14-12-2025

1103CMD303003250050 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep mine. Then :-

(1) Its mass increases

(2) Its mass decreases
(3) Its mass is zero
(4) Mass remain same

2) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Two identical solid copper spheres of radius R are placed in contact with each other. The
gravitational attraction force between them is proportional to :

(1) R2
(2) R–2
(3) R4
(4) R–4

4) A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at

a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively. Then the ratio is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) An earth's satellite is moving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If the gravitational force
of the earth suddenly disappears, the satellite will :-

(1) vanish into outer space

(2) continue to move with velocity v in original orbit
(3) fall down with increasing velocity
(4) fly off tangentially from the orbit with velocity v

6) The mass of the moon is 1% of mass of the earth. The ratio of gravitational pull of earth on moon
to that of moon on earth will be :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 10
(3) 1 : 100
(4) 2 : 1

7) Escape velocity for a projectile at earth's surface is Ve. A body is projected form earth's surface
with velocity 2 Ve. The velocity of the body when it is at infinite distance from the centre of the earth
is :-

(1) Ve
(2) 2Ve
(3) Ve
(4) Ve

8) According to Kepler's Laws of planetary motion, law of area is

(1) Consequence of conservation of linear momentum

(2) Consequence of conservation of angular momentum
(3) Consequence of conservation of mass
(4) Consequence of conservation of mechanical energy

9) A particle falls on earth :

(i) From infinity (ii) From a height 10 times the radius of earth. The ratio of the velocities gained on
reaching at the earths surface is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 10 : 11
(4) 11 : 10

10) Net gravitational force on the mass "M" placed at centre of the following square.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The change in potential energy when a body of mass m is raised to a height nR from earth's
surface.

(1)
mgR
(2) mgR

(3)
mgR

(4)

12) A solid sphere has a mass m. A spherical cavity of radius is made in sphere by removing the

material as shown in fig. The gravitational field strenght at P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) If the density of the earth is doubled keeping its radius constant then acceleration due to gravity
will be (g = 9.8 m/s2):

(1) 19.6 m/s2

(2) 9.8 m/s2
(3) 4.9 m/s2
(4) 2.45 m/s2

14) Three equal mass (m) are placed at vertex of an equilateral triangle of side r. work required to

double the seperation between masses will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

15) Which of the following graphs expresses the variation of gravitational potential with distance for
a hollow sphere of radius R ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Mass of the earth is 81 times the mass of the moon and the distance between the earth and the
moon is 60 times the radius of the earth. If R is the radius of the earth, then the distance between
the moon and the point on the line joining the moon and the earth, where the gravitational force be-
comes zero is:-

(1) 30R
(2) 15R
(3) 6R
(4) 5R

17) Two concentric shells of masses M1 and M2 have radii r1 and r2. Which of the following is the
correct expression for the gravitational field on a mass m, placed at a distance r from centre?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Two masses 9 kg and 4 kg are placed at a distance of 10m from each other then the value of
gravitational potential where gravitational field is zero :
(1)
_

(2)
_
(3) –5G
(4) None

19) At what height above the earth's surface does the acceleration due to gravity fall to 1% of its
value at the earth's surface ?

(1) R
(2) 5R
(3) 10R
(4) 9R

20) Infinite number of masses each 1 Kg are placed along the x-axis at x ± 1m, ± 2m, ±4m ±8m
...........∞. The magnitude of the resultant gravitational potential at origin is :-

(1) Zero
(2) –G
(3) –2G
(4) –4G

21) If mass of the planet is increased to four times keeping its radius constant, the escape velocity
for a rocket on that planet would become -

(1) Four times

(2) Doubled
(3) Halved
(4) Remains unchanged

22) A projectile is fired with a speed from surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational
pull of earth. Its speed in space will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) If A is the areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is :-

(1) M/A
(2) 2MA
(3) A2M
(4) AM2
24) The time period of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is 2 days and its orbital
velocity is v0. If time period of another satellite in a circular orbit is 16 days then :-

(1) its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity is v0.

(2)
its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity is
(3) its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity is v0

(4)
its radius of orbit is 2R and orbital velocity is

25) Energy required in moving a body of mass m from a distance 2R to 3R from centre of earth of
mass M is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Find the net gravitational field intensity at the origin:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around. The sun where the kinetic energy of the

planet is minimum.
(1) P1
(2) P2
(3) P3
(4) P4

28) The gravitational field due to mass distribution is given by I = in x direction. Taking
gravitational potential zero at infinity. Find its value at a distance x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Three identical bodies of equal mass M each are moving along a circle of radius R under action

of their mutual gravitational attraction the speed of each body is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A planet of mass ‘m’ revolves around the sun (of mass M) in an elliptical orbit. The semi major
axis of the orbit is ‘a’. Find out the total mechanical energy of the planet.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A satellite is orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius r. Its :-

(a) Kinetic energy varies as

(b) Angular momentum varies as

(c) Linear momentum varies as

(d) Frequency of revolution varies as

(1) Only d
(2) a, c, d
(3) Only a, b
(4) Only b

32) A satellite with kinetic energy E is revolving round the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum
additional kinetic energy required for it to escape into outer space is :-

(1)
(2) 2E

(3)

(4) E

33) Assertion : Space rockets are usually launched in equatorial line from west to east. Reason
: The acceleration due to gravity is minimum at equator.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

34) Assertion : If gravitational force is proportional to then Keplar's second law would not be
affected.
Reason : For Keplar's second law, central nature of force is the only condition.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

35) In a gravitation field, at a point where the gravitational potential is zero :-

(1) The gravitational field is necessarily zero

(2) The gravitational field is not necessarily zero
(3) Nothing can be said definitely about the gravitational field
(4) None of these

36) A planet is revolving round the sun. Its distance from the sun at Apogee is rA and that at Perigee
is rp. The mass of planet and sun is m and M respectively. νA and νP is the velocity of planet at Apogee
and Perigee respectively and T is the time period of revolution of planet round the sun.

(a)

(b)
(c) vArA = vPrP
(d) vA < vP , rA > rP​

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) All

37) Two concentric shells have masses M and m and their radii are R and r respectively. Find
gravitational potential at a point which is at a distance x from their common centre where r < x < R
?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A boy can jump to a height h on ground level. What should be the radius of a sphere af density d
such that on jumping on it, he escapes out of the gravitational field of the sphere ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Figure shows an elliptical orbit of a planet around sun. The planet takes time T1 to travel from A
to B and it takes time T2 to travel C to D. If the area CSD is double that of area ASB then :-
(1) T1 = T2
(2) T1 = 2T2
(3) T1 = 0.5 T2
(4) data insufficient

40) A mass m is at a distance ℓ from one end of a uniform rod of length 'ℓ' and mass M. The

gravitational force on the mass due to rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m, from the surface of the
earth of mass M and radius R, in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The mass of planet A is double that of planet B and radius of planet A is half that of planet B. A
man jumps to a height of 3m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on
the planet B.

(1) 24 m

(2)

(3)

(4) 12m

43) A platform is revolving in horizontal plane about a fixed axis and a boy is sitting at centre. The
initial kinetic energy of system is K. If the boy stretches his arms then moment of inertia of system
becomes double. Final kinetic energy of system is :
(1) K

(2)

(3)

(4) 2K

44) Three particles P, Q and R are placed as per given figure. Masses of P, Q and R are m
and m respectively. The gravitational force on a fourth particle S of mass m is equal to :-

(1)
in ST direction only

(2)
in SQ direction and in SU direction

(3)
in SQ direction only

(4)
in SQ direction and in ST direction

45) A uniform thin rod of mass m and length l is bent into a semicircle. Gravitational field intensity

at the centre O is :-

(1)
along AOB

(2)
perpendicular to AOB

(3)
perpendicular to AOB

(4)
along AOB

CHEMISTRY
1) If KW(H2O) = 1 × 10–10 at any temperature then a solution of pH = 5.5 under these conditions is
said to be :

(1) acidic
(2) basic
(3) neutral
(4) None of these

2) The pH of 10–8 molar solution of HCl in water is:

(1) 8
(2) –8
(3) between 7 and 8
(4) between 6 and 7

3) Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+
ion concentration in the mixture ?

