18-01-2026

1103CMD303003250052 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two identical wires of different materials have Young’s modulii of elasticity as 22 ×1010N/m2 and
11×1010N/m2 respectively. If these are stretched by equal loads then the ratio of extensions
produced in them will be -

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

2) A length of wire increases by 1% on suspending 2 kg. wt. from kit, then linear strain in the wire is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

3) The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shwon figure. P, Q and R are the

elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that:-

(1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum

(2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum
(3) Elasticity of wire R is maximum
(4) None of the above is true

4) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in the figure. The breaking stress of the metal is (40/3π) × 106 N/m2. If g = 10 m/s2, then what
should be the minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 2 mm

5) If B is the bulk modulus of a metal and a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides of the metal
of density D, then the fractional increase in density is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A bar of cross-sectional area A is subjected two equal and opposite tensile forces at its ends as
shown in figure. Consider a plane BB' making an angle q with the length.

The ratio of tensile stress to the shearing stress on the plane BB' is

(1) tanθ
(2) secθ
(3) cotθ
(4) cosθ

7) Which of the following affects the elasticity of a substance :-

(1) hammering and anneling

(2) change in temperature
(3) impurity in substance
(4) all of the above

8) A wire of length L has a linear mass density µ and area of cross-section A and the Young's
modulus Y is suspended vertically from a rigid support. The extension produced in the wire due to its
own weight is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In determination of young's modulus of elasticity of wire, a force is applied and extension is

recorded. Initial length of wire is '1m'. The curve between extension and stress is depicted then
Young's modulus of wire will be :-

(1) 2 × 109 N/m2

(2) 1 × 109 N/m2
(3) 2 × 1010 N/m2
(4) 1 × 1010 N/m2

10) A block of aluminium of mass 1 kg and volume 3.6 × 10–4m3 is suspended from a string and then
completely immersed in a container of water. The decrease in tension in the string after immersion
is :-

(1) 9.8 N
(2) 6.2 N
(3) 3.6 N
(4) 1.0 N

11) The density of water is 1.0 g/cm3. The density of the oil in the left column of the U-tube shown

below is :-
(1) 0.20 g/cm3
(2) 0.80 g/cm3
(3) 1.0 g/cm3
(4) 1.3 g/cm3

12) A hydraulic press has one piston of diameter 2.0 cm and the other piston of diameter 8.0 cm.
What force must be applied to the smaller piston to obtain a force of 1600 N at the larger piston?

(1) 6.25 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 400 N

13)

A certain object floats in fluids of density

(i) 0.9 ρ0 (ii) ρ0 (iii) 1.1 ρ0

Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) The buoyant force of fluid (i) is greater than the buoyant forces of the other two fluids
(2) the buoyant force of fluid 3 is greater than the buoyant forces of the other two fluids
(3) The three fluids exert the same buoyant force
(4) The object displace the same volume of all three fluids

14)

A body weighs 50 g in air and 40 g in water. How much would it weigh in a liquid of relative density
1.5 :-

(1) 30 g
(2) 35 g
(3) 65 g
(4) 45 g

15) Equal masses of water and a liquid of denisity 2g/cm3 are mixed together, then the mixture has a
density of :-

(1) 2/3 g/cm3

(2) 4/3 g/cm3
(3) 3/2 g/cm3
(4) 3 g/cm3

16) Pressure at a point inside a liquid does not depend on :-

(1) The depth of the point below the surface of the liquid
(2) The nature of the liquid
(3) The acceleration due to gravity at that point
(4) The shape of the containing vessel

17) For the given figure ratio of pressure at A and B will be (ρ = 1000 kg/m3) [p0 = 105 pa]

=?

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3

18) For the given fig. if solid is in equilibrium then density of solid will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4ρ

(4)

19) If barometer is accelerated downward with an acceleration 'a', and Patm = 76 cm of Hg column
then what will be the reading of barometer (Here |a| < g) :-

(1) 0
(2) Less than 76 cm
(3) More than 76 cm
(4) Equal to 76 cm

20) A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities ρ1 and ρ2, respectively. A solid
ball, made of a material of density ρ3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for ρ1, ρ2 & ρ3

(1) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2

(2) ρ1 > ρ3 > ρ2
(3) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3
(4) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2

21) Water falls from a tap down the streamline

(1) Area decreases

(2) Area increases
(3) Velocity remains same
(4) Area remains same

22) The flow speeds of air on the lower and upper surfaces of the wing of an aeroplane are v and
v respectively. The density of air is ρ and surface area of wing is A. The dynamic lift on the wing is :

(1) ρv2A
(2) ρv2A
(3) (1/2) ρv2A
(4) 2ρv2A

23) Water is flowing through a non-uniform radius tube. If ratio of the radius of entry and exit end of
the pipe is 3 : 2 then the ratio of velocities of entring and exit liquid is :-

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27
(4) 1 : 1

24)

The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of
radius r. If the speed of flow of the liquid in the tube is v, the speed of ejection of the liquid through
the hole is -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Which figure shows laminar flow of ideal liquid-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Water is flowing through two horizontal pipes of different diameters which are connected
together. The diameters of the pipes are 3 cm and 6 cm respectively. In the first pipe the speed of
water is 4 m/sec. and the pressure is 2 × 104 N/m2. Calculate the pressure of water in the second
pipe.

(1) 2.75 × 104 pascal

(2) 5 × 104 pascal
(3) 7.50 × 104
(4) None of these

27) The velocity of efflux of a liquid through an orifice in the bottom of a tank does not depend upon

(1) density of liquid

(2) height of the liquid column above orifice
(3) acceleration due to gravity
(4) None of the above

28) A cylindrical vessel contains a liquid of density p up to height h. The liquid is closed by a piston
of mass m and area of cross-section A. These is a small hole at the bottom of the vessel. The speed v

with which the liquid comes out of the hole is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The diagram (figure) shows a venturimeter, through which water is flowing. The speed of water
at X is 2 cm/s. The speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000 cm/s2) is :–

(1) 23 cm/s
(2) 32 cm/s
(3) 101 cm/s
(4) 1024 cm/s

30) Three tubes A, B and C are connected to a horizontal pipe in which ideal liquid is flowing. The
radii of A, B, C at the junction are respectively 2 cm, 1 cm and 2 cm, it can be said.

(1) The height of the liquid in the tube A is maximum.

(2) The height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is same.
(3) The height of the liquid in the tubes A, B and C is same.
(4) The height of the liquid in the tubes A and C is the same.

31) A river 10m deep is flowing at 5 m/sec. The shearing stress between horizontal layers of the
river is (η = 10–3 S.I. units) :-

(1) 10–3 N/m2

(2) 0.8 × 10–3 N/m2
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 N/m2
(4) 1 N/m2

32) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4. Then, the
ratio of their volume is :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 27 : 8

33) Two metal spheres are falling through a liquid of density 2 × 103 kg/m3 with the same uniform
speed. The material density of sphere 1 and sphere 2 are 8 × 103 kg/m3 and 11 × 103 kg/m3
respectively. The ratio of their radii is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A small spherical solid ball is dropped in a viscous liquid. Its journey in the liquid is best

described in the figure drawn by :

(1) Curve A
(2) Curve B
(3) Curve C
(4) Curve D

35)

A metal plate of area 103 cm2 rests on a layer of oil 6 mm thick. A tangential force of 10–2 N is applied
on it to move it with a constant velocity of 6 cm s–1. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is :-

(1) 0.1 poise

(2) 0.5 poise
(3) 0.7 poise
(4) 0.9 poise

36) Reynolds number signifies the ratio of :

(1) Gravity forces to viscous forces

(2) Inertial forces to viscous forces
(3) Inertiea forces to gravity forces
(4) Buoyant forces to inertia forces

37) A film of soap solution is trapped between a vertical frame and a light wire ab of length 0.1 m. If
g = 10 m/s2, then the load m that should be suspended from the wire to keep it in equilibrium is :- (S

