08-08-2025

2701CMD303465240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two particles A and B are moving in XY-plane. Their positions vary with time t according
to relation :
xA (t) = 3t, xB (t) = 6
yA (t) = t, yB (t) = 2 + 3t2
Distance between two particles at t = 1 is :

(1) 5 unit
(2) 3 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) unit

2) Which of the following graph is the best representation for the given relation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Find the minimum value of the function

y = x3 – 3x2 + 6 :-

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 1

4) Which of the following statements are true based on graphs of y-versus x as shown below?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) Slope at x0 is positive in graph (i) and (ii)

(b) Slope is constant in graph (iii)
(c) Slope at x0 is negative in graph (iv)
(d) Slope at x0 is negative in graph (ii)

(1) a & b only

(2) b & c only
(3) a, b & c only
(4) c & d only

5)

Dimension of linear momentum

0
(1) [M L1T-1]
(2) [M1L1T-1]
(3) [M1L2T-1]
(4) [M1L2T-2]

6) = 5 units due South-West

= 5 units due 53° North of East
= 10 units due 37° South of East Then which of the following are correct :
(a)

(b)
(c)
(d)

(1) a & b only

(2) a & c only
(3) b & c only
(4) only d

7) Six forces of equal magnitude F act on a particle such that particle remains in equilibrium (Fnet =

0). Angle between all adjacent pair of forces is 60° :-

Column–I Column–II

(A) Magnitude is equal to (P)

(B) Magnitude is equal to 2F (Q)

(C) Magnitude is greater then (R)

(D) Magnitude is less then (S)

(T)

Choose the correct option :-

(1) A → Q, S; B → R; C → R; D → P, T
(2) A → Q; B → S; C → P; D → T
(3) A → T; B → R; C → S; D → P
(4) A → Q, T; B → P, R; C → T; D → Q

8) Given and , which of following statement is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) A particle is going in a circle with constant speed v. Between which of the
following points, the displacement vector of particle will be perpendicular to x-axis?

(1) 2, 4
(2) 4, 6
(3) 2, 5
(4) 6, 8

10) Which is incorrect for and , where angle between vectors is θ ?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
, if θ = 180°

11) The v-t graph of a moving object is given in figure. The maximum acceleration is:

(1) 1 cm/sec2
(2) 2 cm/sec2
(3) 6 cm/sec2
(4) 3 cm/sec2

12)

A particle is moving along x-axis. Its position is given by x = (where t is time in

second), then :-

List-I List-II
(P) for 0 < t < 1 second (1) particle accelerates
(Q) for 1 < t < 2 second (2) particle retards
(R) for t > 2 second (3) particle is moving towards origin
(S) for t = 1 second (4) particle changes its direction of motion
(1) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 3
(2) P → 4;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 3
(3) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 1;S → 4
(4) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1

13) A particle moving along x-axis, its v2 and position graph given in the figure. Initial acceleration of

the object is:-

(1) zero
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

14) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time after which it decelerates at a
constant rate b to come to rest. If total time taken by car is t, then maximum velocity V will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If position of particle is given by x = (t3 – 3t2 – 30) m than speed of particle when its acceleration
is zero is :-

(1) 30 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 0 m/s
(4) 34 m/s

16)

‘y-x’ graph of the particle moving in plane is given below. If the graph shows the motion of a particle
for 2 sec. The ratio of average velocity and average speed is :-
(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A particle moves along a path ABCD as shown in the figure. Then the magnitude of net

displacement of the particle from position A to D is:+

(1) 10 m
(2)
(3) 9 m
(4)

18) A body is released from a great height and falls freely towards the earth. Another body is
released from the same height exactly one second later. The separation between the two bodies, two
seconds after the release of the second body is

(1) 4.9 m
(2) 9.8 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 19.6 m

19) A car starts from rest and again comes to rest after travelling 200 m in a straight line. If its
acceleration and deacceleration are limited to 10 m/s2 and 20 m/s2 respectively then minimum time
the car will take to travel the distance is

(1) 20 s
(2) 10 s
(3)
(4) 20/3 s

20)

The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. Acceleration of
the body is proportional to:

(1) t4
(2) t
(3) t2
(4) t3

21) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball is at T/3 seconds

(1) h/9 meters from the ground

(2) 8h/9 meters from the ground
(3) 7h/9 meters from the ground
(4) 17h/18 meters from the ground

22) Some milk drops fall at regular interval from a leakage in vessel 20 m above the ground. The
first drop strikes the ground when fourth drop is leaving the leakage. The height of second drop
from ground is

(1) 15 m
(2) 100/9 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 10/3 m

23) A small block slides without friction down an inclined plane starting from rest. Let Sn be the

distance travelled from time t = n –1 to t = n Then is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) x-t graph of a particle moving along x-axis is shown. Then magnitude of average acceleration
from time 3 sec to 9 sec is :-

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

Common Content for Question No. 25 to 26

A ball is released from the top of a tower, assuming no air resistance acting on the ball. Ball strike
the ground and rebound with half of the speed of striking consider upward direction as positive.

25) Which of the following represents velocity time graph of the ball (Note :- graph is not up to
scale)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Acceleration time graph of the ball is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) If the energy, E = Gphqcr, where G is the universal gravitational constant, h is the Planck’s
constant and c is the velocity of light, then the values of p, q and r are, respectively (E = hv)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Given that , where y and x are measured in metre. Which of the following
statements is true?

