28-09-2025

1103CMD303003250045 MD

PHYSICS

1) Momentum of a body moving in a straight line is p = (t2 + 2t + 1) kg m/sec. Find the force acting
on body at t = 2 sec. :-

(1) 6N
(2) 8N
(3) 4N
(4) None of these

2) Momentum time curve for two particle are shown in figure. Find the ratio of force on A and B.

(1) 1 : 3
(2)
(3)
(4) 3 : 1

3) A disc of mass 1·0 kg kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass 0·05 kg each
vertically at it, at the rate of 10 per second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed, the speed

with which these are fired will be–

(1) 0·098 m/s

(2) 0·98 m/s
(3) 9·8 m/s
(4) 98·0 m/s
4) A 45 kg box starts from rest and moves on a smooth plane the force that varies with time as

shown. The velocity of the box at t = 8 sec is:-

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 24 m/s

5) A body of mass 3kg hits a wall at an angle of 60° with 10 m/sec and returns at same angle with

same speed. The impact time was 0.2 sec. Then force exerted on the wall is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 100 N
(4)

6) A small ring of mass m moves from point 1 to point 2 along a smooth rigid horizontal wire with a
constant speed v. The average force acting on the ring over the time of its motion from 1 to 2 is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

7) A ball of mass m, moving with velocity m/s recieves an impulse N-s due to an impact.
What is the velocity of the ball just after impact :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) A 400 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. Exhaust speed of gases is 490 m/s. The rate at which gas
is to be ejected to give an upward acceleration of 'g' to the rocket :-

(1) 160 kg/s

(2) 16 kg/s
(3) 1.6 kg/s
(4) 80 kg/s

9) A satellite in force free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate (dM/dt) = + αv. Here
v is the velocity. The acceleration of satellite of mass M is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10)

In set up shown, find acceleration of block C

-2
(1) 3 ms

(2) 3 ms-2
(3) 5 ms-2
(4) 5 ms-2

11) The elevator shown in figure is descending with an acceleration of 2 ms–2. The mass of the block
A = 0.5 kg. The force exerted by the block A on the block B is :-

(1) 2N
(2) 4N
(3) 6N
(4) 8N

12) If block is in equilibrium, then value of F is :

(1) mg cos θ
(2) mg sin θ
(3) mg tan θ
(4) mg cot θ

13) A man, of mass 60 kg, is riding in a lift. The ratio of the apparent weights of the man when the
lift is accelerating upwards and downwards at 2 m/s2 is:-
(Taking g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) none of these

14) Normal reaction force between the blocks is :

(1) 40 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 0
(4) 10 N

15) Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley attached
to the top of a fixed inclined plane. The angle of inclination of the plane in . Take g = 10 ms–2. If M1
= 10 kg, M2 = 5 kg, = 30°, what is the tension in the string

(1) 100 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 25 N
(4) zero

16) A dynamometer D is attached to the two bodies of masses 12 kg and 8 kg. Forces F = 50 N and f
= 10 N are applied to masses as shown. The dynamometer reads (in steady state)

(1) 12 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 26 N
(4) None

17) Find initial accelerations of A and B respectively, when string is cut

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) In arrangement shown the block A of mass 15 kg is supported in equilibrium by the block B.
Mass of the block B is closest to:

(1) 2 kg
(2) 3 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 5 kg

19) In the given diagram, with what force must the man pull the rope to hold the plank in position?
Mass of the man is 120 kg. Neglect the weights of plank, rope and pulley. (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 200 N
(2) 300 N
(3) 600 N
(4) 150 N

20) Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the
figure. If coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4, the maximum horizontal force which can

make them move without separation is :-

(1) 72 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 20 N

21) A block of mass 2 kg is resting over another block of mass 6 kg which is on smooth horizontal
surface. 2 kg block is connected to one end of a string fixed to a vertical wall as shown. If the
coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.4, the force required to pull out the 6 kg block with an
acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 will be (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 17 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 1 N

22) A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope which can stand a maximum tension of 600 N. In

which of the following cases will the rope break ? The monkey

(1) climbs up with an accelerartion of 6ms–2

(2) climbs down with an accelerartion of 4ms–2
(3) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5ms–1
falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity (ignore the mass of the rope and take g = 10
(4)
ms–2)

23) Find maximum value of M2 so that system remain at rest :–

(1) 2 kg
(2) 1 kg
(3) 3 kg
(4) None

24) All surfaces are assumed to be frictionless. calculate the horizontal force F that must be applied
so that m and 2m do not move relative to 3m is :–

(1) 12 mg
(2) 6 mg
(3) 8 mg
(4) 4 mg

25) Find out minimum value of F so that the block remains at rest

(1) 50 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 25 N

26) In the given figure the coefficient of friction between 4kg and 5kg blocks is 0.2 and between 5 kg

block and ground is 0.1 respectively. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Minimum force needed to cause system to move is 17 N

(2) When force is 4N, static friction at all surfaces is 4N to keep system at rest
(3) Maximum acceleration of 4kg blocks is 2 m/s2
(4) Slipping between 4kg and 5kg blocks start when F is > 17N

27) A block slides with constant velocity on a plane inclined at an angle θ. The same block is pushed
up the plane with an initial velocity v0. The distance covered by the block before coming to rest is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A standing bus suddenly accelerates. If there were no friction between the feet of a
passenger and the floor of the bus, the passenger would move back.
Reason (R): In the absence of friction, the floor of the bus would slip forward under the feet of the
passenger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

29) A block A of mass m is placed over a plank B of mass 2 m. Plank B is placed over a smooth
horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.5. Block A is given a velocity v

towards right. Acceleration of B relative to A is :-

(1)

(2) g

(3)

(4) zero

30) A particle moves with uniform acceleration m/s2 starting from rest. Calculate the
work done on the particle in first two seconds if its mass is 1 kg.