= 0.015 N/m)

(1) 0.2 gram

(2) 0.3 gram
(3) 0.4 gram
(4) 0.5 gram

38) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of
surface area 40 cm2 is :-

(1) 1.2 × 10–4J

(2) 2.4 × 10–4J
(3) 12 × 10–4J
(4) 24 × 10–4J

39) The surface energy of a liquid drop is E. It is sprayed into 1000 equal droplets. Then, its surface
energy becomes :-

(1) E
(2) 10 E
(3) 100E
(4) 1000E

40) A vessel whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 0.1 mm, is filled with water. The
maximum height to which the water can be filled without leakage is (S.T. of water = 75 dyne/cm, g
= 1000 cm/s2)

(1) 100 cm
(2) 75 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 30 cm

41) Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm and 5 cm are touching each other over a
common surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be

(1) 4 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.5 cm

42)

Internal radius of a capillary tube is cm and surface tension of water is 70 dyne/cm, if angle of
contact is zero, then water will rise up in the tube up to height (g = 980 cm/s2) :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 14 cm
(4) 18 cm

43) Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface
tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3
obey:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) With the rise in temperature the angle of contact:-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases

45) A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 12 cm and another soap bubble in vacuum has a radius
of 5 cm. If the two bubbles coalesce under isothermal condition, then the radius of the new bubble is
:-

(1) 23 cm
(2) 45 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 17 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) How many stereoisomers are possible for the given compound :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 16

2) Total number of σ-bond in given molecule are:

(1) 27
(2) 28
(3) 29
(4) 30

3) Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 2-Hydroxycyclohex-5-ene carboxylic acid

(2) 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-ene carboxylic acid
(3) 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-enoic acid
(4) 3-Carboxy-4-hydroxycyclohexene

4) Which of the following molecules have only sp2 Hybridised carbon atoms

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) CnH2n–2 is the general formula of ?

(1) Alkyne
(2) Cycloalkene
(3) Alkene
(4) (1) & (2) both

6)

Number of carbon in parent carbon chain of following structure?

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

7) Which of the following is unsaturated hydrocarbon ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (2) and (3) both

8) Minimum number of carbon atom in unsymmetrical ether will be ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

9) Choose the incorrect one:-

Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid :
(1)
 1-Ethoxy-2nitro cyclohexane :

(2)

1-Chloro-4-ethyl hexane-3-one :
(3)
CH3CH2COCH(C2H5)CH2CH2-Cl

(4)
2, 6-Dimethyl phenol :

10) The suffix of the principal (Main) functional group & the prefixes for the other groups are

(1) –oic acid, hydroxy, Oxo, Chloro, Methyl

(2) –oic acid, hydroxy, formyl, methyl, Chloro
(3) –One, hydroxy, Oxo, Chloro, Methyl
(4) –One, Hydroxy, formyl, methyl, Chloro

11) How many C atoms are present in the parent carbon chain of given compound?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

12) IUPAC name is :-

(1) 2-Hydroxy-3-ethylhexenoic acid

(2) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxyhexenoic acid
(3) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-5-methylpent-4-enoic acid
(4) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxyhex-4-enoic acid

13) The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) Pent -3-en-1-yne

(2) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(3) Pent-1-yn-3-ene
(4) Pent-4-yn-2-ene

14) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is

(1) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO

(2) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO
(3) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2
(4) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH

15) Correct IUPAC name of the given compounds is :

(1) 2-bromo-3-ethyl-4-chlorocyclobutanol
(2) 4-bromo-1-chloro-3-ethylcyclobutanol
(3) 4-bromo-4-chloro-3-ethyl cyclohyydroxybutane
(4) 2-bromo-4-chloro-3-ethylcyclobutanol

16) How many functional groups are present in given organic compound.

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

17) Which of the following is the pair of homocyclic & heterocyclic compound

(1) Cyclopropane and cyclohexane

(2) Cycloethane and oxirane
(3) Pyridine and thiophene
(4) Cyclopentane and furan

18) Skew form of ethane occurs at dihedral angle of :

(1) 60°
(2) 240°
(3) 200°
(4) 300°
19) Match the following pairs with the isomerism the compounds show :

(P) Chain
isomers (A)

(Q) Position
isomers
(B)

(R) Functional
group isomers (C)

(S) Metamers
(D)
(1) P–C; Q–B; R–A; S–D
(2) P–C; Q–B; R–D; S–A
(3) P–B; Q–C; R–A; S–D
(4) P–B; Q–C; R–D; S–A

20)

Examine the following structures :–

(A) ; (B) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) A is tertiary alcohol while B is tertiary amine
(2) A is primary alcohol and B is primary amine
(3) A is tertiary alcohol while B is primary amine
(4) A is primary alcohol while B is tertiary amine

21) Which compound has alkyne group

(1) C7H14
(2) C10H22
(3) C9H16
(4) C16H32

22) Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Total number of π bonds present in the molecule CH3—C≡C—CH2CN is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

24) In the hydrocarbon

The state of hybridisation of carbon 2 and 4 respectively are

(1) sp2, sp
(2) sp, sp3
(3) sp2, sp3
(4) sp, sp

25) Match the structure with correct common name ?

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) Neohexane

(b) (q) Isopentane

(c) (r) Neoheptane

(d) (s) Isoheptane

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s
(2) a → p, b → r, c → q, d → s
(3) a → q, b → r, c → s, d → p
(4) a → q, b → s, c → r, d → p

26) Select which is correctly matched ?

(1) H2C=CH– → Allyl radical

(2) → Vinyl radical
(3) HC≡C–CH2– → Propargyl radical
(4) H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2– → Sec. butyl radical

27) Esters are functional group isomer of:-

(a) Hydroxyaldehyde (b) ketone
(c) Diketone (d) Alkanoic acid

(1) a, d
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) c, d

28) Which of the following is a pair of metamers :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Minimum number of carbon atom that must be present in alkane to show position isomerism is:-

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5

30) 2-butene and cyclobutane are related as :-

(1) Ring chain isomers

(2) Chain isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Position isomers

31)

How many cyclic structural isomers form by C5H10 :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

32)

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Ring-chain isomers
(4) Functional group isomers

33) How many primary alcohol are possible for C4H10O :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) How many structural isomers of C3H6BrCl ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

35) The number of isomers of the aromatic compound C8H10 is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

36) Functional group isomerism not possible in :-

(1) Alcohol
(2) Aldehyde
(3) Alkyl halide
(4) Cyanide

37) Find out number of chiral carbon in the given compounds :-

(1) 3,1
(2) 1,1
(3) 1,0
(4) 3,0

38) Which of the following have Z configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following compound represent Z configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The absolute configuration of is :-

(1) 2S ; 3R
(2) 2S ; 3S
(3) 2R ; 3R
(4) 2R ; 3S

41)

Which compound can show conformational isomer :-

(1) H–C≡C–H
(2) CH3–OH
(3) CH3–CH3
(4) (2) and (3)

42) The compound is is :-

(1) trans
(2) cis
(3) Z
(4) E

43) Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44)

Which of the following compound has ‘S’ configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Which of the following compounds does not have any geometrical isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 BIOLOGY

1) No. of ATP molecules produced during complete oxidation of 1 pyruvate molecule would be :-

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 8

2) How many of the following are Krebs cycle compounds ?

DHAP, OAA, Malate, PEP, α-Ketoglutarate, Fructose-1-6-Bis-P, Succinyl CoA, 3-PGA, Citrate

(1) Two
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

3) Number of glucose molecule required to produces 38 ATP molecules under anerobic conditions
is:-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 19
(4) 38

4)

How many oxidation steps occur in Krebs cycle

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 2

5) Assertion :- Respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway.

Reason :- Respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion : NADH oxidise to NAD+ very vigorously in aerobic respiration.