(1) 3.7 × 10–3 M

(2) 1.11 × 10–3 M
(3) 1.11 × 10–4 M
(4) 3.7 × 10–4 M

4) At 25°C in following for which pair pKa + pKb = 14

(a) H2SO3, HSO3– (b) HCl, Cl–
(c) H2SO3, SO3–2 (d) H2CO3, HCO3–

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, d
(3) Only d
(4) c, d

5) Which of the following is not a buffer?

(1) NH4OH + C6H5COOH

(2) HCOOH + HCOONa
(3) H2CO3 + HCOOK
(4) NH4OH + (NH4)2SO4

6) Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1M NaOH. Given that the solubility product of Ni(OH)2 is 2
× 10–15.

(1) 1 × 108 M
(2) 2 × 10–13 M
(3) 2 × 10–8 M
(4) 1 × 10–13 M

7) For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the relation of its solubility product (Ls) with its solubility (S) is :-

P+q P q
(1) LS = S . P . q
P+q q P
(2) LS = S P . q
Pq P q
(3) LS = S . P . q
Pq P+q
(4) LS = S . (Pq)

8) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column-I Column-II

a. Fe(OH)3 i. Ksp = s2

b. Ag2CrO4 ii. Ksp = 27s4

c. CH3COOAg iii. Ksp = 108 s5

d. Ca3(PO4)2 iv. Ksp = 4s3

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

9) The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10. Precipitation of AgCl will occur by mixing which of
the following solutions are mixed in equal volumes?

(1)
(2) 10–3 M Ag+ and 10–3 M Cl– ions
(3) 10–6 M Ag+ and 10–6 M Cl– ions
(4) 10–10 M Ag+ and 10–10 M Cl– ions

10) What is the pH at which starts to precipitate from a solution containing 0.1 M
Mg2+ ions?
(Given Ksp for )

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 9

11) Does the pH of solution increases, decreases or remain same when you :
(a) add NH4Cl(s) to 100 ml of 0.1 M NH3 ?
(b) add sodium acette(s) to 50 ml of 0.015 M acetic acid ?
(c) add NaCl(s) to 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH ?
(1) decreases, increases, decreases
(2) increases, decreases, no change
(3) increases, decreases, increases
(4) decreases, increases, no change

12) Which will make acidic buffer?

(1) 0.1 M, 50 ml NaOH + 0.1 M, 40 ml CH3COOH

(2) 0.1 M, 50 ml NH4OH + 0.1 M, 40 ml CH3COOH
(3) 0.1 M, 50 ml NH4OH + 0.1 M, 60 ml HCI
(4) 0.1 M, 40 ml NaOH + 0.1 M, 60 ml HCN

13) The percentage degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its 0.1
M solution is found to be 10%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.05 M, the percentage hydrolysis of
the salt should be –

(1) 5%
(2) 10 %
(3) 20%
(4) 30%

14) Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?

(1) NaCl
(2) CH3COONa
(3) (NH4)2SO4
(4) H2CO3

15) How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create a aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?

(1) 0.1 L
(2) 0.9 L
(3) 2.0 L
(4) 9.0 L

16) Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for :

Compound Oxidation State

(1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 –3

(2) NH2OH –1

(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2

(4) Mg3N2 –3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) What is oxidation number of S in Na2S4O6 :

(1) +2.0
(2) +2, +2, +3, +3
(3) +2, +2, +2, +3
(4) +5, 0, 0, +5

18) If x mole of FeSO4 require y mole of KMnO4 for complete oxidation in acidic medium then how
many mole of KMnO4 will completely oxidise x mole of FeC2O4 in acidic medium :-

(1) y

(2)

(3) 3y

(4)

19) The oxidation state(s) of Cl in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is/are :-

(1) +1 only
(2) –1 only
(3) +1 and –1
(4) none of these

20)

Which species is acting as a reducing agent in the following reaction ?

14H+ + Cr2O72– + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3Ni2+

2–
(1) Cr2O7
(2) Ni
(3) H+
(4) H2O

21)

The equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change FeC2O4 —→ Fe+3 + CO2 is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) value of x is :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 8

23) In the disproportionation process :-

2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu° How many electrons have been transferred :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 1.5

24) In the reaction,

the coefficients x, y and z are :–

(1) 6, 8, 22
(2) 6, 10, 22
(3) 6, 10, 17
(4) 6, 10, 20

25) In the reaction ; 8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9 Fe, the number of electrons transferred from
reductant to oxidant is :

(1) 7
(2) 24
(3) 8
(4) 4

26) When ferrous oxalate is titrated against K2Cr2O7, meq. of Fe2+, C2O42– and Cr2O72– in the redox
reaction are X, Y and Z respectively, then:-

(1) X = Y
(2) X + Y = Z
(3) X + 2Y = Z
(4) 2X + 6Y = 6Z

27) 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9 × 10–3 mole Xn+ to give and Cr3+. The value
of n is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

28) How many mole of H2O2 are required to reduce 3 moles of KMnO4 in acidic medium

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Match the following column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

2KClO3(s) → 2KCl(s) + Disproportionation

(a) (p)
3O2(g) redox reaction

V2O5(s) + 5Ca(s) → 2V(s) Decomposition

(b) (q)
+ 5CaO(s) redox reaction

2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → Metal displacement

(c) (r)
2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) redox reaction

Non-metal
S8(s) + 12OH–(aq) →
(d) –2 2– (s) displacement redox
4S (aq) + 2S2O3 (aq)
reaction
(1) (a) - r, (b) - q, (c) - s, (d) - p
(2) (a) - p, (b) - q, (c) - s, (d) - r
(3) (a) - q, (b) - r, (c) - s, (d) - p
(4) (a) - p, (b) - q, (c) - r, (d) - s

30) Statement-I : Decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction.

Statement-II : All decomposition reactions are non-redox reactions.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

31)

100 mL each of 0.5 N NaOH, N/5 HCl and

N/10 H2SO4 are mixed together. Resulting solution will be :-
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) None

32) The concept of an acid as an acceptor of a pair of electrons was introduced by :

(1) Lowry
(2) Bronsted
(3) Arrhenius
(4) Lewis

33)

The strongest conjugate base is

(1)
(2) Cl—
–
(3) HSO4
—
(4) CH3COO

34)

25 mL, 0.2 M Ca(OH)2 is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 M HCl. Then pH of resulting solution is

(1) 1.37
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 7

35) Solubility of Hg2Cl2 in a solvent is S moles/litre. Its solubility product will be :-

(1) 16S2
(2) 8S2
(3) 16S4
(4) 4S3

36) Which of the following expression is not true ?