(1) The unit of is same as that of x but not of A

(2) The unit of is same as that of x and A

(3)
The unit of c is same as that of
The unit of (ct – x) is same as that of
(4)
29) Assertion:- The first derivative of a vector of constant magnitude (either zero or a non-zero) is
perpendicular to the vector itself.
Reason:- Scalar product of two vectors obeys commutative law.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If assertion is false but reason is true
(3) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

30) Two forces, one with a magnitude of 3N and the other with a magnitude of 5N, are applied to an
object. For which orientations of the forces shown in the diagrams is the magnitude of the
acceleration of the object the least?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A physical quantity X is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of k, l, m

and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 8%
(2) 10%
(3) 12%
(4) None of these

32) Figure shows a 5 kg ladder hanging from a string that is connected with a ceiling and is having a
spring balance connected in between. A man of mass 25 kg is climbing up the ladder at acceleration
1 m/s2. Assuming the spring balance and the string to be massless, the reading of the spring balance
is :-

(1) 30 kg
(2) 32.5 kg
(3) 35 kg
(4) 37.5 kg

Common Content for Question No. 33 to 34

With almost four and half months are over in your present syllabus, it is foolish to ask "have you
heard of pulleys". Of course you all know about pulleys, but have you really thought about utility of a
pulley. The most important use of a pulley lies in the fact that a pulley not only can change direction
of your effort (force), but can also make you lift a bigger weight with a smaller force. Let us consider

figure 1 & 2. In both cases we have to just lift the block of mass M. It
is obvious that in case (2), Feffort will be half of Feffort in case (1) if we neglect mass of pulley and rope.
This ability of pulley to lift greater weight by applying smaller force can be measured by quantity
called "Mechanical Advantage". Mechanical advantage (M.A.) of a pulley system can be defined as

So M.A. in figure (1) is 1 and in figure (2) is 2.

33)

If makes an angle cos-1 (5/9) with each other, then for . The
integer value of n is

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

34)

The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measure value of
thickness of a thin sheet. If diagram show reading without and with thin sheet.
(1) 3.46 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.40 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

35)

One main scale division of a vernier caliper is equal to m units. If nth division of main scale coincides
with (n + 1)th division of vernier scale, the least count of the vernier caliper is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36)

The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Assertion (A) :- Action and Reaction forces do not cancel out each other.
Reason (R) :- It is because both do not act on the same body.

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Suppose refractive index is given as

Where A and B are constant and is wavelength, then dimensions of B are same as that of

(1) Area
(2) Volume
(3) Pressure
(4) Wavelength

39) A body goes 20 km north and then 10 km due east. The displacement of body from its starting
point is-

(1) 30 km
(2) 25.2 km
(3) 22.36 km
(4) 10 km

40) A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a height. The time taken by it to fall through
successive distances of 1 m each will then be

(1) All equal, being equal to seconds

In the ratio of the difference in the square rots of the integers, i.e.,
(2)

(3) In the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1, 2, 3, …

(4)
In the ratio of the reciprocal of the square roots of the integers, i.e.,

41) If the relation between distance x and time t is of the form ;

t = αx2 + βx
α and β being appropriate constants, then the retardation of the particle is :

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

42) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t second on earth's surface.
From the same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same
speed u and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 second respectively, then :–

(1) t = t1 – t2

(2)

(3)
(4)
43) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of
the particle at time t is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

If
then match the columns :-

Column (I) Column (II)

(A) (P) 0

(B) (Q) 10

(C) (R) 5

(1) A – R, B – P, C – Q
(2) A – Q, B – R, C – P
(3) A – Q, B – R, C – Q
(4) A – P, B – Q, C – R

45) The radius of spherical bubble is changing with time. Then rate of change of its volume is given
by :

(1)
4πr2

(2)
πr2

(3)
πr2

(4)
πr
 CHEMISTRY

1) During decomposition of H2O, the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of H2 liberated
under same conditions is :-

(1) 2.24 dm3

(2) 1.12 dm3
(3) 4.48 dm3
(4) 0.56 dm3

2) H2SO4 is 98% by mass of solution, if the density of solution is 1.8 g/ml, the molarity is :-

(1) 18 M
(2) 36 M
(3) 54 M
(4) 0.18 M

3) If (n + ℓ) = 4, then maximum possible orbitals will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

4) In Rutherford's scattering experiment, which of the following does not happen ?

(1) Most of the α-particles pass through without any deflection

(2) A few α-particles pass through the nucleus
(3) A very few α-particles are bounced back
(4) α-particles going near the nucleus are slightly deflected.

5) The first emission line in the H-atom spectrum in the Balmer series will have wave number: -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The number of photons emitted in 10 hours by a 60 W sodium lamp (λ of photon = 6000 Å)

(1) 6.50 × 1024

(2) 6.40 × 1023
(3) 8.40 × 1023
(4) 3.40 × 1023

7) Which is not a correct order of energy for 1, 2nd & 3rd orbit in an atom?

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) (PE)1 < (PE)2 < (PE)3
(3) (KE)1 < (KE)2 < (KE)3
(4) Both (1) and (3)

8) If the table of atomic masses were established with respect to oxygen atom and its assigned value
of atomic mass to be 100, then the mass of carbon atom would be, approximately:-

(1) 24
(2) 75
(3) 50
(4) 112

9) The radius of nucleus of will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Electromagnetic radiation travels through vacuum at a speed of

(1) 186000 ms–1

(2) 125 ms–1
(3) 3.00 × 108 ms–1
(4) It depends upon wavelength

11) The energy of a photon of light is _________ proportional to its frequency and _________
proportional to its wavelength.

(1) directly, directly

(2) inversely, inversely
(3) inversely, directly
(4) directly, inversely

12) The figure indicates the energy level diagram for the origin of six spectral lines in emission
spectrum (e.g. line no. 5 arises from the transition from level B to X) which of the following spectral
lines will not occur in the absorption spectrum: –

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 3, 2
(3) 3, 2, 1
(4) 4, 5, 6

13) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

14) In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum?

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 6 to n = 4
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

15) Which of the following has the largest de-Broglie wavelength (all have equal velocity) ?