Reason : Oxidising agent is external.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Assertion : In respiration it is the energy of oxidation reduction utilised for the production of
proton gradient required for phosphorylation.
Reason : In respiration ATP synthesis with the help of mitochondrial ETS is called, oxidative
phosphorylation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) In the above pathway identify A and B:

(1) A-PEP B - Pyruvic acid

(2) A-3PGAL B - Lactic acid

(3) A-3PGAL B - Ethyl alcohol

(4) A-PEP B - Acetyl Co - A

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9)

What indicates A-E in the given figure?

 A – Glucose 6-phosphate
B – Fatty acids and glycerol
(1) C – Carbohydrate
D – Amino acid
E – Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
A – Fatty acids and glycerol
B – Glucose 6-phosphate
(2) C – Amino acid
D – Carbohydrate
E – Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
A – Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
B – Amino acid
C – Glucose 6-phosphate
(3)
D – Fatty acids and glycerol
E – Carbohydrate

A – Amino acid
B – Carbohydrate
(4) C – Glucose 6-phosphate
D – Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
E – Fatty acids and glycerol

10) In the given representation of Krebs cycle, Identify A, B, C and D.

 A B C D

(1) OAA Acetyl CoA CO2 α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) OAA Acetyl CoA CoA α-ketoglutaric acid

(3) Acetyl CoA OAA CoA CO2

(4) Acetyl CoA α-ketoglutaric acid CO2 CoA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) From given complexes which is required for FADH2 Oxidation ?

(1) Complex - I
(2) Complex - II
(3) Complex - III
(4) Complex - IV

12) Common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins involve the formation of
common intermediate–

(1) Pyruvate
(2) 3 PGAL
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(4) Glucose-6-phosphate
13) R.Q. is less than one if the respiratory substrate is :-

(1) Organic acids

(2) Fats and protein
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

14) Which of the following enzyme belong to anaerobic/fermentation respiration ?

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(4) Malate dehydrogenase

15) The electron transport system present in inner membrane of mitochondria, complexes I & IV are
respectively.

(1) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2

(2) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome 'c' oxidase
(3) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthatase
(4) Cytochrome b-c1 complex and NADH dehydrogenase

16)

How many compounds in the list given below have 4 carbon atoms ?

Isocitrate, Succinyl-CoA, PEP, Pyruvic acid, Acetyl-CoA, Succinate, Fumarate, Malate, α-

Ketoglutarate
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

17) The crucial events in aerobic respiration are : –

(i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving
three molecules of CO2.
(ii) The passing on of the electrons removal as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with
simultaneous synthesis of ATP.

First process is ETS and takes place in matrix of the mitochondria while second process is TCA
(1)
and takes place in on the inner membrane of mitochondria
First process is TCA and takes place in the matrix of mitochondria while the second process is
(2)
ETS and is located on the inner membrane of mitochondria
First process is ETS and takes place on the inner membrane of mitochondria while second
(3)
process is TCA and takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria
First process is TCA and takes place on the inner membrane of mitochondria while second
(4)
process is ETS and takes place in the matrix of mitochondria
18) Read the following statements :-
(i) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%
(ii) In both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation not much energy is released, less than 7% of the
energy in glucose is released and not all of it is trapped as high energy bonds of ATP
(iii) The ratio of ATP formed in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is 18 : 1 or 19 : 1
(iv) During aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of respiratory substrate releases energy, CO2 but
not water.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

19) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Cytochrome c oxidase complex contains cytochrome b, c1, and 2 copper centres.
(B) Terminal oxidation is the only step of aerobic respiration that involve use of CO2.
(C) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane
and act as mobile electron carrier.
(D) Complex-II receives reducing equivalent via FADH2.
How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

20) How many of the given enzyme carry out irrevisible reaction in glycolysis :-
[Pyruvate kinase, Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase (PFK), Aldolase, Enolase,
Phosphoglyceromutase]

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

21) Read the following four statements (A–D) regarding EMP pathway :
(A) In aerobic organisms, it is the only process in respiration
(B) It occurs in all the living organisms
(C) First ATP is synthesized during conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
(D) Phosphorylated form of glucose get phosphorylated again before converting into fructose–6
phosphate.
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
22) What is the correct sequence of e– transfer when FADH2 is oxidised in ETS ?

(1) FMN → UQ → Cyto-c → Cyto-b

(2) FMN → Cyto-b → Cyto-c → Cyto-c1
(3) Cyto-b → Cyto-a3 →Cyto-c1 → Cyto-c
(4) Cyto-b → Cyto-c1 → Cyto-c → Cyto-a

23) In amphibolic pathway, β-oxidation refers the conversion of :-

(1) Acetyl Co-A into glycerol

(2) Fatty acids into pyruvic acid
(3) Fatty acids into acetyl Co-A
(4) Amino acids into pyruvic acid

24) Choose the steps of oxidation during Kreb’s cycle:

(A) Acetyl Co A → OAA
(B) Citrate → Isocitrate
(C) Isocitrate → α-Ketoglutarate
(D) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(E) Succinate → Fumarate
(F) Malate → Oxaloacetate (G) α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl CoA

(1) A, B, C, D, E, F, G
(2) A, C, E, F, G
(3) A, C, D, E, F
(4) B, C, D, F, G

25) If two molecules of glucose are used for this process, then how
many times Carboxylation, Reduction reaction and SLP (Substrate Level Phosphorylation) takes
place respectively?

(1) 24, 40, 8

(2) 12, 20, 8
(3) 24, 20, 8
(4) 0, 0, 4
26)

How many molecules of CO2 are produced during conversion of one citric acid molecule to one
molecule of succinyl CoA?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) During aerobic respiration maximum energy flow in this sequence.

(1) Glucose → NADH2 → Electron transport Chain → Proton motive force → ATP
(2) Glucose → FADH2 → Electron transport Chain → Proton motive force → ATP
(3) Glucose → 4 ATP directly by substrate level phosphorylation
(4) All of these

28) How many ATP molecules produced from the complete oxidation of a molecule of active acetate
or acetyl Co-A ?

(1) 38 ATP
(2) 15 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 4 ATP

29) How many ATP molecules formed during complete oxidation of one molecule of fructose 1, 6
biphosphate in bacteria :-

(1) 20
(2) 38
(3) 40
(4) 80

30) How many atoms of oxygen are required for complete oxidation of one acetyl CoA

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Eight
(4) Six

31) R.Q. of alcoholic fermentation is :-

(1) 1
(2) Less than 1
(3) Zero
(4) ∞
32) All of the following are related to the pathway of respiration, which is common to both aerobic
and anaerobic respiration except:

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation

(2) Dehydrogenation
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation
(4) Reduction of NAD+

33) Marker enzyme used in glycolysis is :-

(1) Pyruvate kinase

(2) Phosphofructokinase
(3) Triose phosphate isomerase
(4) Hexokinase

34) The function of Hexokinase is :-

(1) To phosphorylate glucose only

(2) To phosphorylate fructose only
(3) To phosphorylate glucose and fructose both
(4) To dephosphorylate hexoses

35) How many statements are correct :-

(A) In anaerobic organisms glycolysis is only process in respiration
(B) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm of cells of all living organisms.
(C) Complete breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid takes place in glycolysis (D) Term glycolysis is
derived from Latin language

(1) A
(2) A & B
(3) A, B & C
(4) A & C

36) How many CO2 molecules release and NAD+ reduced when 3 molecule of succinic acid convert in
to oxaloacetic acid :-

(1) Three & Three

(2) Three & Zero
(3) Zero and Three
(4) Two and Three

37) How many molecules of CO2 are produced in one complete cycle of aerobic respiration?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

38) The energy released by oxidation of respiratory substrates :

(A) Comes out in a single step to increase the possibility of maximum ATP production
(B) is not used directly
(C) is used directly in the energy requiring processes of the organisms
(D) is trapped as chemical energy in the energy currency of the cell

(1) C and D are incorrect

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A and B are correct
(4) A and D are incorrect

39) Which one of the following is a common pathway in breakdown of glucose, fat and protein ?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Link reaction
(3) TCA cycle
(4) β-oxidation

40) The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is :-

(1) NADH
(2) Oxygen
(3) ADP
(4) ATP + H2O

41) Which 5-carbon intermediate of Kreb's cycle is used as a substrate for Amino-acid biosynthesis?

