READING COMPREHENSION

Test 2
Question Book

Structure of book

Number of questions Number of questions to be Time allowed

answered
45 45 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS

1. There are 45 questions in this sample set. You have 40 minutes to complete the real test
which contains 50 questions.
2. With each question there are five possible answers A, B, C, D or E. For each question you
are to choose the ONE answer you think is best. To show your answer, fill the oval for one
letter (A, B, C, D or E) on the separate answer sheet in the section headed Reading
Comprehension.
3. If you don’t know the answer to a question, make a guess or come back to it later. You
don’t lose marks if you get something wrong. It may be difficult to finish all the questions in
the time allowed, so don’t spend too long on any one question.
4. If you decide to change an answer, rub it out completely and mark your new answer
clearly.
5. If you want to work anything out you may write on the question booklet.
6. If you need the help of the supervisor during the test, raise your hand.

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Read the following passage to answer questions 1 - 4

Aluminum is a light, silver-white metal which is 2.7 times as heavy as water. It is soft, but
has good tensile strength and is an efficient conductor of heat and electricity. Aluminum
melts at 660 degrees Celsius and is easily extruded and pressed. It can be drawn into wire or
rolled into sheets and foil. An aluminum structure weighs approximately half as much as a
similar steel one of comparable strength.
Apart from its strength and light weight, aluminum’s best quality is that it cannot be corroded
because it forms a hard oxide film on its surface. This prevents further oxidation, which
would result in rust. This film can be thickened by anodizing and can also be dyed, thus
making aluminum useful for architectural panels and household utensils.
Aluminum is also relatively cheap as, after oxygen and silicon, it is the third most abundant
element in the earth’s crust, making up eight per cent of the total. However, like many metals,
aluminum is not found in its pure form, but associated with other elements in rocks and
minerals. Aluminum is obtained from the ore bauxite, named after Les Baux, the place in
France where it was first found. There are significant deposits in Guinea, Jamaica, Surinam,
Australia, Russia, and its surrounding areas, just to name a few.
The first man to extract aluminum may have been Hans Christian Oersted. He is thought to
have produced a tiny amount in 1825. Worthwhile quantities were not made until 1852.
Eventually the electrolytic process, developed in 1886, enabled aluminum to become the
valuable structural material it now is.

Question 1
Aluminum is
A. a metal ore.
B. heavier than steel.
C. a strong, soft, silver white metal.
D. unable to be processed.
E. None of these.

Question 2
Aluminum is useful because
I. it is easily cast and pressed.
II. it is light but strong.
III. it accepts anodized colour easily.

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III

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Question 3
Aluminum cannot rust because
A. it is always anodized.
B. rust only occurs in humid climates.
C. it forms a hard oxide film on its surface.
D. it is rolled into sheets.
E. None of these.

Question 4
Which of the following is not true about aluminum?
A. It is the third most abundant metal in the earth’s crust.
B. It is flexible and has many varied uses.
C. It is not found in its pure form.
D. It can be found in a significant amount in multiple continents.
E. None of these.

Read the following poem to answer questions 5 - 8

The fields, golden in the evening light

Were fringed with rows of gums.
The cows, contented after milking,
Grazed slowly towards the river.
At its edge, willows dangled twisted roots
Seeking life-maintaining water
As their graceful, drooping branches
Formed a canopy of green.
Finally, as the sun slipped below the horizon,
The distant mountains became stark,
black silhouettes
And birds chattered their final farewells
To the warm summer evening.
Soon the stars would shine brilliantly
In the dark velvet of the sky
And I again would contemplate
The wonders of the universe.

Question 5
The poem suggests that the poet
A. is sad that night has fallen.
B. has an affinity with nature.
C. spends too much time observing details.
D. is afraid of nature.
E. None of these

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Question 6
The poet is
A. closely observant of the world around him.
B. distracted by his own thoughts.
C. detached from the scene.
D. uninterested in rural life.
E. None of these.

