BVOC

(FINAL)

1. The average of Sohan's marks in 6 subjects is 74. If his average in five

subjects excluding science is 70, how many marks he obtained in
science?
(A) 94
(B) 92
(C) 90
(D) 88

2. Four years ago, the average age of A and B was 20 years. If today
average age of A, B and C is 25 years, what will be age of C after 7
years?
(A) 32 years
(B) 34 years
(C) 36 years
(D) 38 years

3. Find the value of 248 + 52 + 144

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12 2
(D) 16

4. What is the next number in the sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, …. ?

(A) 36
(B) 40
(C) 42
(D) 44

5. The sum of two numbers is 40, and their difference is 10. What is the
larger number?
 (A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 30

6. Ten years ago, the sum of ages of a father and his son was 34 years. If the
ratio of present ages of the father and son is 7:2, find the present age of
the son

(A) 12 years
(B) 11 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 8 years

7. If the perimeter of a square is 48 cm, what is the area of the square?

(A) 64 cm²
(B) 144 cm²
(C) 196 cm²
(D) 121 cm²

8. In what time Rs. 6000 will give interest of Rs. 720 at the rate of 6% p.a.
S.I.?

(A) 1.5 years

(B) 2 years
(C) 2.5 years
(D) 3 years

9. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to 3300 in 2 years and Rs.

3600 in
5 years. What is the principal amount?

(A) Rs. 2700

(B) Rs. 2850
(C) Rs. 2950
(D) Rs. 3100
10. Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at least
one head?
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
3
(C)
4
1
(D)
4
11. Which number should be in the square marked by the question mark?

? 9 16
25 36 49
64 81 100

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

12. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 and 14 minutes respectively. A third pipe
can empty the tank at the rate of 10litres/minute. If all the pipes working
together can fill the empty tank in 8 minutes,what is the capacity of the
tank?

(A) 210 litres

(B) 215.4 litres
(C) 220 litres
(D) 225.4 litres

13. A pipe can fill a tank in 6 hours and another pipe can empty the tank in
12 hours. If both the pipes are opened at the same time, the tank can be
filled in

(A) 10 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 14 hours
(D) 16 hours

14. Passing marks in an examination are 40%. If a candidate gets 65 marks

and fails by 15 marks, the maximum marks in the examination are

(A) 200
(B) 220
(C) 180
(D) 250
15. If the price of sugar increases by 10%, by what percentage approximately
a housewife should reduce the consumption of sugar so that expense is
not increased?

(A) 5.5%
(B) 7.1%
(C) 9.1%
(D) 10%
16. 12% of 580 + y = 94. Find the value of ‘y’

(A) 24.4
(B) 26.4
(C) 28.4
(D) 30.4

17. The C.P of an article is equaled to the profit %, and a shopkeeper sells it
in Rs 56. Find the C.P of the article

(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 66

18. Aman buys 15 boxes of mangoes. Each box contains 8 dozen mangoes.
How many mangoes did Aman totally buy?

(A) 120
(B) 96
(C) 2200
(D) 1440

19. A 60 litres mixture of milk and water contains 10% water. How much
water must be added to make water 20% in the mixture?

(A) 8 litres
(B) 7.5 litres
(C) 7 litres
(D) 6.5 litres

20. In what ratio water must be mixed with milk costing Rs. 48 per litre to get
a mixture worth Rs. 32 per litre?

(A) 2:3
(B) 3:2
(C) 3:4
(D) 1:2

21. If 3x−7=2x+5, what is the value of x?

 (A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16

22. Find the smallest digit that will leave same remainder 4 in each case
when divided by 12, 15, 20, and 54

(A) 454
(B) 540
(C) 544
(D) 450

23. The ratio of income of two workers A and B are 3: 4. The ratio of
expenditure of A and B is 2: 3 and each saves Rs 200. Find the income of
A and B

(A) 500, 600

(B) 600, 800
(C) 600, 900
(D) 800, 1000

24. The length of a rectangle is twice its width. If the perimeter of the
rectangle is 60 cm, what is the area of the rectangle?

(A) 200 cm²

(B) 250 cm²
(C) 100 cm²
(D) 150 cm²

25. If 6 workers can complete a task in 8 days, how many workers are needed
to complete the same task in 4 days?

(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
26. In how many ways the letters of the word "PUZZLE" can be arranged to
form the different new words so that the vowels always come together?