(1) [H+] = [OH–] = for a neutral solution at all temperature

(2) [H+] > and [OH–] < for an acidic solution
(3) [H+] < and [OH–] > for an alkaline solution
(4) [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M for a neutral solution at all temperature
37) Precipitation occurs only if I.P. (ionic product)

(1) Equal Ksp

(2) Exceeds Ksp
(3) Less than Ksp
(4) Is very small

38) Sum of H+ and OH– ions concentration in pure water at 90°C :-

[pKw = 12]

(1) 10–14
(2) 10–12
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 2 × 10–7

39) The equivalent weight of . When it act as oxidising agent

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A compound contains atoms of three elements A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B
is +5 and C is –2 then the possible formula of compound is :

(1) A2(BC3)3
(2) A3(BC4)2
(3) A3(B4C)2
(4) A2(BC4)3

41) Identify the set from the following sets in which all species can exhibit disproportionation
reactions.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) The equivalent weight of the salt KHC2O4.H2C2O4.4H2O used as reducing agent is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43)

What will be the coefficients in the balanced form of following equation?

xIO3– + yHSO3– → zI– + pH+ + qSO42–

(1) x = 1 y=3 z=3
(2) x = 5 y=3 z=1
(3) x = 1 y=3 z=1
(4) x = 1 y=2 z=1

44) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 is an example of

(1) Intermolecular redox reaction

(2) Intramolecular redox reaction
(3) Disproportionation reaction
(4) None

45) In which of the following the oxidation number of oxygen has been arranged in increasing order
:-

(1) OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3

(2) BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2
(3) BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2
(4) KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following (A-D) statements carefully :-

(A) Only PS-II is functional in z-scheme.
(B) In photosystem II, reaction centre chl-a absorb-680nm wavelength of red-light.
(C) Antennae pigment help to make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different wavelength
of light.
(D) The LHC (light harvesting complexes) are made up of few pigment molecule bound to lipid.
Find out the correct option showing correct statement.

(1) A & C
(2) C & D
(3) B & C
(4) B & D
2) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) The conversion of BGPA to 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA), is an energy yielding process.
Two redox-equivalents are removed (in form of two hydrogen atom) from PGAL and transferred
(2)
to a molecule of NAD+
(3) PGAL is reduced and with inorganic phosphate to get converted into BPGA.
(4) ATP is used during the conversion of pyruvic acid to PEP in C4 cycle.

3) Mesophyll cell, Chloroplast, Light, Atmospheric CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water, Amount
of chlorophyll.
How many of the above factors belongs to external factor of plants which affect photosynthesis ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

4) By use of bell jar set up, how many of the following concepts regarding photosynthesis was/were
proposed ?
(A) Plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning candle remove.
(B) Photosynthesis mainly occur in blue and red wavelength of light.
(C) Oxygen released during photosynthesis come from H2O.
(D) Sunlight is essential to the plant process that some how purifies the air.
(E) Glucose formed during photosynthesis is usually stored as starch.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

5) Choose the correct match for A to D:-

(1) A- Photons, B- Reaction centre, C- Primary acceptor, D- accessory pigments

(2) A- Antenna molecules, B-Primary acceptor , C- Photons, D-Reaction centre
(3) A-Primary acceptor, B-Photons, C-Reaction centre, D- Antenna molecules
(4) A-Antenna molecules, B- Reaction centre C-photons, D- Primary Acceptor

6) In plants during photosynthesis :-

(1) O2 is taken in
(2) CO2 is taken out
(3) CO2 is taken in
(4) O2 is taken in & CO2 is given out

7) ...A....performed an elegant experiment with an ....B....plant to show that in bright sunlight, small
bubble, were formed around the....C....parts, while in dark they did not.

A B C

(1) Ingenhousz Aquatic Green

(2) Ingenhousz Terrestrial Green

(3) Priestly Aquatic Green

(4) Priestly Aquatic Non-green

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) What is true for photosynthesis ?

(1) Both carbon dioxide and water are oxidised

(2) Both carbon dioxide and water are reduced
(3) Carbon dioxide is oxidised and water is reduced
(4) Carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised

9) If the oxygen of CO2 is radiolabelled and provided to the plant, then which of following will show
radioactivity in the cells exposed to sunlight ?

(1) Glucose
(2) H2O
(3) O2
(4) ATP

10) Photosynthesis is a/an :-

(a) Endergonic process
(b) Anabolic process
(c) Physico chemical process

(1) Only a, b
(2) Only c
(3) All a, b, c
(4) Only b

11) (A) Essential role of air in the growth of green plants described by Joseph Priestley.
(B) Jan Igenhousz provided evidences for production of glucose during growth of green plants.

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct

12) Julius von sachs provided evidences for –

(A) Production of glucose when plant grow.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies. (Chloroplast)
(C) First action spectrum
(D) Light is essential for photosynthesis.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch.

(1) A, B, E
(2) A, C, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) A, B, D

13) Compared to C3 plants, C4 plants :-

(1) Can continue to fix CO2 even at relatively low CO2 concentrations
(2) Have higher rates of photorespiration
(3) Grow better in cool and moist condition
(4) Do not use RuBisCO for CO2 fixation

14)

Following is the line diagram of Calvin cycle-

Choose the correct labelling

for A to D-
(1) A = Regeneration, B = PGA, C = Triose phosphate, D = PGAL
(2) A reduction, = B = PGA, C = Regeneration, D = PGAL
(3) A = Glycolytic reversal, B = CO2, C = Reduction, D = PGA
(4) A = Reduction, B = Triose phosphate, C = Regeneration, D = PGA

15)

Which of the following is correct w.r.t. electron transport chain in the Z-scheme of light reaction?

The electrons are not used up as they pass through the electron transport chain but passed on
(1)
to the pigments of PS – I
During movement of electrons from one carrier to the next results in gain of energy in the
(2)
electrons
The transfer of electrons, starting from PS–II, uphill to the acceptor, down the electron
(3) transport chain to PS–I, excitation of electrons, transfer to another acceptor and finally downhill
to NADP+ occurs
(4) Both (1) and (3)

16) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) z-chlorophyll a, x-chlorophyll b, y-carotenoids

(2) z-chlorophyll a, y-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(3) y-chlorophyll a, z-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(4) y-chlorophyll a, x-chlorophyll b, z-carotenoids

17) Consider the following four statements (a–d) and select which includes the correct ones only :-
(a) The splitting of water is associated with the PS–II.
(b) During Photophosphorylation ATP are formed in down hill process.
(c) When only PS–II is functional the electron is circulated with in the photosystem.
(d) In noncyclic phosphorylation only PS–II is involved.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement a, b
(3) Statement a, b, c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

18) Which of the following component is not utilised in the type of photophosphorylation in which
there is no formation of NADPH.H+ ?

(1) Reaction centre with absorption peak of 700 nm wavelength of light.

(2) Reaction centre which causes the release of O2 during light reaction.
(3) Cytochrome containing electron transport system to pass the electrons.
(4) An iron-sulphur protein as primary electron acceptor.
19) Splitting of water is associated with :-

(1) PS-I
(2) PS-II
(3) Cyto C oxidase
(4) CoQ

20) The product of light reaction which is not common between cyclic and non-cyclic photo-
phosphorylation and utilised in dark reaction is :-

(1) NADPH + H+
(2) Oxygen
(3) ATP
(4) NADPH + H+ and ATP

21) Read the following five statements (A - E) :-

(a) Movement of electrons in Z-scheme is always down hill
(b) Primary electron acceptor of z-scheme is located toward outer side of thylakoid membrane
(c) Antenna complex is composed of only carotenoids
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located toward outer side of thylakoid membrane
(e) Water splitting complex is located on stromal side of thylakoid membrane.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

22) How many water molecules are required for the reduction of 12 NADP+ molecules into
12NADPH2?

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 24

23) Photooxidation of chlorophyll A was mainly prevented by:

(1) Phycocyanin
(2) Nascent oxygen
(3) Carotenoids
(4) H2O

24) Photophosphorylation occurs in:

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) All of these

25) During photosynthesis, cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) Does not involve PSI but involves PS II

(2) Results in synthesis of both ATP and NADPH
(3) Occurs when light of wavelength beyond 680 nm is available
(4) Can happen only in lamellae of grana

26) Assertion: Accessory pigments enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be
utilised for photosynthesis.
Reason: Accessory pigments also protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

27) According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, ATP synthase form ATP when protons (H+)

(1) move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by simple diffusion.