(1) α-keto glutaric acid

(2) Citric acid
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Succinyl-CoA

42) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

NADH
(A) (1) Complex IV
dehydrogenase

(B) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Complex III

(C) Cytochrome a – a3 (3) Complex I

(D) ATP synthase (4) Complex V

(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(3) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(4) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3

43) Number of reduced coenzymes produced in three turns of Krebs’ cycle is :

(1) 2
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 1

44) Enzymes α-ketogluterate dehydrogenase brings about :-

(1) Oxidation only

(2) Decarboxylation only
(3) Reduction only
(4) Oxidation and decarboxylation

45)

The complex in ETS not concerned with movement of electron is

(1) Complex V
(2) Complex IV
(3) Complex I
(4) Complex III

46)

The process by which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another is
called :

(1) Homeostasis
(2) Coordination
(3) Accommodation
(4) Adaptation

47) In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin sheaths are separated by gaps called :

(1) Nodes of Ranvier

(2) Synaptic cleft
(3) Synaptic knob
(4) Neural plate

48) An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the
outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed, because

(1) More potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(2) More sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(3) All potassium ions leave the axon
(4) All sodium ions enter the axon

49) The collection of axon in PNS is called-

(1) Nuclei
(2) Nerve
(3) Neurofibrils
(4) Tract

50)

Read the following statements :-

(A) Peripheral nervous system is divided into two division called Sympathetic neural system and
Autonomic neural system.
(B) Central nervous system include Brain, spinal cord and Vertebral column.
(C) Afferent nerve fibre transmit impulses from CNS to effectors.

How many of the above statements is/are false ?

(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C and A
(4) All of these

51) Match the column I and II ; Choose the correct option :

Column I Column II

(a) Unipolar neuron 1. Cell body with-one Axon, One Dendrite

(b) Bipolar neuron 2. Cell body with one Axon

Cell body with-One Axon, Two or more

(c) Multipolar neuron 3.
dendrites
(1) a-1 ; b-2 ; c-3
(2) a-3 ; b-1 ; c-2
(3) a-2 ; b-3 ; c-1
(4) a-2 ; b-1 ; c-3

52) During depolarisation, when the action potential is reached, the charge inside is maximum
positive i.e +30 to +45 mV. What happens at that particular moment ?

(1) Na+-VGC start closing and K+-VGC start opening

(2) Na+-VGC remains open and K+-VGC start opening
(3) Na+-VGC start closing and K+-VGC also remains closed
(4) Na+-VGC remains open and K+-VGC remain closed

53) Myelinated nerve fibers are enveloped with______which forms a myelin sheath around the axon :-
(1) Astrocytes
(2) Nissl's granules
(3) Microgliocytes
(4) Schwann Cells

54) A student of MED Enthusiast Phase while returning home from his/her regular classes
encountered a neuron on the roadside and found it to be enveloped by schwann cells. He/she made
the following conclusions. Which one is correct ?

(1) Neuron belongs to PNS but nothing is certain about its myelination.
(2) Neuron is myelinated belongs to PNS
(3) Neuron is non-myelinated and belongs to PNS
(4) Neuron is myelinated belongs to CNS

55) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell and is commonly found in :-

(1) Autonomous neural system

(2) Cranial and spinal nerves
(3) Autonomous and somatic neural system
(4) Central neural system

56) Animal which having nerve cell but brain is absent

(1) Cockroach
(2) Insects
(3) Hydra
(4) Human

57) Nissl's granules are present in :-

(1) Axon
(2) Dendrites
(3) Synaptic bulb
(4) Synaptic cleft

58) The "Nissl's granules" of nerve cell's are made up of:-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Protein
(3) DNA
(4) Ribosome

59) Assertion A: The afferent nerve fibers in the PNS carry impulses from the CNS to the peripheral
tissues / organs.
Reason R: The PNS is responsible for transmitting impulses to and from the central nervous system.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

60) The axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of ....... and ...... :-

(1) K+ and Na+

(2) K+ and Negatively charged proteins
(3) Na+ and Cl–
(4) Both (1) and (3)

61) Which of the following character is not represented by neurons ?

(1) Excitability
(2) Conductivity
(3) Contractibility
(4) Depolarity

62) Opaque white appearance of white matter is due to :-

(1) Fibers of tract covered by axolemma only

(2) Fibers of tract not covered by myelin sheath
(3) Fibers of tract covered by myelin sheath
(4) White matter absent in CNS

63)

Find out the correct match

(1) A-iii B-i C-ii D-iv E-v

(2) A-iv B-i C-ii D-iii E-v
(3) A-iv B-v C-i D-ii E-iii
(4) A-iii B-i C-v D-ii E-iv

64) Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of
few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells :-

(1) Osteocytes
(2) Malpighian layer of the skin
(3) Liver cells
(4) Neurons

65) Read the following statement :-

(A) In polarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF in to axoplasm through VGC.
(B) In Depolarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF to axoplasm through VGC.
(C) In repolarisation, K+ ion goes from axoplasm to ECF through VGC, Na+ VGC are close and inner
charge become –ve.
(D) In hyper polarisation, K+ ion goes from axoplasm to ECF through VGC, pump is open and inner
charge become more –ve
How many of above statements are true-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

66) Which of the following statements are/is incorrect about synapses ?

(a) In Electrical synapses, impulse transmission is very similar like conduction of axon
(b) Electrical synapses involves chemical substances like neurotransmitters
(c) Electrical synapses are rare in our system
(d) Pre and post synaptic membranes are in very close proximity in electrical synapses

(1) a, b & d are incorrect

(2) b, c & d are incorrect
(3) only d is incorrect
(4) only b is incorrect

67) Ion that stimulates entry of Ca+2 in pre synaptic neuron :-

(1) K+
(2) Ca+2
(3) Na+
(4) Cl–

68) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse the axonal membrane is comparatively more
permeable to ___A___ and nearly impermeable to ___B___ :-
 A B

(1) Na⊕ ions K⊕ ions

(2) K⊕ ions Na⊕ ions

(3) PO4–3 ions Na⊕ ions

(4) 2 & 3 both

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Receptors of neurotransmitter are present on :-

(1) Pre synaptic membrane

(2) Post synaptic membrane.
(3) Axolemma
(4) Neurilemma

70) Assertion : Action potential, is infact termed as nerve impulse.

Reason : In a nerve impulse there are changes in the resting potential which conduct along length
of axon.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) What is the 'A' & 'B' ?

(1) 'A' - depolarisation, 'B' - polarisation

(2) 'A' - polarisation, 'B' - depolarisation
(3) 'A' - depolarisation, 'B' - hyperpolarisation
(4) 'A' - repolarisation, 'B' - polarisation

72) The conduction of nerve impulse is a

(1) Biochemical phenomenon

(2) Electrochemical phenomenon
(3) Physical phenomenon
(4) Bio-physiological phenomenon
73) A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junction called as ?

(1) Neuro muscular junction

(2) Synapse
(3) Telodendria
(4) Node of Ranvier

74) Given below is a graph showing change of potential difference occuring during conduction of
nerve impulse through an axon, which one is correct about the shadded area-A in this graph :

(1) Shows depolarisation, due to opening of Na⊕ VGC

(2) Shows repolarisation, due to opening of K⊕ VGC
(3) Shows hyperpolarisation, due to on time closing of Na⊕ VGC and KÅ VGC
(4) Shows hyperpolarisation, due to late closing of K⊕ VGC

75) Associataion areas – responsible for

(1) Memory
(2) Communication
(3) Inter sensory association
(4) 1,2, and 3

76) Body temperature, urge for eating and drinking controlled by

(1) Epithalamus
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Medulla oblongata

77) Which part of brain controls intellectual ability ?