Question 7
The most suitable title for the poem would be
A. Night Sky
B. Country Life
C. Summer Tranquillity
D. An Evening Walk
E. None of these

Question 8
The lines that best reflect the immensity of the poet’s wonder are
A. Finally, as the sun slipped below the horizon, the distant mountains became stark, black
silhouettes
B. And I again would contemplate the wonders of the universe
C. At its edge willows dangled twisted roots seeking life-maintaining water
D. Soon the stars would shine brilliantly in the dark velvet of the sky
E. None of these

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Read the following passage (from Aldous Huxley’s Brave New World) to answer
questions 9-11

Six or seven hundred little boys and girls were running with shrill yells over the lawns, or
playing ball games, or squatting silently in twos and threes among the flowering shrubs.
The roses were in bloom, two nightingales soliloquized in the boscage, a cuckoo was just
going out of tune among the lime trees. The air was drowsy with the murmur of bees and
helicopters.

The Director and his students stood for a short time watching a game of Centrifugal
Bumble-puppy. Twenty children were grouped in a circle around a chrome steel tower. A
ball thrown up so as to land on the platform at the top of the tower rolled down into the
interior, fell on a rapidly revolving disk, was hurled through one or other of the numerous
apertures pierced in the cylindrical casing, and had to be caught.

"Strange," mused the Director, as they turned away, "strange to think that even in Our
Ford's day most games were played without more apparatus than a ball or two and a few
sticks and perhaps a bit of netting. Imagine the folly of allowing people to play elaborate
games which do nothing whatever to increase consumption. It's madness. Nowadays the
Controllers won't approve of any new game unless it can be shown that it requires at least
as much apparatus as the most complicated of existing games."

Question 9
The tone of this passage is best described as
A. tense and anxious.
B. light and friendly.
C. matter-of-fact.
D. uninterested and bored.
E. None of these.

Question 10
This passage reflects that the author believes
A. that children’s games are too simple.
B. that increasing consumption of material goods is bad.
C. that increasing the number of things you need to play a game makes it more fun.
D. that children will need more complicated games in the future.
E. None of the above.

Question 11
This passage would most likely appear in which genre of novel?
A. Horror
B. Science Fiction
C. Comedy
D. Non Fiction
E. None of the above

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Read the following paragraph to answer questions 12-16

Whilst the first Queen Elizabeth of England became a great ruler, her young life was often
fraught with danger. She was born in 1533, the daughter of Henry VII and his second wife,
Anne Boleyn, who was later beheaded on a charge of treason. Elizabeth was not in favour
and lived in the country until Henry’s sixth wife, Catherine Parr, who was fond of her,
brought her back to court.

Elizabeth was well educated and could speak French and Italian fluently. She was also very
capable at speaking Greek and Latin. She was proud of her handwriting and musical skills.
She loved to dance and to ride out in the open air.

When her father died, her half-brother Edward, still a young boy, reigned for a short time and
life for Elizabeth became more difficult as many men tried to influence the young king.
Elizabeth had to watch very carefully what she said and did to avoid the traps laid for her.
Things got even worse when Edward died and her half-sister, Mary, ascended the throne in
1533.

Mary was a devout Catholic and was frightened that the people would prefer Elizabeth, who
was more popular and a Protestant, as Queen. At one time Mary ordered Elizabeth to be
imprisoned in the Tower of London. As she was rowed through Traitor’s Gate, she must have
wondered if she was to die there. However, she was able to convince Mary that she would
follow the teachings of the Catholic church, and when her half-sister died in 1558, Elizabeth
was crowned Queen. England became a Protestant country once more, and the persecutions
that had marked the reign of “Bloody Mary” did not happen again.

Throughout her long reign, Elizabeth showed wisdom and devotion to her country and she
was much loved. She died in 1603, leaving England in a prosperous and settled condition.

Question 12
Elizabeth I was born in
A. the fifteenth century.
B. the fourteenth century.
C. the sixteenth century.
D. the twentieth century.
E. None of these.

Question 13
Anne Boleyn
A. died in childbirth.
B. was executed.
C. was Henry’s third wife.
D. was Mary’s mother.
E. None of these.

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Question 14
Elizabeth’s life was most difficult during
A. Henry’s reign.
B. Edward’s reign.
C. Elizabeth’s reign.
D. Mary’s reign.
E. None of these.

Question 15
Mary imprisoned Elizabeth because
A. Elizabeth was, at heart, a Protestant.
B. Elizabeth was more popular with the people than Mary.
C. Mary saw Elizabeth as a threat to her reign.
D. Elizabeth was her half-sister.
E. None of these.