(2) move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by facilitated diffusion.
(3) move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by active transport.
(4) move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by facilitated diffusion.

28) The first event in photosynthesis is :

(1) Synthesis of ATP

(2) Photoexcitation of chlorophyll and ejection of electron
(3) Photolysis of water
(4) Release of oxygen

29) In cyclic photophosphorylation, which one of the following is formed ?

(1) ATP
(2) NADP and ATP.
(3) NADH2 and O2.
(4) NADPH2, ATP and O2

30) Read he following statement w.r.t. chemiosmotic hypothesis :-

(A) Splitting of water take place on the outer side of the membrane
(B) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane
(C) Proton are transported along the gradient across the membrane through channal
(D) ATP is produced towards stroma side of thylakoid membrane
How many statements is/are incorrect?
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) Light reaction does not include :-

(1) Absorption of light

(2) Splitting of H2O and release of O2
(3) Synthesis of ATP and NADPH + H+
(4) CO2 fixation

32) Which of the following is wrongly matched :

(1) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells

(2) Blackman – Law of limiting factor
(3) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(4) PS-I – P680 nm

33) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(a) H2O is Hydrogen donor for purple and Green sulphur bacteria.
(b) H2S is the Hydrogen donor for purple and Green sulphur bacteria.
(c) Oxygen evolved by the Green plants come from CO2.
(d) Oxygen is evolved by the purple and Green sulphur bacteria.

(1) Only a
(2) Only a, c, d
(3) Only b and c
(4) Only b, c and d

34) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in :-

(1) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast

(2) Mesophyll chloroplast
(3) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplast
(4) Does not occur as CO2 is fixed mainly by PEP and no CO2 is left for calvin cycle

35) C4 plants consume _____ molecules of NADPH.H+ to fix 4 CO2, while C3 plants require _____
molecules of NADPH.H+ for fixation of same amount of CO2 :-

(1) 8, 8
(2) 4, 4
(3) 6, 6
(4) 8, 12

36) Number of carbons in primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plant are :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

37) Photolysis of each water molecule in light reaction will yield :-

(1) 2 electrons and 2 protons

(2) 4 electrons and 3 protons
(3) 4 electrons and 4 protons
(4) 2 electrons and 4 protons

38) Which of the following statements regarding C3 plants is/are correct ? (A) They have better
efficiency than C4 plants
(B) They exhibit photorespiration
(C) They do not have PGA as primary CO2 fixation product
(D) Maize is an example of C3 plant

(1) A, C & D are correct

(2) B & D are correct
(3) A & C are correct
(4) Only B is correct

39) How many additional ATP are used during synthesis of two molecules of hexose sugar in maize
than tomato ?

(1) 12
(2) 36
(3) 24
(4) 8

40) Which of the following is formed in all plant during photosynthesis ?

(1) Oxaloacetic acid

(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Malic acid

41) Electron from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem-II are accepted first by-

(1) Iron Sulphur protein

(2) Cytochrome B6 F complex
(3) Ferredoxin
(4) Pheophytin

42) Observe the graph give below and choose the correct option :
(1) Light is a limiting factor at the region marked A
(2) At the point D of light intensity the rate of photosynthesis is maximum
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) The region marked C shows continuous increase in the rate of photosynthesis

43) Choose the correct match for A, B, C and D :

(1) A = RuBP, D = PEP, C = O2

(2) A = PEP, B = Malate, D = Pyruvate
(3) A = OAA, B = PGAL, C = CO2
(4) B = OAA, C = CO2, D = PEP

44) For production of one molecule of glucose C3 plants require :-

(1) 18 ATP, 12 NADPH2

(2) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH2
(3) 18 ATP, 18 NADPH2
(4) 12 ATP, 18 NADPH2

45) In C3 – cycle how many ATP are used for formation of 2 molecules glucose :-

(1) 18 ATP
(2) 36 ATP
(3) 64 ATP
(4) 12 ATP

46) Major protein in the thick filament of skeletal muscle fibre is :-

(1) Actin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Tropomyosin

47)

M-line passes through the center of

(1) Actin
(2) I-band
(3) HMM
(4) H-zone

48)

The structural and functional unit of myofibril which contracts to cause movement is called

(1) Sarcolemma
(2) Sarcomere
(3) Fascia
(4) Myosin

49)

The monomeric protein which polymerises to form myosin is

(1) Actin
(2) Meromyosin
(3) Tropomyosin
(4) Troponin

50)

The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes deposition or accumulation of

(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Lactic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Hydrochloric acid

51)

ATPase enzyme required for muscular contraction is found in :

(1) Myosin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Troponin

52) Each sarcomere is formed by :-

(1) 2 'A' bands and 2 'I' bands

(2) 2 'A' bands and 1 'I' bands
(3) 1 'A' bands and 2 'I' bands
(4) 1 'A' bands and 2 half 'I' bands

53) Assertion (A): The portion of myofibril between two successive Z-lines is called a motor unit.
Reason (R): The motor unit forms the functional unit of contraction

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

54) Which substance is secreted at neuromuscular junction when nerve impulses reach there?

(1) Acetyl esterase

(2) Acetyl choline
(3) Acetic Acid
(4) Oxytocin

55) Involuntary muscle fibers in human body are found in…..

(1) heart
(2) blood vessels
(3) intestine
(4) all of these

56) Heart cells have the ability to contract as a unit to the presence of

(1) multinucleate condition

(2) fusiform shape
(3) intercalated discs
(4) striations

57) Which types of movements helps in swimming of spermatozoa?

(1) Amoeboid movement

(2) Ciliary movement
(3) Flagellar movement
(4) Muscular movement

58) A complex protein which is distributed at regular internals on the tropomyosin?

(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Actinin

59) Identify the marked structures in the given figure?

(1) A = Sarcomere; B = A-Band; C = H-Zone; D= Pubis

(2) A = Sarcomere; B = A-Band; C = H-Zone; D= Myosin filament
(3) A = H-Zone; B = Sarcomere; C = A-Band; D= Thin filament
(4) A = Sarcomere; B = Thick strip; C = A-Band;D = Thick filament

60) In our body macrophages and leucocytes exhibit amoboid movement, because of :-

(1) Pseudopodia
(2) Streaming of protoplasm
(3) Cytoskeletal elements
(4) All of the above

61) Store house of calcium ions in skeletal muscles :-

(1) Myofibrils
(2) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) Sarcolemma
(4) Myoglobin
62)
In the above X, Y and Z respectively are –

(1) Troponin, Tropomyosin, F-actin

(2) F-actin, Tropomyosin, Troponin
(3) Troponin, F-actin, Tropomyosin
(4) F-actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin

63) Which of the following statements is false?

(1) Smooth muscles are found in urinary bladder, alimentary canal and genital tract.
(2) A striated muscle is syncytium (multinucleate).
(3) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called endoplasm.
The plasma membrane and ER of striated muscles are called sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic
(4)
reticulum respectively.

64) Cross arm of myosin is made up of :-

(1) Head of myosin + tail

(2) Tail of myosin + short arm
(3) Head of myosin + short arm
(4) Only short arm

65) During muscle contraction :-

(1) Size of A-band remains the same

(2) Size of H-zone becomes smaller
(3) Size of I-band decreases
(4) All of the above

66) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :- a. Each actin (thin)
filament is made of two 'G' (Globular) actins wound helically over each other.
b. Each 'G' actin is a polymer of monomeric 'F' (Filamentous) actins.
c. Two filaments of another protein, troponin also run close to the 'F' actin throughout its length.
d. In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin
filaments.
e. Each meromyosin has two parts, a globular head with a short arm (HMM) and a tail (LMM).