(1) CO2 molecule

(2) NH3 molecule
(3) Electron
(4) Proton

16) In an electronic transition atom cannot emit: -

(1) Visible light

(2) Cosmic rays
(3) Infra-red light
(4) Ultra violet light

17) The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n =1 in a hydrogen
atom will be (Given ionization energy of H = 2·18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6·625 × 10–34 Js): -
(1) 1.03 × 1015 s–1
(2) 3.08 × 1015 s–1
(3) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
(4) 1.54 × 1015 s–1

18) The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen to the electron in first excited
state of Be3+ is: -

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 16
(4) 16 : 1

19) Total number of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are:

(1) 24 NA
(2) 2 NA
(3) 20 NA
(4) 10 NA

20) Which of the following concentration term depends upon temperature?

(1) Molality
(2) Mass%
(3) Molarity
(4) Mole fraction

21) The mass of a molecule of the compound C60H122 is:-

(1) 842 g
(2) 842 amu

(3)

(4) Both (2) & (3)

22) Which of the following has minimum number of atoms of oxygen:-

(1) 10 mL H2O(ℓ)
(2) 0.1 mol V2O5(s)
(3) 12 g of O3(g)
22
(4) 12.04 × 10 molecules of CO2

23) 11 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) CO2

24) How much volume of O2(g) is required for the combustion of 32 gm of CH4(g) at NTP

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 89.6 L
(3) 44.8 L
(4) 11.2 L

25) Which contains least number of molecules

(1) 2g CO2
(2) 2g N2
(3) 2g O2
(4) 2g H2

26) A hydrocarbon CnH2n gives CnH2n+2 by reduction. In this process the molar mass of the compound
is raised by 2.85%. The value of n is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

27)

Uncertainty in position of a 0.25 g particle is 10-5 m. Then uncertainty in its velocity will be:- (h = 6.6
× 10-34 Js)

(1) 2.1 × 10-26

(2) 1.2 × 1034
(3) 1.6 × 10-20
(4) 1.7 × 10-9

28) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 2:3. Their molecular masses are in the ratio
of

(1) 3:2
(2) 6:1
(3) 2:3
(4) 1:6

29) From 88 mg of CO2, 6.02 × 1020 molecules of CO2 is removed. Find moles of CO2 left
(1) 10–6
(2) 10–3
(3) 2 × 10–5
(4) 6.02 × 1023

30) Calculate the weight of 2 gram-atom of oxygen

(1) 32g
(2) 8 g
(3) 16 g
(4) 64 g

31) 10 amu is equal to

(1) 1.66 ×10–23 g

(2) 1.66 ×10–24 g
(3) 1.66 ×10–26 kg
(4) both 1 and 3

32) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) 11 g of CO2 (P) 0.05 mol

3.01 × 1022
(B) (Q) 0.25 mol
molecules of CO2

(C) 2.24 L of CO2(g) at NTP (R) 0.5 mol

3.01 × 1023 atoms

(D) (S) 0.1 mol
of N
(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)
(2) (A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)
(3) (A)–(Q); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(R)
(4) (A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)

33) Number of gram-atom of oxygen present in 0.8 mol of C4H6O6 would be :-

(1) 3.6
(2) 1.8
(3) 4.8
(4) 2.4

34) If vapour density of a gaseous hydrocarbon CnH2n+2 is 29, then the value of n is-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Equal mass of hydrogen gas and oxygen gas are taken in a container in identical conditions.
What is the ratio of their moles :-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 1 : 16

36) Which of the following has the maximum mass ?

(1) 0.1 mol C6H12O6

(2) 2 mol He
(3) 1 mol NH3
(4) 0.5 mol C6H6

37)

Which is not isoelectronic with O2– :-

(1) N–3
(2) Na+
(3) F–
(4) Ti+

38) The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion is R then radius of its 6th shell will be :-

(1) 2R

(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

39) If the velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is V, then what will be the velocity of electron
in 4th orbit of Be+3 :-

(1) V

(2)

(3) 16 V
(4) 4 V

40) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-
(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

41) The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 10–5 m. Calculate the
uncertainty in its velocity :-

(1) 5.2 × 10–28 m/sec

(2) 3 × 10–28 m/sec
(3) 5.2 × 10–22 m/sec
(4) 3 × 10–22 m/sec

42) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) An unknown amino acid has 0.032% sulphur by mass. If each molecule has one sulphur atom
only, 1 g of amino acid has ......... molecules :-

(1) 6.02 × 1018

(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 6.02 × 1024
(4) 6.02 × 1023

44) In a compound, x is 75.8% and y is 24.2% by weight present. If atomic weight of x and y are 24
and 16 respectively. Then calculate the empirical formula of the compound.

(1) x2y
(2) xy2
(3) xy
(4) xy3

45) What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution
according to the following reaction ? CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
[Calculate up to second place of decimal point]

(1) 1.32 g
(2) 3.65 g
(3) 9.50 g
(4) 1.25 g

BIOLOGY

1) During expiration:-

(1) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract

(2) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax
(3) Diaphragm relaxes and external intercostal muscles contract
(4) Diaphragm contracts and external intercostal muscles relax

2) Dead space does not take part in gaseous exchange because:

(1) Contain cartilaginous rings

(2) Simple squamous epithelium is absent
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) It lacks O2

3) The oxygen-Hb dissociation curve will show a right shift in case of:

(1) Low pCO2

(2) High pCO2
(3) High pO2
(4) Less H+ concentration

4)

In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by:

(1) Stethoscope
(2) Hygrometer
(3) Spirometer
(4) Sphignomanometer

5)

A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration. This
quantity of air taken in is:

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Vital capacity
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Inspiratory capacity

6) Assertion (A):- Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.
Reason (R):- Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and
thereby alter the respiratory rate.

If both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement
(1)
A
(2) If statement A is true but statement B is false
(3) If both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A
(4) If both statements A and B are false statements

7) Assertion (A):- The two lungs are covered by a double layered pleura, with pleural fluid between
them.
Reason (R):- Pleural fluid reduces the friction on the lung surface

(1) If both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A
If both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
A
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is false
(4) If both statements A and B are false statements

8)

In which part of lungs gaseous exchange takes place?