Question 16
Elizabeth’s most significant qualities were
A. her ability to speak many languages.
B. her ability to avoid traps.
C. her dedication to England and her wise judgment.
D. her loyalty to her family.
E. None of these.

Read the following passage to answer questions 17-21

Cadaver Dog
Shane and his father (an ex-policeman) are sleeping in a caravan in the yard of an
abandoned school that Shane’s father has just bought.

When Shane woke up during the night, he was vaguely aware that he had been woken up by
an alien noise. The dog growling? Someone calling? As his eyes became accustomed to the
light he realised there was a faint glow coming in the window. At first he thought it was
dawn. But there were no magpies warbling. There was a soft, indistinct crackling sound.

He thought he heard a muffled shout, or a cry.

Sleepily he turned over. It was then he noticed that the glow was not the steady glow of dawn
but a flickering glow. It didn’t make sense. When he looked out of his window he realised
why. The school was on fire!
The dog barked.
Grotesque shadows danced in the trees.
It took him a moment to react.
“Dad! The school’s burning down!” he cried out, suddenly fully awake.
He became aware of the roar of the flames as they turned from a bonfire into an inferno. In a
moment his father came blundering around the caravan. A light went on. His father was
fumbling with his mobile phone and swearing impatiently.
Caddy’s barking grew angry, urgent.

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From then on the action became a blur.
By the time the local bushfire brigade arrived the old school house was little more than a
large smouldering heap of burning timber and twisted corrugated iron.
Leaves in the nearby trees were scorched.
A nagging worry troubled Shane, as he and his father watched the firefighters complete the
clean-up operations. Then they all stopped and congregated near a corner of the building.
They had found something. Caddy sat on her haunches near Shane’s feet. She was whining
nervously.
“Steady, girl,” said Shane’s father softly.
One fireman left the group and dashed for the truck. Within moments he was on the CB radio
talking softly and urgently.
Then Shane suddenly realised why he was feeling uneasy. It wasn’t the loss of the school –
after all, it was on the “get rid of” list. He gasped at the enormity of the realisation.
A person had died in the fire! His father was looking at him. “You right?”
“Dad, I think…” For a moment, Shane was lost for words. Then he blurted out his fears. With
a deep sinking feeling he remembered the cry he had vaguely heard when he first woke up.
Shane’s father was silent for a moment. Shane could almost imagine his father’s detective
mind putting pieces together. Looking for bits that would fit.
Another fireman was talking on a mobile phone.

Question 17
Shane was roused from his sleep most likely because of
A. the dog growling.
B. a flickering light.
C. magpies warbling.
D. a crackling sound.
E. None of these.

Question 18
The speed of the fire was
A. predictable and impressive.
B. expected and frightening.
C. rapid and destructive.
D. destructive and menacing.
E. None of these.

Question 19
The writer states, “Grotesque shadows danced in the trees.” What does he mean by
this?
A. The shadows created by the fire flickered erratically in a disturbing way.
B. The bush around the caravan was lit by the flames.
C. The light caused moving shadows in the trees.
D. People close to the fire had to move away quickly.
E. None of these.

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Question 20
Shane’s father swore because
A. he couldn’t find the light or his phone.
B. he was being clumsy when he had to respond quickly.
C. he didn’t want the school to burn down.
D. his mobile phone wasn’t operating.
E. None of these.

Question 21
What caused Shane to realise someone had died in the fire?
A. The fire fighters were making urgent calls.
B. The dog had begun to whine nervously.
C. He remembered hearing a cry.
D. Shane’s father was looking for reasons for the cause of the fire.
E. None of these.

