19-01-2025

7501CMD303035240057 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In a P-N junction diode, increase in forward bias voltage results in :-

(1) Increase in width of depletion layer and majority current.

(2) Increase in width of depletion layer and majority, current decrease.
(3) Decrease in width of depletion layer and majority current increase.
(4) Both width of depletion layer and majority current decrease.

2) According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If current in the circuit is 3A, then impedance of the circuit shown in the figure is :-

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 30 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

4) A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping
potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V0. if the same surface is illuminated with light
of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for
photoelectric effect is :-

(1) 4 λ

(2)

(3)

(4) 6 λ

5) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is:-

(1) a n-type semiconductor

(2) a p-type semicoductor
(3) a insulator
(4) a metal

6) Which of the following gates will have an output of 1 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

Which one is not Maxwell’s equation?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

8) Assuming the diodes to be of silicon with forward resistance zero, the current I in the following
circuit is :-

(1) 0
(2) 9.65 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 10.36 mA

9) Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Energy levels A,B, C of a certain atom corresponding to increasing values of energy i.e EA < EB <
EC. If are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and
C to A respectively, which of the following statements is correct

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : –1
(3) 2 : –1
(4) 1 : –2

12) In an LCR series circuit, the potential difference between the terminals of the inductance is 60
V, between the terminals of the capacitor is 30 V and across the resistance is 40V. Then supply
voltage will be equal to :-

(1) 50 V
(2) 70 V
(3) 130 V
(4) 10 V

13) A solar cell convert solar radiation into electric energy when solar radiation incident on :

(1) P-region
(2) N-region
(3) Depletion layer
(4) Complete P-N junction

14) The binding energy per nucleon, (Ebn) has a maximum value

(1) 8.75 MeV for A = 238

(2) 9.82 MeV for A = 32
(3) 8.75 MeV for A = 56
(4) 9.82 MeV for A = 100

15) A proton and an electron both have same kinetic energy 50 eV.
Statement I: Both have different wavelengths.
Statement II: Wavelength depends on energy, not on mass.
In light of above statement choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements I and statements II are incorrect.

16) In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, I = 100 sin (100t + π/3) mA. The
power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 104 watt

(2) 10 watt
(3) 2.5 watt
(4) 5.0 watt

17) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 ×1014 Hz is produced by laser. The power emitted is 2.0 ×
10–3 W. How many photons per second on an average are emitted by the source

(1) 9 × 1021 per second

(2) 5.0 × 1015 per second
(3) 1.5 × 1032 per second
(4) None of these

18) For which gate the given truth table is :

(1) NAND
(2) AND
(3) OR
(4) NOR

19) The Magnetic field of an EM wave is sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t)T. The amplitude
of electric field is

(1) 16 V/m along z-axis

(2) 3 V/m along z-axis
(3) 6 V/m along z-axis
(4) 2 × 10-8 V/m along z-axis

20) The pressure of water at bottom in a lake is times that of half depth. The atmospheric pressure
is equal to the water barometer height 10 m. The depth of the lake is:-
(1) 15 m
(2) Infinite
(3) 20 m
(4) 10 m

21) The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by

where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively.

The value of wave vector k is

(1) 2 m–1
(2) 0.5 m–1
(3) 6 m–1
(4) 3 m–1

22)

A liquid X of density 3.36 g/cm3 is poured in a U-tube, which contains Hg. Another liquid Y is poured
in left arm with height 8 [Link] levels of X and Y are same. (Density of Hg = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3)
What is density of Y ?

(1) 0.8 gm/cc

(2) 1.2 gm/cc
(3) 1.4 gm/cc
(4) 1.6 gm/cc

23) In photoelectric effect, the curve between photoelectric current and anode potential V (For

different frequencies) is shown in figure, then

(1) ν1 > ν2 > ν3

(2) ν1 < ν2 < ν3
(3) ν1 = ν2 = ν3
(4) ν1 > ν2 < ν3

24) When 100 volt DC is applied across a solenoid, a current of 1.0 amp flows in it. When 100 volt
AC is applied across the same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp. If the frequency of the AC source is
50 Hz the impedance and inductance of the solenoid are
(1) 200 ohm and 0.55 henry
(2) 100 ohm and 0.86 henry
(3) 200 ohm and 1.0 henry
(4) 100 ohm and 0.93 henry

25) In a RLC circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain
unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to

(1) L
(2) 2 L

(3)

(4)

26) Water is filled in a beaker upto height of 5m. What will be pressure at bottom (Consider Patm =
105 Pa) :-

(1) 1.5 × 105 Pa

(2) 2.5 × 105 Pa
(3) 0.5 × 105 Pa
(4) 3.5 × 105 Pa

27) An electric bulb of 100 W – 300 V is connected with an AC supply of 500 V and Hz . The
required inductance to save the electric bulb is

(1) 2 H

(2)

(3) 4 H

(4)

28) For an electromagnetic wave in vaccum

Ey = E0sin(kx – ωt) ; Bz = B0 sin (kx – ωt)
Then speed of EM wave is

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) None of these

29) Total energy of electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is equal to the

(1) Total energy of electron in 1st orbit of He+

(2) Total energy of electron in 3rd orbit of He+
(3) Total energy of electron in 2nd orbit of Li++
(4) Total energy of electron in 3rd orbit of Li++

30) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If radius of nucleus is taken to be RAl then the radius of nucleus is nearly:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Assertion: Density of all the nuclei is same.