(A) 280
(B) 450
(C) 630
(D) 120
27. A box contains 2 red balls, 3 black balls, and 4 white balls. Find the
number of ways by which 3 balls can be drawn from the box in which at
least 1 black ball should be present

(A) 64
(B) 48
(C) 32
(D) 96

1
28. The value of x in the equation: 16 x + = 8 is
x

(A) 1 1
4, 4
(B) 1 2
4,
(C) 1 1
4, 2
(D) 1 1
2, 2

29. A journey of 300 km takes two hours more when the speed of a car is
reduced by 5km/hr. What is the original speed of the car?

(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 70
(D) 80

30. Value of ( 5+ 3 )( )
5 − 3 is

(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 2

31. What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

1, 2, 6, 33, 289, ?

(A) 3172
 (B) 3414
(C) 3192
(D) 3429

32. What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

5, 4, 7, 20, 79, ?

(A) 394
(B) 400
(C) 289
(D) 180

33. What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

18, 9, 9, 13.5, 27,?

(A) 66
(B) 67.5
(C) 70
(D) 54

34. Find the number of sides of a regular polygon if the measure of its exterior
angle is 30°.

(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 6

35. What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ?

(A) 57
(B) 59
(C) 56
(D) 60
36. If August 25, 2032 is a Wednesday, what day is September 25, 2032?

(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday

37. What is the sum of the first 10 positive integers?

(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 60
(D) 50

38. A swimming pool is 25 meters long, 12 meters wide, and filled with
water to a depth of 1.5 meters. What is the volume of water in the pool?

(A) 450 cubic meters

(B) 500 cubic meters
(C) 400 cubic meters
(D) 475 cubic meters

39. What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?

56 ÷ 14 × 4 – 316 + ?2 = 100

(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 25

40. What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
1 1 1 1 1
1+ + + + + =?
2 4 7 14 28

(A) 1
(B) 2
 (C) 2.5
(D) 3

Directions (Q41 –Q44): Study the following table and answer the questions
based on it

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given
Years.

Item of Expenditure
Year Fuel and Interest on
Salary Bonus Taxes
Transport Loans
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98
41. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had
to pay during this period?

(A) Rs. 32.43 lakhs

(B) Rs. 33.72 lakhs
(C) Rs. 34.18 lakhs
(D) Rs. 36.66 lakhs

42. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period
is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during
this period?

(A) 0.1%
(B) 0.5%
(C) 1%
(D) 1.25%

43. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year
2000 is?

(A) Rs. 544.44 lakhs

(B) Rs. 501.11 lakhs
(C) Rs. 446.46 lakhs
(D) Rs. 478.87 lakhs

44. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the
total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is
approximately?

(A) 4:7
(B) 10:13
(C) 15:18
(D) 5:8

45. A library increased its book collection by 12%, and the new collection
size is 5600 books. What was the original collection size?

(A) 4500
(B) 4800
(C) 5000
(D) 5800
Directions (Q46 –Q50): The bar graph given below shows the sales of books
(in thousand numbers) from six branches of a publishing company during two
consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3,
B4, B5 and B6 of a publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.

46. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total
sales of branch B4 for both years?

(A) 2:3
(B) 3:5
(C) 4:5
(D) 7:9

47. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total
sales of branches B3 for both the years?

(A) 68.54%
(B) 71.11%
(C) 73.17%
(D) 75.55%

48. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is
the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?

(A) 75%
(B) 77.5%
(C) 82.5%
(D) 87.5%
49. What is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the
year 2000?

(A) 73
(B) 80
(C) 83
(D) 88

50. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in
thousand numbers) are?

(A) 250
(B) 310
(C) 435
(D) 560

Directions (Q51 – Q55): Study the following graph carefully and answer the
questions given below:

Distribution of candidates who were enrolled for MBA entrance exam

and the candidates (out of those enrolled) who passed the exam in
different institutes:

51. What percentage of candidates passed the Exam from institute T out of
the total number of candidates enrolled from the same institute?
 (A) 50%
(B) 62.5%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%

52. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates passed to the
candidates enrolled?

(A) Q
(B) R
(C) V
(D) T

53. The number of candidates passed from institutes S and P together exceeds
the number of candidates enrolled from institutes T and R together by:

(A) 228
(B) 279
(C) 399
(D) 407

54. What is the percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled for
institutes Q and R together?

(A) 68%
(B) 80%
(C) 74%
(D) 65%

55. What is the ratio of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled from
institute P?

(A) 9 : 11
(B) 14 : 17
(C) 6 : 11
(D) 9 : 17

Directions (Q56 –Q60): Study the following line graph and answer the
questions.
 Exports from Three Companies Over the Years (in Rs. crore).

56. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three
Companies together are equal?

(A) 1995 and 1998

(B) 1996 and 1998
(C) 1997 and 1998
(D) 1995 and 1996

57. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is
approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company
Z?