Read the following passage to answer questions 22-26

For over one hundred years freak shows were popular in travelling circuses and carnivals.
The freak show era began about 1840, but interest in freaks goes back centuries. Mary
Shelley (1797-1851) wrote her best known novel, Frankenstein, in 1818.
A freak show is an exhibition of rarities, “freaks of nature” – such as unusually tall, very
short, very fat and deformed people. Some were too mentally retarded to have a judgment of
their own. Though many ‘freaks’ signed their contracts and displayed themselves willingly,
many others were sold or drafted by their parents or guardians into the freak show, virtually
as slaves. These people were ogled at regardless of their feelings. They were put on show
along with performances that were intended to shock audiences.
Heavily tattooed or excessively pierced people have sometimes been seen in freak shows,
along with fire breathing and sword swallowing acts. Such acts eventually lose their thrill as
they were exposed as clever stunts.
Although many examples were widely referred to as freaks, a distinction must be made
between self-made freaks and born freaks.
With the rise of the Internet, morbid freak-show fascination has had a revival of interest on
some dubious sites, allowing people to see “freakish” abnormalities that would not have been
permitted during the free-to-air television era, due to concepts of acceptable good taste and
political correctness.
Some shows also exhibited deformed animals such as two-headed cows, one-eyed pigs, and
four-horned goats and famous hoaxes, or simply as “science gone wrong” exhibits. The
Venice Beach Freakshow in Venice (California) housed a large collection of two-headed
animals including a live two-headed snake and the only living three-headed turtle ever found.
Visitors may have been sceptical, but there was also a morbid attraction.
Advances in medicine and political changes all sounded the death knell for the freak show.
As mysterious deformities were scientifically explained as genetic mutations or the result of

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diseased, freaks became the objects of pity then compassion, rather than fear or disdain.
Freak shows are the exploitation of those who are powerless to protect themselves against
unscrupulous operators.
The term “freak show” has become archaic. Freak shows (with animals or humans) are
outlawed in most countries. Many of the shows that appear to have an element of
freakishness about them are often cleverly contrived illusions.

Question 22
The end of the era for freak shows came about
A. when parents could no longer sell deformed children to show operators.
B. when extreme acts were exposed as frauds or their stunts explained.
C. when deformities were explained as genetic or disease related conditions.
D. with the advent of free-to-air television.
E. None of these.

Question 23
The attitude to traveling freak shows has changed over the centuries. Which line best
reflects the change from earliest to latest?
A. disdain, compassion, pity, fascination
B. fascination, pity, compassion, disdain
C. disdain, fascination, compassion, pity
D. fascination, disdain, pity, compassion
E. None of these.

Question 24
The word “ogled” suggests that the audiences at freak shows
A. are shocked by what they see.
B. stare in a manner that gives personal pleasure.
C. become spellbound by the spectacle.
D. watch in fear.
E. None of these.

Question 25
Freak shows are no longer popular. The writer’s attitude towards this tends to suggest
the writer
A. feels sympathy for the suffering and humiliation the shows exploited.
B. is glad that freak shows are still available on the Internet.
C. is saddened by the demise of freak shows.
D. misses the passing of the age of real freak shows.
E. None of these.

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Question 26
The word “freaks” is in inverted commas because the writer is
A. aware that the word is offensive to the operators of sideshows.
B. preparing the reader for a word that may offend some people.
C. indicating the word may carry some additional or unusual meaning.
D. attempting to downplay any hidden meaning in the word.
E. None of these.

Read the following passage to answer questions 27-28

Besides the neutral expression that she wore when she was alone, Mrs Freeman had two
others, forward and reverse, that she used for all her human dealings. Her forward expression
was steady and driving like the advance of a heavy truck. Her eyes never swerved to left or
right but turned as the story turned as if they followed a yellow line down the centre of it. She
seldom used the other expression because it was not often necessary for her to retract a
statement, but when she did, her face came to a complete stop, there was an almost
imperceptible movement of her black eyes, during which they seemed to be receding, and
then the observer would see that Mrs Freeman, though she might stand there as real as several
grain sacks thrown on top of one another, was no longer there in spirit.

Question 27
The description suggests that Mrs Freeman hardly ever
A. admitted defeat.
B. thought of herself.
C. won an argument.
D. kept to her line of argument.
E. None of these.

Question 28
The passage gives the impression that Mrs Freeman was
A. crude and unsubtle.
B. enthusiastic but misguided.
C. lazy and complaining.
D. strong-minded but gracious.
E. None of these.