Reason: Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number.

If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

33) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the 1kΩ is :-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

34) The reading of voltmeter and ammeter in the following figure will respectively be

(1) 0V and 2A
(2) 2V and 0A
(3) 2V and 2A
(4) 0V and 0A

35) For an AC circuit V = 15 sin ωt and I = 20 cos ωt. The average power consumed in this circuit is
:-

(1) 300watt
(2) 150watt
(3) 75watt
(4) zero

SECTION-B

1) An open vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration 'a' in the horizontal direction.
Then the free surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an angle θ given by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) When an AC signal of frequency 1 kHz is applied across a coil of resistance 100Ω, then the applied
voltage leads the current by 45°. the inductance of the coil is :

(1) 16mH
(2) 12mH
(3) 8mH
(4) 4mH
3) In the equation : , The correct symbol for X is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The rms value of current i = (2 + 4 sinωt) is equal to (where t is in second)

(1) 4 A
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) Given circuit is

(1) Half wave rectifier

(2) Full wave rectifier
(3) Bridge rectifier
(4) None

6) The displacement current is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For very high frequencies, the effective impedance of the circuit (shown in the figure) will be :
(1) 4 Ω
(2) 6 Ω
(3) 1 Ω
(4) 3 Ω

8) The sides of a rectangle are (10.5 ± 0.2) cm and (5.2 ± 0.1) cm. Then its perimeter with error
limits is :-

(1) (31.4 ± 0.6)cm

(2) (31.4 ± 0.3)cm
(3) (51.6 ± 0.6)cm
(4) (51.6 ± 0.3)cm

9) If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubled, its de-Broglie wavelength changes to the factor:

(1)

(2)
(3) 1/2
(4) 2

10) In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading

will respectively be :-

(1) 0 V, 3 A
(2) 150 V, 3 A
(3) 150 V, 6 A
(4) 0 V, 8 A

11) If , find % error in B if % error in A, C and x are 1%, 2% and 2% respectively :-

(1) 15%
(2) 3%
(3) 6.5%
(4) 4.5%

12) A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to
230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power
transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be :

(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s

(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

13) With the gradual increase in frequency of an a. c. source, the impedance of an LCR series circuit

(1) First decreases, becomes minimum and then increases.

(2) Increases
(3) Decreases.
(4) Remains constant.

14) Stopping potential depends on

(1) Frequency of incident light

(2) Intensity of incident light
(3) Number of emitted electrons
(4) Number of incident photons

15) For an electromagnetic wave

BZ = (10nT) sin [kx – ωt] then direction of propagation of EMW is

(1) –x axis
(2) +x axis
(3) +z axis
(4) –y axis

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) + HI ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
2) Consider the following reaction sequence Product A and C
respectively are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
Product (A) and (B) respectively are

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4)
A and B are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Find correct for this reaction representation :

(1) Rate will be decreases when CH3Cl is replaced by CH3Br

(2) Reaction rate does not depend on conc. of OH–
(3) Optical behaviour with plane polarised light of P is different from Q
(4) Reaction follow second order kinetics

6)

.
The product 'C' in the above sequence of reaction is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Identify product B ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Total number of elements of 5th period which have one or more than one 5d electrons :

(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 30
(4) Zero

9) The Incorrect statement(s) among the following is/are :

(1) The first ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than first ionisation energy of oxygen
(2) The second ionisation energy of copper is greater than that of potassium
(3) The third ionisation energy of Mg is greater that the third ionisation energy of Al
+ +
(4) The IE1 of Mg is less than the IE1 of Na

10) The acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides, respectively, are :

(1) Na2O, SO3, Al2O3

(2) Cl2O, CaO, P4O10
(3) N2O3, Li2O, Al2O3
(4) MgO, Cl2O, Al2O3

11) When the first electron gain enthalpy (ΔegH) of oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron gain
enthalpy is :

(1) a more negative value than the first

(2) almost the same as that of the first
(3) negative, but less negative than the first
(4) a positive value

12) Which of the following hydrogen bonds is strongest ?

(1) O– H -----F
(2) O–H-----H
(3) F–H-----F
(4) O–H-----O

13) Which of the following best describes the diagram of molecular orbital ?

(1) A bonding π orbital

(2) A non-bonding orbital
(3) An antibonding σ orbital
(4) An antibonding π orbital

14) Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure ?

(1)
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) XeO3

15) The ONO angle is maximum in :

(1)
(2)
(3) NO2
(4)

16) Dipole-induced dipole interactions is present in which of the following pairs ?

(1) Cl2 and CCl4

(2) HCl and He atoms
(3) SiF4 and He atoms
(4) H2O and alcohol

17) Which of the following order is not correct ?