(A) 87.12%
(B) 89.64%
(C) 91.21%
(D) 93.33%

58. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X
and Y the minimum?

(A) 1994
(B) 1995
(C) 1996
(D) 1997

59. What was the difference between the average exports of the three
Companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?

(A) Rs. 15.33 crores

 (B) Rs. 18.67 crores
(C) Rs. 20 crores
(D) Rs. 22.17 crores

60. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more
than the average annual exports over the given years?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
61. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition

‘He is married ………. a doctor.’

(A) with
(B) to
(C) by
(D) for

62. Direction: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the
given word

EMBEZZLE

(A) Misappropriate
(B) Balance
(C) Remunerate
(D) Clear

63. Direction: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the
given word

VENT

(A) Opening
(B) Stodge
(C) End
(D) Past tense of go

64. Direction: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
words.

ENORMOUS

(A) Soft
(B) Average
(C) Tiny
(D) Weak
65. Direction: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
[Link]

(A) Strong
(B) Weak
(C) Confuse
(D) Damage

66. Direction: Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
words.

Pertinent

(A) Irregular
(B) Irreversible
(C) Irrelevant
(D) None of the above

67. Choose the synonym for, SCINTILLATING

(A) Smouldering
(B) Sparkling
(C) Touching
(D) Warming

68. Direction: Spot the error in the sentence (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any)

Although the stress was behind her capacity yet she didn't complain.

(A) Although the stress

(B) was behind
(C) her capacity
(D) yet she didn't complain.

69. Direction: Spot the error in the sentence (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any)

After showing the pass we entered into the auditorium next to the
restaurant.
 (A) After showing the pass
(B) we entered into
(C) the auditorium
(D) next to the restaurant.

70. Direction: Spot the error in the sentence (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any)

The committee will put on a notice in this regard for your consideration.

(A) The committee will put on

(B) a notice in this
(C) regard for
(D) your consideration.

71. Direction: Spot the error in the sentence (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any)

Maria brought the chocolates and distributed them between her four
children.

(A) Maria brought the chocolates

(B) and distributed them
(C) between her
(D) four children.

72. "The artist's work was so ……………. that it left the audience in awe."

(A) mediocre
(B) mundane
(C) exquisite
(D) ordinary

73. Choose the correct antonym for the word

"Ambiguous"

(A) Clear
(B) Vague
(C) Confusing
(D) Uncertain
74. Choose the correct synonym for the word

"Meticulous"

(A) Careless
(B) Detailed
(C) Hasty
(D) Rough

75. Change the following sentence to passive voice:

"They are building a new bridge."

(A) A new bridge is being built by them

(B) A new bridge was built by them
(C) A new bridge is built by them
(D) A new bridge has been built by them
76. Change the following sentence to active voice

"The cake was baked by Arun."

(A) Arun bakes the cake

(B) Arun was baking the cake
(C) Arun has baked the cake
(D) Arun baked the cake

77. Direction: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom out of the given
options.

To cry wolf

(A) to speak loudly

(B) to eat like a wolf
(C) to get afraid
(D) to give a false alarm

78. Choose the correctly spelt word

(A) Harrasment
(B) Harrassment
(C) Harassment
(D) Harasment

79. Choose the correctly spelt word

(A) Bureaucracy
(B) Bureaucrasy
(C) Bureaucrascy
(D) Bureaucrasie

80. Direction: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom out of the given
options.

A bigger bang for your buck

(A) more for your money

(B) threat to your money
(C) more for your efforts
 (D) a big theft

81. ‘I told him that he was not working hard.’ – convert to direct speech

(A) I said to him, "You are not working hard."

(B) I told to him, "You are not working hard."
(C) I said, "You are not working hard."
(D) I said to him, "He is not working hard."
82. Which of the following is the correct indirect speech of

"I can help you," she said

(A) She said that she can help me

(B) She said that she could help me
(C) She said that she helps me
(D) She said that she will help me

Directions for 83 to 85: Read the passage carefully and answer the below
questions:

Reading is one of the most essential skills for personal and professional
growth. It not only enhances knowledge but also improves critical thinking and
communication skills. Reading books, articles, and journals exposes individuals
to new ideas, cultures, and perspectives. It helps in building vocabulary,
improving focus, and reducing stress. In today's digital age, where information
is readily available, the habit of reading has become even more crucial.
However, with the rise of social media and instant entertainment, many people
are losing interest in reading. Encouraging reading habits from a young age can
have long-term benefits for individuals and society as a whole

83. What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) Reading is only important for professional growth

(B) Reading enhances knowledge, critical thinking, and
communication skills
(C) Social media is more important than reading
(D) Reading is a waste of time in the digital age

84. Which word in the passage means "the ability to think clearly and
rationally"?
 (A) Knowledge
(B) Communication
(C) Critical thinking
(D) Stress

85. What does the word "perspectives" mean in the passage?

(A) Opinions or viewpoints

(B) Physical objects
(C) Challenges
(D) Entertainment
86. Direction: Choose the pair in which the words have the same
relationship.

