QUESTION BANK

Subject: NTM

Q 1. What is the reason for using unconventional or advanced machining

processes?

a. Complex surfaces b. High accuracy and surface finish

c. High strength alloys d. All of the above

Correct answer: d
Q.2) Which of the following is not a media of energy transfer on which the
advanced machining processes are classified?

a. Reactive atmosphere b. Electrons

c. Electrolyte d. Chemical ablation

Correct answer:d
Q.3) The spark gap in Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM) process is maintained
such that
a)the gap voltage is around 99% of b. the gap voltage is around 70% of supply
supply voltage voltage

c. the gap voltage is around 50% of d. the gap voltage is around 10% of supply
supply voltage voltage

Correct: answer b
Q.4) Which of the following materials is/are used for Electrical Discharge Machining
(EDM) process?

a. Brass b. Copper

c. Graphite d. All of the above

Correct answer:d
5) In Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM) process the metal removal is carried
out by
a. electrolysis b. melting and vaporisation

c. fracture of work material due to impact of d. none of the above

grains

Correct answer:b
Q.6) Which of the following statements are true for Electro-Chemical Machining
(ECM)?
1. ECM is capable of machining metals and alloys irrespective of their strength and
hardness
2. No cutting forces are involved in ECM process
3. ECM process consumes very high power
4. Very small space is required to set up ECM process
a. (1), (2) and (3) b. (2), (3) and (4)
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Subject: NTM

c. (1), (3) and (4) d. (1), (2) and (4)

Correct answer:A
Q.7) In which process the material is removed due to the action of abrasive grains?

a. Electro-Chemical Grinding (ECG) b. Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

c. Laser Beam Machining (LBM) d. Electrical Discharge Machining

(EDM)

Correct answer:b
Q.8) Which of the following processes is generally applied for dentistry work like to
drill fine holes of particular shape in teeth?

a. Electrical Discharge Machining (EDM) b. Electron Beam Machining (EBM)

c. Laser Beam Machining (LBM) d. Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

Correct answer:d
Q.9) The Laser Beam Machining process can be carried out, when the media for
energy transfer between tool and workpiece is

a. air b. liquid

c. vacuum d. any of the above medium

Correct answer:d
Q.10) Which of the following process has highest rate of metal removal?
a. Electric Discharge Machining (EDM) b. Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)

.c. Ultrasonic Machining (USM) d. Laser Beam Machining (LBM)

Correct answer:b
Q14. USM can be classified as the following type of non-traditional machining
process
a) electrical b) optical

.c. mechanical d chemical

Correct answer:c
Q15. WJM cannot be used to machine

(a) frozen food (b) plywood

(c) leather (d) steel plates

Correct answer:d
Q16). In AWJM mixing process takes place in
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Subject: NTM

(a) intensifier b) catcher

(c) mixing chamber d) orifice

Correct answer:c
Q17)Abrasive water jet velocity increases with (keeping all other parameters
unchanged
(a) increasing traverse velocity of the job b) decreasing mass flow rate of
abrasive

(c) decreasing traverse velocity of the job d) increasing mass flow rate of
abrasive

Correct answer:b
Q18). In an environment friendly development concerning AWJM, the following is
used as abrasive

(a) dry ice (b) cubic boron nitrite

c) diamond (d) tungsten carbide

Correct answer:a
Q 19. Which of the following process is used for preparing parts having large curved
surfaces and thin sections?

a) Hot machining b) Ultrasonic machining

c) ECM process d) Chemical milling

Correct answer: d
Q 20. The tool life is affected by

a) Depth of cut b) Cutting speed

c) Feed d) ) All of these

Correct answer:d
Q 21)Which the following is true for Electrical Discharge machining (EDM)?
i. The metal removal takes place due to erosion
ii. Any electrical conductor can be machined by this method.
iii. Some light oil like transformer oil or kerosene oil is used as dielectric.
a. Only i
b. i &ii
c. i,ii & iii
d. ii & iii

a) Only i b) i &ii
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Subject: NTM

c) i,ii & ii d) ii & iii

Correct answer:c
Q22).In Electrical discharge machining (EDM), the spark gap is kept between ___mm
to___mm.

a)5 to 5 b)05, 0.5

c)005, 0.05 d)0005, 0.005

Correct answer:c
Q.23)In Electrical discharge machining, the temperature developed is of the order of
a. 2,000°C b. 6,000°C

c. 10,000°C d. 14,000°C

Correct answer:c
Q.24) Which of the following is not true in case of Electrical discharge machining (EDM)?

a. Erosion takes place both on Work piece b. Gap between tool and work piece is
and the tool. controlled by servo mechanism.

c. The electrode (tool) is made of graphite d. The size of impression on work piece is
or copper. exactly the same as that on electrode
(tool).