(1) SF2 > SF4 > SF6 (ionic character)

(2) AlF3 < Al2O3 < AIN (convalent character)
(3) CaCl2 < SnCl2 < CdCl2 (convalent character)
(4) ZnCl2 < CdCl2 < HgCl2(ionic character)

18) The average formal charge presents on the nitrogen and oxygen atom in ion is
(1) +1 and –1/3
(2) +1 and –2/3
(3) 0 and –1/3
(4) –1 and –1/3

19) Statement - I : Excitation of electron to a higher energy orbital is an essential condition for
hybridization.
Statement - II : CH4 formation takes place in the first excited state of carbon.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

20) Which among the given options below is incompletely matched :

(1) Boiling point : o-nitrophenol < p-nitrophenol

(2) Vapour pressure : o-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol
(3) Solubility : o-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol
(4) Viscosity : o-nitrophenol < p-nitrophenol

21) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

I SF6 A Ground state

II BrF3 B 1st excited state

III NH3 C 2nd excited state

IV XeF6 D 3rd excited state

(1) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV – D
(2) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A
(3) I – C, II – B, III – D, IV – A
(4) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B

22) The kind of force of attraction present between the H2O molecule and NaCl in aqueous NaCl is :

(1) Dipole – Dipole

(2) Ion – Dipole
(3) London dispersion force
(4) Dipole – Induced dipole

23) Which given molecule does not have same bond order as of N2 ?

(1) CN–
(2) CO
 2+
(3) O2
+
(4) C2

24) The correct order of mobility of ions in aqueous state is represented in the given choice :

(1) Li+ > NCl+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(2) Ba2+ > Sr2+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(3) B3+ > Be2+ > Li+
(4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+

25) The correct order of intensity of colour can be best explained in the example :

(1) HgCl2 < HgI2

(2) PbF2 > PbBr2
(3) AgCl > AgI
(4) PbO > PbS

26) Assertion : With increase in charge on cation the polarising power increases.
Reason : Covalent nature in a compound is directly proportional to the polarising power of cation.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is wrong

27) H2O + H+ → H3O+

In this protonation process :

(1) Hybridisation changes

(2) Bond angle decreases
(3) Shape changes
(4) Geometry changes

28) An elementary reaction between A and B is a second order reaction. Which of the following rate
equations must be correct ?

0
(1) r = k[A]2 [B]
(2) r = k[A]3/2 [B]1/2
0
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

29) A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2 sec–1. How much time will it take for 20
g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

(1) 138.6 sec

(2) 346.5 sec
(3) 693.0 sec
(4) 238.6 sec

30) For two zero order reaction having same rate at certain temperature. If = 3RT. Find ℓn

(For reaction having activation energy pre-exponential factor is A1 and reaction having
activatial energy , pre expotential factor is A2)

(1) +3
(2) –3

(3)

(4) 3ℓn3

31) For a homogenous gaseous reaction A → 3B, if pressure after time t was PT and after completion
of reaction, pressure was P∞ then select correct relation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) For reaction A → B, the rate constant

k1 = and for the reaction X → Y, the rate constant k2 = . If A1 = 109, A2 =
1010 and = 1200 cal/mol and = 1800 cal/mol, then the temperature at which k1 = k2 is :
(Given : R = 2 cal/K-mol)

(1) 300 K
(2) 300 × 2.303 K

(3)
K
(4) None of these

33) Consider the following statements and select the correct option :-
Statement-I :- Lyophobic sols needs stabilising agents for their preservation.
Statement-II :- Lyophilic sols are readily precipitated (or coagulated) on the addition of small
amount of electrolytes.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

34) Phenolphthalein color in basic medium is

(1) Pink
(2) Orange
(3) Yellow
(4) Colourless

35) An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to :-

(1) Increase in number of ions

(2) Increase in ionic mobility of ions
(3) 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
(4) Increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions.

SECTION-B

1) Compound (A), C8H9Br, gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of
(A) gives an acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following reaction will give ether as major product ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) Compound A and C in the following reaction are :-

(1) Identical
(2) Positional Isomer
(3) Functional Isomer
(4) Optical Isomer

4) In the following sequence of reaction

the compound 'D' is :-

(1) Propanal
(2) Butanal
(3) n-butyl alcohol
(4) n-propyl alcohol

5) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A neutral molecule XF3 has a zero dipole moment. The element X is most likely

(1) chlorine
(2) boron
(3) nitrogen
(4) carbon

7) Match List I and List II and pick out correct matching codes from the given choices :
 List I List II
Compound Structure

A. CIF3 1. Square planar

B. PCl5 2. Tetrahedral

C. IF5 3. Trigonal bipyramidal

D. CCl4 4. Square pyramidal

E. XeF4 5. T-shaped
Codes :
(1) A→5, B→ 4, C→ 3, D→ 2, E→1
(2) A→ 5, B→ 3, C→ 4, D→ 2, E→1
(3) A→ 5, B→ 3, C→ 4, D→ 1, E→2
(4) A→ 1, B→ 3, C→ 5, D→ 2, E→1