(1) Alveolar duct and Alveoli

(2) Trachea and alveolar duct
(3) Trachea and Bronchi
(4) Alveoli and Trachea

9) The respiratory process is regulated by respiratory rhythm centre present in medulla of the brain,
which is?

(1) Stimulated by higher CO2 and higher concentration

(2) Stimulated by lower O2 and concentration is aortic arch
(3) Inhibited by higher O2 and concentration
(4) Stimulated by lower O2 and higher concentration in carotid artery

10) During swallowing of food which of the following structures prevent the entering of food into the
glottis?

(1) Semilunar valve

(2) Circular muscular flap
(3) Cartilagenous flap
(4) Circular sphincter

11) CO2 which is released out of tissues, what is correct for bicarbonate
(1) 70% of CO2 is transported by blood in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin, bicarbonate
(2) 70% of CO2 is transported by blood in the form of bicarbonate
(3) 7% of CO2 is transported by blood in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin
(4) 20-25 of CO2 is transported by plasma in dissolved state

12) Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

(1) Asthma
(2) Respiratory acisois
(3) Respiratory alkalosis
(4) Emphysema

13) Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration because of:

(1) Inspiratory reserve volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Tidal volume

14) Choose the correct statement:

(1) Adrenal gland lacks duct

(2) Microvilli of epithelial cells increase the surface area
(3) The moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx have compound epithelium
(4) More than one option is correct

15) The specialized function shared by the cells that line the alveoli and those that line the lumen of
gut is that both types of cells:

(1) Receive their oxygen directly from inhaled air and ingested foods
(2) Form single layer of cell
(3) Have a lowered basal metabolic rate due to cooperative exchange between cells
(4) Have exceptionally high numbers of cellular organelles in the cytoplasm

16)

Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are line with

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Smooth muscle cells

17) Which of the following lacks duct?

(1) Salivary gland
(2) Gastric gland
(3) Sweat gland
(4) Pituitary gland

18)

Read the following statements:

i. Connective tissue forms the internal and external lining of most of the organs.

ii. In dense regular connective tissue, the collagen fibres are present in rows between many
parallel bundles of fibres.

iii. Dense irregular connective tissue has fibrblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are
oriented differently.

iv. Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of areolar tissues.

v. The intercellular material of cartilage is fluid, non-pliable and sensitive to compression.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) i, iv, and v

(2) ii, iii and iv
(3) iii, iv and v
(4) ii, iv and v

19)

Read the following statements w.r.t. frogs:

i. They are poikilotherms

ii. They performs mimicry to hide from their enemies.

iii. They undergo hibernation but no aestivation

iv. The frog never drinks water but absorb it through the skin

v. The skin usually remains dry How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

20) Frogs

(1) Show all of the above features

(2) Exhibit sexual dimorphism
(3) Have hindlimbs and forelimbs which help in walking, leaping and burrowing
(4) Have webbed digits that help in swimming

21)

The frog’s heart is enclosed within a membrane called:

(1) Sinus venosus

(2) Pleur
(3) Pericardium
(4) Mesorchium

22) Which of the following is true for the excretory system of frog?

(1) In female frogs ureters and oviduct forms the urinogenital duct that opens into cloaca
(2) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Urinary bladder is present dorsal to the rectum which open into the cloaca
Two ureters emerge from the kidneys of male frogs which act as urinogenital duct that opens
(4)
into cloaca

23) Which of the following can’t be the function of endoplasmic reticulum?

(1) Protein synthesis and secretion

(2) Dividing intercellular space into luminal and extra luminal compartments
(3) Synthesis of lipids
(4) Synthesis of steroidal hormones

24) Fill in the blanks.

In some organism karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which ....A.... condition
arises leading to the formation of .....B.....

(1) A – uninucleated, B – syncytium

(2) A – multinucleated, B – syncytium
(3) A – uninucleated, B – coenocytic
(4) A – enucleated, B – syncytium

25) Prophase is marked by :-

(1) Complete formation of nuclear envelop

(2) initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(3) Condensation of chromosomes is completed.
(4) Alignment of the chromosome at equatorial plate

26) Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which proteins

(1) Tubulin
(2) Myosin
(3) Actomyosin
(4) Myoglobin

27) Which of the following statements about centrosome is correct?

(1) Centrosomes have a pair of centrioles, made up of tubulin’s microfibrils

(2) It occurs beneath the kinetochore in chromosome
(3) It consists of two pairs of centrioles
(4) These are involved in formation of spindle apparatus during cell division in plant cell

28) Which of the following phase of cell cycle is reverse of prophase :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Dikaryophase

29) Cilia differ from flagella in:-

(1) Its pattern of arrangement of microtubules

(2) Having more thickness
(3) Occurring in numerous numbers all over the surface of the cell
(4) Helping the cell to more around

30) What is the average cell cycle span for a mammalian cell ?

(1) 24 hrs.
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 95 hrs.
(4) 24 minutes

31) G1, S and G2 are stages of

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

32) Identify the following figure of a stage of mitosis and choose the correct statement about it :

(1) Reform of nuclear envelope, nucleolus, ER and Golgi body

(2) Shows transition to metaphase
(3) Centromere split
(4) Chromosomes are moving towards opposite poles

33) Read the following statements and select the correct option that bears true statements :-
(i) During S-phase, amount of DNA per cell doubles, but chromosome number remains same.
(ii) A cell in G0 phase is metabolically inactive but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so
depending on the requirement of the organisms
(iii) Meiosis is called equational division.
(iv) At the end of prophase, golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope
get disappear

(1) only i, ii and iv

(2) only i, ii and iii
(3) only ii, iii and iv
(4) Only i and iv

34)

The protein required for synthesis of spindle fibres is synthesized in which phase of cell cycle:-

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S phase
(4) M phase

35) Which of the following graph correctly represents DNA content (2C) and chromosome number
(2n) of a diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell cycle ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) How many events in the list given below occurs in M-phase of meiosis-I.
Replication of DNA, synapsis, bivalent formation, crossing over, terminalization of chiasmata, tubulin
protein synthesis, centriole duplication, seperation of homologous chromosomes, nuclear membrane
disappear, nucleolus disappear.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

37)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of Anaphase.
Statement II : Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I
and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I and statement II both are true

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Statement I and statement II both are false

38) If a diploid cell has 24 chromosomes and 50 picogram of DNA in G2 phase, then find out the
number of chromosome and amount of DNA in anaphase.