Correct answer:d
Q.25) The Electrical Discharge machining (EDM) process is
a.
a. Burr free b. Not for hard metals

c. Direct contact machining d. Capable of producing sharp corners

Correct answer:a

Q 26 The cathode filament is heated to a temperature of ______ in case of Electron beam

machining
a) 1200°C b) 1700°C

c) 2000°C d) 2500°C

Correct answer:d
Q 27 The vacuum in case of Electron Beam machining is of the order of
a) 10-2 mm of mercury b) 10-5 mm of mercury

c) 10-7 mm of mercury d) 10-9 mm of mercury

Correct answer:b
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Subject: NTM

Q 28 In Electron beam machining, as the electrons strikes the work piece

a) Their kinetic energy is converted into heat b) They get scattered

c) Mechanical erosion in work piece takes d) Electro-chemical etching takes place

place

Correct answer:a
Q 29. In Electron beam machining, workpiece is held in
a) vacuum chamber b) dielectric medium

c) electrolyte d) none of these

Correct answer:a
Q 29. In Electron beam machining, workpiece is held in
a) vacuum chamber b) dielectric medium

c) electrolyte d) none of these

Correct answer:a
Q.31) Plasma is a mixture of
i. free electrons
ii. positively charged ions
iii. neutral atoms

a. i & ii b. ii & iii

c. i & iii d. i, ii & iii

Correct answer:d
Q.32) The metal is removed in Plasma arc machining due to

a. erosion b. chemical reaction

c. melting of metal d. grinding

Correct answer:b
Q.33) In Plasma arc welding the electrode is made of

a. tungsten b. copper

c. bass d. steel

Correct answer:a
Q.34) In plasma arc welding, the maximum temperature is of the order of
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Subject: NTM

a18000°C B 20000°C

C 28000°C D 35000°C

Correct answer: c
Q.35) Which of the following method is used for profile cutting of flat plates?

a. Electron beam machining b. Laser beam machining

c. Plasma arc machining d. Electro-chemical machining

Correct answer:c
Q36) The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is

a. Ultrasonic Machining b. Electrochemical Machining

c. Abrasive Jet Machining d. Laser Beam Machining

Correct answer:d
Q37) Which of the following is used as gas laser in Laser beam machining?

i. Helium-neon
ii. Agron
iii. CO2

a. i only b. i & ii

c. ii & iii d. All of these

Correct answer:d
Q38) Which of the following methods is used for trimming of sheet metal and plastic
parts?

a. Ultrasonic Machining b. Electrochemical Machining

c. Abrasive Jet Machining d. Laser Beam Machining

Correct answer:d
Q39) In which of the following methods, an electrolyte is used?

a. Ultrasonic Machining b. Electrochemical Machining

c. Abrasive Jet Machining d. Laser Beam Machining

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Subject: NTM

Correct answer:b
Q40) Which of the following is not true for Laser beam machining?

a. The laser used can be of solid or b. It is a thermal cutting type process

gaseous type

c. The light radiated from flash lamp is d. Any material can be machined irrespective
directly focused on workpiece of its physical and mechanical properties.

Correct answer:c
Q41) In electrochemical machining (ECM) removal of metal from the work piece takes
place

a. anodic dissolution b. abrasive action

c. thermal melting d. erosion

Correct answer:a
Q42) Which of the following process is based on Faradays law of Electrolysis?