8) Assertion (A) : Electron affinity refers to an isolated atom's attraction for an additional electron
while electronegativity is the ability of an atom of an element to attract electrons towards itself in a
shared pair of electrons.
Reason (R) : Electron affinity is a relative number and electronegativity is experimentally
measurable.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

9) Match column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II
(Molecules) (Property)

P. IF7 1. Planar and polar

Q. SO2 2. Non planar and polar

R. SF4 3. Planar and non polar

S. CS2 4. Non planar and non polar

(1) P→ 4, Q→ 1, R→ 2, S→3
(2) P→ 4, Q→ 2, R→ 1, S→3
(3) P→ 3, Q→ 1, R→ 2, S→4
(4) P→ 3, Q→ 1, R→ 4, S→2

10) Pick the incorrect statement :

–
(1) N2 → N2 : addition of electron to ABMO
+
(2) N2 → N2 : removal of electron from BMO
 –
(3) O2 → O2 : addition of electron to BMO
–
(4) Li2 → Li2 : addition of electron to ABMO

11) Given = –0.72V, = – 0.42V.

The potential for cell
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01M) | Fe is : -

(1) – 0.26 V
(2) 0.26 V
(3) 0.33e V
(4) – 0.33e V

12) Three mole of electrons are passed through three solution in succession containing AgNO3,
CuSO4 and AuCl3 respectively.
The ratio of amounts of cations reduced at cathode will be :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 6 : 3 : 2

13) If temperature coefficient of the rate of a reaction is 2. How many times the rate of reaction
would increase if temperature is raised by 30°C.

(1) 8 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 16 times
(4) 4 times

14) Graph between logK v/s is straight line and having value of slope equal to –10. Find value of
activation energy.

(1) 46 cal mol–1

(2) 4.6 cal mol–1
(3) 460 cal mol–1
(4) 0.46 cal mol–1

15) During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), Which of the
following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?

(1) dilute hydrochloric acid

(2) concentrated sulphuric acid
(3) dilute nitric acid
(4) dilute sulphuric acid
 BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by enzyme :-

(1) Maltose
(2) Anylase
(3) Invertase
(4) Hexokinase

2) How many ATP are produced by complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl- CoA by Kreb's cycle
?

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 30
(4) 24

3) Number of glucose molecules required to produces 38 ATP molecules under anaerobic conditions
is:

(1) 2
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 38

4) Yeasts poison themselves to death if the concentration of alcohol reaches about :-

(1) 20%
(2) 15%
(3) 13%
(4) 10%

5) In glycolysis there is one step where NADH+H+ is formed from NAD+, this is when :

(1) PGAL is converted to 1-3 Bis PGA

(2) Fructose-1,6-Bis-P is converted to PGAL
(3) 3-PGA is converted to 2-PGA
(4) PEP is converted to pyruvic acid

6) What is the common intermediate of carbohydrate and fat degradation?

(1) OAA
(2) Acetyl coA
(3) citrate
(4) succinate

7) In Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas pathway respectively at how many steps ATP is synthesised,
NAD+ is reduced and ATP is utilised ?

(1) Two, One and Two

(2) One, Two and One
(3) Five, Two and Two
(4) Three, One and Two

8) In lactic acid fermentation :-

(1) There is no glycolysis

(2) There is no reduction
(3) There is no ATP formation
(4) There is no decarboxylation

9) A - Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell.

B - Process is independent of oxygen.
C - It can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions.
Choose the correct option for given statements A to C :-

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Link reaction
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Fermentation

10) Which one is mobile H carrier ?

(1) Cyt-C
(2) UQ
(3) FMN
(4) FeS

11) In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the :

(1) Matrix
(2) Outer membrane
(3) Inner membrane
(4) Intermembrane space

12) Cytochrome 'c' is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner membrane of
mitochondria and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between–

(1) Complex I and II

(2) Complex IV and V
(3) Complex II and III
(4) Complex III and IV

13) Complex IV of ETS contains :-

(1) Cytochrome b, cytochrome c & one copper centre

(2) Cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 & four copper centres
(3) Cytochrome c1,cytochrome c & three copper centres
(4) Cytochrome a, cytochrome a3 & two copper centres

14) Ethylene is synthesised in large amounts by :-

(1) Young leaves

(2) Ripening fruits
(3) Meristem
(4) Flowers

15) Which plant hormone promotes the growth of lateral buds ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Abscisic acid

16) Hormone involved in induction of α–amylase in Barley endosperm :

(1) GA
(2) NAA
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA

17) Which one pair is wrong :-

Hormone Bioassay

(1) Auxins Apical Dominance

(2) Gibberellin Seed germination

(3) Cytokinin Cell division

(4) Ethylene Parthenocarpy in Tomato

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Match the column I and II.

 Column-I Column-II

(A) IAA (i) Carotenoids

(B) Kinetin (ii) Terpenes

(C) ABA (iii) Indole compound

(D) GA3 (iv) Adenine derivative

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

19) A gaseous PGR that is both growth promoter and growth inhibitor and it stimulates the
formation of root hairs is :-

(1) ABA
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) CH4 gas

20) Which of the following is a weedicide ?