(1) 24 chromosomes, 50 pg DNA

(2) 48 chromosomes, 50 pg DNA
(3) 24 chromosomes, 100 pg DNA
(4) 48 chromosomes, 100 pg DNA

39) Which stage of cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication and synthesis of Histones?
(1) S-phase
(2) G1-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) M-phase

40) Which one of the following correctly indicates the stages of mitosis at which particular events
occur.

Disappear Nuclear Division of

DNA Replication
Membrane centromere

(1) Interphase Prophase Anaphase

(2) Interphase Prophase Prophase

(3) Prophase Prophase Anaphase

(4) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) What will be the DNA content of the cells at G1, G2 and prophase if the content in G0 is 2C.

(1) 2C, 2C, 2C

(2) 4C, 4C, 4C
(3) 2C, 4C, 2C
(4) 2C, 4C, 4C

42) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

43) Read the following statements about cilium or flagellum and select the option which includes
correct statements-
(a) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are structurally similar
(b) Cilia work like oars and comparatively longer than flagella.
(c) Peripheral doublets are interconnected by A-B linker.
(d) Nine radial spokes are present.
(e) The core of cilium or flagellum is called axoneme.
Options :-

(1) b, d & e
(2) c, d & e
(3) a, b & c
(4) b, c & e

44) Fill up the blanks in the following statements with appropriate options :-
(I) Thylakoids are arranged is stacks like the pile of coin called ___(A)___.
(II) Ribosomes, are non-membrane bound granular structure first discovered by ____(B)____.
(III) The stroma of chloroplast contain enzymes required for the synthesis of ___(C)___.
(IV) Mitochondria produces cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called ___(D)___.

A B C D

(1) Grana Power house of the cell George palade Carbohydrate & protein

(2) Grana Power house of the cell Carbohydrate & protein George palade

(3) Grana George palade Carbohydrate & protein Power house of the cell

Power house
(4) Carbohydrate & protein Grana George palade
of the cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45)

Read the following statements (A to D) carefully-

(A) Nuclear envelope forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of
the cytoplasm.
(B) Both cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal bodies.
(C) The content of nucleolus is continuous with rest of the cytoplasm.
(D) In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of number of ions and other material along the
concentration gradient into the vacuole.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

46) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Chromatin (i) Present only in plant cells

(B) Centromere (ii) Loose & indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres.

(C) Metacentric (iii) Centromere is located at mid of the chromosome

(D) Kinetochore (iv) Primary constriction

(E) Microbodies (v) Site of attachment of spindle fibre

(vi) Minute vesicle bounded by membrane

Options -
(1) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - v, E - vi
(4) A - v, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii

47) Assertion : RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and
secretion.
Reason : The RER shows ribosomes attached to their surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

48) Read the statements carefully-

(a) Double membrane bounded cell organelle.
(b) Contain circular double stranded DNA.
(c) Contain 80S type ribosome
Select the correct option which is true for both mitochondria and chloroplast-

(1) Both (a) & (c) are correct

(2) Only (a) is correct and (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Only (b) & (c) are correct
(4) Both (a) & (b) are correct.

49) Given below are the two statements-

Statement-I : At number of places the nuclear envelop is interrupted by minute pores.
Statement-II : Materials of the nucleus is stained by the acidic dye was given the name chromatin
by Flemming.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

50) Assertion : Polar molecule require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their
transport across the membrane.
Reason : Polar molecule cannot pass through non-polar lipid bilayer.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Given below are the two statements-

Statement-I : Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction.
Statement-II : A few chromosome have non-staining secondary constriction at a constant location.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

52) Select the correct statements-

(A) According to Schleiden presence of cell wall is unique character of the plant cells.
(B) Cell theory was formulated by Schleiden & Schwann.
(C) Singer & Nicolson proposed that all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(D) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden & Schwann to gave cell theory a final
shape.
Option -

(1) Only (A), (B) & (C) are correct

(2) Only (A) & (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) & (D) are correct
(4) Only (B) & (D) are correct

53) Identify the given diagram & select the incorrect statement with respect to diagram

(1) It divide by fission

(2) Its number depend on physiological activities of cell.
(3) The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called cisternae
(4) It is considered as a site of aerobic respiration
54)
How many statements are correct with respect to given diagram.
(A) Varied number of cisternae are present.
(B) It act as important site of formation of glycolipids and glycoprotein.
(C) Cis-face and trans-face of the organelle are entirely similar but connected.
(D) It is densely stained reticular structure present near the nucleus.
Options-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

55) The vacuole is a membrane bounded structure found in cytoplasm of plant cells. The membrane
of vacuole is termed as-

(1) Cristae
(2) Grana
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Cisternae

56) Unicellular organism are capable of -

(1) Independent existance

(2) Perform the essential functions of life
(3) Sexual reproduction only
(4) Both (1) & (2)

57) Select the correct option with respect to A to D given in the diagram

A B C D

(1) Protein Integral protein Sugar Cholesterol

(2) Peripheral protein Integral protein Sugar Cholesterol

(3) Sugar Cholesterol Phospholipid bilayer Integral protein

 (4) Cholesterol Sugar Phospholipid bilayer Integral protein
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Match the column-I and column-II and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutral solutes (I) Active transport

(B) Water (II) Facilitated diffusion

(C) Polar molecules (III) Osmosis

(D) Na+/K+ Pump (IV) Simple diffusion

Options-
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

59) Which of the following structure gives shape to cell and protect the cell from mechanical damage
and infection ?