(1) frontal lobe

(2) parietal lobe
(3) temporal lobe
(4) occipital lobe

78) Limbic system is associated with all of the following except one :-

(1) Olfaction and autonomic responses.

(2) Regulations of sexual behaviour
(3) Visual and auditory reflexes
(4) Emotions and motivation.

79) Crura cerebrae is found in :

(1) Hind brain

(2) Fore brain
(3) Mid brain
(4) Spinal cord

80) Recognise the figure and select the correct answer:-

(1) A-Brain, B-Spinal cord, C-Parasympathetic neural system, D-Somatic neural System
(2) A-Somatic neural System, B-Parasympathetic Neural System, C-Brain, D-Spinal Cord
(3) A-Brain, B-Spinal Cord, C-Somatic neural system, D-Para sympathetic Neural system
(4) A-Spinal Cord, B-Brain, C-Parasympathetic neural system, D-Somatic Neural System

81)

Which of the following statements or structures is not correct about the midbrain ?

(1) Located between the thalamus/hypothalamus and pons

(2) Has arbor vitae
(3) Has a canal (Cerebral aqueduct)
(4) Its dorsal part consists of 4 lobes (corpora quadrigemina)

82) Find out correct match for these (A) & (B) histological section of brain :-

(1) A - Cerebellum B - Cerebrum

(2) A - Medulla B - Diencephalon
(3) A - Pons B - Cerebrum
(4) A - Cerebrum B - Medula
83) Pons varoli is characterised by a centre called :-

(1) Hunger centre

(2) Thirst centre
(3) Cardiac acceleratory centre
(4) Pneumotaxic centre

84) Which structure is not included in brain stem ?

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Mid brain

85) The hind brain consists of :

(1) Pons + cerebellum

(2) Hypothalamus + cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum
(4) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons

86) Spinal cord extends from medulla oblongata through :-

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Foramen of magnum
(3) Cranial nerve
(4) Diencephalon

87) Which of the following part of brain has very convoluted surface in order to provide additional
space for many more neurons ?

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Midbrain

88) Consider the following "transverse section" of axon. Here x, y & z are:-

x y z

(1) Nissl's bodies Neurilemma Schwann cell

(2) Neurofibrils Neurilemma oligodendrocyte

 (3) Neurofibrils Axolemma Schwann cell

(4) Neurotransmitter Axolemma oligodendrocyte

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

89) Velocity of nerve impulse is more in :-

(1) Unmyelinated axons

(2) Continuous myelinated axon
(3) Discontinuous myelinated axons
(4) In dendron and cyton

90) Recognise the given figure and find the correct labelling?
(i) Schwann cell
(ii) Synaptic knob
(iii) dendrites
(iv) Axon terminal
(v) Nissl's granule

(vi) Node of Ranvier

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v

(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i, e-v
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-vi, d-i, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-vi, e-v
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 (3) 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: We need to find the ratio of extensions produced in the wires of
given Young's Modulii from given data.

Concept: Young's Modulus

Solution:

ΔL =

ΔL ∝

Final answer: option (4)

2) Question Explanation: Asking About Linear strain in the wire.

Concept : Linear strain =

Solution :

Linear strain = (fractional change in length).

Given: Increase in length = 1% →

Final Answer : option (1)

3)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which wire (P, Q, or R) has the maximum elasticity
based on their stress-strain curves and respective elastic limits.

Underlying Concept: Elasticity in materials is defined by how much they deform (strain)
under a given amount of force (stress) and return to their original shape when the force is
removed. In a stress-strain graph, the slope of the initial linear portion represents the Young's
modulus or modulus of elasticity. A steeper slope indicates a higher modulus and thus a more
elastic material. The elastic limit is the maximum stress up to which the material behaves
elastically but does not directly indicate elasticity.

Relevant Formulas: Hooke's Law: Where: = Stress = Strain = Young's modulus

(modulus of elasticity)

Tips and Tricks: Remember, elasticity depends on the slope of the initial straight line in the
stress-strain graph rather than the elastic limit value marked on the curve.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the elastic limit with elasticity. Elasticity is about the slope of
stress vs. strain in the elastic region, not just the maximum elastic stress the material can
withstand.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Selecting wire P or R as having maximum elasticity
ignores the fact that their stress-strain curves have less steep slopes than wire Q, indicating
lower Young's moduli.

4)

1 mm

5)

6)

tanθ

7)

all of the above

8) Question Explanation :
A vertical wire with linear mass density μ stretches under its own weight ; find the total
elongation.

Concept : This question is based on Young's modulus.

Solution :

Δℓ =

Here µ = ⇒ M = µL

Δℓ =

Final Answer :
Option (2)

9)

1 × 109 N/m2

10)

Question Explanation : We need to find the decrease in tension when block completely
immersed in the water.
Concept : This question is based on Archimedes principle.
Solution : Decrease in tension = Buoyant Force
= V (ρω)g
= 103 × 3.6 × 10–4 × 10 = 3.6 N
Final answer : option (3)

11) Question Explanation : We need to find the density of the oil in the left column of the U-
tube shown, from given date.
Concept : This question is based on U - tube
Solution :
Using Pascal's law
Patm + ρoil g(10) = Patm + ρwg(8)

ρoil = ρw = 0.8 g/cm3

Final Answer : Option (2)

13)

Question Asking About:

An object floats in three different fluids with densities 0.9 ρ0, ρ0 and 1.1ρ0. We need to
determine how the buoyant force changes with fluid density and whether the displaced volume
remains constant.

Key Concept:
Buoyant Force & Archimedes' Principle
Buoyant force (FB) is the upward force exerted by a fluid on a submerged or floating object
given by Archimedes principle it depends on the displaced fluid volume and its density.

Formula

where
• = Buoyant force
• =Fluid density
• = Volume of displaced fluid
• g = Acceleration due to gravity
For a floating object the buoyant force must equal the object's weight.
Since W is constant remains the same for all three fluids because the object always
displaces enough fluid to balance its weight.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
• The object displaces different volumes in different fluids since buoyant force must match its
weight.
• In a denser density (1.1ρ0) less volume is displaced.
• In a less dense fluid (0.9ρ0) more volume is displaced.
• However since remains constant all three fluids exert the same buoyant force.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

14)

Explain Question : We need to find WL from the data of relative density of liquid, Wa and Ww.
Concept : This question is based on Archimedes' principle.
Solution :

(RD)liq =

1.5 =
WL = 35gm
Final answer : option (2)

15)

If two liquids X and Y having different densities are mixed together than density of mixture is

given by Smixture =
Here one liquid is water → 1 g/cm3 → X
⇒ Another liquid is having density → 2g/cm3 → Y
Mass of both liquids are same, say is

⇒ Smixture =

⇒ (∵ Volume = )

⇒ ⇒ ⇒ = g/cm3
The correct answer is 2

16)

The shape of the containing vessel

17)
 Question Explanation : Given a container with two immiscible liquids and an atmospheric
pressure of P0 = 105 Pa. The top liquid has a density of ρ = 1000 kg/m3 and a height of 10m.
The bottom liquid has a density of 2ρ . Point A is at a depth of 10 m (at the interface), and
point B is at a total depth of 20 m. find the ratio of the pressure at A (PA) to the pressure at B
(PB).

Concept : Pressure in a fluid column (Hydrostatics).