(1) N6-Furturyl Amino Purine

(2) ABA
(3) GA3
(4) 2,4, –D

21) Length of stalks of grape fruit increases due to application of -

(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Cytokinin

22) Isolation of zeatin was performed on :-

(1) Corn kernel and coconut milk

(2) Shoot tips
(3) Germinating seed
(4) Ripening fruit

23) Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling :-
 a-elongation, b-differentiation,
(1) c-plasmatic growth, d-senescence,
e-maturation
b-elongation, e-differentiation,
(2) a-plasmatic growth, c-senescence,
d-maturation
a-elongation, d-differentiation,
(3) b-plasmatic growth, e-senescence,
c-maturation
b-elongation, c-differentiation,
(4) a-plasmatic growth, e-senescence,
d-maturation

24) In the transverse section, anther appears :-

(1) Circular
(2) Tetragonal
(3) Triangular
(4) Hexagonal

25) Egg apparatus is present towards:

(1) Micropylar end

(2) Chalazal end
(3) Integument
(4) Both (2) and (3)

26) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called.

(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

27) Sporopollenin is found in:

(1) Exine
(2) Intine
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleus
28) Female gametophyte of angiosperms is called:

(1) Endosperm
(2) Embryo sac
(3) Seed
(4) Antipodal cell

29) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region called chalaza
(2) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell above the egg apparatus.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
(4) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes in to the cytoplasm of egg cell

30) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Microspore
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

31) Largest cell of the embryo sac is :

(1) Antipodal cell

(2) Egg cell
(3) Synergid
(4) Central cell

32) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-

A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell
 Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) In an angiosperms, how many microspore mother cells are required to produced 100 pollen
grains?

(1) 50
(2) 75
(3) 25
(4) 100

34) The dominant biotic pollinating agents are :-

(1) Bat
(2) Birds
(3) Moth
(4) Bees

35) The viability of pollen grains of wheat is :-

(1) 30 hours
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 days
(4) 30 minutes

SECTION-B

1) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils due to:-

(1) Presence of sporopollenin

(2) Presence of thick wall
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Presence of two layer wall

2) The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac

(1) Through one of the synergids
(2) By directly penetrating the egg
(3) Between one synergid and central cell
(4) By knocking off the antipodal cells

3) In monocots, mature male gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled structure

(2) 3 celled structure
(3) 8 nucleated structure
(4) 2 nucleated structure

4) The ploidy levels of the cells of nucellus, MMC, functional megaspore and female gametophyte are
respectively :-

(1) 2n, 2n, n, n

(2) 2n, 2n, 2n, n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, 2n
(4) n, 2n, n, n

5) Assertion :- Pollen grain can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali.
Reason :- Exine of pollen grain is made of sporopollenin, which is most resistant organic material.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

7) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

8) Formula that represent growth of cells in tissue culture is :-

(1) Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(2) Wt = W0 e
(3) Lt = L0 ert
(4) Wt = W0 + rt

9) Plants follows different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different
kinds of structures. This ability is called :-

(1) Deffertiation
(2) Plasticity
(3) Growth
(4) Maturation

10) Number of NADH2 molecules produced by 2 glucose molecules in EMP pathway :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6

11) Which statement is wrong?

(1) Aerobic respiration is found only in Eukaryotes.

(2) Aerobic respiration is 19 times more productive than anaerobic respiration
(3) Cytochrome c – oxidase contains Cu
(4) Respiration also occurs in green cells

12) Which of the following step of Kreb's cycle is a decarboxylation step ?

(1) Citrate → Isocitrate

(2) Succinyl-CoA → Succinate
(3) Succinate → Furmarate
(4) Oxalosuccinate → α-ketoglutarate

13) Select the correct sequence of steps in glycolysis ?

(1) PGAL → 3-PGA → 1,3-BisPGA → PEP

(2) PGAL → 1,3-BisPGA → PEP → 3-PGA
(3) 1,3-BisPGA → 3-PGA → 2-PGA → PEP
(4) PGAL→ PEP→ 1,3-BisPGA → 2-PGA

14) Match the List-I and List-II and choose the correct match :-
 List-II
List-I
(Final
(process)
product)

(I) Partial oxidation of glucose (A) Ethanol + CO2

(II) Fermentation by yeast (B) Pyruvic acid

Oxidative decarboxylation Adenosine

(III) (C)
of pyruvic acid triphosphate

(IV) Oxidative phosphorylation (D) Acetyl CoA

Options :
(1) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(A), (IV)-(B)
(2) (I)-(A), (II)-(B), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D)
(3) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(D), (IV)-(C)
(4) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A)

15) Correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is :-

(1) Cyto - a1, a, b, c

(2) Cyto - b, c, a, a3
(3) Cyto - b, c, a3, a
(4) Cyto -c, b, a, a3

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Thrombin
(3) Thromboplastin
(4) none

2) Kidney shaped (or bean shaped) nucleus is a feature of :-

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Monocytes

3) What percentage of filtrate is reabsorbed by renal tubule?

