03-05-2026

1015CMD303003260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Choose correct value of sin 2° :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

2) Which of the following is incorrect :

(1)

(2) tan37° . cot37° = 1

(3) cot37°. cot53° = 1

(4)

3) If sinθ = and θ lies in IInd quadrant then find tanθ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Find value of sin75º :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Find value of cos(–60°)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Convert 270º into radian :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Sin 120°, sin 220°, cos 230°, tan 500°

Applying ASTC rule, which of the following statement is true :-

(1) +, +, – , –
(2) –, – , + , –
(3) +, – , – , +
(4) +, –, –, –

8) As increases from 0° to 90°, the value of

(1) Increases
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain same
(4) First increases then decreases

9) Find the value of cos 150°

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If angle is in 4th quadrant then find the value of if

(1)
(2)
(3) 330°
(4) 345°

11) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

12) In the given graph compare slope at points 1,2 and 3.

(1) tan θ1 > tan θ2 > tanθ3

(2) tan θ1 = tan θ2 = tanθ3
(3) tan θ3 > tan θ2 > tan θ1
(4) All of these

13)
Equation of the line shown in figure is :

(1) y = x +
(2) y = x + 3
(3) y = x+3
(4) y=x+3

14)

The slope of straight line = 3x + 4 is

(1) 3
(2)

(3)
(4)

15)

Slope of the straight line is

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) 2

16) The slope of a ladder making an angle 30o with the floor is

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) tan(1853°) = ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19)

(1) 420°
(2) 210°
(3) 450°
(4) 480°

20) For the circle shown in figure, the length of arc AB is:-

(1) 7 m
(2) 11 m
(3) 14 m
(4) m

21) Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) sin 2θ = 2 sin θ cos θ

(2) cos 2θ = cos2 θ – sin2 θ
(3) cos 2θ = 1 – 2 cos2 θ
(4) cos 2θ = 1 – 2 sin2 θ

22) Value of sin 15° cos 15° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

24) If PR = RQ, then :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Magnitude of the resultant of two vectors shown is :-

(1)
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

26) Two vectors and inclined at angle θ have a resultant which makes an angle ϕ with . If the
directions of and are interchanged, the resultant will have the same :

(1) magnitude
(2) direction
(3) magnitude as well as direction
(4) neither magnitude nor direction

27) The vector sum of the forces 10 N and 6N can be :-

(1) 2N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 20 N
28) In the figure shown the angle between & is:

(1) 225°
(2) 60°
(3) 15°
(4) 135°

29) If and then angle between and is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

30) A vector is added to an equal and opposite vector of similar nature, forms a

(1) Unit vector

(2) Position vector
(3) Null vector
(4) Displacement vector

31) Let θ be the angle between vectors and . Which of the following figures correctly represents
the angle θ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) & are correct if

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

33) Three vectors of equal magnitude F act at a point such that angle between every two vectors is
120° then their resultant is equal to :-

(1) F
(2) 2F
(3) 3F
(4) Zero

34) Six vectors, through have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the

following statements is true ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) If = 2 and = and angle between and is 30°, then resultant will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) If and then which statement is correct.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) all of the above

37)

If and then find angle between & :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

38) Two forces each numerically equal to 10 dynes are acting as shown in the following figure, then

the resultant is :-

(1) 10 dynes
(2) 20 dynes
(3) dynes
(4) 5 dynes

39) Which of the following is an axial vector ?

(1) Velocity
(2) Displacement
(3) Torque
(4) Force

40) For given three vectors :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) Which of the following group of forces may be in equilibrium ?

(1) 5N, 10N, 12N

(2) 5N, 10N, 16N
(3) 8N, 10N, 20N
(4) 7N, 5N, 15N

42) In the given vector diagram it is shown that and The angle between the vectors
and is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 150°

43) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector

(2) may be a vector
(3) must be scalar
(4) none of the above

44)

How many minimum numbers of non-zero vectors in different planes can be added to give zero
resultant?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

45) Assertion : If the initial and final positions coincide the displacement is a null vector.
Reason : A physical quantity cannot be called a vector if its magnitude is zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is false.

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following pair of gases contains the same number of molecules?

(1) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2

(2) 8g of O2 and 22g of CO2
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2
(4) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2

2) 11 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O4
(3) CO
(4) CO2

3) Calculate the weight of 2 gram atoms of oxygen

(1) 32g
(2) 8 g
(3) 16 g
(4) 64 g

4) At NTP, 11.2 L of a gas weight 16 g. The vapour density of the gas is :-

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 8

5) An organic compound contains 4% sulphur. Its minimum molecular weight is :

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 800
(4) 1600

6)

The number of atoms of oxygen in 32 g O2 is :

(1) 0.5 NA
(2) NA
(3) 2 NA
(4) 4 NA

7) Vapour density of a gas is 22. What is its molecular mass :-

(1) 33 amu
(2) 44 amu
(3) 22 amu
(4) 11 amu

8) Which has maximum number of atoms :

(1) 24 g of 12C
(2) 56 g of 56Fe
(3) 27 g of 27Al
(4) 108 g of 108Ag

9) What is the mass % of carbon in methane :

(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 66.67%

10) Which of the following compound has same empirical formula as that of glucose:-

(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3OH
(4) C2H6

11) Gram molecular weight of oxygen is:

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

12) 1 a.m.u. is equal to :-

(1) NA g
(2) 6.023 × 1024 g
(3) 1.67 × 10–23 g

(4)

13) An organic compound with C = 40%, H = 6.7 % and rest is oxygen will have the empirical
formula :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH2O
(3) C3H6O
(4) C3H4O2

14) Assertion : CO2 has more number of molecule in its 88 g than number of molecule of H2O in its
72 g.
Reason : Both have 4 mole of molecules.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

15) Assertion : The number of O atoms in 16 g of oxygen and 16 g of ozone is same.