Formula : P = P0 + ρgh

Solution :

Final answer : Option (3)

18)

19)

Pa = ρHg geff h
760 mm of Hg = ρHg(g – a) h

h= = 76 cm
∵ |a| < g
∴g–a<g

⇒ >1
∴ h > 76 cm

20)

Question Explanation : jar contains two non-mixing liquids: Liquid 1 (density ρ1) on top and
Liquid 2 (density ρ2) on the bottom. A solid ball (density ρ3) is dropped in and comes to
equilibrium at the interface, partially submerged in both liquids. find the correct relationship
between the three densities.

Concept: Archimedes' Principle & Law of Floatation.

Solution:
1. Liquids: Liquid 1 (density ρ1) floats on Liquid 2 (density ρ2), SO ρ1 < ρ2.
2. Ball vs. Liquid 1: The ball (density ρ3) sinks through Liquid 1, so it must be denser than
Liquid 1. Thus, ρ3 > ρ1.
3. Ball vs. Liquid 2: The ball floats on Liquid 2 (at the interface), so it must be less dense
than Liquid 2. Thus, ρ3 < ρ2.
 Combining these findings, we get the relationship: ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2.

Final answer: Option (4)

21)

Area decreases

22) F = ΔPA =

23)

quation of continuity A1v1 = A2v2

Av = constant

πr2v = constant

24)

Continuity equation A1v1 = A2v2

⇒ (πR2)v = n (πr2) v’

⇒v=

25) Question Explanation: Identify the figure showing laminar flow, where streamlines are
smooth, parallel, and non-intersecting.
Concept : This question is based on laminar flow.
Solution :
In laminar flow, the velocity at each point is constant and the flow is orderly. Among the given
figures, the one with smooth parallel streamlines (no intersection) represents laminar flow.
Final Answer : Option (3)

26)

A1v1 = A2ν2
⇒ ν2 = 1 m/s
According to Bernoulli theorem

P1 + = P2 +

9 × 104 + × 103 × (4)2 = P2 + × 103 × (1)2

P2 = 2.75 × 104 Pa
27)

The velocity of efflux of a liquid is given by v =

where h = height of the liquid column above orifice.
g = acceleration due no gravity.
As seen from the formula v = the velocity of efflux does not depend on the density of
liquid.
The correct answer is option 1.

28)

30) Question Explanation : The problem asks us to determine the relative heights of the
liquid in the three vertical tubes connected to a horizontal pipe where an ideal liquid is
flowing.
Concept : This question is based on Bernoulli's Theorem

Formula : = constant and Av = constant

Solution : For the tubes, the liquid rises to a height determined by the pressure in the
horizontal pipe at that point. Since the tubes are open to the atmosphere, the pressure head
(height of liquid) is directly related to the velocity of the fluid at that point.
From the equation of continuity:

where A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe and v is the velocity of the liquid. If the radius
of the pipe decreases, the velocity of the fluid increases to maintain continuity, and by
Bernoulli's principle, the pressure decreases.
The height of the liquid in the tube is proportional to the pressure at that point. Higher
velocity means lower pressure and thus lower height.

Bernoulli's Equation: = constant

Since the liquid is incompressible, the velocity increases where the radius is smaller (tube B).
According to Bernoulli's principle, higher velocity means lower pressure. Since tube B has
the smallest radius, it has the highest velocity and the lowest pressure, meaning the liquid
level in B will be the lowest.
Tubes A and C have the same radius, so they experience the same velocity and pressure,
leading to equal liquid heights in A and C.

Final Answer: option (4)

32)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Two raindrops fall with terminal velocity in the ratio of 9 : 4. We need to determine the ratio of
their volume. considering how terminal velocity depends on the size of the raindrops.

Key Concept:
 Terminal Velocity and Volume Relation:
For a spherical object falling through a fluid, terminal velocity is proportional to the square
root of its radius. Since volume depends on the cube of radius, we find volume ratio.

Formula:

A. Terminal velocity relation with radius:

= vf ∝ r2

A. Volume relation with radius:

v= = v ∝ r3

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Given:

Ratio of volume

Conclusion:

Hence, option (4) is correct.

33)

34)
36)

Inertial forces to viscous forces

37)

38) Explain the question : A soap bubble of surface area = 40 cm2 is formed using a solution
with surface tension = 0.03 N/m. Find the work done in blowing the bubble.
Concept : This question is based on surface tension – work done in bubble formation.
Formula : W = T × 2 × ΔA
Solution :
In case of soap bubble,
W = T × 2 × ΔA
= 0.03 × 2× 40 × 10–4 = 2.4 × 10–4J.
Final answer : 2

39) Explanation :- A liquid drop with initial surface energy E is sprayed into 1000 equal
droplets. We are to determine the new surface energy of the system of droplets

Concept :- surface energy of a liquid

Formula :- The surface energy of a drop:

E = σ × A = σ × 4πr2
the volume of the drop is:

calculation :-
After dividing the drop into 1000 smaller droplets, the total valume of all droplets remain the

same as the original drop. The volume of each smaller droplet is , and its radius

becomes .
initial volume of the large drop :

volume of each smaller droplet :

So, each droplet's radius is r = .

Surface area of each smaller droplet is:

Total surface energy of the 1000 smaller droplets:

 Thus, the final surface energy of the 1000 droplets is 10E.

40)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Maximum height of water without leakage due to surface tension.

Key Concept:

A. Water remains in the vessel due to the upward force from surface tension.
B. The maximum height is determined by the balance of surface tension force and hydrostatic
pressre.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

42)

2 cm

43)
here
h, T, r, g = constant
∴ cosθ ∝ ρ
∴ ρ ↑ → cosθ ↑ → θ ↓

44)

45)

Problem Explanation: Question says in vacuum there are two soap bubbles of radius 12cm
and 5cm. If they coalesce to form a new bubble, then we have to find the radius of the new
bubble.
Concept: When two bubbles coalesce under isothermal conditions, the surface area remains
conserved.
formula: 4πr² = 4πr₁² + 4πr₂²
 Calculation: 13

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation: Asking about the total stereoisomers of the given hydrocarbon.
Concept : This question is based on counting of stereoisomers.
Solution: Total stereoisomers of unsymmetrical compounds = 2n Here "n" = number of stereo
centers.

Total chiral atoms (n) = 3

Total number of stereoisomers = 23 = 8
Final Answer
The correct option is (3)

47)

Explain the question : Find out the total number of σ-bond in given molecule
Concept : This question is based on calculation of σ-bond
Solution :
Single bond contains one sigma bond
Double bond contains one sigma bond + one π -bond.

Total 29 σ-bond present in the given structure

Final answer : Option (3)

48) Explain Question : What is the correct IUPAC name of given compound.

Concept : This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature of cyclic compound.

Solution:

Identify the PFG: carboxylic acid will PFG and it is attached to close chain, so carbon of PFG
will not included in PCC there fore suffix carboxylic acid will used.
Identification of PCC: close chain will PCC and it contain 6C and one double bond, so we write
the complete name cyclohexene.
Numbering starts from the carbon where -COOH is attached and moves towards left side so
that multiple bond gets lowest number.
 Hydroxy present as a subs at position 6.
Acc. to IUPAC format the name is 6-Hydroxycyclohex -2-ene carboxylic acid

Answer : option (2)

49)

Explain question : Identify the molecule having sp2 hybridised carbon atom only
Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation
Solution :-
(i) if carbon atom has (–) covalent bond only then hybridisation of 'C" is sp3.
(ii) if carbon atom has one (≡) covalent bond then hybridisation of carbon is sp2
(iii) If carbon atom has one (≡) covalent bond or two (=) covalent bond then hybridisation of
'C' is sp.