(1) 90
(2) 99
(3) 85
(4) 75

4)

Graph depicts the concentration of enzymes involved in urea synthesis in a developing tadpole. It
indicates a transition from :-

(1) Aminotelism to uricotelism

(2) Ammonotelism to ureotelism
(3) Uricotelism to ureotelism
(4) Ureotelism to ureotelism

5) Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2. The amount is

(1) 200 ml/min.

(2) 180 litres/day
(3) 2000 ml/minute
(4) 200 ml/day

6) Choose the mismatched part of nephron with their function :-

(1) Bowman's capsule → Glomerular filtration

(2) PCT → Reabsorption of Na+ and K+
(3) DCT → Reabsorption of glucose
(4) Loop of Henle → Urine concentration

7) Which of the following is a non-selective process ?

(1) Ultrafiltration
(2) Reabsorption
(3) Secretion
(4) Reabsorption and Filtration

8) Which one is not uricotelic :-

(1) Snake
(2) Bird
(3) Fish
(4) Insect

9) A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) does not activates:-

(1) juxta glomerular cells to release renin

(2) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(3) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(4) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

10) Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by :-

(1) Active transport

(2) Diffusion
(3) Osmosis
(4) Brownian movement

11) Mechanism of urine formation is represented as follows Identify

A,B,C processes-

(1) A-ultrafiltration, B-reabsorption, C-secretion

(2) A-ultrafiltration, B-secretion, C-reabsorption
(3) A-secretion, B-ultrafiltration, C-reabsorption
(4) A-reabsorption, B-ultrafiltration, C-secretion

12) Afferent and efferent arterioles :-

(1) Both are arterial in nature

(2) Both are venous in nature
(3) Afferent in arterial whereas efferent in venous in nature
(4) Afferent is venous in nature whereas efferent is arterial in nature

13)

The part of kidney , gateway for ureter , nerves and blood vessels is

(1) Hilus
(2) Medulla
(3) Pelvis
(4) Calyx

14)

Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone bodies bodies (ketonuria) in urine are indicative of .......

(1) Renal failure

(2) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Bright's disease
(4) Renal stone

15) The columns of Bertini in the kidney of mammals are formed as extensions of

(1) Pelvis in ureter

(2) Cortex in medulla
(3) Medulla in cortex
(4) medulla in pelvis

16) In human minor calyx number is :–

(1) Uncountable
(2) 8 to 14
(3) Equal to pyramid number
(4) Depends on major calyx number

17) The human kidney

(1) is responsible for the storage of nutrients such as glycogen

(2) concentrates the urine by actively transporting water out of the filtrate
(3) produces more dilute urine when the collection ducts become less permeable to water
(4) responds to antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine output

18) A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of

(1) Atrial natriuretic factor

(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH
(4) Renin

19) Which part of nephron is effected by aldosterone ?

(1) PCT
(2) Distal part of Tubule
(3) DCT
(4) Duct of Bellini
20) If diameter of afferent renal arteriole is less than that of efferent arteriole, ultrafiltration will be-

(1) Faster
(2) Stop
(3) Uninfluenced
(4) Slower

21) The two kidneys in human lie :

(1) At the level of ovaries

(2) At the same level
(3) Left kidney at a higher level than the right one
(4) Right kidney at a higher level than the left one

22) Sweat gland eliminates :

(1) H2O
(2) NaCl and little urea
(3) Small amounts of lactic acid
(4) All of the above

23) Select the correct statement for pelvic girdle :-

(1) Consists of one coxal bone

(2) Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of 2 bones
(3) At the fusion of the 2 bones acetabulum cavity is present
(4) The two halves of pelvic bone meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis

24) Tropomyosin is :-

(1) Regulatory protein

(2) Contractile protein
(3) Structural protein
(4) Globular protein

25) ATP binding site are found on :-

(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Tropomyosin

26) Total number of vertebrochondral ribs present in human body :-

(1) 3
(2) 10
(3) 24
(4) 6

27) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged.

28) Hip Joint is formed when :-

(1) Head of Humerus articulate with glenoid cavity of scapula

(2) Head of femur articulate with glenoid cavity of hip bone
(3) Head of femur articulate with acetabular notch of coxal bone
(4) Head of Humerus anticulate with acetabular notch of hip bone

29) Manubrium is part of :-

(1) Scapula
(2) Clavicle
(3) Sternum
(4) Humerus

30) Globular head of myosin (meromyosin) contains all except :

(1) ATPase enzyme

(2) ATP Binding site
(3) Active site for thin filament.
(4) Myosin binding site

31) The unpaired facial bone is :-

(1) Lacrimal
(2) Vomer
(3) Nasal
(4) Palatine

32) Acromion process articulates with the :-

(1) Head of humerus

(2) Head of femur
(3) Collar bone (clavicle)
(4) Sternum (breast bone)

33) Axis vertebrae is identified by :-

(1) Sigmoid notch
(2) Olecranon process
(3) Occipital foramen
(4) Odontoid process

34) Which is the smallest muscle of human body ?