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b, c and d only
(3) c, d and e only
(4) a, b and e only

67) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements :-
(1) Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the skeletal components of the body.
Visceral muscles are located in the inner wall of hollow visceral organs of the body like the
(2)
alimentary canal, reproductive tract, etc.
Skeletal muscles have a striped appearance under the microscope and hence are called striated
(3)
muscles.
Each organised skeletal muscle in human body is made of a number of muscle bundles of
(4)
fascia.

68) Each sarcomere has a central ____A____ made of ____B____ and two half ____C____ made of thin
actin filaments, either side of sarcomere, it is marked by ____D____ :-

A B C D

(1) M-band Thin myosin H-band H-lines

(2) A-band Thick myosin filaments I-bands Z-lines

(3) Z-line Thin actin filament H-zone M-line

(4) M-line Thin actin filament Z-lines H-zone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Which of the following movements in man are directly concerned with locomotion :-

(1) Walking
(2) Bending of arm at elbow
(3) Contractions of the hearts
(4) Peristaltic movements

70) Read the statements regarding muscle proteins :-

(i) Actin is a thin filament and is made up of 2 F-actins.
(ii) The complex protein, tropomyosin is distributed at regular intervals of troponin.
(iii) Myosin is a thick filament which is also a polymerized protein.
(iv) The globular head of meromyosin consists of light meromyosin (LMM)
Identify the correct statements and select the correct option -

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

71) Statements about the mechanism of muscle contraction are given below :-
(i) Acetyl choline is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate.
(ii) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by C.N.S. via a sensory neuron.
(iii) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets elongated.
(iv) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to lactic acid accumulation.
Identify the correct statements :

(1) (i) and (iv) are correct

(2) (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(4) (i) and (ii) are correct

72) Recognise the figure and find out the a, b and c :-

(1) a–formation of cross bridge, b–breaking of cross bridge, c–rotation or sliding

(2) c–formation of cross bridge, a–breaking of cross bridge, b–rotation or sliding
(3) b–formation of cross bridge, c–breaking of cross bridge, a–rotation or sliding
(4) c–formation of cross bridge, b–breaking of cross bridge, a–rotation or sliding

73) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–muscle fibre, b–muscle cell, c–fascicle, d–muscle bundle

(2) a–fascicle, b–muscle fibre, c–sarcolemma, d–blood capillary
(3) a–muscle fibre bundle, b–muscle cell, c–sarcolemma, d–blood capillary
(4) Both (2) and (3)

74) Smooth muscles are :-

(1) Involuntry, Spindle-shaped, uninucleated

(2) Voluntry, multinucleated, cylindrical
(3) Involuntry, Cylindrical, multinucleated
(4) Voluntry, branched, uninuclear

75) Muscle fibre is coverted by a layer of connective tissue, which is called :-

(1) Epimycium
(2) Epineurium
(3) Endomycium
(4) Primycium

76) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line,

(1)
4-sarcomere, 5-H zone
3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line,
(2)
5-sarcomere, 4-H zone
2-I band, 3-A band, 1-Z line,
(3)
5-sarcomere, 4-H zone
3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line,
(4)
4-sarcomere, 5-H zone

77) Motor end plate is formed between :-

(1) Sensory neuron & sarcolemma

(2) Motor neuron & sarcolemma
(3) Motor neuron & epimysium
(4) Sensory neuron & epimysium

78) Calcium binding site is present on :-

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Actin
(3) Troponin
(4) Myosin

79)

In the resting muscle fibre, troponin partially covers:

(1) Ca-binding sites on troponin
(2) Actin binding sites on myosin
(3) Myosin binding sites on actin
(4) Ca-binding sites on actin

80) Select the correct match :-

(1) A-Skeletal muscles → biceps, striated muscles, involuntary

(2) B-Smooth muscles → walls of stomach, voluntary
(3) C-Cardiac muscles → heart, dorsal wall of aorta, voluntary
(4) A-Skeletal muscle → biceps, striated, voluntary

81) Assertion (A) : Visceral muscles are located in the inner wall of hollow visceral organ in the
body.
Reason (R) : Visceral muscles exhibit straition and are smooth in appearance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

82)

Find out the correct statement :

(1) All locomotions are not movements & all movements are not locomotions
(2) All locomotions are movements but all movement are not locomotions.
(3) All locomotions are not movements but all movements are locomotion
(4) All locomotions are movement and all movements are locomotion.

83) Which of the following statement is incorrect about ciliary movement ?

(1) Occurs in many internal tubular organ

(2) Ciliary movement is always unidirectional
(3) Helps to pass mucous out of Trachea
(4) Helps to propel sperm into fallopian tube
84) Assertion :- Visceral muscles do not exhibit any striation and are smooth in appearance.
Reason :- Their activities are not under the voluntary control of nervous system.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

85) Auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction is called

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Gout
(4) Tetany

86) Tetany is due to

(1) Low Ca2+ in body fluid

(2) High Ca2+ in body fluid
(3) High concentration of uric acid in body fluid
(4) All

87) Assertion: Muscle fibre is a syncitium.

Reason: Muscle fibre has a large number of parallelly arranged myofilaments in the sarcoplasm.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

88) Myofibrils does not show alternate dark and light bands in :-

(1) Cardiac muscles

(2) Striped muscles
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) (1) and (3)

89) Cardiac muscle control by :-

(1) ANS
(2) CNS
(3) Both
(4) None

90) Mark the false statement regarding Myasthenia gravis :-

(1) It is an autoimune disease affecting neuromuscular junction
(2) It result in weakening of muscle due to defective neuromuscular junction.
(3) It is genetic disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle.
(4) It causes fatigue & paralysis of skeletal muscle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 4 4 4 4 4 2 3 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Question Explanation (in 30 words)

The question asks about the change in mass of a body when it is taken to the bottom of a deep
mine. We need to identify how the mass changes in this situation.
2. Concept Based (in 30 words)
Mass is a fundamental property of matter, and it remains constant regardless of location or
conditions (such as altitude or depth}. The concept of mass is different from weight, which
changes with gravity.
3. Formula Used
• Mass does not change with location.
• Weight is affected by gravitational force: w = mg where W is weight, m is mass, and g is the
acceleration due to gravity.
4. Calculation (in brief)
When a body is taken to the bottom of a mine, the gravitational field at that depth will be
slightly stronger or weaker depending on the depth, but the mass remains unchanged.
Conclusion
The correct answer is Option 4: Mass remains the same.
4 Mass remains same

2)

3) F ∝ ∝
F ∝ R4

4)

L 1 = L2
mv1r1 = mv2r2

5)

Explain question : if gravitation force on satellite disappear then what will happen

Concept: This question is based on law of inertia

Solution: By first law of motion i.e. law of inertia, satellite will fly off tangentially from the
orbit with speed V.
Final Answer: (4)

6) Action and reaction force are equal in magnitude.

7) Explain Question:
Velocity of the body at infinity

Concept:
This question is based on escape velocity and escape energy.

Solution:
Apply energy conservation

Final Answer:
Ve
& correct option (4)

8) Question Explanation:
Basic of Kepler's law of areas.

Concept Based:
Equal areas swept in equal time.

Formula Used:

= constant

Calculation:
Central gravitational force ⇒ zero torque ⇒ conserved angular momentum, which leads to the
law of areas.