Given molecules Observation

All C-atom have sp2 hybridised

(1)

sp2 and sp3 hybridised

(2)

sp2 and sp3 hybridised

(3)

sp2 and sp3 hybridised

(4)

Final answer :- 1

50)

Explain the question : Identify which class of hydrocarbons follow the general formula
 CnH2n–2
Concept : This question is based on Properties of homologous series.
Solution :-
Molecular formula ⇒ CnH2n–2
Degree of unsaturation =2
In the given options
Alkynes → one triple bond ⇒ DV = 2
Ex. ⇒ CH ≡ CH (C2H2), Ethyne
Cycloalkenes → one double bond + one ring ⇒ DV= 2

Ex ⇒ C3H6, , Cyclopropene
Hence both alkyne and cycloalkenes follow the given general formula.
Final answer :- (4)

51)

Explain Question : Find out the number of carbon in parent carbon chain of the given
structure.

Concept : IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.

Solution : PCC is the longest continuous carbon chain including PFG, MB and SUBs.

Number of carbon in PCC = 6

Final Answer : Option (3)

52) Question Explanation : In the given compounds unsaturated hydrocarbon is.

Concept: Hydrocarbon having multiple bond between carbon and carbon are called
unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Solution:

Given compound Classification of compounds

1. Saturated hydrocarbon

2. Unsaturated hydrocarbon

3. Unsaturated hydrocarbon derivatives

Final Answer : Option (2)

53)

Explain the question : Minimum number of carbon atom in unsymmetrical ether.

Concept : This question is based on unsymmetrical ether is an organic compound containing
an oxygen atom bonded to two different alkyl or aryl groups
Solution :-
First member of ether :- CH3 –O–CH3 symmetrical
Second member : - CH3 – O – CH2 – CH3 unsymmetrical
Minimum number of carbon atom in unsymmetrical ether is 3.
Final answer :- (2)

54)

55) Question Explanation : Identify the suffix of the principal (Main) functional group & the
prefixes for the other groups.

Concept : IUPAC naming of functional group containing compounds.

Solution:

Final Answer : Option (1)

56)

Question Explanation : Number of C atoms are present in the parent carbon chain of given
compound

Concept : Naming of hydrocarbon, selection of parent carbon chain.

Solution :
Final Answer : Option (4)

57)

58) Explain Question: IUPAC name of the compound CH3 CH = CHC ≡ CH is.
Concept: This question is based on IUPAC naming of hydrocarbon.
Solution:
5 4 3 2 1
CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH
Pent -3-en-1-yne
Final answer: 1

59)

Question Explanation: The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of
organic compounds in the IUPAC system of nomenclature is.

Concept: IUPAC priority table.

Solution:
Functional groups IUPAC priority = –COOH > –SO3H > –CONH2 > –CHO

Final answer: Option (1)

60) Question Explanation : The IUPAC name of the given compound Is.
Concept: This question is based on IUPAC naming of functional group containing compound.
Solution:

2-bromo-4-chloro-3-ethylcyclobutanol
Final Answer: Option (4)

61)

Explain Question: Number of functional groups are present in given organic compound

Concept: IUPAC priority table.

Solution:
Final Answer: option (3)

62)
Cyclopentane and furan is a pair of homocylic & heterocyclic compound. In which
cyclopentane is homocyclic and furan is heterocyclic.

63) Theory.

64) Theory.

65) Explain Question :

The question asks to identify the given structure and select the correct statement.

Concept : Type of alcohol and amines.

Solution :

Type or degree of Alcohol depends on the degree of carbon atom to which –OH group is
attached
Type or degree of amine depends on the number of carbon atom to which –NH2 group is
attached.

So in structure (A) -OH group is attached to tertiary carbon it is an example of tertiary Alcohol.
In structure (B) Nitrogen atom is attached to one carbon, it is an example of primary amine.

Final Answer : Option (3)

66)

(A) Question Explanation -

The question ask to identify which of the given compounds contains an alkyne group.
A alkyne is contains at least one carbon- carbon triple bond (b ≡ C)
(B) Given Data
molecular formulas for the given compounds.
(C) Concept -
• Alkyne is type of hydrocarbon contains C ≡ C bond and general formula is CnH2n–2. So
 according to this formula option (3) mat ached the molecular formula C9H16 with general
formula of Alkyne.

67)

68)

69)

70) Question Explanation:

We have to match structure (Column-I) with their common name (Column-II)

Concept: Common names of Hydrocarbon.

Solution :

Column-I Column-II

(a) (q) Isopentane

(b) (r) Neoheptane

(c) (s) Isoheptane

(d) (p) Neohexane

Final Answer : Option (3)

71) Question Explanation : Identify the correctly matched structure of radical and there
common name.
Concept : This question is based on Common naming of radicals.
Solution :
Radicals Common name of radicals
1 CH2=CH– vinyl radical
2 CH2=CH–CH2– allyl radical
3 HC≡C–CH2– Propargyl radical
4 H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2– n-Butyl
The correct match is option 3.

Final Answer : Option (3)

72) , CH3CH2COOH
Ester Acid

& F.G. isomers

Hydroxyaldehyde

73)
are metamers because they have same M.F. & same F.G. but different arrangement of
substituents around F.G.

74)

Explain Question : Find out the minimum number of carbon atom in alkane to show position
isomerism.
Concept : This question is based on position isomerism, alkane homologous series.
Solution :
Position isomers : Compound having same mol formula but differ in position of PFG, MB and
subs.
Analysis the alkane : C1 to C3, not show isomerism
C4 and C5 have one subs but not show PI.
Minimum 6c required to P.I. in alkane.
Final answer : option (3)

75) CH3–CH=CH–CH3(2-Butene) and (cyclobutane) are ring chain isomers.

76) 5 isomer

77)

78)

Explain Question : The question asks how many primary alcohol are possible for C4H10O
Concept : This question is based on Calculation of structural isomers, classification of
alcohols.
Explanation : Primary alcohol : When –OH group is directly attached to primary alcohol.
Mol formula : C4H10O
We draw all possible isomers :

So, Two primary alcohol are possible for C4H10O.

Final answer : 2

79)

C3H6BrCl
DU = 0

, , , ,
 80)

81)

Alkyl halide do not show F.G. isomerism

82)

Explanation Question:
Finding out the number of chiral center in molecule.

Concept:
Chiral 'C' means, the four group present on it are different in nature.

Solution:

3 chiral carbon 0 chiral carbon

Final answer: Option (4)

83)

H.P. groups are on some side according to CIP rule.

84) Explain the question : Which compound represent Z configuration.

Concept : This question is based on E- Z-configuration.

Solution : Priority decided on the basis of CIP rule.

Given compounds E-Z configuration

1
 E

Final answer : Option (4)

85)

n = 2,
S.I. = 2n = 22 = 4 n=2

86)
Only 2 & 3 have 3 continuous σ bonds with free rotation

87)

H.P groups are on opposite side.

88)

In ethylene glycol, due to presence of intramolecular H-bonding, Gauche form becomes most
stable.

89)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify the compound having S-configuration
 Concept:-
Absolute configuration of chiral carbon.
Solution :-

•
• Priorities of groups attached to the chiral center is assigned as per CIP rule.
• We go from 1 → 2 → 3 and in counter clockwise direction.
hence it is S.
Final Answer :- (3)

90) Two different group at two sp3 carbon in cyclic compound show GI

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question: Question asks about the number of ATP molecules produced from
complete oxidation of one pyruvate molecule.
Concept: This question is based on Respiratory balance sheet
Solution: From 1 pyruvate:
Link reaction → 1 NADH = 3 ATP
Krebs cycle → 3 NADH = 9 ATP , 1 FADH₂ = 2 ATP , 1 GTP = 1 ATP
Total = 3 + 9 + 2 + 1 = 15 ATP
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159
Final answer: 1

92) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 232

95) NCERT XI Pg # 162

96) NCERT XI Page No. # 235

97) NCERT Page No. 233

99)

Explanation:
A (Amino acid): Amino acids can enter metabolic pathways through deamination,
feeding into glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.

B (Carbohydrate): Carbohydrates are the primary source of glucose, which enters

glycolysis.