Bacteria: Decomposition

(A) Milk: Curd

(B) Antigen: Antibodies
(C) Yeast: Fermentation
(D) Disease: Treatment

87. Direction: Choose the option which best expresses the given question in
Indirect speech.

They said, "We have lived in this city for many years."

(A) They said they have lived in this city for many years
(B) They said that they had lived in this city for many years
(C) They said they lived in this city for many years
(D) They said they have been living in this city for many years

88. Direction: Choose the option which best expresses the given question in
Direct speech.

Her mother ordered her to go to the kitchen and cook food

(A) Her mother said,"Go to the kitchen and cook food."

(B) Her mother said her, "Go to the kitchen and cook food."
(C) Her mother tells,"Go to the kitchen and cook food."
(D) Her mother asked," Go to the kitchen and cook food."

89. Direction: Choose the option which best expresses the given question in
Indirect speech.

The watchman said to the thief, "If you jump the wall, I will call
the police."

(A) The watchman warned the thief that he would call the police if he
jumped the wall.
(B) The watchman informed the thief that he would call the police if he
jumped the wall.
(C) The watchman told the thief that he would call the police if he
jumped the wall.
(D) The watchman advised the thief that if he jumped the wall he
would call the police.
90. Pond : Lake :: Hill : …………

(A) Mountain
(B) Valley
(C) Plateau
(D) Cliff

91. Choose the correct conjunction to complete the sentence

I want to go to the park, ………. it is raining outside

(A) because
(B) and
(C) but
(D) so

Directions for 92 to 93: Read the passage carefully and answer the
below questions:

"Global warming is the long-term rise in the average temperature of the

Earth's climate system. It is primarily caused by human activities, such as
burning fossil fuels and deforestation, which increase the levels of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. The effects of global warming
include rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and loss of
biodiversity."

92. What is the primary cause of global warming?

(A) Natural climate cycles

(B) Human activities
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Solar radiation

93. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an effect of global

warming?

(A) Rising sea levels

(B) Extreme weather events
(C) Loss of biodiversity
(D) Increased rainfall
94. Direction: The question has five sentences which are randomly
arranged. You are required to rearrange them to make a logical
paragraph and then answer the given question.

1. A single queen bee lives in a hive

2. Honey bees are social insects which are highly organized
3. She lays eggs that produce different members of the colony
4. Their colony lives in a hive
5. They work together in a group which is known as a colony

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the paragraph?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

95. Direction: The question has five sentences which are randomly
arranged. You are required to rearrange them to make a logical
paragraph and then answer the given question.

1. So, parents automatically get used to give advice to their child.

2. The reason for this habit may be that a parent is the one who
teaches a child to walk, talk, eat, etc
3. Without conscious thought, parents keep on providing suggestions
and advices to their child at all stages of life
4. Due to this attitude of parents, grown-up children may prefer to stay
away from their parents by opting for nuclear households
5. Parents always feel happy to see their children grow up mature and
making decisions about their life and career

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the paragraph?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

96. Rearrange the words to form a meaningful sentence

 always / she / early / wakes / up

(A) She wakes up always early

(B) Always she wakes up early
(C) She always wakes up early
(D) Wakes she up always early

97. Direction: Choose one word that can be substituted for the given
sentence.

The points to be discussed at a meeting

(A) Schedule
(B) Agenda
(C) Strategy
(D) Plan

98. Identify the option which gives a bird name from the jumbled letters in
the given below

(A) KGAH
(B) EUENGIN
(C) WCRO
(D) AORXWPR

99. Choose the correct word to fill in the blank

"She decided to ………. the ice by telling a joke."

(A) break
(B) make
(C) cut
(D) take

100. Direction: Choose one word that can be substituted for the given
sentence.

Animals of a particular geographical area or region

(A) Zoology
(B) Animalia
 (C) Fauna
(D) Animal Kingdom

101. Direction: Replace the underlined grammatically incorrect part of the

sentence with one of the given options to make it grammatically correct.

He was very tired as he is working since 6 O' clock in the morning

(A) he was working

(B) he had been working
(C) he has been working
(D) he will be working

102. Direction: Replace the underlined grammatically incorrect part of the

sentence with one of the given options to make it grammatically correct.