(1) Sartorius
(2) Stapedius
(3) Gluteus maximus
(4) Massetar

35) The fascia surrounding a muscle is made up of -

(1) Cartilage
(2) Collagenous connective tissues
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Blood vessels

SECTION-B

1) In the given cardiac cycle pie-chart which of the following represents end systolic volume ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) Between AB

2) In the given cardiac cycle pie-chart which of the following represents dub ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of the above

3) The delay between atrial and ventricular contraction is primarily caused by which of the
following?

(1) Slow conduction velocity of the AV node

(2) Rapid conduction through Purkinje fibers
(3) High resting potential of ventricular myocytes
(4) Decreased refractory period in the atria

4) What is the correct sequence of events in the cardiac cycle?

(1) Atrial systole → Ventricular systole → Joint diastole

Joint diastole → Atrial systole → Ventricular systole and atrial diastole → ventricular
(2)
diastole(Joint diastole)
(3) Joint diastole → Atrial systole → Atrial diastole → Ventricular systole
(4) Joint diastole → Atrial systole → Ventricular diastole → Ventricular systole

5) Pulse can be most commonly felt on which of the following arteries?

(1) coronary artery

(2) Radial artery
(3) Aorta
(4) Pulse cannot be felt on any artery but it can be only detected by Sphygmomanometer

6) Select the correct order of osmolarity changes in fillrate with respect to plasma in :-
Bowmans capsule → PCT → Thin part of descending limb of loop of henle → Thin part of ascending
limb of loop of henle → DCT → End of collecting duct

(1) Isotonic → Isotonic → Hypotonic → Hypertonic → Hypotonic → Hypotonic

(2) Isotonic → Isotonic → Hypertonic → Hypertonic → Hypotonic → Hypertonic
(3) Isotonic → Hypertonic → Isotonic → Hypertonic → Hypotonic → Hypertonic
(4) Hypotonic → Isotonic → Hypertonic → Isotonic → Hypotonic → Hypertonic

7)
A & B respectively are :

(1) Liver and Lungs

(2) Renin and angiotensin converting enzyme
(3) Renin and prothrombinase
(4) Renin and thrombokinase enzyme complex

8) Statement I:- Counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the
medullary interstitium.
Statement II:- This gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and K+.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

9) A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay
allows.

(1) blood to enter aorta.

(2) the ventricles to empty completely.
(3) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(4) the atria to empty completely.

10) The amount of blood that passively flows from atria to ventricles is (in man) :–

(1) 25–30%
(2) 35–45%
(3) 70–75%
(4) 15–20%

11) In a human cardiac cycle which of the following statement is false :-

(1) The time taken for one cardiac cycle decreases in Tachycardia
(2) The time interval for joint Diastole in heart is about 0.4 seconds
(3) The time interval for joint systole in heart is about 0.4 second
(4) Left ventricle takes 0.5 seconds to complete one diastole

12) During coronary artery 'By pass grafting' the graft used to by pass the stenosed obstruction in
coronary artery is

(1) Artificial vessel made of polyvinyl chloride

(2) A part of aorta
(3) A segment of internal mammary artery or reversed segment of patients own saphenous vein
(4) A segment of coronary artery itself

13) Select correct statement for cardiac cycle :-

(1) During a cardiac cycle both ventricle pump out total 70 ml blood.
(2) LUB sound is produced by the closure of semilunar valve
The body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate and thereby the
(3)
cardiac output.
(4) The T-wave in ECG represents the return of the atria from excited to normal state.

14) Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature ?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

(1) only (a)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) only (d)

15) Please observe the diagram below Here vessel A, B and C are –

A – Hepatic vein
(1) B – Portal vein
C – Hepatic artery
A – Portal vein
(2) B – Hepatic artery
C – Hepatic vein
A – Hepatic artery
(3) B – Hepatic vein
C – Portal vein
A – Portal vein
(4) B – Hepatic vein
C – Hepatic artery
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 1 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 4 1 1 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 4 1 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Due to increase in F.B, forward resistance decrease width of depletion layer decrease &
diffusion current increase.

2) hν = ϕ + KEmax ⇒

3)

4) eVS = E – ϕ ⇒ VS =

0
here 3V = ...(1)

0
and V = ...(2)
equation (1) – 3 × equation (2)

0
⇒ 0=– ⇒ λ = 4λ

5)
Nh >> Ne
So, p–type semiconductor

6)

This is NAND gate result =

7)

theoretical
8)

for si

= 9.65 mA

9)

When P is at low potential as compared to N side then diode is in Reverse biased.

10)

or

11)

12)

= 50 volt

13) In depletion layer internal electric field seperate the produced charge carriers.

14) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 444

15)

Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.