Final Answer: Consequence of conservation of angular momentum

Correct option: (3)
9)

10)

11)

mgR

12)

13)

19.6 m/s2

14)

15) for r ≤ R

16)

6R

17)

18)

_
19)

9R

20)

– 4G

21)

Doubled

22)

23)

2MA

24)

its radius of orbit is 4R and orbital velocity is

25)

26)

27) At appoge KE is minimum

28) I = I=
=

29)

30) Question Explanation:

Finding the total mechanical energy of a planet in an elliptical orbit.

Concept:
Energy in an Elliptical Orbit.

Solution:
Let v1 and v2 be the speeds of planet at nearest and farest positions from sun respectively.

∴ r1 = a (1 – e) and r2 = a (1 + e) ....(1)
Applying conservation of angular momentum
mv1 r1 = m v2 r2
or v1 r1 = v2 r2 ...(2)
Applying conservation of energy, we get

mv12 – = mv22 – ....(3)

Solving equation (1), (2) and (3)
we get

v1 =
∴ Total energy of planet

m v12 –
 = m – =–

Final Answer:
Correct option is (1).

31)

(a) K.E = ⇒K.E ∝

(b) L=mvr = ⇒L∝

(c) P = mv = ⇒P∝

(d) T ∝ r3/2 ⇒ f ∝

32)

33)

Assertion is correct , reason is correct

When rocket launch in equatorial line for west to east , the rocket gets extra advantage of
earth's rotational speed.

34)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

35) I =
If V = 0 then gravitation field is necessarily zero.

36)

T2 =

T2 = =
mvr = constant ⇒ vr = constant
∴ vArA = vprp
∴ rA > rp
∴ vA < vp

37)

38)

39) = constant

2ΔASB = ΔCSD

40)

41) r = h + R = 2R + R = 3R

and

Minimum energy required = Ef – Ei =

42) and mgh = constant

 mgAhA = mgBhB ⇒ hB = × hA

43)

Explain Question: Find the final kinetic energy of a rotating platform and a boy system after
the boy's moment of inertia changes.
Concept: This question is based on conservation of angular momentum
Formula :

Solution :

Final Answer : 2

44) in SQ direction only

45) perpendicular to AOB

CHEMISTRY

46) KW = 1 × 10–10
∴ [H+] = [OH–] = 10–5 N
pH = 5 for neutral solution
pH < 5 acidic, pH > 5 basic
thus, (b)

47)

[H+]Total = [H+]HCl + [H+]water

= 10–8 + 10–7
= 11 × 10–8 M
pH = log(11 × 10–8) = 6.9586

48) [H+] = 10–3 M, [H+] = 10–4 M, [H+] = l0–5 M for the given acids.
Mmix Vmix = M1V1 + M2V2 + M3V3
Mmix × 3 = 10–3 × 1 + 10–4 × 1 + 10–5 × 1

= 37 × 10–5 M
= 3.7 × 10–4 M

49) pKa + pKb = 14

is valid for conjugate acid-base pairs.

50) Mixture of WB + WA . (not buffer)

(2), (3), and (4) are mixture of WA + Salt of WA/SB (Buffer)

51)

NaOH is a strong base

α = 1 for NaOH

NaOH(aq) → Na⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) 3

0.1 M 0.1 M

Ni(OH)₂ ⇌ Ni²⁺(aq) + 2OH⁻(aq)

S (0.1 + 2S)

Ni(OH)₂ is less soluble, hence 0.1 >>> 2S

Ionic product = [Ni²⁺][OH⁻]²

2 x 10⁻¹⁵ = [S][10⁻¹]²

2 x 10⁻¹³ = S

52)

ApBq pA+q + qB–p

Ps qs
p q
Ksp = [Ps] [qs]
⇒ SP+q . PP. qq

53) [Old NCERT Page-229]

54) [Old NCERT Page-229]

55)
56) Question Explanation:
Find the change in pH.

Concept:
This question is based on common ion effect.

Solution:
(a) By addition of NH4Cl to NH3(ag), [OH–] ↓ due to common ion effect and pH ↓.
(b) By addition of CH3COONa to CH3COOH(aq), [H+] ↓ due to common ion effect and pH ↑.
(c) By addition of NaCl to strong base NaOH pH will not change.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4)

57) NaOH + HCN → NaCN + H2O

(i) 4 mmol 6 mmol 0
(f) 0 2 mmol 4 mmol
Since final mixture contains weak acid (HCN) and its salt (NaCN) with strong base, so it will
act as an acidic buffer.

58)

Degree of hydrolysis of salt of WA and WB is independent of concentration.

59) Acidic salt undergoes cationic hydrolysis (NH4)2SO4

60)

M1V1 = M2V2
(10–1) (1) = (10–2)

61)
 62)

Question Explanation: Find the oxidation number of sulfur in Na₂S₄O₆.

Concept: Oxidation numbers

Solution:
Let the oxidation numbers of the four S atoms be x₁, x₂, x₃, x₄.

Na₂S₄O₆ → 2 Na⁺ and S₄O₆²⁻

Sum of oxidation numbers in S₄O₆²⁻: x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄ + 6(-2) = -2
x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄ - 12 = -2
x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄ = 10

In tetrathionate, terminal S atoms are +5, and inner S atoms are 0.

Thus, oxidation numbers: +5, 0, 0, +5

Final Answer: Option 4

63)

n-factor for FeSO4 ⇒ Fe (+2 to + 3) × 1 = 1

n -factor for FeC2O4
⇒ Fe(+2 to + 3) × 1 = 1e– loss
C(+3 to + 4) × 2 = 2e– loss = 3
Equivalent of FeSO4 = Equivalent of KMnO4
⇒ x mol × 1 = y mol × 5 .... (i)
Similarly,
Equivalent of FeC2O4 = Equivalent of KMnO4
⇒ x mol × 3 = (mol of KMnO4 = ?) × 5 ...(ii)
∴ Mol of KMnO4 required = 3y

64)

Given :
The compound is CaloCl), which contains calcium (Ca), oxygen (O), and chlorine (CI).
Concept : → Oxidation
Analysis
• Oxidation state of Ca :
Calcium (Ca) typically has an oxidation state of + 2.

Oxidation state of O :

Oxygen in the hypochlorite ion (OCl) typically has an oxidation state of – 2.

Oxidation state of Cl :
 In the hypochlorite ion (CCI), chlorine (Cl) has an oxidation state of + 1.
In the chloride ion (Cl), chlorine (Cl) has an oxidation state of – 1.
In Ca(OCl)2, there is both Cl in +1 oxidation state (as part of OCl–) and Cl in – 1 oxidation state
(as part of chloride ion).

The compound contains both hypochlorite ions (OCI) with chlorine in the + 1 oxidation state
and chloride ions (Cl–) with chlorine in the – 1 oxidation state.
Final Answer : (3) + 1 and – 1

65)

14H+ + Cr2O72– + 3Ni → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3Ni2+

Ni → Ni2+ (oxidation)

Hence, Ni acts as a reducing agent.

66)
So, total = 3

67)

68)

Ncert-Class11th, Part-2, [Link] Edition-2023-24

69) , n-factor = 5
, n-factor = 3
∴ Molar ratio

: Cr+3 = 3 : 5
OR
6 : 10
∴ x = 6, y = 10
Charge balancing
+ 10Cr+3 + 22H2O → 3Br2 + 10HCr + 34H+
∴ z = 22

70) 1. Explaining Question:

The question involves a redox reaction between aluminum (Al) and iron oxide (Fe3O4)
asking for the number of electrons transferred from the reductant to the oxidant.

2. Concept:
Oxidation involves the loss of electrons (reductant), and reduction involves the gain of
electrons (oxidant).