All the charges of corruption leveled on him were found baseless

(A) level against

(B) leveled with
(C) leveled over
(D) leveled against

103. Direction: Replace the underlined grammatically incorrect part of the

sentence with one of the given options to make it grammatically correct.

We know he would recover soon and do the same work he would

be doing before

(A) he would have been

(B) he had been done
(C) he had been doing
(D) correction not required

104. Direction: Replace the underlined grammatically incorrect part of the

sentence with one of the given options to make it grammatically correct.

The engineers failed in their attempt to build the Dam across the
river to create a water reservoir.

(A) in their attempt of build

 (B) for their attempt to build
(C) with their attempt to build
(D) correction not required

105. What is the plural form of "index"?

(A) indexs
(B) indeces
(C) indicies
(D) indices

Directions (Question No. 106 to 110): Read the following passages

carefully and answer the respective questions given below each of them.

As high-level visits go, Prime Minister NarendraModi’s visit to Israel

was bound to attract superlatives like ‘historic’ and ‘groundbreaking’.
Still, it is clear that the buzz in the relationship is on account of Mr.
Modi’s personal diplomatic style and his host’s equally warm response.

Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu set the tone when he

welcomed Mr. Modi at the airport together with the spiritual leaders of all
the major faiths in the region, an honor traditionally reserved for the U.S.
President and the Pope. Mr. Modi’s trademark bear hugs were
reciprocated, three at the airport, and by the time the visit ended, the TV
commentators had lost count!

Mr. Netanyahu gushingly described the relationship between the two

countries as “a marriage made in heaven”, but behind the success was a
receptive political backdrop as well as the careful planning undertaken by
both sides.

Marking 25 years of establishing diplomatic relations between the two

countries added to the historic character of an Indian Prime Minister’s
first visit to a country that had quietly emerged as a strong defence
partner. There had been high-level exchanges but the Indian response was
cautious. Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and
Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President EzerWeizman came in
1997, while President PranabMukherji’s visit only took place in 2015.
The first Israeli Prime Minister to visit India was Ariel Sharon in 2003,
and from the time Mr. Modi came to power, a return visit was a certainty.
The two leaders had met on the margins of the UN General Assembly and
 continued their relationship by tweeting their greetings on Hanukkah and
Diwali.

Yet, official-level exchanges between the two countries have been

intensive, beginning with the visit of Foreign Secretary J.N. Dixit in early
1993. While relations between Mossad and Research and Analysis Wing
had existed earlier, the strategic partnership got cemented when National
Security Adviser-level dialogue was established in 1999 between Brajesh
Mishra and Gen. (retd.) David Ivry. Gen. Ivry was a former Air Force
chief who had led the air raid on Osirak, the Iraqi nuclear reactor, in
1981. Incidentally, Israel was one of the few countries that showed a
complete understanding of India’s decision to undertake the nuclear tests
in 1998. This reinforced both the defence and the counter-terrorism
cooperation relationship.

By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to-air missiles (Barak 1) and UAVs

(unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel. Subsequently, the refurbishing of
MiG-21 aircraft employed Israeli avionics. During the 1999 Kargil war,
Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits mated with gravity bombs, carried
by the Mirage 2000 aircraft. With U.S. concurrence, Israel sold India the
Phalcon airborne early warning system and mounted on the Russian Il-76,
provided AWACS capability. Subsequent acquisitions have included
Spike anti-tank guided missiles and the long range surface-to-air missiles
in both the naval and land versions. Today, Israel has emerged as the
third-largest defence supplier for India and accounts for over 40% of
Israel’s defence exports.

Commercial relations between the diamond traders in Gujarat and Israel

had existed before 1992, but now annual trade grew from $200 million to
nearly $5 billion with gems and jewellery accounting for nearly 40%.
Gradually, Science and technology, agriculture, biotech, and space
emerged as new areas of cooperation. Tourism provided an impetus to
people-to-people relations. India emerged as the preferred destination for
young Israelis wanting to unwind after their compulsory military service
and Hebrew signage in Varanasi, Manali, and Goa is a common sight.
Ambassador Pavan Kapoor was being quite mattered of fact when he
described the Modi visit as a ‘coming out visit’ for the relationship.