a. Electron beam Machining b. Laser Beam Machining

c. Electrical discharge Machining d. Electrochemical Machining

Correct answer:d
Q43) In Electrochemical machining the gap maintained between tool and workpiece is of
the order of

a. 0.05mm b. 0.1mm

c. 0.5mm d. 1mm

Correct answer:c
 QUESTION BANK
Q50) In Ultrasonic
Q44) electrochemical
machining,
machining
the function of transducer is to
Subject: NTM
a. both tool and workpiece are stationary b. both tool and workpiece move
a. convert mechanical energy into heat B convert electrical energy into heat
c. tool is stationary and workpiece moves d. tool moves and workpiece is stationary
C convert electrical energy into mechanical D convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
Correct answer:d
vibrations
Q45) Machining of complicated shapes like jet engine blades and turbine blades is done by
Correct answer:c
a. In
Q51) Plasma arc machining
Ultrasonic machining, the tool moves b. Electrical discharge Machining

c. Laser Beam Machining d. Electrochemical Machining

a. moves in transverse direction B moves in longitudinal direction
Correct answer:d
Q46) In which of the following, an electrochemical oxidation on the work surface takes place
a. Electrochemical grinding b. Electrical discharge Machining

c. Electrochemical Machining d. Ultrasonic Machining

Correct answer:a
Q47)Tools and carbide tips are sharpened by

a. Electrical discharge Machining b. Electrochemical grinding

c. Electrochemical Machining d. Ultrasonic Machining

Correct answer:c
Q48) The vibrating frequency used for the tool in Ultrasonic machining is of the order of

a. 10,000 oscillations per second b. 20,000 oscillations per second

c. 35,000 oscillations per second d. 45,000 oscillations per second

Correct answer:b
Q49)In Ultrasonic machining, the material is removed by

a. anodic dissolution b. thermal melting

c. abrasive action d. electrochemical oxidation

Correct answer:c
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Subject: NTM

C vibrates in transverse direction D vibrates in longitudinal direction

Correct answer:d
Q52) In which of the following processes, the shape of tool is not same as that of cavity produced?

a. Ultrasonic Machinig b. Electrical discharge Machining

c. Electrochemical Machining d. Plasma arc machining

Correct answer:d
Q53) In which of the following processes, a nozzle is used?
i. Plasma arc machining
ii. Ultrasonic Machining
iii. iii. Abrasive jet machining

a. i & ii b. ii & iii

c. i & iii d. i, ii & iii

Correct answer:c
Q54) In which of the following gases is not used in Abrasive jet machining?

a. Air b. Nitrogen

c. Carbon di-oxide d. Argon

Correct answer:d
Q55) Laser is produced by

a) graphite b) ruby

b. diamond d) emerald

Correct answer:b
Q56) A connecting rod is made by

a) casting b) drawing

c) forging (d) extrusion

Correct answer:c
Q57) Preheating before welding is done to

(a) make the steel softer b) burn away oil, grease, etc, from the plate surface
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Subject: NTM

c) prevent plate distortion (d) prevent cold cracks

Correct answer :d
Q58) In Electro- Discharge Machining (EDM), the tool is made of

(a) Copper (b) High speed steel

(c) Cast iron (d) Plain carbon steel

Correct answer:a
Q59) In electro chemical machining (ECM) the material removal is due to

a) corrosion b) erosion

c) fusion d) ion displacement

Correct answer:d
Q60) Tool life of the cutting tool is most affected by

(a) Cutting speed b) Tool geometry

c) Cutting feed and depth (d) Microstructure of material being cut

Correct answer:a
 QUESTION BANK

Subject: RAC

Q 1. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator

a) Increase heat transfer b) Improves COP of the system
c) Increase power consumption d) Reduce power consumption
Correct answer: C
Q.2. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
a) Dry bulb temperature is higher than b) Dew point temperature is lower than
wet bulb temperature wet bulb temperature
c) Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point d) Dry bulb temperature is higher than
temperature are same dew point temperature
Correct answer: C
Q 3. Centrifugal compressors are used in:
a) Large refrigerant capacity systems b) In small refrigerant capacity systems
c) Domestic refrigeration and air d) All of the above
conditioning
Correct answer: A
Q 4. Which of the following refrigerants replace R12 in domestic refrigerators?
a) R22 b) R11
c) R134a d) R141b
Correct answer: C
Q 5. Hermetic compressors are used mainly in smaller systems as they:
a) Yield higher COP b) Do not require frequent servicing
c) Offer the flexibility of using any refrigerant d) Can be used under different load
conditions efficiently
Correct answer: B
Q 6. A reversed Carnot cycle has COP of 4. The ratio of higher temperature to lower
temperature will be
a) 1.5 b) 2
c) 1.25 d) 2.5
Correct answer: C
Q 7. Which of the following is not positive displacement type compressor?
a) Rotary vane compressor b) Rotary screw type compressor
c) Centrifugal compressor d)Reciprocating compressor
Correct answer: C
Q 8. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made
of
a) Copper b) Aluminium
c) Steel d) Brass
Correct answer: C
Q 9. The work requirement for a reciprocating compressor is minimum when the
compression process is
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Subject: RAC