 ( KE = same)

16)
P = 2.5 W

17)

n = 5 × 1024 × P × λ

= 5 × 1024 × P ×

= 5 × 1024 × 2 × 10–3 ×

18)

∵Y= = NOR gate

19) Eo = Bo × C = (2 × 10-8) (3 × 108)

=6

20)

PBottom =

0
P + ρgH =

0 0
2P + 2 ρgH = 3P +

P0 =

ρg(10) =

21)
22)
PA = PB
10 × ρ × g = 8ρyg + 2ρHgg
10 × 3.36 = 8ρy + 2 × 13.6
ρy = 0.8 g/cm3

23) The stoping potential (V0) depends on the frequency (n) of incident light as :
eV0 = hν–ϕ0
If ν↑ than V0↑

24) In case of DC, ω = 0 and hence Z = R

∴
For AC : Z = [R2 + (2πnL)2]1/2
or 200 = [(100)2 + (100 πL)2]1/2

Solving, we get; L = 0.55 henry

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

25)

26)

P = P0 + ρgh
= 105 + 103 ×10×5
= 105 [1 + 0.5]
= 1.5 × 105 Pa
27)

28) Speed of EMW, v =

29)

30)

31)

Both assertion and reaction are correct and reason in the correct explanation of assertion.

32)

We know that energy is relased when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
fusion. Therefore statement (1) is correct.
The second statement is false because for heavy nuclei the binding energy per nucleon
decreases with increasing Z and for light nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases with increasing Z.

33)

IL =
34)

35) ϕ = π/2
<P> = Vrms Irms cos π/2 = 0

36)

tan θ =

⇒ θ = tan–1

37)

tanϕ =

tan ⇒ XL = R
XL = 100 Ω
2πfL = 100
2π103L = 100
L = 16 mH

38)

39)

r.m.s. =

=
= Amp.

40)
In +ve half cycle of input signal,
D1 → FB → S/C & D2 → RB → O/C
So, I = 0 and V0 = 0
→ In –ve half cycle, D1 → RB → O/C &
D2 → FB → S/C
So, I = 0 and V0 = 0
So, it is not rectifier.

41)

42) As frequency is very high. Here, reactance due to capacitance varies inversely whereas
reactance due to inductor varies directly.

Then, XC ≈ 0

Effective circuit will be

Thus, capacitor acts as short circuit while inductor as an open circuit. Effective impedance will
be 1Ω + 2Ω = 3Ω.

43) Perimeter p = 2 (ℓ + b) = 2 (10.5 + 5.2) = 31.4 cm

Δp = 2(Δℓ + Δb) = 2 (0.2 + 0.1) = 0.6 cm

44)

λ2 =

45) ∵ XL = XC ⇒ Resonance
Reading of voltmeter = VL–VC = 0V

and

46)
 ∴

47) = 8 rad/sec

48)

With increase in frequency current increases initially, becomes maximum and then decreases
with further increase in frequency.

49) Stopping potential depends on frequency of incident light.

50)

CHEMISTRY

52)
53)

54)

55) NCERT-XII, Pg # 301

It is SN2 Mechanism

56)

A = CH3-CH=CH2 ; B = CH3-CH2-CH2-Br ; C = CH3-CH2-CH2-F

57) NCERT XII, Pg. # 309, Part - 2

79)

= 138.6 sec
80) For zero order reaction
Rate = K

82)

10 = Exp , R = 2 cal/K-mol

ln 10 =

T= K

83) NCERT-XII, Part-1, Pg # 135

84) Pink

86)

87)

Option 4 follows SN1 pathway.

 88)
A & C are position isomer.

89)

90)

96) = –0.42 – (– 0.72) = +0.30 V

2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (0.01M) ⇌ 2cr3+ (0.1M) + 3Fe(s)

Q= = 104
According to Nernst equation,

E = E° – log10 Q

= 0.30 – log104 (∵ n = 6)
= 0.261 V

100) Dil. H2SO4 do not acts as oxidising agent which prevent oxidation of Fe+2 into Fe+3. While
concentrated H2SO4 will oxidise Fe+2 into Fe+3

BOTANY
101) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

104)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 231

105)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 229

107)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. (E) # 229 (Figure of glycolysis)

108)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 230

109) Module Pg. # 205

110) Nature Module-3 Pg. # 218

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

117) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 250

118) NCERT XI Pg. # 247

119) NCERT Page # 250

120) NCERT XIth Pg. # 249

121) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 249

122) NCERT-XI Pg. # 148, 149

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 246

125) NCERT-XII Pg # 27(E), 28(H)

126)

NCERT XII Page # 28

129) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28, I para

130) NCERT XII pg. 23, II last para

131) NCERT-XII Pg # 27

132) NCERT XII, Page # 26

139) NCERT(XII) Pg. # 26(E) & 27(H)

140)

NCERT-XII-Page No. # 23

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

142)

NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 241 and 242

(Topic = Phases of growth)

144) NCERT Pg # 246

147)

NCERT XI pg.# 232

148)

NCERT XI Pg. # 229,fig. 14.1

149) NCERT-XI Pg.228, 230, 231, 233

 150)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 233

ZOOLOGY

154)

NCERT Page no. 290

155) NCERT Page No. 298

156) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294, 295

157) NCERT XIth Pg.#300 Para-3

168)

NCERT pg no. 297

180) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 306