106. Who was the first PM of Israel who visited in India and when?

(A) Ariel Sharon 2005

(B) EzerWeizman 2004
 (C) David Ivry 1999
(D) Ariel Sharon 2003

107. Mr. Netanyahu Gushingly described the relationship between the two
countries as

(A) A friendship made on earth

(B) A friendship made in heaven
(C) A marriage made in heaven
(D) An enmity made in heaven

108. Which of the following statement is true according to the passage?

(i) Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and
Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President EzerWeizman came
in 1997, while President PranabMukherji’s visit only took place in
2015
(ii) Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and
Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2001; President EzerWeizman came
in 1997, while President PranabMukherji’s visit only took place in
2015
(iii) Foreign Minister Shimon Peres first visited India in 1993, and
Jaswant Singh reciprocated in 2000; President EzerWeizman came
in 1998, while President PranabMukherji’s visit only took place in
2015

(A) Only (i)

(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)

109. Which of the following statement is NOT true according to the passage?

By 2000, India was acquiring surface-to- surface (Barak 1) and

(i)
UAVs (unmanned aerial vehicles) from Israel
During the 1999 Kargil war, Israel assisted with laser-guidance kits
(ii)
mated with gravity bombs, carried by the Mirage 2000 aircraft
Israel sold India the Phalcon airborne early warning system and
(iii)
mounted on the Russian Jl-76, provided AWACS capability

(A) Only (i)

 (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)

110. Now annual trade grew………………………..with gems and jewellery

accounting for nearly 40%:

(A) from $200 million to nearly $5 billion

(B) from $50 million to nearly $5 billion
(C) from $2 million to nearly $5 billion
(D) from $200 million to nearly $50 billion

Directions for questions 111 to 116 : Read the passage carefully and
answer the below questions:
Western classical music has a rich history that spans several centuries,
from the Medieval period (5th to 15th century) to the Modern era (20th
century and beyond). The Medieval period saw the development of
Gregorian chant and early polyphony, laying the foundation for more
complex forms of music. The Renaissance (15th to 17th century)
emphasized harmony, the use of counterpoint, and the growth of
instrumental music alongside vocal forms.

The Baroque period (1600-1750) was marked by the works of composers

like Johann Sebastian Bach, George Frideric Handel, and Antonio
Vivaldi. Baroque music featured ornate melodies and the development of
the concerto and oratorio forms. This was followed by the Classical
period (1750-1820), where composers like Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart,
Ludwig van Beethoven, and Franz Joseph Haydn revolutionized
symphonic music with clearer structures and the use of the sonata form.

The Romantic period (19th century) brought emotional depth and

complexity to music, with composers such as PyotrIlyich Tchaikovsky,
Johannes Brahms, and Richard Wagner experimenting with new forms
and orchestration techniques. The 20th century saw the rise of many new
styles, including jazz, modernism, and electronic music, and the
continuing evolution of music into the diverse range we experience today.

111. …………. period of Western classical music is known for the

development of the sonata form?
 (A) Baroque
(B) Medieval
(C) Classical
(D) Romantic

112. Who is considered one of the leading composers of the Baroque period?

(A) Franz Joseph Haydn

(B) George Frideric Handel
(C) Johannes Brahms
(D) Igor Stravinsky

113. Which of the following composers is associated with the Romantic period
of classical music?

(A) Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart

(B) Johann Sebastian Bach
(C) Richard Wagner
(D) Antonio Vivaldi

114. What was a major characteristic of the Classical period of Western

music?

(A) Clearer musical structures and the use of the sonata form
(B) Emotional depth and larger orchestras
(C) Focus on polyphony and complex counterpoint
(D) The emergence of electronic music

115. Which of these music styles became prominent in the 20th century?

(A) Gregorian Chant

(B) Jazz and Modernism
(C) Oratorio
(D) Renaissance polyphony

116. The Renaissance emphasized harmony, the use of counterpoint, and the
growth of instrumental music during the period

(A) 19thCentury
(B) 20th Century
 (C) 18th Century
(D) 15th to 17thCentury

Directions (Question No. 117 and 118): Read the following passages
carefully and answer the respective questions given below each of them.

Peter did not want to shoot the elephant. He watched him pulling
branches with his trunk and eating the fresh green leaves, with the
preoccupied grandmotherly air that an elephant has. It seemed to him that
it would be murder to shoot him. He never shot an elephant and never
wanted to as it feels worse to kill large animals. Besides, he had to
consider the elephant's owner. But he had got to act quickly. He turned to
some tribe people who had been there and asked about the elephant. They
said, "The elephant will not harm you if you leave him alone, but he
might charge if you went too close to him."

117. What did the tribe people tell Peter?

(A) the elephant is very dangerous; don't go too close to him

(B) give elephant some grass to eat, he will give you a ride
(C) the elephant will not harm you if you leave him alone, but he may
charge if you went too close to him
(D) You can't kill the elephant if you don't have experience of shooting
large animals

118. What was the elephant doing?

(A) he was angry and pulling big trees with his trunk
(B) he was pulling branches and eating green leaves
(C) he was running in the middle of the forest after a donkey
(D) he was waiting for the tribe people

Directions (Question No. 119 and 122): Read the following passages
carefully and answer the respective questions given below each of them.