(1) Cell Wall

(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Golgi bodies

60) Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, mitochondria and vacuoles
(2) RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum is important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
(4) SER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in starch synthesis and secretion.

61) Given below are the two statement-

Statement-I : The Quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables the lateral movement of protein within the
overall bilayer.
Statement-II : The cell wall of a young plant cell, the primary cell wall is capable of growth and it
gradually diminishes as the cell mature.

(1) Both statement I & statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I & statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
62) Select the incorrect pair ?

(1) Golgi apparatus → Digestion of protein, lipid, carbohydrate and nucleic acid.
(2) Amyloplast → Storage of Carbohydrate
(3) Aleuroplast → Storage of proteins
(4) Elaioplast → Storage of fats/oils

63) ______ is the best stage to count the number and study the morphology of chromosomes:-

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

64) Svedberg unit in ribosome is a measure of

(1) Volume & velocity

(2) Size & density
(3) Size & molecular weight
(4) Size & Specific gravity

65) Functions like mechanical support, motility and maintenance of shape of cell are performed by-

(1) Cytoskeleton
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Centriole

66) Which of the following statement is incorrect for centrioles ?

(1) Both the centriole in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other.

(2) Central proteinaceous "Hub" is absent in centriole.
(3) Each centriole has an organisation like that of cart wheel.
(4) Centrosome usually contain two cylindrical centriole.

67) Large & more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out ________.

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Protein synthesis
(3) Vitamin synthesis
(4) Carbohydrate synthesis

68) Select the correct match -

(1) Nucleus → Discovered by Robert Brown

(2) Golgi complex → Discovered by Robert Brown
(3) Chromatin → Discovered by Singer & Nicolson
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum → Discovered by George Palade

69) Which cell organelle is found in both prokaryote and eukaryotes ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Vacuole
(4) Ribosome

70) Extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm is not found is -

(1) Eukaryotes
(2) Plant cell
(3) Prokaryotes
(4) Animal cell

71) Select the incorrect statement about nucleus-

(1) Nuclear pores are formed by the fusion of its two membrane
Nuclear pores allow the movement of RNA and protein in both direction between the nucleus
(2)
and cytoplasm
(3) Interphase nucleus has highly condensed nucleoprotein fibres called chromosomes.
(4) Nucleus is a double membrane bound structure

72) Read the statement carefully

(A) Chlorophyll pigments are present in thylakoids.
(B) Ribosomes of chloroplast are larger than cytoplasmic ribosomes.
(C) Number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas varies between 20 and 40.
(D) Centrioles acts as site of active ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) synthesis
How many of the above statement are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

73) How many of the following materials are present in the cell wall of algae ?
Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Galactans, Mannans, Peptidoglycan, Calcium carbonate.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

74) Consider the following statements-

(A) The middle lamella holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together.
(B) Cell wall is a living rigid structure.
(C) Human erythrocyte membrane has 52% lipids and 40% protein.
(D) Cell wall does not provide shape to cell.
How many of the above statement are incorrect ?

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Only (A) is incorrect
(3) All are incorrect except (A)
(4) All are incorrect except (B)

75) Select correct statement with respect to lysosome

(1) Lysosomes are membrane less vesicular structure

(2) They are rich in hydrolytic enzyme which becomes active at acidic pH.
(3) They contain minerals, sap, vitamin & sucrose
(4) They are formed by the process of packaging in Peroxisomes

76) At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:-

(1) Centromere
(2) Centromere
(3) Secondary constrictions
(4) Kinetochores

77) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Sub-metacentric chromosome (I) Centromere is situated close to its end.

(B) Acrocentric chromosome (II) 0.5 to 1.0 μm Diameter

(C) Peri-nuclear space (III) Centromere is slightly away from centre

(D) Cisternae of Golgi bodies (IV) 10-50 nm

(1) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(2) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(4) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

78) Find out incorrect statement about simple squamous epithelium.

(i) consist of two or more layers.
(ii) nucleus is elongated and present at the base.
(iii) form diffusion boundaries
(iv) found in the wall of stomach & intestine

(1) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(2) only (iii)
(3) (i) & (iii)
(4) (ii) & (iv)

79) Which type of epithelial tissue found in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and
fallopian tubes?

(1) Cuboidal Ciliated epithelium

(2) Columnar Ciliated epithelium
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Areolar connective tissue

80) Microvilli are :-

(1) Form brush bordered on the apical surface of some epithelial cells such as PCT
Microscopic cell membrane projections that increase surface area of the cells without any
(2)
increase in volume.
(3) Present in small intestine to increase surface area for food absorption.
(4) All of the above.

81) Read the following statement for cartilage –

(i) 1 – 4 cells are enclosed in lacuna
(ii) matrix is semisolid, pliable and can resist compression
(iii) It is a specialised connective tissue.
(iv) Most of the bones in vertebrates embryo are replaced by cartilages in adults.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i) & (ii)

(2) (i) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iv)

82) Which of the following is not correctly matched for Indian frog ?

(1) Hepatic Portal system - special venous connection between liver and heart.
(2) Renal Portal system - special venous connection between kidneys and lower parts of the body
(3) on land respiration by - skin, lungs and buccopharyngeal cavity
(4) Cranial nerves – 10 Pairs

83) The skin of Rana tigrina is –

(1) Pale yellow on dorsal side.

(2) Uniform Pale yellow on ventral side
(3) Spotted Pale yellow on ventral side
(4) Poison glands are present.

84) Which of the following is the correct location of copulatory pad on male frog ?

(1) First & second digit of hind limb

(2) Second digit of hind limb.
(3) First digit of fore limb.
(4) First digit of hind limb

85) Name the vessel that carry blood from Lungs to the heart in a frog?