3. Solution:
The given reaction is: 8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9Fe • Al changes from 0 to +3, losing 3
electrons per atom. Total:
8 × 3 = 24
• Fe changes from +8/3 to 0, gaining 8/3 electrons per atom. Total:

9 × = 24
4. Final Answer: (2) 24

71)

Law of equivalence
Meq of Fe+2 + Meq of C2O42– = Meq of Cr2O72–
X + Y=Z

72)
6 × 10–3 × 6 = (5 – n) × 9 × 10–3

73)
Mole × 2 = 3 × 5

Mole =

74) NCERT Pg. # 262-264

75)

Given Data:
Statement I: Decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction. Statement II: All
decomposition reactions are non-redox reactions.
Concept:

A. Decomposition Reaction: A reaction where a compound breaks down into two or more
simpler substances.

B. Redox Reaction: A reaction involving changes in oxidation states.

Mathematical Calculation:
Consider the decomposition of calcium carbonate: CaCO3​⟶CaO+CO2​ Oxidation states: Ca
(+2), C (+4), O (-2) remain the same on both sides. Hence, it is not a redox reaction.
Statement II is incorrect because some decomposition reactions are redox reactions. For
example: 2H2​O2​⟶2H2​O+O2​
Final Answer:
Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
Correct option is (2).

76)

Explain the Question : We need to check whether the solution becomes acidic, neutral, or
alkaline after mixing given volumes of NaOH, HCl, and H2SO4.
Concept : This question is based on acid-base neutralization using equivalents.
Solution :
Given :
NaOH = 0.5 N,V = 100 mL
HCl = 0.2 N, V = 100 mL
H2SO4 = 0.1 N, V = 100 mL
Formula : Equivalents = N × V
NaOH : 0.5 × 100 = 50 meq (base)
HCl : 0.2 × 100 = 20 meq (acid)
H2SO4 : 0.1 × 100 = 10 meq (acid)
Total acid equivalents = 20 + 10 = 30
Total base equivalents = 50
Since equivalents of base (50) is more than acid (30), final solution will be basic (alkaline).
Final answer : 3

77) Explain Question : The question asks which scientist introduced the concept of an acid as
an electron pair acceptor.
Concept : This question is based on Acid-base concept.
Solution :
Arrhenius acid → Produces H+ in water.
Bronsted–Lowry acid → Proton (H+) donor.
Lewis’s acid → Electron pair acceptor.
According to Lewis, an acid is defined as a substance that can accept a pair of electrons (e.g.,
BF3, AlCl3).
Final answer : 4

78)

Explain Question : The strongest conjugate base is

Concept : Conjugate base strength is inversely related to the strength of its acid.

Solution : Weaker the acid, stronger the conjugate base.

HNO3 (strong acid) → NO3– (weak base)
HCl (strong acid) → Cl– (very weak base)
H2SO4 (strong acid) → HSO4– (weak base)
CH3COOH (weak acid) → CH3COOH– (stronger base)

Final Answer : option (4)

79)
Explain Question : We are asked to find the pH after neutralization of Ca(OH)₂ with HCl
using equivalents concept.
Concept : This question is based on (strong acid–strong base neutralization)
Solution :
Given:
Volume Ca(OH)₂ = 25 mL, [Ca(OH)₂] = 0.2 M
Volume HCl = 10 mL, [HCl] = 1 M

Step 1: Find equivalents

A. Equivalents of base = Normality × Volume (L)

Normality of Ca(OH)₂ = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 N (since it has 2 OH⁻ per molecule)
Equivalents of Ca(OH)₂ = 0.4 × 0.025 = 0.01 eq

B. Equivalents of HCl = Normality × Volume = 1 × 0.01 = 0.01 eq

Step 2: Compare equivalents

Equivalents HCl = Equivalents Ca(OH)₂ → complete neutralization

A. solution neutral → pH = 7

Final answer : 4

80)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the solubility product constant (Ksp) for the
compound Hgâ‚‚Clâ‚‚ given its solubility S in moles per litre. Essentially, we need to express
Ksp in terms of S, the amount of Hgâ‚‚Clâ‚‚ that dissolves in solution.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on the concept of solubility equilibrium and the
solubility product constant (Ksp). Hgâ‚‚Clâ‚‚ dissociates into ions in solution, and the Ksp
represents the equilibrium constant involving the concentrations of these ions. The
relationship between solubility and ion concentrations helps us calculate Ksp.

Relevant Formulas: K_{sp} = [Hg_2^{2+}] \times [Cl^-]^2 where: [Hg_2^{2+}] =

concentration of mercury(I) ions, [Cl^-] = concentration of chloride ions.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given the solubility S for Hgâ‚‚Clâ‚‚, the dissociation is: Hgâ‚‚Clâ‚‚
⇌ Hg₂^{2+} + 2Cl^- This means: [Hg₂^{2+}] = S [Cl^-] = 2S Calculating Ksp: K_{sp}
= [Hg_2^{2+}] \times [Cl^-]^2 = S \times (2S)^2 = S \times 4S^2 = 4S^3.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the coefficient in front of ions in the dissociation equation
affects the exponent of their concentration in the Ksp expression.

Common Mistakes: A common error is to incorrectly square the concentration terms or

 ignore the coefficient for chloride ions leading to wrong powers of S.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: '16S^2' and '8S^2' ignore the stoichiometric exponent
correctly, '16S^4' incorrectly applies powers likely squaring beyond needed. The correct
expression accounts for the number of ions involved.

81)

Question Explanation: We are asked to identify the expression that is not true regarding
hydrogen ion [H+] and hydroxide ion [OH-] concentrations in acidic, basic, and neutral
solutions.

Concept: Ionic product of water

Solution:

For water at a given temperature, the ionic product is Kw = [H+][OH-].

Neutral solution: [H+] = [OH-] = √Kw (depends on temperature).
Acidic solution: [H+] > √Kw, [OH-] < √Kw.
Basic solution: [H+] < √Kw, [OH-] > √Kw.
At 25°C, Kw = 10-14, so [H+] = [OH-] = 10-7 M for a neutral solution. At other temperatures, this
value changes.

A. [H+] = [OH-] = √Kw → True

B. [H+] > √Kw and [OH-] < √Kw → True

C. [H+] < √Kw and [OH-] > √Kw → True

D. [H+] = [OH-] = 10-7 M for a neutral solution at all temperature → Not true, because this
is only valid at 25°C, not at all temperatures

Final Answer: 4

82)

for PPtn, IP > Ksp

83)

Question Explanation : Calculate the sum of [H+] and [OH–] concentrations in pure water at
90ºC, given pKw.
Concept : This question is based on Ionic product of water.
Solution :
In pure water, [H+] = [OH–] We use Kw = 10–pKw to find the concentrations.
Kw = 10–12
[H+]2 = Kw ⇒ [H+] = 10–6M
Sum = [H+] + [OH–] = 2 × 10–6 M
Final answer : Option (3)

84)

E=

85)

Sum of oxidation state of all the element = 0

A3(BC4)2 ⇒ (+2×3)+{(5×2) + (–2×8)} = 0

86)

The species which can undergo both oxidation and reduction exhibit disproportionation
reactions.
i.e., If the central atom is the species which can show both increase and decrease in O.N. then
it shows disproportionation reaction. Clearly Option 2, 3, 4 are not possible as they all have
as common species which is having Cl already in +7 oxidation state.

87)

Explain the Question : Determine the equivalent weight (E) of KHC2O4. H2C2O4. 4H2O as a
reducing agent.

Concept : This question is based on Equivalent Weight : E = . Oxalate (C+3) oxidizes

to CO2(C+4).
Solution :

1. Total n-factor : 4.

2. E = .
Final answer : 4

88)

{H2O + HSO3– → SO4–2+ 2e– + 3H+}×3

6H+ + IO3– + 6e– → I– + 3H2O
 IO3– + 3HSO3– → I– + 3H+ + 3SO42–

89)

Question Explantion: We need to identify the type of reaction for decomposition of 2KClO3 →
2KCl +3O2.