Organizations are big institutions where people work for a common goal
and compete with each other for power and status. In pursuit of their
interests, they form groups and sectional interests emerge. As a result, the
goals of the organizations may be drifted in favor of groups' interests and
benefits. This deviation sometimes prevents the emergence of organic
 systems. Most of the electronic firms have established research and
development departments employing highly qualified and experienced
scientists and technicians. Their expertise and high pay may be a threat to
the established order of rank, power, and status. Most of the senior
managers lack the expertise and knowledge of technicalities and new
developments in the field of electronics. So, the manager may feel that
working in close cooperation with the experts may reveal their ignorance
and show their experience is now obsolete.

119. The theme of the passage is

(A) growth of organizations

(B) groups in an organization
(C) challenges for senior managers
(D) origin of sectional interests in organizations

120. The goals of the organization will be drifted

(A) towards scientists' expertise and knowledge

(B) towards financial growth of organizations
(C) in favor of groups' interests and benefits
(D) towards natural and unimpeded growth of organizations

121. Policy decision in an organization would give emphasis on

(A) replacing old employees with new experienced employees

(B) attracting highly qualified and experienced professionals
(C) promotion of the old employees
(D) provide training to the old employees

122. As per the passage, what have electronic firms employed?

(A) qualified scientists and technicians

(B) qualified teachers and technicians
(C) qualified doctors and nurses
(D) qualified architectures and engineers
 Directions for questions 123 to 128: Read the passage carefully and
answer the below questions

There are more than 3,000 species of snakes in the world, and though
many of them have a bad reputation, snakes can be quite helpful. Snakes
come in all sizes and the world's smallest snake is the thread snake which
grows to only about 3.9 inches long and looks like an earthworm. The
largest snake is the reticulated python and can grow up to 30 feet in
length. A snake thought to have lived over 60 million years ago was
called the Titanoboa and was thought to grow up 50 feet long.
Snakes give birth in two different ways, either by laying eggs or through
live births much like mammals. About 70% of snakes, called oviparous,
lay their eggs and 30% give birth to live young. Snakes giving birth to
live young usually live in climates that are too cold for eggs to develop
and hatch. In addition, only one snake builds a nest for their eggs, the
king cobra, but all others do not, even though many people think they do.
The rarest and most endangered snake in the world is the St. Lucia racer
with only about 18 to 100 of them in existence. Other species of snakes
include the black mamba, corn snake, garter snakes, rattlesnakes, and
many other species.
Once the prey is inside the snake's body, enzymes are released to break
down the food into usable energy. Snakes do not smell with their noses
but have a forked or split tongue to smell and taste the chemical
compositions in the air. In addition, a snake sheds their skin a little at a
time, with the entire skin being replaced almost three times each year in a
process called molting. Finally, snakes are not slimy as many people
believe, but their scales are smooth and dry, and some use the scales to
help climb trees.

123. ……………..was thought to have lived over 60 million years ago

(A) Black Mamba

(B) Rattle snake
(C) Titanoboa
(D) Alligator

124. After swallowing the prey, the snake’s body releases ………. to break
down its food

(A) Proteins
(B) Venom
 (C) Sulphuric acid
(D) Enzymes

125. Nearly …………. of snakes, lay their eggs and are called ‘oviparous’

(A) 50%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) all types

126. Which among the following is the most endangered type of snake?

(A) St. Lucia racer

(B) King cobra
(C) Thread snake
(D) Titanoboa

127. …………. is the only snake to build nest for its eggs

(A) Garter snake

(B) Black mamba
(C) King cobra
(D) Rattlesnakes

128. How often do most snakes undergo the process of molting?

(A) Once every month

(B) Two times a year
(C) Every six months
(D) Three times a year

129. The most appropriate conclusion from the statement: "All roses are
flowers, and some flowers are red"?

(A) All roses are red

(B) Some roses are red
(C) No roses are red
(D) All red flowers are roses
130. Find the odd one out: Apple, Banana, Cherry, Carrot

(A) Apple
(B) Banana
(C) Cherry
(D) Carrot

131. Direction: Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ………….

(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ

132. Which of the following comes next in the series: A, D, G, J, ?

(A) K
(B) L
(C) M
(D) N

133. If "P" stands for "Monday", "Q" stands for "Wednesday", and "R" stands
for "Friday", what does "S" represent in the same code?