C (Glucose 6-phosphate): The phosphorylated form of glucose, a key intermediate in

glycolysis.

D (Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate): A crucial intermediate in glycolysis formed from

glucose-6-phosphate.

E (Fatty acids and glycerol): These enter metabolism via glycerol (converted to DHAP)
and fatty acids (undergoing β-oxidation to form Acetyl-CoA).

Correct Answer: 4. A – Amino acid, B – Carbohydrate, C – Glucose 6-phosphate, D –

Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, E – Fatty acids and glycerol
Explanation:

100) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 232

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 232

103)

NCERT Pg. # 237, Para-14.7

104)

Module No-3, Pg. # 218

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157, 158

109) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 233

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 229

112) NCERT XI, Pg. # 160

113) NCERT, Pg. # 236

114)
 117) NCERT XI Pg No. # 233

118)

Explain the Question : The question asks about the number of ATP molecules produced from
the complete oxidation of one molecule of active acetate (acetyl-CoA).
Concept : This question is based on krebs cycle
Solution : Oxidation of one acetyl-CoA in the Krebs cycle produces:
3 NADH → 3 × 3 = 9 ATP
1 FADH2 → 1 × 2 = 2 ATP
1 GTP → 1 ATP
Total ATP = 9 + 2 + 1 = 12 ATP
Final answer : (3)

119)
Question Explanation: Calculating ATP yield from a substrate.
Concept: Cellular respiration ATP yield.
Solution:The question is about the ATP yield from the oxidation of a single molecule of
fructose 1,6-bisphosphate in bacteria. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is an intermediate in
[Link] with glucose, the overall process of cellular respiration in a bacterium
(which is prokaryotic) yields 38 ATP. However, the initial steps of glycolysis consume 2 ATP to
convert glucose into fructose 1,[Link] the starting molecule is already fructose
1,6-bisphosphate, the initial 2 ATP investment is bypassed. Therefore, the net gain will be
higher.

A. ATP production from a glucose molecule:

A. Glycolysis: 4 ATP (gross) - 2 ATP (investment) = 2 ATP (net) + 2 NADH
B. Link Reaction: 2 NADH
C. Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP + 6 NADH + 2 FADH2​
D. Total NADH and FADH2​: 10 NADH and 2 FADH2​
E. ATP from ETC: 10 NADH x 3 ATP/NADH + 2 FADH2​ x 2 ATP/FADH2​ = 30 + 4 = 34 ATP
F. Total ATP: 2 ATP (net from glycolysis) + 2 ATP (from Krebs cycle) + 34 ATP (from ETC)
= 38 ATP
B. ATP production from a fructose 1,6-bisphosphate molecule:
A. The 2 ATP from the initial investment in glycolysis is saved.
B. Therefore, the total ATP count is 38 (from a glucose molecule) + 2 (saved from
investment) = 40 ATP.

This assumes that the bacterium's electron transport chain is highly efficient, yielding 3 ATP per
NADH and 2 ATP per FADH2​.
Final Answer:The correct answer is 40.

120)

122) NCERT XI pg.# 229

123)
 Phosphofructokinase

124) NCERT Pg. # 229

125)

A&B

126) NCERT XI, Pg.# 232

127)

128)

Explanation: B. is not used directly: The energy released by the oxidation of respiratory
substrates is not used directly by the cell but is stored in the form of high-energy molecules
like ATP.

A. D. is trapped as chemical energy in the energy currency of the cell: The energy is trapped as
ATP (the energy currency) through processes like oxidative phosphorylation.

Correct Answer: 2. B and D are correct

129)

TCA cycle

130) NCERT XI Pg No. # 233

131)

α-keto glutaric acid

132) NCERT XI, Pg. #160

133) Module # 3, Page # 219

134)
Oxidation and decarboxylation

135) NCERT XI Pg.# 234 para 1

136)

Coordination

137) Problem statement : Asking About :

In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin sheaths are separated by gaps called-

Concept :
Structure of neuron

Solution / Explanation :
In a myelinated neuron, myelin sheaths is not continuous but interrupted by some gaps where
myelin is absent. These gaps are called as node of Ranvier.

138)

More sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it

139)

Nerve

140)

(A) Peripheral nervous system is divided into two division called somatic neural system and
autonomous neural system.
(B) Central nervous system include brain and spinal cord.
(C) Afferent nerve fibre transmit impulses from receptors to CNS.

141)

Explain Question : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on Types of Neuron

Solution :
(1) Unipolar neuron → Cell body with one Axon
(2) Bipolar neuron → Cell body with-one Axon, One Dendrite
(3) Multipolar neuron → Cell body with-One Axon, Two or more dendrites
 Final Answer : option (4)

142)

Na+-VGC start closing and K+-VGC start opening

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 317

144)

Neuron belongs to PNS but nothing is certain about its myelination.

145)

Autonomous and somatic neural system

146) NCERT Pg. No. 231

147)

NCERT Pg. No. 232 Fig 18.1

148)

Correct Answer: Option 4 (Ribosome)

Explanation:

A. Nissl's granules are dense granules found in the cytoplasm of neurons, particularly in the cell
body and dendrites (but absent in the axon). They play a crucial role in protein synthesis for
neuron function and regeneration.

B. Nissl’s granules are composed of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER),
which are responsible for protein synthesis in neurons.

Conclusion:

Since Nissl's granules are made up of ribosomes, the correct answer is Option 4.

149) Question Explanation: Verifying a statement about nerve fibers.

Concept: Nerve fiber impulse transmission.

Solution: The Assertion (A) is false because afferent fibers carry impulses from
tissues/organs to the CNS, not from the CNS to the tissues. The Reason (R) is true, as the
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) is responsible for transmitting impulses both to (via afferent
fibers) and from (via efferent fibers) the CNS.

Final Answer: A is false but R is true

150)

151)

Contractibility

152)

Fibers of tract covered by myelin sheath

153)

A-iii B-i C-v D-ii E-iv

154)

Neurons, on the other hand, are highly specialized cells with limited regenerative capacity.
Once damaged or destroyed, they are generally not replaced. This is why injuries to the brain
or spinal cord can have devastating and often permanent consequences.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: Neurons.

155)

156)

NCERT Pg. # 234

157)

Na+

158) NCERT (E) Pg. # 317

159) NCERT-XI Pg. # 319

160) NCERT Page No. # 318

161) Question Explanation – The question asks what ‘A’ and ‘B’ represent in the given nerve
impulse diagram, showing changes in membrane potential.

Concept – nerve conduction

Solution –

A. At ‘A’, the membrane potential is rising from negative to positive — this is

depolarisation.

B. At ‘B’, the membrane potential is at the resting negative value — this is polarisation.

Final Answer – Option 1

162)

Electrochemical phenomenon

163) NCERT, Pg # 319(E), 318(H)

164)

Shows hyperpolarisation, due to late closing of K⊕ VGC

165) NCERT(XIth) Pg # 321

166)

Question Explanation :
Identify the brain part responsible for regulating basic physiological needs.

Concept :
This question is based on fore brain (Hypothalamus)

Solution :
• Hypothalamus regulates temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep and hormonal balance.
• Other Options :
• Epithalamus : Involved in sleep - wake cycles (via pineal gland)
• Thalamus : Relay center for sensory signals
 • Medulla oblongata : Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing

Final Answer :
Option (3)

167)

frontal lobe

168)

Visual and auditory reflexes

169)

Mid brain

170)

A-Brain, B-Spinal Cord, C-Somatic neural system, D-Para sympathetic Neural system

171)

NCERT Page # 236

172)

A - Pons B - Cerebrum

173)

Pneumotaxic centre

174)

Cerebellum

175)

Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons

 176) NCERT- Eng- Page # - 119

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 236 Para 3

178)

x y z

(3) Neurofibrils Axolemma Schwann cell

179)

Discontinuous myelinated axons

180)

a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v