(1) Pulmonary artery

(2) Pulmonary vein
(3) Aorta
(4) Vena Cava

86) Given below are two statements

Statement-I: When two or more tissue perform a common function by their physical and or
chemical interaction, they together form organ system.
Statement-II: Function of cells vary according to their structure.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statement I & II are true
(4) Both statement I & II are false

87) Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct option -

List-I List-II

Flattened cell with irregular

(A) (i) Fallopian tube
boundries

(B) Microvilli and nucleus at the base (ii) Small intestine

(C) Microvilli and nucleus in the centre (iii) PCT

(D) Cilia and nucleus at the base (iv) Lining of blood vessel
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

88) Assertion (A) : Ligaments are dense regular connective tissue.

Reason (R) : Fibroblasts are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

89) How many of the following statement is/are correct?

(i) Loose connective tissue is present in the skin.
(ii) Adipose connective tissue is specialised to store fat.
(iii) Matrix of cartilage is secrete by chondrocytes.
(iv) The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of RBC only.

(1) (i) & (iv)

(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) & (iv)

90) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) In Rana organ of touch, taste and small are well organised organs.
(2) Four optic lobes-corpora quadrigemina are present in mid brain of frog.
(3) Ovaries of frog are connected with kidneys structurally and functionally.
(4) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise from testes in Rana.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 3 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Diaphragm and 70% of CO2 is
A. external intercostal 3 High pCO2 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 transported by blood in 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 1
muscles relax the form of bicarbonate
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) At t = 1, xA = 3, xB = 6, yA = 1 and yB = 5

so distance =

unit

2)
At x = 0, y = ∞ & At y = 0, x = ∞

3) = 3x2 – 6x = 0 ⇒ 3x(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 0 or x = 2

Now, = 6x – 6

for x = 2; = 6 = +ve
Hence y is minimum at x = 2
ymin = 23 – 3(2)2 + 6 = 2

4) (i) (ii)
Slope = +ve Slope = +ve

(iii) (iv)
Slope = constant Slope = –ve
5) [M1L1T-1]

6)

7) | | =F

=2F

8)

= 18 – 32 ≠ 0

9)

10)
If ,
if angle between & is θ then
R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cosθ
Q2 = A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ
If θ = 90°, R = Q So
If θ = 120°, and
Q= ,
and

if θ = 180°,
because either or is greater
so option (2)​ is incorrect.

11) 6 cm/sec2

12)

at t = 0, x = 4 m
v = t2 – 3t + 2 = (t – 1) (t – 2)
0 < t < 1 sec, v = +ve but decreasing because at t = 1 sec, v = 0 and particle is changing its
direction.
1 < t < 2 sec, v = – ve ⇒ Particle is moving towards origin.
a = 2t – 3
t > 2 particle accelerates

13) Slope =

14)

15)

v = 3t2 – 6t
a = 6t – 6 = 0 (t = 1 sec)

16)
Let time of journey is t

average velocity = m/sec

average speed = m/sec

ratio of average velocity to average speed is = =

17)

18)

24.5 m

19)

20) t

21) 8h/9 meters from the ground

22)

100/9 m

23)

24) = 5 m/s

= –10 m/s m/s2

25)

Before strike with ground v = –gt

After strike with ground where v0 is maximum velocity before strike

26) = constant

27)

28)

The unit of is same as that of x and A

29)

If assertion is false but reason is true

30) Magnitude of acceleration will be least when net force is least, which possible when two
vector have angle 180° between them.

31) 12%

32) F.B.D. of man

R – Wm = 25 × 1
R = 25 + 250 = 275 N
F.B.D. of ladder

T = R + WL
T = 275 + 50 = 325 N
reading 32.5 kg

33)

2.3 kg, 0.02 g

34)

M.A. =

35)

36)
y = 2x2

at x = 1,

Slope =

37)

If the angle between the vectors is , the value of the product is equal to

38) Area

39) Displacement = Displacement =

Displacement = Displacement = Displacement ≈ 22.36 km

40)
In the ratio of the difference in the square rots of the integers, i.e.,

41) t = αx2 + βx ⇒ dt = (2αx + β) dx

⇒ v = (2αx + β)–1

So,

Therefore retardation

42)

If a stone is dropped from height h then

......(i)
If a stone is thrown upward with velocity u then

......(ii)
If a stone is thrown downward with velocity u then

......(iii)
From (i), (ii) and (iii) we get

......(iv)

......(v)

......(vi)

......(vii)
Dividing (vi) and (vii) we get

or
By solving

43)
 44) = area under the curve

= × 5 + 4 = 10

= constant

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

H2O → H2(g) + O2(g)

volume of H2(g) = 2 × vol. of O2(g)

47)

98 g of H2SO4 in 100 g of solution

48)

4 + 0 = 4s
3 + 1 = 3p

49)

α-particles can not pass through the nucleus.

50)
51) 6.50 × 1024

52)

Both (1) and (3)

53)

Calculation:-
New AM of C = 75
Final Answer:- 75

54)

r = 1.33×10–15×(33)1/3 (A = 27)
r = 3.99 × 10–15 meter
or r = 4×10–15m

55)

Electromagnetic radiation travels through vacuum at a speed of light (3 × 108m/sec)

56)

we need to explain energy of a photon according to Planck's quantum theory.

E∝υ

57)

4, 5, 6

58)

1.

2.

3.

59)
n = 3 to n = 1

60)
λ will be maximum when mass (m) is minimum.

61)

Cosmic rays

62)

3.08 × 1015 s–1

63)

1:4

64)

Total no. of electrons present = no of moles NA electrons carried by single species

65)

Correct option is (3)

Molarity term has volume and volume changes with temperature.

66)

Mass of one molecule of C60H122

= 60 × C + 122 × H = 842 a.m.u.