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Read the following fable to answer questions 29-30

A Crow, half-dead with thirst, came upon a Pitcher which had once been full of water; but
when the Crow put its beak into the mouth of the Pitcher he found that only very little
water was left in it, and that he could not reach far enough down to get at it. He tried, and
he tried, but at last had to give up in despair. Then a thought came to him, and he took a
pebble and dropped it into the Pitcher. Then he took another pebble and dropped it into the
Pitcher. Then he took another pebble and dropped that into the Pitcher. Then he took
another pebble and dropped that into the Pitcher. Then he took another pebble and dropped
that into the Pitcher. Then he took another pebble and dropped that into the Pitcher. At
last, at last, he saw the water mount up near him, and after casting in a few more pebbles
he was able to quench his thirst and save his life.

Question 29
Which best describes the Crow’s attitude in this passage?
A. desperate
B. studied
C. cunning
D. cautious
E. anxious

Question 30
The author’s intended moral is most likely:
A. It is better to use intellect than brute force.
B. Slowly and surely working at something yields results.
C. Dehydration is dangerous.
D. Crows are sneaky.
E. None of these.

Read the following passage to answer questions 31-35

The passage below is from a novel set in the early twentieth century on a Caribbean island.
The narrator, José, who comes from a very poor background, has won a scholarship to a
prestigious school. Each day during breaks between classes he is confronted by the sight of
other students buying and eating food that he cannot afford.
My affliction was then so acute that it was not my stomach that caused me pain, but a
bewildering emptiness, making my head grow heavy, transforming all around me into a
nightmare, into an ignoble plot against my hunger.
Thus, I began filling myself with water from a tap in a corner of the yard and every now and
then, I returned to it, trying to drown my stomach to keep it quiet. Similarly, I tried to hide
myself in the crowd to escape Bussi. I had neither the urge nor the strength to talk. It was
already quite a problem looking calm, indifferent, even filled, like everybody else. But Bussi
managed to find me. I saw him; he had seen me; impossible to get away. He came up to me,
holding a long piece of golden brown bread, its white foam-light inside cut in two to receive
fried eggs. I found it terrible.

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But Bussi was a kind friend. Seeing that I hadn’t had anything to eat, he offered me his bread
in a natural gesture.
“Break it.”
“No,” I said, “thank you.”
“Come on, break it with me.”
He held out his bread to me. That golden brown and white bread, spongy and stuffed full of
fried eggs, smelling good.
No, I was adamant in my refusal, and with an air of indifference; for, at his insistence, my
hunger had disappeared, overcome or driven back by some indescribable pride risen up in the
face of what could be a gesture of pity on the part of this boy. But he broke the bread himself
and handed me a piece, a large piece, all full of egg yolks.
“Come now, don’t make such a fuss.”
I put both my hands behind my back and with a quiet smile, I persisted with my refusal.
Then, to end it all, Bussi shrugged his shoulders, did a little pirouette, bit deep into his bread
and we spoke about other things. We walked about the yard. The walk relaxed me from the
struggle I had just been through.

Question 31
José’s main purpose in lines 4–7 seems to have been to
A. alienate Bussi.
B. satisfy his hunger pangs.
C. emphasise his isolation from others.
D. keep his problem from being noticed.
E. None of these.

Question 32
José’s reaction to Bussi’s offer demonstrates his
A. self-respect.
B. self-importance.
C. distaste for Bussi’s off-handedness.
D. suspicion that Bussi has a selfish motive.
E. None of these.

Question 33
The fact that José’s “hunger had disappeared”’ is a result of
A. a change in his emotional state.
B. a desperate attempt to hide his desire.
C. trying to disguise his contempt for the offer.
D. trying to conceal his gratitude for the offer.
E. None of these.

Question 34
When José refuses the bread, Bussi shows
A. relief.
B. confusion.
C. insincerity.
D. understanding.
E. None of these.

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Question 35
The word “adamant” most nearly means
A. Compliant
B. Stubborn
C. Flexible
D. Regular
E. None of these.

Read the following passage to answer questions 36-37

There are, among spiders, two forms of protective modification: the first, —appearing like
a plant or vegetable—I shall call direct protection. The second form, which I shall call
indirect protection, includes two classes, the spiders which are specially protected
themselves and those which mimic other creatures which are specially protected.
Spiders are specially protected when they become inedible through the acquisition of hard
plates, venom and sharp spines. The modification of form is frequently accompanied by
conspicuous colours, which tell predators that they may be poisonous.
The second class of indirectly protected spiders—those that mimic specially protected
creatures—often appear like their specially protected cousins. They may have colourful
spots or stripes that warn predators of a poisonous bite. However, many of these spiders
do not have venom themselves.