a) Isothermal b) Isentropic
c) Polytropic d) Adiabatic
Correct answer: A
Q 10. Which of the following forces does not act in case of fluids
a) Centrifugal Forces b) Tensile Forces
c) Vibratory forces d) Elastic Forces
Correct answer: B
Q 11. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a) A capillary tube is a variable opening area a) In a capillary tube pressure drop
type expansion device takes place due to fluid friction
c) In a capillary tube pressure drop takes d) In a capillary tube pressure drop
place due to fluid acceleration takes place due to fluid friction
and acceleration
Correct answer: D
Q 12. The wet bulb depression is zero, when relative humidity is equal to
a) zero b) 0.5
c) o.75 d) 1.0
Correct answer: D
Q 13. Which of the following can be called as a refrigeration process?
o
a) Cooling of hot ingot from 1000 C to room b) Cooling of a pot of water by mixing it with
temperature a large block of ice
c) Cooling of human beings using a ceiling d)Cooling of a hot cup of coffee by leaving it
fan on a table
Correct answer: B
Q 14. Evaporative cooling systems are ideal for:
a) Hot and dry conditions a) Hot and humid conditions
c) Cold and humid conditions d) Moderately hot but humid conditions
Correct answer: A
Q 15. When you add sufficient amount of glucose to a glass of water,
a) the temp. of water decreases b) the temp. of water increases
c) the temp. of water remain constant a) the temp. of water initially increase to a
very high value than decreases
Correct answer: A
Q 16. In a domestic icebox type refrigerator, the ice block is kept at the top because:
a) It is convenient to the user b) Disposal of water is easier

c) Cold air can flow down due to buoyancy d) None of the above
effect
Correct answer: C
Q 17. Freon group of refrigerants are
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Subject: RAC

a) Inflammable b) Toxic
c) Non-inflammable and toxic d) Nontoxic and non-inflammable
Correct answer: D
Q 18. The boiling point of ammonia is
a) -10.5°C b) -30°C
c) -33.3°C d) -77.7°C
Correct answer: C
Q 19. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a
refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance
will be
a) 1.33 b) 2.33
c) 3.33 d) 4.33
Correct answer: B
Q 20. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
a)Compressor and condenser b) Condenser and receiver
c) Receiver and evaporator d) Evaporator and compressor
Correct answer: C
Q 21. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
a) 0.1 ton b) 5 tons
c) 10 tons d) 40 tons
Correct answer: A
Q 22. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is
a) Condenser tubes b) Evaporator tubes
c) Refrigerant cooling tubes d) Capillary tubes
Correct answer: A
Q 23. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system
a) Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant b) Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium
and water as an absorbent bromide as an absorbent
c) Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and d) None of the above
lithium bromide as an absorbent
Correct answer: B
Q 24. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour
compression system is
a) Saturated liquid b) Wet vapour
c) Dry saturated vapour d) Superheated vapour
Correct answer: A
Q 25. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
a) More b) Less
c) Same d) More/Less depending on size of plant
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Subject: RAC

Correct answer: A

Q 26. The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are

a) Water and hydrogen b) Ammonia and hydrogen
c) Ammonia, water and hydrogen d) None of these
Correct answer: C
Q 27. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device
a) Electrically operated throttling valve b) Manually operated valve
c) Thermostatic valve d) Capillary tube
Correct answer: D
Q 28. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity
a) Remains constant b) Increases
c) Decreases d) None of these
Correct answer: C
Q 29. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.
a) Wet bulb temperature b) Relative humidity
c) Dry bulb temperature d) Specific humidity
Correct answer: C
Q 30. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
a) decreases b) Increases
c) Remain same d) Depends on other factors
Correct answer: B
Q 31. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
a) zero b) 0.5
c) 0.75 d) 1.0
Correct answer: D
Q 32. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping
condenser temperature constant, will
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain unaffected d) May increase or decrease depending on
the type of refrigerant used
Correct answer: A
Q 33. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature
a) Remains constant b) Increases
c) Decreases d) None of these
Correct answer: A
Q 34. The heat required to melt 1 tonne of ice in 12 hours is equivalent to
a) one tonne of refrigeration b) two tonne of refrigeration
c) three tonne of refrigeration d) half tonne of refrigeration
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Subject: RAC