67) H2O → 10 mL = 10g mol O - atoms

V2O5 → 0.1 mol = 0.5 mol O - atoms

O3 → 12 g = 0.25 mol
O3 = 0.75 mol O - atoms

CO2 → = 0.2 mol

CO2 = 0.4 mol O - atoms

68)
Mw = 44

69)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

2 mol
moles of O2 required = 2 × 2 = 4
vol. of O2 at STP = 4 × 22.4 = 89.6 L

70)

71)

n=5

72)

2.1 × 10-26

73)

vapour density ∝ Mw

74)

Initial moles of CO2 = = 2 × 10–3

Moles of CO2 removed =

Moles left = 2 × 10–3 – 10–3 = 10–3

75)

2 g-atoms = 2 mole-atoms
= 32 g

76)

Correct option is (4)

both 1 and 3

77)

Correct option is (4)

(A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)

78)

1 mol C4H6O6 has gram atoms (mol) of O-atoms = 6 mol

∴ 0.8 mol C4H6O6 will have O-atoms = 6 × 0.8
= 4.8 mol

79)

Mw = 2 × vapour density
Mw of CnH2n+2 = 12n + 2n + 2
= 14n + 2
14n + 2 = 58
14n = 56
n=4

80)

81)

Correct option is (4)

Mass = Mole × Mw

82)

O2– = 8 + 2 = 10
1. N3– = (7 + 3 = 10).
2. Na+ = (11 – 1 = 10).
3. F– = (9 + 1 = 10).
4. Ti+ = (22 - 1 = 21).

83)
 r= Å

⇒∴

84) V ∝

85) T ∝ n3

86)
m = 0.01 kg, Δx = 10–5 m h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js

87)

88)
M = 105

89) Element % Simple Ratio Mol

x 75.8 75.8/24 = 3.11 2
y 24.2 24.2/16 = 1.5 1
Empirical Formula : x2y

90) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq.) → CaCl2(aq.) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ) no. of moles of CaCO3 (pure) = × mole of
HCl
[Mole = molarity × volume(in ltr.)]

=
weight of CaCO3 (pure) = mole × mol. wt
= 0.0125 × 100 = 1.25 g

% purity =

wt. of impure sample =

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT Pg.# 48 to 51

92) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

93) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

94) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 59

95)

Fact, NCERT [Link] 51.

96)

NCERT XI, Pg.#44

97)

Module

98)

NCERT-XI, Page # 46

99)

NCERT XI Pg.#37,38

100)

NCERT Pg.# 48

101)

CORRECT OPTION = 2
Fasciola = Many larval stages

102) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT XI pg no. 42

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48, Fig. 4.20

105) Question Explanation :

The question is asking which statement is not correct about amphibians.

Concept :
This question is based on Amphibia.

Solution :
Incorrect – In amphibians, alimentary canal, reproductive tract and urinary tract all open into
a common chamber called the cloaca. The statement says the urinary tract opens directly
outside, which is wrong.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 45

107) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 43

108) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56-60

109) NCERT Pg # 46-47 para 4.1, 4.1.1

110) NCERT Pg # 48 para 4.1.4 fig 4.3 (a, b, c)

111) NCERT Pg # 40 para 4.2.1

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 56 Para [Link] Fig 4.18

113)

NCERT XI Pg. No. : 127

114)

NCERT XI Pg. No. : 125

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 122
116)

Nurture Module # 1, Pg. # 190

117)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

118) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 124

119)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

120) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121

121) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121

122) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 123

123)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121, 122

124)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

125) If number of chromosomes is 2n in G1 phase then till metaphase of M-phase it remains 2n

but in anaphase of M-phase due to splitting of centromere number of chromosomes become
double i.e., 4n then due to division of cell the number of chromosome again become 2n in each
daughter cell.
If amount of DNA is 2C in G1 phase, it become double i.e., 4C during S-phase due to DNA
replication. The amount of DNA remains 4C till the end of M-phase but when mother cell
divides into two then amount of DNA become 2C again in each daughter cell.
G1 ावथा म यिद गु णसूा की सं या 2n है तो M-ावथा की मे टाफेज तक यह 2n ही रहती है परतु M-ावथा
की एनाफेज म से ट ोमीयर के टू टने से गु णसूा की सं या दुगुनी अथात् 4n हो जाती है उसके बाद कोिशका के
िवभाजन के कारण ये क पु ी कोिशका म गु णसूा की सं या पु नः 2n हो जाती है ।
G1 ावथा म यिद DNA की माा 2C है तो DNA ितकृितकरण के कारण S-ावथा के दौरान यह दुगुनी अथात्
4C हो जाती है । M-ावथा के अं त तक DNA की माा 4C बनी रहती है परतु जब मातृ कोिशका, दो कोिशकाओं
म िवभािजत होती है तो यके पु ी कोिशका म DNA की माा पु नः 2C हो जाती है ।

126) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125,126,127,128

127)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125

128)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 125

129)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 126

130)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 122,123

131)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 121,122

132)

NCERT XI Pg.# 127 (Figure 10.3),128 (Figure 10.4)

Given in question ⇒ n = 23 so 2n = 46
Anaphase - I = 2n = 46 chromosomes
Each chromosome is with two chromatids so total = 92 chromatids
Anaphase-II = n = 23 chromosomes which splits into 46 chromosomes. Each chromosome
contains 1 chromatid so total = 46 chromatids.
न म िदया गया है ⇒ n = 23 अतः 2n = 46
पचावथा - I = 2n = 46 गु णसू
ये क गु णसू म दो ोमे िटड्स अतः कुल = 92 ोमे िटड्स
पचावथा-II = n = 23 गु णसू जो 46 गु णसूा म टू ट जाते है । ये क गु णसू एक ोमे िटड रखता है अतः कुल =
46 ोमे िटड

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97, 98

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96, 98, 100

136) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100, 101 & 102

137) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97 & 98

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101 & 102

142) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87 & 88

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96, 97

153)

In tomato, chloroplasts convert into chromoplasts during ripening of tomato

154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 98

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, 100

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 97, 100

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97, 98, 99 & 100

163) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

164) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93 & 94

165) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

166) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

167) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 98, 101

168) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

170) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 82

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 81

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 82

176) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100, 101

177) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

178) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103, 104

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83