Reason : Each of the above species represent 1 g - molecule of oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

16) Match the following Column-I (Molecule) to Column-II (Atomicity).

Column-I Column-II

(A) H2 (P) 1

(B) O2 (Q) 2

(C) O3 (R) 3

(D) NH3 (S) 4

(1) (A)–(Q); (B)–(Q); (C)–(R); (D)–(S)
(2) (A)–(P); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)
(3) (A)–(P); (B)–(S); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(4) (A)–(S); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(R)

17) Match the following :-

Compound Molar mass

(P) H2O (a) 44 g

(Q) CO2 (b) 16 g

(R) CH4 (c) 18 g

(1) P-(c), Q-(b), R-(a)
(2) P-(c), Q-(a), R-(b)
(3) P-(a), Q-(b), R-(c)
(4) P-(b), Q-(a), R-(c)

18) How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.4 mol oxygen atoms ?

(1) 0.05 mol

(2) 0.5 mol
(3) 8 mol
(4) 4 mol

19) Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are:

(1) 24 NA
(2) 2 NA
(3) 20 NA
(4) 10 NA

20) Calculate the mass of 2 gram molecule of CO2 :

(1) 88 g
(2) 44 g
(3) 132 g
(4) 176 g

21) In a compound, the number of atoms of C and O are 1.2 × 1010 and 2.4 × 1010 respectively. It's
empirical formula is :-

(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) C3O4
(4) C2O3

22)

Calculate the mass of 3.011 × 1023 molecules of H2O :

(1) 36 g
(2) 18 g
(3) 9 g
(4) 4.5 g

23) Increasing order for the values of e/m for electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and α-particles is

(1) e < p < n < α

(2) n < α < p < e
(3) n < p < e < α
(4) n < p < α < e

24) Which of the following statement regarding the characteristics of positively charged particle
canal rays is incorrect?

Mass of positively charged particles depends upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray
(1)
tube.
(2) The charge to mass ratio of these particles depends on the gas from which these originate.
The behaviour of these particles in electric or magnetic field is same as that observed for
(3)
electron or cathode rays.
Some of the positively charged particles carry a multiple of the fundamental unit of fundamental
(4)
charge.
25) According to Rutherford's scattering experiment, it can be concluded that

(1) most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil deflected
(2) a small fraction of the α-particles were deflected by small angles
(3) a very large number of α-particles were bounced back
(4) All α-particles were deflected by nearly 180°.

26) Which of the following atoms contains the least number of neutrons?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in

(1) Protons = 80, electrons = 80, neutrons = 35

(2) Protons = 35, electrons = 55, neutrons = 80
(3) Protons = 35, electrons = 35, neutrons = 80
(4) Protons = 35, electrons = 35, neutrons = 45

28) Which of the following statements are not correct ?

(I) The presence of positive charge on the nucleus is due to the presence of protons and neutrons in
the nucleus.
(II) The number of protons present in the nucleus is equal to the atomic number.
(II) In order to keep the electrical neutrality, the number of electrons in an atom is equal to the
number of proton in an atom.
(IV) Protons, neutrons and electrons present in the atom are collectively called nucleons.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) II and III

(2) I, II, and III
(3) I and IV
(4) III and IV

29) Assertion (A) : Rutherford experiment concludes that most of the space in the atoms is empty.
Reason (R) : Most of the α-particles passed through the foil remain undeflected.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

30) Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?

(1) It is a negatively charged particle.

(2) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
(3) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
(4) It is a constituent of cathode rays.

31) Which of the following statement is incorrect about the characteristics of cathode rays?

(1) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
(2) They travel in a straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic field.
Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray
(3)
tube.
(4) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube.

32) Which of the following conclusion could not be derived from Rutherford's α-particle scattering
experiment?

(1) Most of the space in the atom in empty.

(2) The radius of the atom is about 10–10 m while that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
(3) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits
(4) All of the above

33) Which of the following properties of an atom could be explained correctly by Thomson's model of
atom?

(1) Overall neutrality of atom

(2) Spectra of hydrogen atom
(3) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom
(4) Stability of atom

34) Two atoms are said to be isobars, if

(1) they have same atomic number but different mass number
(2) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons
(3) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons
(4) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is different.

35)

Select isoelectronic set :-

(a) Na+, H3O+, NH4+
(b) CO3–2, NO3–, H2CO3
(c) P–3, HCl, C2H5–, PH3
(d) F–, Ne, Na+

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

36) If the table of atomic masses were established with the oxygen atom and assigned value of 100,
then the mass of carbon atom would be, approximately:-

(1) 24
(2) 75
(3) 50
(4) 112

37) The radius of nucleus of will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) If no. of protons in X–2 is 16. then no. of electron in X+2 will be–

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) None of these

39) In 12C atom if mass of electrons is doubled and mass of proton is halved, then calculate the
percentage change in mass of C12.