Concept: Types of redox reaction

Solution :
This question is based on Intramolecular redox oxidation and occur in different atoms of the
same compound.
In KClO3.
Oxidation state of Cl = +5, Oxidation state of O = –2
Products
KCl : Cl = – 1 (reduction)
O2 : O = 0 (oxidation)
Thus, Cl is reduced from +5 to –1 and O is oxidised from –2 to 0 within the same compound
KClO3. Hence, it is an intramolecular redox reactions.
Final Answer : Option (2)

90)

Explaining the Question :- We need to arrange compounds by increasing oxidation number

of oxygen.

Concept:- This question is based on oxidation number of oxygen depends on type: peroxide

(–1), superoxide , elemental (0), positive with F.

Solution :-
• In OF2, O = +2.

• In KO2 (superoxide), O = .
• In BaO2 (peroxide), O = –1
• In O3, O = 0.
Arranging –1 (BaO2) < –0.5 (KO2) < 0 (O3) < +2 (OF2).
Final Answer :- 2 BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 211, 212

92)

NCERT Pg # 156
93) Question Explanation : The question asks you to count how many of the listed factors
are external factors that affect photosynthesis in plants.
Concept:
This question is based on FACTORS AFFECTING PHOTOSYNTHESIS.

Solution:
The correct answer is 3.4

Explanation :
External factors = 4
Light, CO2 concentration, Temperature, Water

Final answer: 3. 4

94) NCERT Pg. # 207

95)

Question Explanation: Components of a photosystem.

Concept: Light Harvesting Complex.

Solution:

In the diagram of a photosystem, A represents antenna molecules, which absorb B, the

incoming photons.
From where they are transferred to the primary acceptor (C),These photons energize
electrons that move to the reaction centre (D).

Final Answer: A- Antenna molecules, B-Primary acceptor , C- Photons, D-Reaction centre

96)

CO2 is taken in

97) Module-3, Page # 180

98)

In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form carbohydrates reduction and water is

oxidised.
 99)

Glucose

100)

The correct answer is 3: All a, b, c

Photosynthesis is:

A. Endergonic because it requires an input of energy (from sunlight) to convert carbon dioxide
and water into glucose and oxygen.
B. Anabolic because it builds larger molecules (glucose) from smaller ones (CO2 and H2O).
C. Physico-chemical because it involves both physical and chemical processes (light energy
conversion, electron transport, etc.).

101)

Only A is correct

102)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the correct statements among the given
options that represent the key scientific contributions and evidence provided by the botanist
Julius von Sachs.

Concept : This question is based on Early Experiments.

Solution :
(A) Production of glucose when plant grows - Yes
Sachs showed that plants synthesize organic compounds like glucose during growth, which is
a result of photosynthesis.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies - Yes
He was the first to show that chlorophyll is located in specialized structures (chloroplasts) in
cells.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch - Yes
Sachs proved that starch is the storage form of photosynthetic products like glucose in leaves.

Final Answer : option (1)

103)

Can continue to fix CO2 even at relatively low CO2 concentrations

104)
A = Reduction, B = Triose phosphate, C = Regeneration, D = PGA

105) NCERT Pg. # 212

106) NCERT Pg. # 210

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139, 140

108) NCERT XI pg.# 212, 213

109)

Explain Question: The question asks which component is responsible for splitting of water.
Concept : Splitting of water.
Solution:
The splitting of water is associated with PSII
So, the correct answer is: 2.
Final answer: 2.

110)

Ncert page 142.

111) NCERT (XI) Pg # 211,212,214

112)

12

113)

Carotenoids

114)

Chloroplast

115)
NCERT Reference; Class XI, Page No. 213

116)

If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.

117)

move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by facilitated diffusion.

118)

Photoexcitation of chlorophyll and ejection of electron

119)

ATP

120) NCERT Pg.# 213

121) NCERT - XI Page No. # 209

122)

PS-I – P680 nm

123) NCERT Page No. 208, (13.2)

124)

Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast

125) NCERT XI pg.# 218, 219

126)

Explain Question: The question asks how many carbon atoms are present in the primary CO₂-
accepting molecule in C₃ plants.
Concept: This question is based on C3 cycle/ Calvin Cycle
Solution:
In C₃ plants, the primary CO₂ acceptor is Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP).
RuBP is a 5-carbon compound that reacts with CO₂ in the Calvin cycle (also known as the C₃
pathway), catalyzed by the enzyme RuBisCO.
So, the correct answer is: 1.5
Final answer: 1.5

127)

Explain Question: The question asks what products (in terms of electrons and protons) are
released from one water molecule during photolysis in the light reaction.
Concept: This question is based on Splitting of Water.
Solution:
Photolysis of each water molecule in light reaction will yield 2 electrons and 2 protons.
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Final answer: 1.

128)

NCERT XI Page # 221

129)

24

130)

Phosphoglyceric acid

131)

NCERT page 222

132)

Both (a) and (b)

133) NCERT - XI Pg. # 219, Fig 13.9

134) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 218

135) NCERT XI Pg # 217

136) NCERT XI, Pg. # 304

137) H-zone

138)

Sarcomere

139)

Meromyosin

140)

Lactic acid

141)

Myosin

142)

1 'A' bands and 2 half 'I' bands

143) NCERT # XI, Pg. 305, 307

144)

Acetyl choline

145)

all of these

146)

intercalated discs
147)

Flagellar movement

148)

Troponin

149)

A = Sarcomere; B = A-Band; C = H-Zone; D = Myosin filament

150) NCERT Pg. # 218

151) NCERT Pg. # 219

152)

Troponin, Tropomyosin, F-actin

153) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 218,219

154)

Head of myosin + short arm

155)

All of the above

156)

a, b and c only

157)
Each organised skeletal muscle in human body is made of a number of muscle bundles of
fascia.

158) NCERT-XI Pg. # 305

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 302

160)

(i) and (iii)

161)

Explain Question : Identify the correct statements about the mechanism of muscle
contraction.

Concept : This question is based on the mechanism of muscle contractions.

Solution :
(i) Correct - Acetylcholine is released at the motor end plate.
(ii) Incorrect - Motor, not sensory neurons, trigger contraction.
(iii) Incorrect - I band shortens, not elongates.
(iv) Correct - Lactic acid builds up with repeated activity.

Final Answer : option (1) (i) and (iv) are correct

162)

Explain Question : The question is asking to identify the labels a, b, and c in a diagram that
represents steps of muscle contraction.

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of muscle contraction.

Solution :

b = Formation of cross bridge – Myosin head binds to actin.

a = Rotation or sliding – Power stroke occurs as the myosin head pulls the actin filament.

c = Breaking of cross bridge – ATP binds to myosin head causing it to detach from actin.

Final Answer : option (3)

163)

Both (2) and (3)

164)

Involuntry, Spindle-shaped, uninucleated

165)

Endomycium

166)

NCERT - Pg. # 305

3-I band, 2-A band, 1-Z line,
5-sarcomere, 4-H zone

167)

Motor neuron & sarcolemma

168)

Troponin

169)

Myosin binding sites on actin

170)

A-Skeletal muscle → biceps, striated, voluntary

171)

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

172)

All locomotions are movements but all movement are not locomotions.
173)

Helps to propel sperm into fallopian tube

174)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

175) NCERT Pg. No. 227

176)

Low Ca2+ in body fluid

177) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.

178)

Smooth muscles

179)

Both

180)

It is genetic disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle.