)

By energy conservation, E1 + E2 = Emix

= 1.6 atm.

30)

….(1)

….(2)
From equation (1)

From (2)
31)

TMercury=

32)

W' = mg' =

33)

Resistance of each part = R/8

34) Given n = 2, Z = 1

2πr = nλ ⇒
On solving λ = 0.67 nm

35)

For dipole,
Here U1 = –pEcos0° =–(5 × 10–6)(4 × 105)(1) =–2J

and U2 = –pEcos60° =–(5 × 10–6)(4 × 105)( )=–1J

Therefore change in potential energy
ΔU = U2 – U1 = (–1J) – (2J) = 1J

36)

Given circuit can be reduced to

Current,
Now current through 1Ω,
Current through 3Ω, I3 = 24 – 18 = 6A

Current through 2Ω,

by KCL ;Current in branch CD = 18 – 16 = 2 A

37) Photon & electron have same energy E

38)

i ∝ intensity so curve A is correct

Photo current does not depend linearly on frequency, so graph C & D are not correct.

39)

I2 = mr2 + md2

40) Ans. (1) & (2)

At t = 15 msec
Vin = 220 sin (100π ×15 × 10–3)

= –220 V
Note : If centre tap is not grounded then option (1) may be correct.

41) Here, Q and ΔU are same so from FLOT

Q = W + ΔU, we have W1 = W2
But W = PΔV So PΔV1 = PΔV2
⇒

42)

= 13%

43) Initially two polaroids are crossed i.e. 90°

After passing from first polaroid intensity is I0

44)
 Maximum speed = APωP = AQωQ

⇒ =

45)

For open pipe f =

When half of its length is dipped in water, Now it is COP.

f′ =

CHEMISTRY

46)

For 2 → 3 ⇒ = R × (1)2 ...(1)

For 4 → 6 ⇒ = R × (1)2 ...(2)

Divide (1) & (2)

∴ ​

47) (C) Ca2+, K+, Ar, Cl–, S2– all species have 18 electrons that’s why these are isoelectronic
species.
(E) Radius order Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li

48)

A. Co2+ III. Group-IV

B. Mg2+ IV. Group-VI
C. Pb2+ I. Group-I
D. Al3+ II. Group-III
49)

50)

En = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

For He+ ⇒ E1 = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

–18
= –8.72 × 10 J

For Li2+ ⇒ E1 = –2.18 × 10–18 × J

–18
= –19.62 × 10 J

rn = 52.9 × pm

For He+ ⇒ r1 = 52.9 × pm = 26.4 pm

For Li2+ ⇒ r1 = 52.9 × pm = 17.6 pm

51)

(A) [NiCl4]2– ⇒ Oxidation state = +2

0
Electronic configuration = 3d8 4s
Cl = W.F.L. No Pairing
2 unpaired electrons
2+
(D) [Ni(H2O)6]
Oxidation state = +2, configuration = 3d8
H2O is W.F.L. No pairing

2 unpaired electrons
Hence both are paramagnetic

52)

N = NH3
As → AsH3 are possible correct statement.
All elements of N-family form two type of E2O3 & E2O5 oxide.
Statement is wrong.
Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.

53)

Main group elements are s & p-block elements.

A → s-block
C → p-block

54) Dalton’s atomic theory could not explain law of gaseous volume.

55)

56) For 1st order reactions : t99.9% = 10 × t1/2

t99.9% = 10 × 1
= 10 minute

57)

Strength of ligand ↑ Δ0 ↑
Absorbed Energy ↑ λabsorbed ↓

58)

For GI in alkene, each terminal individually must have different atoms/groups attached to it.
For GI in cyclo-alkane, at least two sp3C of ring individually must have different atoms/groups
attached to it.

1.
2.

3.

4.

59)

H3PO4 ⇌ H+ + H2PO4– ; Ka1

H2PO4– ⇌ H+ + HPO42– ; Ka2
HPO42– ⇌ H+ + PO43– ; Ka3
_________________________
H3PO4 ⇌ 3H+ + PO43– ; K = Ka1 × Ka2 × Ka3
For polybasic acid, order of ionization constant is Ka1 > Ka2 > Ka3 because as negative charge
increases, tendency to loose H+ ions decreases.
Overall K = Ka1 × Ka2 × Ka3
Taking log on both sides
log K = log Ka1 + log Ka2 + log Ka3

60)

(1)

(2)

(3)
 (4)

61)

Degree of dissociation (α) =

= 349.6 + 50.4 = 400 Scm2 mol–1

∴α= = 0.225

62)

Bond order ∝
Statement II is false

63) Ans. (1 & 2)

Both (1) & (2) are non-electrolytes that's why they show minimum conductivity among
following options.

64)

XeO3 → sp3 (1LP) - Pyramidal

XeF2 → sp3d (3LP) - Linear
XeOF4 → sp3d2 (1LP) - Square pyramidal
XeF6 → sp3d3 (1LP) - Distorted octahedral

65) For Exothermic reaction

⇒ ΔH = HP – HR = –ve
∴ HR > HP
 66)

A → Humidity ⇒ Liquid in Gas

B → Alloy ⇒ Solid in solid
C → Amalgams ⇒ Liquid in solid
D → Smoke ⇒ Solid in Gas

67) Basic strength order

N-ethylethanamine > Ethanamine > N-methylaniline > Benzenamine

68)

No. of atoms = Atomicity × mole × NA

(A) No. of atoms =

(B) No. of atoms =

(C) No. of atoms =

(D) No. of atoms =

(E) No. of atoms =

69) Correct match

A. Vitamin B12 IV. Pernicious Anaemia

B. Vitamin D III. Rickets
C. Vitamin B2 I. Cheilosis
D. Vitamin B6 II. Convulsions
 70)

Acidic strength ∝ – I effect

>

71)

Ferromagnetism > Paramagnetism

Statement-I is true

Cr+2 = 3d4
4 unpaired electrons

Nd+3 = 4f3
3 unpaired electrons
Statement-II is false.

72) Correct Match

A. CHCl3 + C6H5 NH2 → Simple distillation (IV)

Crude oil in petroleum
B. → Fractional distillation (III)
industry
→ Distillation under reduced
C. Glycerol from spent-lye
pressure (I)
D. Aniline-water → Steam distillation (II)

73)

Kp = 0.033

74) Benzenediazonium chloride is a colourless crystalline solid. It is readily soluble in water

and is stable in cold but reacts with water when warmed. It decomposes easily in the dry state.
75)

=2

=1

=2

=1
* → Chiral Carbon
Total = 6 (including stereo isomers)

76) Bond dissociation energy ∝

Stability order III > I > II

Bond dissociation energy order ⇒ II > I > III.

77)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
∴ Bromine water solution is decolourised in reaction (1), (2), (3) but not in (4).

78)

79)

ΔTb = iKbm
• Consider m ≈ M
• Kb same for all

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
iM↑ ⇒ ΔTb ↑ ⇒ Tb ↑

80) Catalyst according to NCERT.

81)

X Y
nx = 5 ny = 10
= 63 = 78

= 21 + 52 = 73

–ve deviation

82) D-fructose is a keto sugar exists in α and β anomeric forms. Its is laevorotatory, found in
honey.

83)

84) Rate of SN2 ∝ Leaving tendency of leaving group.

Iodine is better L.G. than chlorine due to its bigger size.

85)

86) * = Chiral Carbon

 Total = 10

87)

(A) H2O > NH3 > CHCl3 – correct

(B)
XeF4 XeO3 XeF2 – Incorrect
(2 LP) (1 LP) (3 LP)
(C) O–H > C–H > N–O – Incorrect
According to size of element.
(D) N2 > O2 > H2 – correct
N≡N O=O H–H

88)

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) ; ΔH = +180.7 kJ mol–1

(A) as T ↑ ⇒ reaction shifts forward
(B) as T ↓ ⇒ reaction shifts backward
(C) as [N2] ↑ ⇒ reaction shifts forward
(D) as [O2] ↑ ⇒ reaction shifts forward

89) K = 0.03 s–1 (First order reaction)

A0 = 7.2 mol L–1
At = 0.9 mol L–1

90)

2CuO + C 2Cu + CO2

"Lassaigne's test" is used to detect Nitrogen, Halogen, Sulphur, Phosphorus.
4th option is detection of carbon, it is not "Lassaigne's test"

BIOLOGY
91) NCERT-XI Pg # 160

92) NCERT-XII Pg #173, Module

93) Module

94) NCERT-XI Pg # 82

95) NCERT-XI Pg # 85

96) NCERT-XII Pg # 88

97) NCERT-XII Pg # 201

98) NCERT-XI Pg # 98

99) NCERT-XII Pg # 224

100) NCERT-XII Pg # 207

101) NCERT-XI Pg # 203, 214, 190, 227

102) NCERT-XII Pg # 12, 13

103) NCERT-XII Pg # 150

104) NCERT-XI Pg # 67

105) NCERT-XII Pg # 153

106) NCERT-XII Pg # 104

107) NCERT-XI Pg # 81

108) NCERT-XI Pg # 176

109) NCERT-XI Pg # 39 (Option 3, 4 from Module)

110) NCERT-XII Pg # 48

111) NCERT-XI Pg # 32

112) NCERT-XI Pg # 202

113) NCERT-XII Pg # 158

114) NCERT-XII Pg # 180

115) NCERT-XII Pg # 169

116) NCERT-XII Pg # 182

117) NCERT-XI Pg # 117

118) NCERT-XI Pg # 176

119) NCERT-XI Pg # 29

120) NCERT-XII Pg # 157, 158

121) NCERT-XI Pg # 97, 98, 101

122) NCERT-XI Pg # 137

123) NCERT-XII Pg # 54

124) NCERT-XI Pg # 67

125) NCERT-XI Pg # 210

126) NCERT-XII Pg # 174

127) NCERT-XII Pg # 11

128) NCERT-XI Pg # 90
129) NCERT-XII Pg # 95

130) NCERT-XII Pg # 69

131) NCERT-XI Pg # 118

132) NCERT-XII Pg # 11

133) NCERT-XII Pg # 189

134) NCERT-XII Pg # 83, 84, 85

135) NCERT-XII Pg # 157

136) NCERT-XII Pg # 168

137) NCERT-XI Pg # 107

138) NCERT-XII Pg # 47, 48, 49, 51

139) NCERT-XI Pg # 47

140) NCERT-XI Pg # 95, 96

141) NCERT-XII Pg # 19, 20

142) NCERT-XI Pg # 46

143) NCERT-XII Pg # 151, 152 (Option 4 from Module)

144) NCERT-XII Pg # 180

145) NCERT-XII Pg # 64

146) NCERT-XII Pg # 83

147) NCERT-XII Pg # 49
148) NCERT-XI Pg # 245, 247

149) NCERT-XI Pg # 118

150) NCERT-XII Pg # 207

151) NCERT-XII Pg # 131

152) NCERT-XII Pg # 73, Module

153)

NCERT-XII Pg # 5
(Reason is out of NCERT But explained in classroom)

154) NCERT-XII Pg # 11

155) NCERT-XI Pg # 62

156) NCERT-XII Pg # 153, 154

157) NCERT-XII Pg # 201, Module

158) NCERT-XI Pg # 123

159) NCERT-XI Pg # 32

160) NCERT-XI Pg # 244

161) Module

162) NCERT-XI Pg # 30, 31, 33

163) NCERT-XII Pg # 95

164) NCERT-XII Pg # 221, 222, 223, 224

165) NCERT-XI Pg # 241, 242

166) NCERT-XI Pg # 45

167) NCERT-XII Pg # 150

168) NCERT-XI Pg # 29

169) NCERT-XI Pg # 82

170) NCERT-XII Pg # 209

171) NCERT-XI Pg # 143

172) NCERT-XII Pg # 165

173) NCERT-XI Pg # 172, 175, 177

174) NCERT-XII Pg # 94

175) NCERT-XI Pg # 82

176) Module

177) NCERT-XII Pg # 151

178)

NCERT-XII Pg # 37, 51, 53

NCERT-XI Pg # 246, 241, 244

179) NCERT-XII Pg # 170

180) NCERT-XII Pg # 195