(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 30%

40) Dalton’s Atomic theory could not explain which of the following ?

(1) Law of conservation of mass

(2) Law of constant proportion
(3) Law of multiple proportion
(4) Law of gaseous volume

41) Select the correct statements from the following :

A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
B. The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg.
C. All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
E. Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) C,D and E only
(2) A and E only
(3) B,C and E only
(4) A,B and C only

42) The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α–particle is :–

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

43) An element have three isotopes and their isotopic weights are 11, 12 , 13 unit and their
percentage of occurence in nature is 85, 10, 5 respectively then calculate the average atomic weight
of element.

(1) 11.1
(2) 11.2
(3) 11.3
(4) 11.4

44) Average atomic weight of an element M is 51.7. If two isotopes of M are 50M and 52M then
calculate the percentage of occurence of M50 in nature.

(1) 15%
(2) 85%
(3) 90%
(4) 20%

45) Which of the following pairs will have same chemical properties?

(1)
(2) O2– and F–
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which is not found in bacteria ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm
2) Result of compartmentlization in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells is :-

(1) Membrane bound cell organelles

(2) DNA
(3) Cell wall
(4) Cell membrane

3)

Which of the following organelle (s) is/are not included in endomembrane system?

(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome and vacuoles
(4) Mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosome.

4) Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are :-

(1) Xanthophylls
(2) Chlorophylls
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Anthocyanins

5) Which of the following structure is/are living ?

(1) Mature erythrocyte of many mammals

(2) Sieve tube cells of vascular plant
(3) Cork cells
(4) (1) and (2) both

6) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

Cell Golgi
(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall complex

Cell
(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Vacuole Cytoplasm
wall
 Cell
(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall

Cell
(4) Mitochondria SER Nucleus Vacuole Peroxisome
wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following structures confer certain unique phenotypic characters such as antibiotic
resistance to prokaryotic cells?

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Plastid
(3) Plasmid
(4) Flagellum

8) Plant cells differ to animal cells in having :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Centrioles
(3) Plastids
(4) Both (1) and (3)

9) Match following column and choose correct answer?

Column-I Column-II
A Bacteria i 0.1 µm
B PPLO ii 1-2 µm
C Eukaryotic cell iii 10-20 µm
D RBC iv 7.0 µm

A B C D
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) i iv ii iii
(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Site of glycolipid and glycoprotein synthesis is –

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Cell membrane

11) Identify the labelled organelles A, B and C with their correct function :

(1) C is SER, helps in synthesis of steroid hormones

(2) B is RER, helps in synthesis of protein
(3) A is mitochondria sites for anaerobic respiration
(4) C is Golgi body helps in formation of steroid

12) Which of the following is not considered as function of lysosome ?

(1) Mechanical support

(2) Intracellular digestion
(3) Autophagy
(4) Autolysis

13) Consider the following four statements (a-d), and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence
(b) Schwann observed that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues
of the Plant
(c) cells of all living organisms have mitochondria
(d) Rudolf Virchow explained that new cells arise from pre-existing cells

(1) Statements a and d

(2) Statements b, c and d
(3) Statements a, b and c
(4) Statements a, b and d

14) First time living cell was seen & described by :

(1) Robert hooke

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Leeuwenhoek
(4) Rudolf Virchow

15) Find the incorrect statement with respect to lysosome :-

(1) Membrane bound vesicular structure
(2) Rich in alkaline hydrolases
(3) Contain enzymes that are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids
(4) Formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus

16) The most abundant lipids in eukaryotic cell membrane are

(1) cholestrol
(2) glycolipids
(3) phospholipids
(4) lipopolysaccharide

17) Which of the following is not a feature of eukaryotic cell?

(1) Presence of complex locomotory organelles.

(2) Presence of extensive compartmentalisation
(3) Presence of false chromosomes with circular DNA and non histone proteins in nucleus
(4) Presence of cytoskeleton

18) Choose the incorrect statement about Golgi body :-

(1) No. of cisternae are fixed in golgi body.

(2) Found near nucleus.
(3) Cis and trans face are entirely different.
(4) Site of glycoprotein synthesis.

19) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Any thing less than a complete structure of all cells does not ensure independent living.
(2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living cell .
(3) Robert Brown discovered cell.
(4) Cell is the basic unit of structure and function of all organisms.

20) Lysosomes arise from –

(1) Cis face of golgi bodies

(2) Vacuoles
(3) Transface of golgi bodies
(4) SER

21) The physico-chemical approach to study and understand a living organism is called :

(1) Cell biology

(2) Genetics
(3) Reductionist biology
(4) Biophysics
22) Smallest living cell is :

(1) Bacteria
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Ostrich egg
(4) Cyanobacteria (BGA)

23) Four type of organisms (cell A–D) shown with their relative cell size. If these four structures are
bacteria, typical eukaryotic cell, PPLO and virus the which of the following is correct?

(1) B = Bacteria, C = Virus

(2) A = Typical eukaryotic cell, C = PPLO
(3) B = Bacteria, C = Typical eukaryotic cell
(4) B = Typical eukaryotic cell, D = Virus

24) The main chemical component of fungal cell wall is:

(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Chitin
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

25) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed that body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and products of cells
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

26) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II
(Organelle) (Function)

(a) Rough ER (i) Protein synthesis

(b) Smooth ER (ii) Lipid synthesis

Golgi Packaging
(c) (iii)
apparatus and secretion

Hydrolytic
(d) Lysosome (iv)
enzymes
 Steroid hormone
(v)
synthesis

Glycoprotein
(vi)
formation

Options :
(1) a - i ; b - ii, v ; c - iii, vi ; d - iv
(2) a - ii ; b - i ; c - iv ; d - iii
(3) a - iii ; b - iv ; c - i ; d - ii
(4) a - iv ; b - iii ; c - ii ; d - i

27) Assertion (A) : Hydrophilic heads of phospholipids face outward in plasma membrane.
Reason (R) : They interact with aqueous environment inside and outside the cell.

(1) (A) and (R) both true, (R) explains (A)

(2) (A) and (R) both true, (R) does not explain (A)
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

28) Which feature of plasma membrane is explained by the term "quasi-fluid"?

(1) Selective permeability

(2) Lateral movement of proteins
(3) Presence of cholesterol
(4) Presence of carbohydrates

29) Human RBCs have-

(1) Equal amount of lipids and carbohydrates

(2) Equal amount of proteins and lipids
(3) Unequal amount of proteins and lipids
(4) Equal amount of proteins and carbohydrates

30) The...............is a layer mainly of calcium pectate which holds or glues the different neighbouring
cells together.

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Secondary wall
(3) Middle lamella
(4) Primary wall

31) Neutral solutes (Non polar) may move across the membrane by which process along the
concentration gradient, i.e., from higher concentration to the lower ?

(1) Active transport

(2) Facilitated diffusion
(3) ATP mediated transport
(4) Simple diffusion

32) Which of the following is incorrect about cell wall ?

(1) Thin, living, dynamic structure

(2) Provides shape to the cell
(3) Performs cell to cell interaction
(4) Found in outer most position in plant cells

33) Movement of water by diffusion is called-

(1) Active transport

(2) Passive transport
(3) Osmosis
(4) Both 2 and 3

34) Which of the following is not a part of endomembrane system ?

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Vacuole

35) ..............divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments, i.e., luminal and extra
luminal (cytoplasm) compartments.

(1) ER
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Vacuole

36) Membrane of the sap vacuole is termed as-

(1) Tonoplast
(2) Protoplast
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell sap

37) The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of -

(1) Intracellular digestion

(2) Packaging material
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Lipid synthesis
38) Which of the following is important for osmoregulation and excretion ?

(1) Sap vacuole

(2) Gas vacuole
(3) Contractile vacuole
(4) Food vacuole

39) The number of mitochondria per cell is variable and depend on -

(1) Size of cell

(2) Shape of cell
(3) Physiological activities
(4) Morphological features of prokaryotic cell

40) The inner compartment in mitochondria is filled with a dense homogeneous substance called

(1) Grana
(2) Cristae
(3) Oxysome
(4) Matrix

41) Which of the following is not correct about power house of eukaryotic cells ?

(1) Sausage shaped

(2) Double membrane bound
(3) Have linear, double stranded DNA
(4) Semi autonomous organelle

42) Which of the following organelles exhibit presence of prokaryotic features ?

(1) Only mitochondria of animal cells

(2) Plastids of higher plants only
(3) Mitochondria and plastids both
(4) Golgi bodies and ER

43) Which of the following was first observed as a densely stained reticular structures near the
nucleus ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Lysosomes
(4) ER

44) Which of the following is a wall less prokaryotic cell ?

(1) Tracheid
(2) PPLO
(3) RBC
(4) Sieve tube element

45) Which of the following is not surrounded by any membrane ?

(1) ER
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Peroxisome

46) Animal tissues are broadly classified into four basic types on the basis of-

(1) Structures and origin

(2) Structures and functions
(3) Origin only
(4) Functions and origin

47) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Organs are formed by the organisation of different types of tissues in specific pattern
and proportion.
Statement-II: All complex animals consist of only four basic types of tissues.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

48) In which tissue, cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix?

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue

49) A little girl found a small organism in the garden. The organism recoiled immediately when she
touched it. Which tissue is primarily responsible for the conduction of the nerve impulse generated
due to touch?

(1) Muscle tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

50) Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to Epithelial tissue?
(1) It has a free surface which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
(2) Cells of epithelium are compactly packed.
(3) It has minimum regeneration capacity.
(4) It has little intercellular matrix.

51) In the body of complex animals such as humans, the specialized junctions which provide both
structural and functional links between its individual cells are found in -

(1) Epithelial tissue only

(2) Neural tissue only
(3) Muscular tissue only
(4) Nearly all animal tissues

52) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Tight junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
Statement-II: Adhering junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

53) A student wants to study about cell junctions that help to stop substances from leaking across a
tissue. He received the following samples, which one is best for his study?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Chemical synapse in neurons
(4) Skeletal muscle

54) During a practical examination at histology lab, an unlabeled histological slide is provided for
identification to a group of four medical students, consider yourself as one of those four students.
After careful examination under the microscope,all of you observed that cells are compactly packed
with little intercellular matrix and are connected by specialised junctions that provide both
structural and functional links between its individual [Link] on microscopic observations of
cellular architecture and the quantity of intercellular material, what would you label this slide?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Epithelium
(3) Blood
(4) Tendon

55) Cell junctions in epithelial tissue that perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together are

(1) Tight junctions

(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Gap junctions
(4) Communication junctions

56) The function of the gap junction is to:

(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue

(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(3)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules
(4) Separate two cells from each other

57) Simple epithelium is classified into three types - Simple squamous, simple cuboidal and simple
columnar on the basis of :-

(1) Ability to stretch

(2) Number of layers of cells
(3) Structural modification of cells
(4) Type of cell junctions

58)

Identify the given simple epithelial tissues :-

(A) (B) (C)

1 cuboidal columnar squamous

2 squamous cuboidal columnar

3 squamous columnar cuboidal

4 cuboidal squamous columnar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Which of the following is made up of cube like cells?

(1) Epithelium of blood vessels

(2) Epithelium of PCT
(3) Epithelium of stomach
(4) Epithelium of alveoli

60) Select the single layered epithelium in which cells are tall, slender and nuclei are present at the
base.

(1) Simple Squamous epithelium

(2) Simple Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple Columnar epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

61) Which of the following epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular
boundaries?

(1) Glandular epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Squamous epithelium

62) The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in:

(1) Stomach and intestine

(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(3) Alveoli and Blood vessels
(4) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct

63) Which of the following epithelium forms a diffusion boundary and is found in the walls of blood
vessels and air sacs of lungs?

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

64) Single layer of cube-like cells having microvilli on their free surface are present in-

(1) Air sacs of lungs

(2) PCT of nephron
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Fallopian tubes

65) Identify the epithelium shown in the given diagram and select the correct location of it from the
options given below:

(1) PCT of nephron

(2) Small intestine
(3) Wall of blood vessels
(4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

66) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called
__________________.

(1) Ciliated epithelium

(2) Brush bordered epithelium
(3) Endothelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

67) The epithelium, made up of a single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is present
in

(1) Stomach and intestine

(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(3) Tubular parts of nephron
(4) Air sacs (Alveoli) of lungs

68) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Columnar Tubular parts

(A) (I)
epithelium of nephron

Ciliated Stomach and

(B) (II)
epithelium intestine

Squamous Bronchioles and

(C) (III)
epithelium Fallopian tubes

Cuboidal Air sacs

(D) (IV)
epithelium of lungs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

69) Which of the following is not a secretion of the exocrine glands?

(1) Milk
(2) Mucus
(3) Saliva
(4) Hormone

70) Goblet cells are example of-

(1) Bone cells

(2) Neural cells
(3) Unicellular glands
(4) Multicellular glands

71) Which of the following epithelium is found in the epidermis of skin?

(1) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

72) Epithelium is classified into two categories- simple & compound on the basis of

(1) Number of cells

(2) Amount of matrix
(3) Position of nuclei inside cells
(4) Number of layers of cells

73) Which of the following statements is not correct about the epithelium shown in the given

diagram ?

(1) Only the lowermost layer of cells rest upon the basement membrane.
(2) It is made up of more than one layer of cells.
Main function of this epithelium is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical
(3)
stresses.
(4) This epithelium plays a very important role in secretion and absorption.

74) If you are removing an epithelium from moist surface of buccal cavity and pharynx , then you are
removing-
(1) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(2) Simple squamous epithelium
(3) Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

75) The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body is-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Neural tissue

76) Connective tissues are derived from embryonic

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Endo mesoderm
(4) Mesoderm

77) Given below is a diagram of Areolar connective tissue with labellings (a-d):-

Identify the option which correctly identifies all the labellings-

a-Macrophage, b-Mast cell ,

(1)
c-Collagen fibres, d- Fibroblast
a-Mast cell, b-Macrophage,
(2)
c-Elastin fibres, d- Fibroblast
a-Macrophage, b-Fibroblast,
(3)
c-Collagen fibres, d-Mast cell
a-Fibroblast, b-Macrophage,
(4)
c-Elastin fibres, d-Mast cell

78) Identify the type of connective tissue shown in the given diagram:

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

79) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Areolar tissue often serves as a support framework for epithelium.
Statement-II: Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

80) Which fibres of the connective tissue are arranged in the form of bundles and provide strength
to the tissue?

(1) Yellow fibres

(2) Elastic fibres
(3) Reticular fibres
(4) Collagen fibres

81) In which of the following connective tissues, the cells do not secrete fibres ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Blood

82) Connective tissues are classified into three types: loose connective tissues, dense connective
tissues and specialised connective tissues. Which of the following options has examples of
specialised connective tissues only?

(1) Bone, Ligament, Tendon

(2) Ligament, Cartilage, Tendon
(3) Bone, Cartilage, Blood
(4) Ligament, Tendon, Blood

83) Dense connective tissues are categorised into dense regular and dense irregular tissues on the
basis of

(1) Number of fibres

(2) Branching of fibres
(3) Orientation of fibres
(4) Formation of fibres

84) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Bone and cartilage are examples of specialised connective tissues.
Statement-II: Tendon and ligament are examples of dense regular connective tissues.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

85) Given below are sketches of two animal tissues named as (A) and (B):

Which of the following options correctly identifies tissue A

and B ?

Tissue (A) Tissue (B)

Loose connective Loose connective

(1)
tissue- areolar type tissue- adipose type

Dense regular Dense irregular

(2)
connective tissue connective tissue

Skeletal connective Skeletal connective

(3)
tissue-Bone tissue- Cartilage

Dense irregular Dense regular

(4)
connective tissue connective tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Choose the correctly matched pair:

(1) Tendon- Specialized connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
(4) Ligament- Dense irregular connective tissue

87) To which one of the following categories does adipose tissue belong?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Neural

88) Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?

(1) Bone
(2) Ligament
(3) Tendon
(4) Muscles

89) Tendons join-

(1) Skeletal muscle to bone

(2) Bone to bone
(3) Smooth muscles to bone
(4) Striated muscle to non-striated muscle

90) The four sketches given below in the table represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of the following tissues is correctly identified with its location in our body?

Sketch of Name
Found in
animal tissue of tissue

Dense
irregular
(1) Skin
connective
tissue

Brush Proximal
bordered convoluted
(2)
columnar tubule of
epithelium Nephron

Dense
Ligament
regular
(3) and
connective
Tendon
tissue

Air sacs of
Simple lungs and
(4) squamous Endothelium
epithelium of blood
vessels
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 2 2 4 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 4 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) sin(2°)

sin =
(for small angle)

2) tan 37º = is incorrect.

because tan37º =

3)
IInd quadrant
value of tan = –ve

4) sin 75°
sin (30+45°)
sin30° cos45° + cos30° sin 45°

5)

6) 270 × =

7)

Conceptual.

8)

Conceptual

9)
10)

11)

= 13

12)

St. line has same slope at all pts.

13) Slope of the line, m = tan 30° =

y - intercept, c =
Equation of the line,

y = mx + c ⇒ y =
Multiplying by
y=x+3

14)

y=

15)

16) m = tanθ (∵ θ = 30)

17)

Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of sin (300º).
Concept : Value of trigonometric function
Formula : sin (360º– θ) = – sin θ
Solution :

sin (300º) = sin (360º – 60º) = – sin 60º =

Final Answer : Option (1)

18) Question Explanation :

Find the value of tan(1853).

Concept :
This question is based on trigonometry of large angles.

Formula :
tan(n × 180º + θ) = tan(θ)

Solution :

tan(1853°) = tan (1800 + 53) = tan 53 =

Final Answer : Option (3)

19) Question Explanation :

In this question we have to find the value of radians in degrees.

Concept : This question is based on radian to degree conversion
Solution :

∵ 1 radian = degrees

∴ = degrees = 420º

Final Answer : option (1)

20)

21) Question Explanation :

Identify the incorrect trigonometric identify among the given options.

Concept :
This question is based on double-angle trigonometric identities.

Solution :
sin2θ = 2sinθcosθ
cos2θ = cos2θ – sin2θ
cos2θ = 2cos2θ – 1
cos2θ = 1–2sin2θ
 So,
Option (3) cos2θ – 2cos2θ this is incorrect. The correct formula is cos2θ = 2cos2θ –1 .

Final Answer : (3)

22)

23) Explanation : resultant of which pair given in options cannot given the magnitude of 4N
Concept : Addition and subtraction
Solution : Max. Resultant = A + B
Mini. Resultant = |A – B|
(A + B)
A. 5 R 1
B. 6 R 0
C. 8 R 4
D. 11 R 5 4 cannot be resultant in this addition
Final answer: D

24)

Explanation :- In the given diagram we have to see which relation satisfy the given relation in
options -
Concept :- Addition - subtraction of vectors
Solution :-

.....(i)
....(ii)
(i) - (ii)

Final answer : Option (1)

25) Explanation:
The magnitudes of two given vectors are known, and the angle between them is given. We
have to find the magnitude of their resultant vector.

Concept:
This question is based on vector addition.

Solution:
Magnitude of resultant of two vectors A and B making angle θ:
R = √(A² + B² + 2AB cosθ)
Here,
A = 1, B = 1
θ = 120°

So,
R = √(1² + 1² + 2 × 1 × 1 × cos120°)

Since cos120° = −1/2,

R = √(1 + 1 − 1)
R = √1
R=1

Final Answer: Option (2)

26) Magnitude remains same.

27) 4 ≤ R ≤ 16

28) Question Explanation:

In this question , we have to find the angle between two vectors, A and B, as shown in a
diagram.
Concept:
The angle between two vectors is the smallest rotation needed to align one vector with the
other, measured from their tails at a common origin.
Solution:

Angle between & is = 120° + 15° = 135°

Final answer:
Option (4)

29) Anyle between is 120°

30)
 31)

32) [NCERT Page # 108]

33) Fnet = 0

34) From figure,

35) Question Explanation:

We have to calculate resultant of and .

Concept:
Resultant of two vectors

The magnitude of the resultant R is given by:

Solution:

Given:

A.

B.

C.