(A) Tuesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday

134. Direction: In the following question, two statements numbered I and II

are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between the two
statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or
independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and
mark your answer.

Statements:
 I. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few
small banks in the country
II. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are
not in a position to withstand the competitions of the bigger in the
public sector

(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

135. Which of the following words is related to "Book" in the same way "Pen"
is related to "Write"?

(A) Read
(B) Paper
(C) Write
(D) Author

136. Direction: In the following question two statements are given and these
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You
have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.

(A) Only (1) conclusion follows

(B) Only (2) conclusion follows
(C) Either (1) or (2) follows
(D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
137. Direction: In the following question two statements are given and these
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You
have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All buildings are chalks. No chalk is toffee.

Conclusions:
1. No building is toffee.
2. All chalks are buildings.

(A) Only (1) conclusion follows

(B) Only (2) conclusion follows
(C) Either (1) or (2) follows
(D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

138. Direction: In the following question two statements are given and these
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You
have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.

Conclusions:
1. Some windows are walls
2. No wall is a door

(A) Only (1) conclusion follows

(B) Only (2) conclusion follows
(C) Either (1) or (2) follows
(D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

139. If A is the son of B, B is the sister of C, and C is the mother of D, what is

the relation between A and D?

(A) Cousin
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) Nephew
140. A person walks 10 meters towards the north, turns right, walks 10 meters,
and turns left. After walking another 10 meters, he turns left again. In
which direction is he now facing?

(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West

141. "If you want to stay healthy, you must exercise regularly and eat
nutritious food."
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

(A) Regular exercise and nutritious food will guarantee health

(B) Health requires both exercise and nutritious food
(C) One can stay healthy with exercise only
(D) Eating nutritious food is not necessary for health

142. What comes next in the following input-output pattern?

Input: 16, 25, 36, 49

Output: 4, 5, 6, 7

(A) 64
(B) 60
(C) 56
(D) 65
143. Direction: Choose thecorrectanswer based on the information given
below:

1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south -

while M, N, O, P and Q are five ladies sitting in a second line
parallel to the first line and are facing to North
2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q
3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other
4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M
5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D
6. M is at one end of the line

Which of the following pair is diagonally opposite to each other?

(A) EQ
(B) BO
(C) AN
(D) AM

144. Find the odd one out:

(A) Eye : Vision

(B) Ear : Hearing
(C) Nose : Smell
(D) Hand : Taste

145. SCD, TEF, UGH, VIJ, …………..

(A) CMN
(B) UJI
(C) WKL
(D) IJT
146. Mahesh has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to
customers in his neighbourhood. It takes Mahesh 50 minutes to deliver all
the papers. If Mahesh is sick or has other plans, his friend Suresh, who
lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him. Which
of the following is correct?

(A) Mahesh and Suresh live in the same neighbourhood.

(B) It takes Suresh more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers
(C) It is dark outside when Mahesh begins his deliveries
(D) Suresh would like to have his own paper route
147. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the
given combination

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
148. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 1

149. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(A) inch
(B) ounce
(C) centimeter
(D) yard

150. REASON : SFBTPO :: THINK : ?

(A) SGHMJ
(B) UHNKI
(C) UIJOL
(D) UJKPM
 ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: BVOC
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 A 31 B 61 B 91 C 121 B
2 B 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 A
3 D 33 B 63 A 93 D 123 C
4 C 34 B 64 C 94 A 124 D
5 B 35 A 65 B 95 A 125 B
6 A 36 C 66 C 96 C 126 A
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 B 127 C
8 B 38 A 68 B 98 C 128 D
9 D 39 B 69 B 99 A 129 B
10 C 40 B 70 A 100 C 130 D
11 B 41 D 71 C 101 C 131 B
12 B 42 C 72 C 102 D 132 C
13 B 43 A 73 A 103 C 133 D
14 A 44 B 74 B 104 D 134 B
15 C 45 C 75 A 105 D 135 A
16 A 46 D 76 D 106 D 136 D
17 A 47 C 77 D 107 C 137 A
18 D 48 D 78 C 108 A 138 B
19 B 49 B 79 A 109 D 139 A
20 D 50 D 80 A 110 A 140 D
21 B 51 C 81 A 111 C 141 B
22 C 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 A
23 B 53 C 83 B 113 C 143 D
24 A 54 B 84 C 114 A 144 D
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 B 145 C
26 D 56 D 86 C 116 D 146 A
27 A 57 D 87 B 117 C 147 C
28 A 58 C 88 A 118 B 148 A
29 A 59 C 89 A 119 D 149 B
30 B 60 B 90 A 120 C 150 C