Question 36
Which of the following sentences from the passage best expresses the main idea?
A. Spiders have evolved many ways of protecting themselves.
B. Spiders only have one form of protection.
C. Spiders protect themselves through poisonous bites.
D. Spiders protect themselves by looking like other creatures who protect themselves.
E. None of these.

Question 37
The word “inedible” most likely means
A. to taste bad.
B. to be poisonous.
C. to be difficult to chew.
D. to be impossible to eat.
E. all of the above.

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Read the following passage to answer questions 38-39

Off the south coast of Iceland sits Surtsey, its southernmost territory and the newest
addition to its border. A volcanic island, Surtsey is the southernmost point of Iceland. It
was formed in an eruption which began deep below sea level and reached the surface on
14 November, 1963. The volcano’s eruption lasted almost four years, before finally
ceasing on the 5th of June, 1967. At that time, Surtsey measured 2.7 square kilometres.
However, since its sudden birth in the 60s, the island has been steadily shrinking. The
strong waves of the Atlantic Ocean have gradually eroded it down, and as of 2007, it is
less than half the size and height it once was.

It may surprise you to know that life of all kinds swiftly developed on Surtsey. Only two
years after the volcanic eruption began (and two more before it would end), the first plants
were discovered growing on its northern shore. Birds, seals and insects have all been
observed inhabiting the island, although given Surtsey’s currently shrinking state, it is not
known for how long this may continue.

Question 38
According to the passage, Surtsey is located in what direction from central Iceland?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
E. South-west

Question 39
For how long was Surtsey’s volcano erupting?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
E. It is currently active

Read the following passage to answer questions 40 - 41

Learning to meditate can be a difficult and exasperating task. However, it may also be the
most rewarding thing you ever learn to do. To try meditation, first you should find a place
where you know you won’t be disturbed. The place doesn’t have to be utterly silent or
secluded, but you should know that you will not be interrupted until you are finished.
Now, find a comfortable position. It may be lying, sitting, whatever suits you. Breath in.
Become aware of your breath as you breathe in and out. Listen for the sound it makes.
Perhaps you might count: 1 on the inhale, 2 on the exhale. Count all the way to 10, and
then begin again. Whatever thoughts enter your head, simply nod, and then continue
counting. In no time, you’ll be meditating!

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Question 40
From the overall context of the passage, what do you think exasperating means?
A. Frustrating
B. Easy
C. Achievable
D. Tiring
E. None of these

Question 41
Notice that this manual is written in the second person, employing the “you” pronoun.
Considering the purpose of the manual, is this the best choice and why?
A. Yes, because it avoids the necessity to choose between male and female pronouns.
B. Yes, because the people who are reading the manual have sought this information out to
educate themselves.
C. No, not everyone who reads a manual wants to learn how to do what it tells you to.
D. No, because it makes readers unnecessarily uncomfortable to be addressed directly.
E. None of these.

Question 42
Which sentence has the correct grammar and punctuation?
Penny and Tommy is brothers and sisters.
A. is brother and sister.
B. are brother and sister.
C. are brothers and sisters.
D. is a brother and sister.
E. None of these.

Question 43
To pick holes means
A. to find a reason to fight.
B. to destroy something.
C. to criticize something.
D. to cut off part of an item.
E. None of these.

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Question 44
The Amish are very humble people, unlike the uppity people in the surrounding communities.
In this sentence, the word uppity means
A. spiteful.
B. relieved.
C. stuck-up.
D. reformed.
E. None of these.

Question 45
Which sentence has the correct punctuation?
A. “It’s not worth crying,” stated Wendy, “because the damage is done.”
B. “It’s not worth crying?” stated Wendy, “because the damage is done.”
C. “It’s not worth crying,” stated Wendy, “because the damage is done?”
D. “It’s not worth crying,” stated Wendy. “Because the damage is done.”
E. None of these.

END OF EXAMINATION
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