Using formula:
Final Answer : Option (1)

36)

Question Explanation : In this question, we have to choose the correct statement regarding
the given two vectors.
Concept : Definition of vectors and dot product.
Solution : Given
(z-direction) (y-direction)
Clearly,
Dot product : (∵ = 0)
Hence both vectors are perpendicular to each other since their dot product is zero

Also both vectors have same magnitude : = 500

∴ All statements are true.
Final answer : Option (4)

37)

⇒ θ = 90°

38) Here, the angle q between the two vectors is 120° and not 60°.

39) Which of the following is an axial vector ?

40) Explain the Question : In this question we have to choose the correct relation for the
given vector is the figure.
Concept : This question is based on triangle law of vector addition.
Solution : In the given figure by the triangle law of vector addition.
or
Final Answer : (2)

41) Sum of smaller 2 forces ≥ 3rd force.

42)

π = 150°

43) A vector quantity should have direction and it must obeys the laws of vector algebra.

44) Question Explaination:

Zero resultant of vectors.

Concept:
Resolution of Vectors.

Solution:
To get a zero resultant, the vectors must form a closed polygon.
1. Two non-zero vectors can only give zero if they are equal and opposite (same plane).
2. Three non-zero vectors can only give zero if they lie in the same plane (forming a triangle).
3. Therefore, to cancel out components in three-dimensional space (different planes), you need
at least four non-zero vectors.

Final Answer: Option(3)

45) Question Explanation:

The assertion says that if the initial and final positions coincide, displacement is a null vector,
The reason claims that a physical quantity cannot be a vector if its magnitude is zero We need
to determine the truth of both statements.

Concept : Displacement and Null Vector. .

Solution :
Displacement is a vector quantity, and if the initial and final positions coincide. the
 displacement is the zero vector The magnitude of a vector can be zero, but it doesn't mean it's
not a vector

A. Displacement: (where rf and ri are final and initial position vectors)

B. If then (null vector).

A. The assertion is true: If the initial and final position coincide, the displacement vector is
indeed a nuII vector ( ),
B. The reason is false: A vector can have a magnitude of zero and still be a vector, such as the
null vector , Which has zero magnitude (and undefined direction) but is still a valid vector.

Final Answer: Option (3).

CHEMISTRY

46) Equal moles ⇒ equal number of molecules

1. 16 g O2: moles = 16/32 = 0.5
14 g N2: moles = 14/28 = 0.5 (equal)
2. 8 g O2: moles = 8/32 = 0.25 mol
22 g CO2: moles =22/44 = 0.5 mol (not equal)
3. 28 g N2: moles = 28/28 = 1 mol
22 g CO2: moles = 22/44 = 0.5 mol (not equal)
4. 32 g O2: moles = 32/32 = 1 mol
32 g N2: moles = 32/28 ≈ 1.14 mol (not equal)
16 g O2 and 14 g N2 have equal moles

47) = 0.25 mol

44g is the molar mass of CO2 so gas is CO2

48)

2 gram atom of oxygen = 2 mol atoms of oxygen

49) = 0.5 mol

Vapour density =

50)

(Mass of sulphur/M) × 100 = Percentage of sulphur

(32/M) × 100 = 4

3200 = 4M

M = 3200/4

M = 800

51) = 1 mol O2

⇒ molecules
1 molecule O2 contain 2 atoms of O
NA molecule O2 contain 2 NA atoms of O

52)

53)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54)

Mass % of C = × 100 = 75%

55)

CH2O OR 1 : 2 : 1
56)

Gram molecular mass of O2 = mass of 1 gram molecule of O2

= mass of 1 mole molecule of O2
= mass of NA molecules of O2

=
Gram molecular mass of O2 = 32g

57)

Theory based

58)

1. Assume a sample size of 100 g to directly use percentage as mass : -

C mass = 40.0 g - H mass = 6.7 g - O mass
= 100 - (40.0 + 6.7) = 53.3 g
2. Calculate moles of each element :

3. Divide by smallest mole number (3.33) :

Thus, the empirical formula is .

59) • The molar mass of CO2 is 44g/mol, so 88g of CO2 contains.

• 2 moles of CO2 molecules.

• The molar mass of H2O is 18g/mol, so 72g of H2O contains:

4 moles of H2O molecules.

Since CO2 has 2 moles of molecules and H2O has 4 moles of molecules, the assertion is
incorrect.
Additionally the reason starting that both have 4 moles of molecules is also incorrect.

60) No. of atoms =

No. of atoms = .
61)

Atomicity is the number of atoms in a molecule.

62)

H2O ⇒ [(1 × 2) + (1 × 16)] = 18 g

CO2 ⇒ [(1 × 12) + (2 × 16)] = 44 g
CH4 ⇒ [(1 × 12) + (1 × 4)] = 16 g

63) 8 mol O atoms are present in 1 mol Ca3(PO4)2 ∴ For 0.4 mol O atoms required moles of

Ca3(PO4)2 = = 0.05 mol

64)

Total no of electrons present = no of moles NA electrons carried by single species

65)

2g molecule = 2 mol molecule

66)

C : O = 1.2 × 1010 : 2.4 × 1010

=1:2

67)

68)

e– p n α
69) NCERT Pg. # 32

70) NCERT Pg. # 34

71) NCERT Pg. # 35

72) NCERT Pg. # 35

73) NCERT Pg. # 35

74) NCERT Pg. # 34

75)
Mn = 1.008 u

76)

Cathode rays consists of electrons which are fundamental particles (same for all gases)

77)

Fact based

78)

Thomson considered total +ve charge is equal to total –ve charge.

79)

Same mass number but different atomic number

80)

No. of electrons = z-charge

81)

Mass of O is 16 considered as 100

so mass of C will become

= 75

82)
R = R0A1/3

83)

∵ No. of protons in X–2 is = 16

∴ No. of electrons in X+2 is = 14

84)
e p n
6 6 6 A → 12
12 3 6 A→9

% change = 100 = 25%

85)

Dalton’s atomic theory could not explain law of gaseous volume.

86)

Fact based

87)

88) Average Atomic weight =

Average weight = = 11.2

89) M50 M52

x1 + x2 = 100
x2 = (100 – x1)

average weight = = 51.7

51.7 =
5170 = 50 x1 + 5200 – 52x1
5170 = – 2x1 + 5200
2x1 = 30
x1 = 15
 50 52
M = 15% M = 85%

90) NCERT, Pg. # 35

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

92) NCERT-XI Pg. # 95

93)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

94)

Module
Question Explanation: Identifying water-soluble pigments in plants.
Concept: Plant Pigments
.Solution: Anthocyanins are the water-soluble pigments found in the cell sap of plant
vacuoles. They are responsible for the vibrant red, purple, and blue colors in many flowers,
fruits, and leaves. In contrast, chlorophylls, carotenoids, and xanthophylls are fat-soluble
pigments found within chloroplasts.
Final Answer: Anthocyanins.

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 92

Question Explanation :
The question asks you to identify the correct labels (A–F) for cell organelles shown in a
diagram and match them with one of the given options.

Concept :
Cell : The unit of life - Plant Cell
Solution :
The correct answer is option 2. Lysosome (A), RER(B), Nucleus (C), Cell wall (D), Vacuole (E),
Cytoplasm (F)
• A = Lysosome – small vesicle – like structure
• B = RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum ) – Network with ribosomes
• C = Nucleus – Central spherical body
• D = Cell wall – outermost rigid boundary (in plant cell)
• E = Vacuole – large central sac in plant cells
• F = Cytoplasm – every between membrane and nucleus.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

97) NCERT XI Pg.# 90

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 92

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # Fig. 8.2/90

100) NCERT XI Pg. # 96

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

Explain Question : The question asks us to identify the labeled organelles A, B, and C and
their correct functions.
Concept : Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation :- RER (B) – Rough ER has ribosomes; site of protein synthesis.
Final answer : 2 B is RER, helps in synthesis of protein

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88

104)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96
106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95
Explain Question: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement about the Golgi body.
Concept : This question is based on Golgi bodY
Explanation : The number of cisternae is not fixed; it can vary depending on cell type and
metabolic activity.
Final answer : 1 – No. of cisternae are fixed in Golgi body

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. 85

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90
Question Explanation: Identifying the smallest living cell.
Concept: Cell Size.
Solution: Mycoplasma is considered the smallest known living cell. Unlike bacteria, it lacks a
rigid cell wall, which allows it to have a very small, flexible structure. They are the smallest
self-replicating organisms and are much smaller than typical bacteria or the large ostrich egg
cell.
Final Answer: Mycoplasma.

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94
Question Explanation: Main component of fungal cell wall.
Concept: Kingdom Fungi / Cell Structure
Solution: The cell walls of organisms vary between kingdoms. While plant cell walls are
primarily made of cellulose and bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan, the cell wall of
most fungi is composed of chitin. Chitin is a durable, nitrogen-containing polysaccharide that
provides structural support, and is also found in the exoskeletons of insects and crustaceans.
Final Answer: The correct option is 2: Chitin

115)

NCERT-XI, Page No:. 125

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 96

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

136)

Old NCERT Pg. # 100

137)

Old NCERT Pg. # 100

138)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

139)

Old NCERT Pg. # 105

140)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

141)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

142)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

143)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

144)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101, 102

145)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

146)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

147)

NCERT-XI, Old Pg. # 101

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, Fig.-7.1 (a), (b), (c)

We need to identify the shape of cells.​​

149)

Concept :
PCT has brush border cuboidal epithelium

150)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

151)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

152)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

153)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

154)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

155)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101, Fig. 7.1 (d)

156) OLD NCERT Pg. # 102

157) OLD NCERT Pg. # 101

158)

OLD NCERT Pg. # 101

159) OLD NCERT Pg. # 102

160)

OLD NCERT Pg. # 102

161)

Refer Module-4

162)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101

163)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102, Fig. 7.3

164)

Refer Module-4

165)

Old NCERT Pg. # 102

166)

Connective tissue originates from embryonic mesoderm.

167)
Old NCERT Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.4(a)

168)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.4(b)

169)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

170)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.4(a)

Check labelling of collagen fibres.

171)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

172)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

173)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

174)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

175)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.5 (a), (b)

176)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

177)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

178)
Old NCERT Pg. # 104

179)

Old NCERT Pg. # 103

180)

Old NCERT Pg. # 101 [Fig. 7.1 (a), (d)]

103 [Fig. 7.5 (a), (b)]