Correct answer: B
Q 35. One tonne of refrigeration is approximately equal to
a) 3.5 kJ / min b) 3.5 W
c) 211 kW d) 211 kJ/min
Correct answer: D
Q 36. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and
evaporator temperature of -23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
a) 0.166 b) 2
c) 5 d) 6
Correct answer: D
Q 37. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
a) Remains constant b) Increases
c) Decreases d) None of these
Correct answer: C
Q 38. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up
a) Room sensible heat load only b) Room latent heat load only
c) Both room sensible heat and latent heat d) None of the above
loads
Correct answer: C
Q 39. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.
a) Remains constant b) Increases
c) Decreases d) None of these
Correct answer: B
Q 40. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The constant enthalpy lines are also b) The wet bulb and dry bulb are equal in
constant wet bulb temperature lines saturation con

c) The wet bulb temperature is a measure of d) All of the above

enthalpy of moist air
Correct answer: D
Q 41. Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like
a) Carnot cycle b) Rankine cycle
c) Reversed Carnot cycle d) None of the above
Correct answer: D
Q 42. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a
refrigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The refrigerating effect will be
a) 1 kW b) 2 kW
c) 3 kW d) 4 kW
Correct answer: D
Q 43. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
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Subject: RAC

a) CO2 b) Freon-11
c) Freon-22 d) Air
Correct answer: D
Q 44. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a vapour compression
system is
a) Saturated liquid b) Wet vapour
c) Dry saturated vapour d) Superheated vapour
Correct answer: D
Q 45. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the coil
at a temperature
a) Which lies between the dry bulb and wet b) Which lies between the wet bulb and
bulb temperatures of the incoming stream dew point temperatures of the incoming
stream
c) Which is lower than the dew point d) of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
temperature of the incoming stream
Correct answer: C
Q 46. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made
of
a) Copper b) Aluminium
c) Steel d) Brass
Correct answer: C
Q 47. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
a) High sensible heat b) High total heat
c) High latent heat d) Low latent heat
Correct answer: C
Q 48. The bypass factor for a cooling coil
a) Increases with increase in velocity of air b) Decreases with increase in velocity of air
passing through it passing through it
c) Remains unchanged with increase in d) May increase or decrease with increase in
velocity of air passing through it velocity of air passing through it depending
upon the condition of air entering
Correct answer: A
Q 49. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
a) Vertical and uniformly spaced b) Horizontal and uniformly spaced
c) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced d) Curved lines
Correct answer: A
Q 50. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour
compression system is replaced by
a) Liquid pump b) Generator
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Subject: RAC

c) Absorber and generator d) Absorber, generator and liquid pump

Correct answer:D
Q 51. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
a) Vapour compression b) Vapour absorption
c) Carnot cycle d) Electrolux refrigerator
Correct answer: A
Q 52. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by
a) Horizontal line b) Vertical line
c) Inclined line d) Curved line
Correct answer: B
Q 53. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected by
a) Halide torch b) Sulphur sticks
c) Soap and water d) All of these
Correct answer: B
Q 54. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after
a) Compression b) Expansion
c) Condensation d) Evaporation
Correct answer: B
Q 55. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air during
a) Isentropic compression process b) Constant pressure cooling process
c) Isentropic expansion process d) Constant pressure expansion process
Correct answer: D
Q 56. The central air conditioning system has ___________ overall efficiency as compared to
individual systems.
a) Same b) Lower
c) Higher d) None of these
Correct answer: C
Q 57. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
a) Compressor b) Condenser
c) Evaporator d) Expansion Valve
Correct answer: B
Q 58. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is used in place of an
expander because
a) It considerably reduces mass of the b) It improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is
system small
c) The positive work in isentropic expansion d) It leads to significant cost reduction
of liquid is very small
Correct answer: C
Q 59. A good refrigerant should have
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Subject: RAC

a) High latent heat of vaporisation and low b) High operating pressures and low freezing
freezing point point
c) High specific volume and high latent heat d) Low C.O.P. and low freezing point
of vaporisation
Correct answer: A
Q 60. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
a) Cost is too high b) Capacity control is not possible
c) It is made of copper d) Required pressure drop could not be
achieved
Correct answer: B