(1) 5 J
(2) 6 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 2 J

31)

Find work done by gravitational force if block starts slipping down from top most point and reaches

to the lower end:-

(1) 50 N
(2)
(3) –100 N
(4) –200 N

32) Figure gives the acceleration of a 2.0 kg body as it moves from rest along x axis while a variable
force acts on it from x = 0m to x = 9m. The work done by the force on the body when it reaches
(i) x = 4m and
(ii) x = 7 m shall be as given below

(1) 21 J and 33 J respectively

(2) 21 J and 15 J respectively
(3) 42 J and 60 J respectively
(4) 42 J and 30 J respectively

33)

The force F acting on a particle moving in a straight line as shown in figure. What is the work done
by the force on the particle in the 1 m of the displacement ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 2.5 J
34) If a force F varies with displacement x as F = 3x2 + 4 then the work done by force, if the particle
moves from x = 2 to x = 4m is:-

(1) 64 J
(2) 128 J
(3) 32 J
(4) None of these

35) A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does :-

(1) Negative work

(2) Positive but not maximum work
(3) No work at all
(4) Maximum work

36) A body of mass 10 kg is dropped to the ground from a height of 10 metres. The work done by the
gravitational force is (g = 9.8 m/sec2)

(1) –490 Joules

(2) +490 Joules
(3) –980 Joules
(4) +980 Joules

37) A particle moves under a force F = Cx from x = 0, to x = x1, the work done is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4)

38) A force is acting on a particle. Find the work done by this force in
displacing the body from (1, 2, 3)m to (3, 6, 1)m:-

(1) –10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 1 J

39) A force acts on a body due to which its displacement varies as .

Work done by this force from t = 0 sec to t = 2 sec is :

(1) 23 J
(2) 32 J
(3) Zero
(4) can't be determined

40) A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force which varies with distance as shown in the
figure. If it starts its journey from rest at x = 0, its velocity at x = 12 m is

(1) 0 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 40 m/s

41) A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it is given by (in m).
Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 24 J

42) A particle moves under the effect of a force F = kx2 from x = 0 to x = 4, the work done by force
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Find T1 from figure (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 20 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 10.6 N
(4) 10 N

44) A cart moves with horizontal acceleration a = 2 m/s2, as shown in

the diagram. If spring constant is 1000 N/m, then extension in the spring is :-

(1) 8 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 2 cm

45) At a certain instant of time the mass of a rocket going up vertically is 100 kg. If it is ejecting 5 kg
of gas per second at a speed of 400 m/sec, the acceleration of the rocket would be (g = 10 m/s2) :–

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following two are isostructural :-

–
(1) XeF2, IF2
(2) NH3, BF3
(3)
(4) PCl5, ICl5

2) Select the correct order of polarising power of cation?

(1) Na+ < Mg+2 < Si+4 < Al+3

(2) Mg+2 < Si+4 < Al+3 < Na+
(3) Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3 < Si+4
(4) Al+3 < Si+4 < Mg+2 < Na+

3) Covalency of chlorine in second excited state will be

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 3

4) Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule?

(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All of these

5) For ionic compounds order of conductivity in different state :

(1) Aqueous solution < Fused state < Solid state

(2) Fused state < Aqueous solution < Solid state
(3) Solid State < Fused state < Aqueous solution
(4) Aqueous solution < Solid state < Fused state

6) Ionic mobility order for following species will be :

Ca2+ (aq) , Mg2+ (aq), Sr+2 (aq)

(1) Sr+2 (aq) > Ca2+ (aq) > Mg2+(aq)

(2) Ca+2 (aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Mg2+ (aq)
(3) Ca+2 (aq) > Mg2+ (aq) > Sr+ (aq)
(4) Sr+2 (aq) > Mg2+ (aq) > Ca+ (aq)

7) Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair-lone pair' electron repulsions ?

(1) IF5
(2) SF4
(3) XeF2
(4) ClF3
8) Hybridisation of XeOF2, XeO2F2 is sp3d but shape will be respectively :-

(1) 'T', 'V' shape

(2) 'T' shape, See-Saw
(3) both have T-shape
(4) 'T' Shape, Pyramidal

9) In which of the following hybridisation bond angle is equal to 109°28' :-

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d2

10) The geometry of XeO2F2 is :-

(1) Tringular planar

(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square planar
(4) Tetrahedral

11) Give the correct order of strength of H-bond

(a) O – H ----- O (b) F – H ------ F
(c) Cl – H ----- Cl (d) N – H ----- N

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) b > a > c = d

12) Bond length in sp3d hybridization

(1) Equitorial > axial

(2) Axial > Equitorial
(3) Equitorial = axial
(4) None

13) Determine the incorrect order of bond angle?

(1) NH3 < NF3 < NCl3

(2) OF2 < OH2 < OCl2
(3) SF2 < SCl2 < SBr2 < SI2
–1
(4) ClO2 > ClO2 > OCl2

14) Which of the following is a electron defficient molecule?

(1) BeCl2
(2) PCl5
(3) H2O
(4) All of these

15) Which of the following molecule is theoretically not possible ?

(1) SF4
(2) OF2
(3) OF4
(4) O2F2

16) Which one of the following represents all isoelectronic species ?

(1) Na+, Cl¯, O¯, NO+

+
(2) N2O, N2O4 , NO , NO
(3) Na+, Mg2+, O–, F¯
(4) Ca2+, Ar, K+, Cl¯

17) Stability of the species N2, N2+ and N2– in the order of:

– + –
(1) N2 > N2 > N2
+ –
(2) N2 > N2 > N2
+ –
(3) N2 > N2 > N2
+ –
(4) N2 > N2 > N2

18) Which of the following is correct ?

(1)
Bond order ∝ ∝ ∝ stability

(2)
Stability ∝ ∝ ∝
(3) Stability ∝ bond order ∝ bond length ∝ bond enthalpy

(4)
Stability ∝ bond order ∝ bond enthalpy ∝

19) The boiling point of a compound is raised by –

(1) intermolecular hydrogen bonding

(2) High volatility
(3) intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(4) non-polarity

20) BeF2 has zero dipole moment where as H2O has a dipole moment because :-
(1) Water is linear
(2) H2O is bent
(3) F is more electronegative than O
(4) Hydrogen bonding is present in H2O

21) Which of the following is non polar :-

(1) NF3
(2) BF3
(3) PF3
(4) SF4

22) Which molecule has permanent dipole moment :-

(1) NH3
(2) CH4
(3) H2
(4) BF3

23) The correct order of decreasing polarisable ion is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in sp3d2 hybridisation is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Number of σ and π bonds present in CH3 — CH = CH — C ≡ CH are -

(1) 10 σ, 3 π
(2) 10 σ, 2 π
(3) 9 σ, 2 π
(4) 8 σ, 3 π

26) π bond is formed :-

(1) By overlapping of hybridised orbitals

(2) Overlapping of s - s orbitals
(3) Head on overlapping of p -p orbitals
(4) By p - p collateral overlapping

27) In allene structure (H2C=C=CH2) three carbon atoms are joined by :

(1) Three sigma bonds and three pi bonds

(2) Two sigma bonds and one pi bond
(3) Two sigma bonds and two pi bonds
(4) Three pi bonds only

28)

List-I(Molecules) List-II(Shape)

(a) PCl3 (i) Square pyramidal

(b) IF3 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal

(c) PF5 (iii) Trigonal pyramidal

(d) BrF5 (iv) T-shape

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

29) Which of the following is an example of odd electron species ?

(1) NO2
(2) C2H6
(3) SF6
(4) BF3

30) Which of the following hybrid orbital has maximum ‘s’ character?

(1) sp3
(2) sp
(3) sp3d
(4) sp2

31) Which one of the following element will never obey octet rule?

(1) Na
(2) F
(3) S
(4) H
32) Intramolecular H-bonding is shown by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (3)

33) Which concept best explains that the o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol ?

(1) Steric hindrance

(2) Hyperconjugation
(3) H-bonding
(4) Resonance

34) Hybridisation of 2nd and 3rd carbon in are respectively :-

(1) sp and sp2

(2) sp3 and sp2
(3) sp2 and sp
(4) sp2 and sp2

35) Number of unpaired electrons in inert gas is:

(1) Zero
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 18

36) Identify a molecule which does not exist :-

(1) He2
(2) Li2
(3) C2
(4) O2

37) Match the Xenon compounds in Column–I with its structure in Column–II and assign the correct
code :

Column–I Column–II
 (a) (i) Pyramidal

(b) (ii) Square planar

(c) (iii) Distorted octahdral

(d) (iv) Square pyramidal

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–iii, c–iv, d–i
(3) a–ii, b–iii, c–i, d–iv
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii

38) Hydrogen bonding absent in :-

(1) CH3COOH
(2) H2O
(3) CH4
(4) C2H5OH

39) Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?

(1) CN– and NO+

(2) CN– and CN+
(3) and CN–
(4) NO+ and CN+

40) Which of the following is ionic compound ?

(1) NaCl
(2) MgO
(3) CH4
(4) Both 1 & 2

41) How many (i) sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and (ii) π bonds are present in the following

compound ?

(1) 7, 5
(2) 8, 6
(3) 7, 6
(4) 8, 5

42) The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :-

(1) sp < sp2 < sp3

(2) sp < sp2 > sp3
(3) sp > sp2 < sp3
(4) sp > sp2 > sp3

43) Identify correct match among following :-

(1) ClF3 ; planar and nonpolar

(2) PCl5 ; non planar and polar
(3) BF3 ; Planar and polar
(4) SF6 ; Non planar and nonpolar

44) Which of the following has the minimum C–C bond length ?

(1) C2H2
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) All are same

45) In which of the following species maximum atoms lie in same plane ?

(1) XeO2F2
(2) PCl5
+
(3) AsH4
(4) XeF4

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion: Conifer trees produce a large quantity of wind-borne pollen grains.

Reason: The pollen grains have wings.

(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

2) Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Pneumatophores (a) Citrus

(ii) Stem tendrils (b) Legumes

(iii) Stem thorns (c) Rhizophora

(iv) Pulvinus (d) Grape vine

(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

3) Which event is a precursor to the seed habit considered as an important step in evolution –

(1) Embryo formation

(2) Endosperm formation
(3) Heterosporous habit
(4) Vascular tissue development

4)

The given diagram show different type of placentation Regarding this diagram choose correct
option:-

Type of
Diagram Example
placentation

Sunflower,
(1) A Basal
marigold

Mustard,
(2) B Parietal
Argemone

Chinarose,
(3) C Free central
Primerose

Tomato,
(4) D Axile
Lemon
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Read the following statements and choose the correct option for incorrect statements :
I : The region of the stem where leaf are born is called node.
II : Calyx and corolla are always present in bisexual flowers.
III : Trimerous flowers are present in solanaceae.
IV. A sterile stamen is known as staminode.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) I, II, III and IV

6) In gymnosperms:
(i) Male and female cones may be borne on the same tree as in cycas.
(ii) Male and female cones may be born on different trees as in pinus.
(iii) The ovules are borne on microsporophyll which may be clustered to form male cones.
(iv) Male and female gametophytes have independent free living existence.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) None of the above

7) Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Gymnosperms form lax or cones.

(2) Gymnosperms may be homosporous
(3) Gymnosperms produce seeds and pollen grains
(4) Gymnospermic plants can be monoecious or dioecious.

8) Match the following columns :-

Column–A Column–B

(A) Modification of leaves for climbing (P) Australian acacia

(B) Modification of leaves for photosynthesis (Q) Onion

(C) Modification of leaves for protection (R) Pea

(D) Modification of leaves for storage (S) Cacti

Codes given below :-
(1) A(S); B(Q); C(P); D(S)
(2) A(R); B(P); C(S); D(Q)
(3) A(R); B(S); C(Q); D(P)
(4) A(Q); B(P); C(S); D(R)

9) Assertion : Selaginella is a heterosporus pteridophyte.

Reason : Selaginella produces two kinds of spores microspores and megaspores.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10)

How many of the followings are not modifications of root ?

Conical, Napiform, Runner, Stolon, Sucker.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11) Match Column I with Column II.

Column-I Column-II
Margin of thalamus grows
enclosing ovary completely and
Hypogynous
(A) (I) getting fused with it, the other
flower
parts of flower arises above the
ovary.
Gynoecium is situated in the
centre and other parts of
Perigynous
(B) (II) flowers are located on the rim
flower
of thalamus almost at the same
level.
Gynoecium occupies the
Epigynous
(C) (III) highest position while other
flower
parts are below it.
(1) A-I B-II C-III
(2) A-III B-II C-I
(3) A-III B-I C-II
(4) A-I B-III C-II

12) Which of the following is true for prothallus?

(1) It represents sporophytic generation in homosporous fern.

(2) It is usually autotrophic
(3) It is main plant body of homosporous pteridophyte
(4) It is multicellular and conspicuous

13) Select false statement from followings for root ?

(1) Roots have lateral branches that arises endogenously

(2) Roots may give rise to leaves
(3) Roots provide anchorage to plant
(4) Roots do not have node & internode

14) Match list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

(a) Polyadelphous (i) Chinarose

(b) Monoadelphous (ii) Citrus

(c) Tepals (perianth) (iii) Michelia

 (d) Apocarpous (iv) Lily

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

15) Select the correct match from followings ?

(1) Mustard-Fibrous root

(2) Wheat-Tap root
(3) Mustard-Tap root
(4) Monstera-Fibrous root

16) Read of the following statements carefully.

(A) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and soil binders.
(B) In majority of pteridophytes, gametophyte and sporophyte are free living independent.
(C) Prothallus are inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free living mostly photosynthetic.
(D) Precursor to seed habit first evolved in heterosporous pteridophyte.
How many above statements are correct regarding pteridophyte.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Find the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Formed by direct elongation of

(i) Tap roots Sugarcane
radicle

Originate from the base of the

(ii) Fibrous roots Wheat
stem

Arise from parts of the plant

(iii) Adventitious roots Monstera
other than radicle
Options :-
(1) i only
(2) i and iii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

18) Root shows negative geotropism in :-

(1) Pothos
(2) Ficus
(3) Rhizophora
(4) Grasses

19) Cycas and Pinus are similar in having of :-

(1) Roots association with BGA

(2) Branched stems
(3) Triploid endosperm
(4) Multicellular female gametophyte

20) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I : In pea stem are converted into tendrils for climbing.
Statement-II : In cucumber leaf are converted into tendrils for climbing
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

21) Choose the correct statement about female cones of gymnosperms:

(1) The nucellus is protected by bitegmic structure

(2) The megaspore mother cell divides mitotically to form four megaspores
One of four megaspores enclosed within the megasporangium develops into a multicellular
(3)
female gametophyte that bear one archegonium
(4) Ovule is unitegmic

22) Select the correct statement :-

Thorns are found in many plants such as Citrus and Bougainvillea, protect plants from browsing
(1)
of herbivorous animals.
A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of
(2)
roots is found in aquatic plants like Euphorbia and Vallisneria.
(3) Adventitious roots are absent in Banyan.
(4) The stems of maize and sugarcane have supporting roots, coming out of branches of stem.

23) Gymnosperm is example of :-

(1) Vascular, embryophyte with ovule enclosed is ovary

(2) Vascular, non-embryophyte
(3) Non-vascular, non-embryophyte
(4) Vascular, embryophyte

24) Assertion :- Polyadelphous stamens are found in Citrus family.

Reason :- In Citrus family, stamens are united into more than two bundles.

(1) A and R both are incorrect.

(2) A is correct while R is incorrect.
(3) A and R both are correct and R is explanation of A.
(4) A and R both are correct but R does not explain A.

25) Assertion : In canna flowers is asymmetric.

Reason : In canna flower can not be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing
through the centre.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26)

Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column
Column II Column III
I

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone absorption of water

(iv) D Root cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

27) Given below are two Statements.

Statements-I : The shape, margin, Apex, surface and extent of incision of lamina varies in different
leaves.
Statements-II : veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade and act as channels of transport for water,
minerals and food materials.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

28) Assertion: Gulmohar shows bilateral symmetry of flowers.

Reason: Gulmohar flowers can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical
plane.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) Find the correct statement w.r.t. cymose inflorescence.

(1) Main axis never terminates into a flower

(2) Show unlimited growth/indefinite growth
(3) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
(4) Flowers open in centripetal order

30) Which of the following is an incorrect match

(1) Perigynous flower - Plum, rose and peach

(2) Monadelphous - Pea
(3) Epigynous flower - Guava, cucumber and ray florets of sunflower
(4) Polyadelphous - Citrus

31) What is incorrect about flower?

(1) Modified shoot

(2) Meant for sexual reproduction
(3) Flowers arranged in different types of inflorescence
(4) Calyx and corolla both are distinct and are termed as perianth

32) Given below are two Statements.

Statements-I : The main function of the stem is spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and
fruits.
Statements-II : Some stem perform the function of storage of food, support, protection and of
vegetative propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

33)

The cones bearing microsporophylls are known as

(1) Male strobili

(2) Macrosporangiate
(3) Female strobili
(4) Both (2) & (3)

34) Select the correct statement from the following:

A. In monocot leaf, the base expands into a sheath covering the stem partially or wholly.
B. In all leguminous plants, the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
C. The lamina is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets.
D. Veins provide rigidity to lamina

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only
(3) All except B
(4) All except D

35) Read the following statements :-

(1) In sugarcane the roots come out of the lower nodes of the stem
(2) Maize roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards
(3) Carrot roots are modified to provide support to plant
(4) Adventitious roots of sweet potato helps in storage of food.
How many of the above statements are incorrect.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

36) Assertion : In alternate type of phyllotaxy, the arrangement of leaves is such that a single leaf
arises at each node in alternate manner.
Reason : The alternate type of phyllotaxy is seen Calotropis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) In which of the given gymnosperms, coralloid roots are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria?

(1) Pinus
(2) Cedrus
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Cycas

38)

Read the following five statements (A–E) and answer as asked next to them
(A) Sheathing leaf base is found in monocotyledons
(B) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
(C) A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf.
(D) Palmately compound leaves are found in neem.
(E) Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

39) Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Flower is a modified shoot

(2) In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower
(3) Flowers are borne on successive internodes on the stems and roots
(4) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, the flower is always solitary

40) Read the following statement regarding to external structure of plant and identify the
correct statements and select the correct option from options given below:
a. When sepals are united these are known as gamospelous
b. When stamens are attached to petals they are known as epipetalous
c. Variations in the length of stamens filaments within the flower is found in mustard
d. Calyx and corolla are considered as essential whorl of plant

(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b and c

41)

Which of the following is last stage of sporophytic generation in pteridophytes ?

(1) Spore
(2) Embryo
(3) Zygote
(4) Spore mother cell
42)
Identity the plants given in the figure. (a) & (b) :-

(1) Selaginella and Pteris

(2) Equisetum and Salvinia
(3) Selaginella and Equisetum
(4) Salvinia and Azolla

43) In pteridophytes inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free living, mostly photosynthetic
thalloid gametophyte is formed, as called :-

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) Sporophyll
(4) Cone

44) Which of the following pteridophytes belong to class pteropsida?

(1) Equisetum and Psilotum

(2) Lycopodium and Adiantum
(3) Selaginella and Pteris
(4) Pteris and Adiantum

45) The spreading of living pteridophytes is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region
because of

(1) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady places.

(2) requirement of water for fertilization.
(3) absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

46) What distinguishes the elemental composition of living tissue from that of the earth's crust?

(1) Living tissue has a higher relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen.
(2) Earth's crust has a higher relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen.
(3) Living tissue contains elements not found in the earth's crust.
(4) Earth's crust contains elements not found in living tissue.

47) Match List I with List II:

 List-I List-II

A. GLUT-4 I. Hormone

B. Insulin II. Enzyme

C. Trypsin III. Intercellular ground substance

D. Collagen IV. Enables glucose transport into cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

48) Given diagram is a :

(1) Lecithin
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) All are correct

49) For ash analysis, living tissue is first dried and then burnt. The ash obtained subsequently
contains–

(1) Both organic and inorganic compounds.

Similar compounds which were present in acid insoluble pool while conducting compound
(2)
analysis of a living tissue.
(3) Only inorganic compounds/elements
(4) Only organic compounds

50) Statement-I :- Enzymes are thermosensitive and get damaged at high temperature.
Statement-II :- Thermal stability is an important quality of enzymes isolated from thermophilic
organisms
Select the correct answer -

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct

(2) Only Statement I is correct
(3) Only Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

51) Read the following statements. Find out how many are correct:-
(A) RuBisCO is most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere
(B) Biomacromolecules have a hierarchy of structures-primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary.
(C) Lecithin contain a phosphorylated nitrogenous compound.
(D) Biomicromolecules are polymers

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52) Following structure is –

(1) α-Glucose
(2) β-Glucose
(3) Ribose
(4) Deoxyribose

53) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Starch gives blue colour with iodine
Statement-II : Starch forms helical tertiary structure which can hold I2 molecule.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answers from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true while II is false

(2) Statement-I is false while II is true
(3) Statement-I and II both are true
(4) Statement-I and II both are false

54) Assertion : Protein is a heteropolymer.

Reason : Protein is a polymer of 20 different types of amino acids.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

55) Read the following statements and choose the option which have all correct statements :-
(a) The molecular weight of lipids exceed 800 Dalton
(b) Chlorophyll pigment is an example of secondary metabolites.
(c) Some secondary metabolites can be used as drugs for the treatment of human diseases.
(d) The first amino acid in a protein is called as N-terminal amino acid

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d

56) is :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Glycol
(3) Glycerol
(4) Fructose

57)

What does a and b represent in the given graph ?

a - pH,
(1)
b - concentration of substrate
a - velocity of reaction,
(2)
b - concentration of substrate
a - temperature,
(3)
b - concentration of substrate
a - concentration of substrate,
(4)
b - temperature

58) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Malonate inhibit the succinate dehydrogenase.
Reason (R) : Malonate closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
59) Identify the given structure and name the compound

(1) Glucose
(2) Deoxyribose
(3) Ribose
(4) Uracil

60) Reducing sugars are sugars which can reduce Cu2+ ions into Cu+. Which of the following does
not represent a reducing sugar ?

(1) Maltose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

61) Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen.

Choose the correct option.

A= -glycosidic bonds,
(1)
B= -glycosidic bonds
A= -glycosidic bonds,
(2)
B= -glycosidic bonds
A= -glycosidic bonds,
(3)
B= -glycosidic bonds
A= -glycosidic bonds,
(4)
B= -glycosidic bonds

62) Identify the Zwitter ionic form in the given reversible reaction.
Choose the correct option.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of these

63) What kinds of the structures of proteins are shown in the given figure (A, B, C and D)?

A = 1º structure, B = 2º structure,
(1)
C = 3º structure, D = 4º structure
A = 4º structure, B = 2º structure,
(2)
C = 3º structure, D = 1º structure
A = 1º structure, B = 4º structure,
(3)
C = 3º structure, D = 2º structure
A = 4º structure, B = 3º structure,
(4)
C = 2º structure, D = 1º structure

64) Most abundant organic component in living cell

(1) H2O
(2) Lipids
(3) Proteins
(4) Carbohydrates

65) Sequence or positional information of amino acid is given by the

(1) 2° structure
(2) 1° structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quaternary structure

66) Consider the following statements.

(a) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(b) Cellulose is a homopolymer.
(c) The starch-I2 is blue in colour.
(d) Paper made from plant pulp is cellulose.
(e) The structure of glycogen is branched.
How many of these are correct?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

67)

Secondary metabolites are produced by:-

(1) Plants
(2) Fungi
(3) Microbial cells
(4) All of the above

68) How many carbohydrates in the list given below are polysaccharide in nature :-
Cellulose, Starch, Glycogen, Chitin, inulin, Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2

69)

Adenine + X —→ Adenosine
Adenosine + Y —→ Adenylic acid
What does X and Y represent here ?

X Y

(1) Phosphate group Sugar molecule

(2) Sugar molecule Phosphate group

(3) Sugar molecule Nitrogenous base

(4) Nitrogenous base Sugar molecule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Sweetest natural carbohydrate is

(1) Lactose
(2) Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

71) Which of the two groups of following formula are involved in peptide bond formation between
successive amino acids?

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 3 and 1
(3) 1 and 4
(4) 4 and 3

72) Grinding of a living tissue in trichloroacetic acid shows the presence of the inorganic compounds
like sulphate, phosphate, etc., which are categorised as:

(1) Acid insoluble fraction

(2) Acid soluble fraction
(3) Not found in cellular pool
(4) Both (1) and (2)

73) Sugar which is present in DNA has which chemical formulae ?

(1) C5H10O5
(2) C6H12O6
(3) C5H10O4
(4) C3H6O3

74) Starving person will first use:-

(1) Fats
(2) Glycogen
(3) Blood protein
(4) Muscle protein

75) One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:-
(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose

76) Assertion : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with saturated fats.
Reason : Unsaturated fats have only single bond in their structure.

(1) Assertion and reason are correct and reason are correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason are correct but reason are not explanation of assertion
(3) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
(4) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect

77) Name the amino acids A–C correctly.

(1) A–Glycine, B–Serine, C–Alanine

(2) A–Alanine, B–Glycine, C–Serine
(3) A-Serine, B–Glycine, C–Alanine
(4) A-Serine, B–Alanine, C–Glycine

78) In animal world the most abundant protein is____while in the whole biosphere the most abundant
protein is______

(1) Antibody, Collagen

(2) Collagen, RuBisCo
(3) RuBisCo, Collagen
(4) Collagen, Oxidase

79) Carbonic anhydrase accelearates the rate of conversion of CO2 and H2O into H2CO3 by about

(1) 100 million times

(2) 40 million times
(3) 10 million times
(4) 50 million times

80) Find out the correct match from following table:-

Column
Column II Column III
I

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(i) Protein
fraction molecule

Nucleic Acid insoluble Biomacro

(ii)
acid fraction molecule

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(iii) Lipids
fraction molecule
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

81) Sugar with five membered ring called -

(1) Pyranose
(2) Furanose
(3) Dextrorotatory
(4) Laevortatory

82) Enzymes are divided into ________ classes each with ________ subs classes and named accordingly
by a ______ digit number.

(1) 6, 4-13, four

(2) 6, 4-13, three
(3) 6, 4-13, one
(4) 6, 4-13, two

83) Proteins are polymers of

(1) Nucleotides
(2) Amino acids
(3) Fatty acids
(4) Glycerol

84) Study the flow chart given below and identify X and Y according to the statements (i-v) provided:
 (i) Monomers are present.
(ii) Polymers are abundant.
(iii) Molecular weight more than 800 Daltons.
(iv) Molecular weight between 18-800 Daltons.
(v) Amino acids, nucleotides, monosaccharides.

X Y
(1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (v)
(4) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

86) Which one is the second most abundant element in human body ?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen

87) Physical and chemical properties of amino acids depend on

(1) Amino group

(2) Carboxylic group
(3) R-group
(4) All of the above

88) A non-proteinaceous enzyme is:

(1) Ligase
(2) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Ribozyme

89) Which one out of A-D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino
acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

90) α – Amino acids are organic compounds containing -

(1) Amino group and acidic group substituted on different carbon.

(2) Keto – group & Hydrogen on different carbon.
(3) Amino group & acidic group substituted on same carbon.
(4) Keto – group & alcohol group substituted on same carbon.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 2 1 4 4 1 3 4 2 1 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 1 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 4 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 1 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 3 1 2 4 1 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 3 4 4 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Problem Explanation:
The problem provides the momentum equation as a function of time and asks for the force
acting on the body at (t = 2) sec.
Concept Used:
Newton's Second Law states that force is the time derivative of momentum:

Thus, differentiating the given momentum equation will yield the force acting on the body.
Formula Used:

Calculation in Minimum Steps:

Given differentiate with respect to t:

At (t = 2):

Final Answer: Option 1 (6N).

2)

3) Question Explanation : A disc is kept floating in the air by firing bullets vertically at it.
Find the speed with which the bullets are fired, given the mass of the disc, the mass and rate
of firing of the bullets, and the fact that the bullets rebound with the same speed.

Concept: For the disc to float, the upward force exerted by the rebounding bullets must
balance the weigh of the disc.

Formula: Force = Rate of change of momentum =

Momentum P = mv

Calculation: The change in momentum of each bullet during collision is :

 = (–mv) – (mv) = –2mv (downwards)
The magnitude of the change in momentum = |–2mv| = 2mv.
The force exerted by each bullet on the disc is the rate of change of momentum of the bullet
during the collision.
In one second, n = 10 bullets are fired.
The total change in momentum of the bullets per second = Total per second
= n × | –2mv| = 2mnv
For the disc to float, this upward force must balance the weight of the disc: Upward force =
Weight of the disc
2mnv = Mg

v= =
Final Answer: (3)

4)

Area under F - t graph = change in momentum.

5)

6) QUESTION EXPLANATION
A ring of mass m moves along a circular arc of radius R with constant speed v from point 1 to
point 2; we need the average force on it.
CONCEPT
Average force = total impulse / total time
= change in momentum / time taken.
FORMULA

Solution:
 Favg
Final Answer : option (3)

7)

8) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to find the rate at which gas must be ejected from a rocket to give it an upward
acceleration equal to g (where g = 9.8 m/s2) The rocket has a mass of 400 kg and the exhaust
velocity of the gases is 490 m/s.

2. Concept Based:
This is a rocket propulsion problem that involves the principle of momentum
conservation. To achieve an upward acceleration g, the rocket needs to exert enough thrust
to overcome both its own weight and provide the required upward acceleration.
The net force acting on the rocket is:

Where m is the mass of the rocket and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
The thrust produced by the rocket due to the ejection of gases is given by:

Where:

A. m is the rate at which gas is ejected (in kg/s),

B. Vexhaust = 490 m/s is the exhaust speed of the gases.

To balance the forces and achieve the required upward acceleration, the thrust must equal the net
force. Thus:

3. Formula Used:
We can solve for the mass flow rate m as follows:

4. Calculation:
Substituting the known values:

A. m = 400 kg,
B. g = 9.8 m/s2,
C. Vexhaust = 490 m/s.

Now, calculate m:
5. Answer:
The required rate of gas ejection is 16 kg/s.
Answer: Option 2: 16 kg/s.

9)

10)

11) Explain:
A block A is placed on top of block B inside an elevator that is descending with an acceleration.
Find the force exerted by block A on block B.

Concept: Newton's third law of motion.

Formula: Newton's second's law of motion F = ma

Calculation:
For block A : mAg – N = mAa
(0.5) 10 – N = (0.5) (2)
N = (0.5) (10 – 2)
N = (0.5) (8) = 4N

Ans. (2) Difficulty Level: Moderate

12) Explanation :
In the given figure, find the value of force if black is in equilibrium.

Concept : Condision of equilibrium

 Formula : F = ma

Visual-aid :

Mathematical Calculation :
For equilibrium
Fcosθ = mgsinθ

F=
F = mg tanθ

Correct answer with option : (3) : (mg tanθ)

Estimated time : 1-2 minute

Level : Easy

13)

3:2

14) 1. Question Explain:

A Two blocks A (4 kg) and B (2 kg) are placed on an inclined plane with an angle of 30ο. The
task is to find the normal reaction force between the blocks.
2. Concept Based :
The normal reaction between two blocks depends on whether they are in contact and pressing
against each other. If no contact force exists, the normal reaction is zero.
3. Formula Used:

A. Normal reaction between blocks: R =

Force exerted by one block on the other perpendicular to their surfaces .

Concept diagram: Equation No. 1 =

40 sin 30ο - R = (4)(a)
Equation No. 2 = using F.B.D of blocks 2 kg 20 sin 30ο + R =
(2)(a) ..... eq2
Now solving the equation 2 and equation 1
40 sin 30 - R = 4a
& 2 × (20 sin 30 + R = 2a)
Now
Subtracting them 0 - 4R = 0
So that R = 0
we may remember the result independent from θ and m1 & m2 from smooth inclined plane.
similarly by adding them, we get.
80 sin 30ο = 8a
then 10 sin 30ο = a
i.e. a = g sin 30ο as the common acceleration.
Answer : option no, 3

15)

16)

26 N

17)

18)
For B : T = mg
For A : 5T = 15 g

19)

From combined FBD of man and plank.

⇒ 2F + F + F = 120g
⇒ F = 300 N

20) Friction force on block B

= μmBg = 0.4 × 3 × 10 = 12 N.

Hence, acceleration = = 4 m s–2

Hence, maximum force
F = (mA + mB)a = (6 + 3) × 4 = 36 N.

21)
As 2 kg block is connected to wall hence always at rest.
Making F.B.D

for 2kg block

(1) Vertical balance

Now for 6 kg block

 22)

Mass of the monkey, m = 40 kg

Maximum tension which can be stood by the rope

(T)max = 600N
(a) When monkey climbs up with an acceleration a = 6ms–2 , then
T – mg = ma

⇒ T = mg + ma ⇒ T = m(g + a)
= 40 (10 + 6) = 640 N
In this condition T > Tmax, therefore the rope will break.
(b) When monkey climbs down with an acceleration a = 4 ms–2, then
mg – T = ma

⇒ T = mg – ma = m (g–a)
= 40 (10–4) = 240 N
In this condition T < Tmax, therefore the rope will not break.
(c) when monkey climbs up with a uniform speed of 5ms–1, then its acceleration a is zero.
∴ T = mg = 40 × 10
= 400 N
In this condition T < Tmax, therefore the rope will not break.
(d) When monkey falls down freely under gravity, then its acceleration in downward direction is g.
∴ T = m(g – a) = m (g – g) (∵ a = g)
=0
In this condition monkey will be in a state of
weightlessness and tension in the rope is zero.
Therefore, the rope will not break.

23)

1 kg

24) Given: Motion of connected bodies with pulley system on horizontal frictionless surface.
Asked about: Horizontal force required to keep the masses at rest relative to the cart.
Concept: Pseudo force and laws of motion.

Formula: and
 m0 → mass of the object
= acceleration the reference frame
= acceleration of the object
Solution:-

(i)
(ii) W.r.t. cart
a=0

T = mg -(i)
and
a=0

T = 2 mg ---(ii)
solving equation (i) and (ii)
a = 2g ---(iii)
∵ F = ma = 6m(2g)

F = 12 mg

25)

100 N

26) So block 'Q' is moving due to force while block 'P' is moving due to friction.
Friction direction on both P + Q block as shown.

First block 'Q' will move and P will move with 'Q' so by FBD taking 'P' and 'Q' as system
F – 9 = 0 So, F = 9 N
When applied force is 4N then FBD

4 kg block is moving due to friction and maximum friction force is 8 N

So acceleration = = 2 m/s2 = amax.

Slipping will start when Q has +ve acceleration equal to maximum acceleration of P i.e. 2 m/s2.
F – 17 = 5 × 2 ⇒ F = 27 N

27) mg sinθ = μ mgcosθ

sinθ = μcosθ ...(i)
when pushed up
acceleration
a = –(gsinθ + μgcosθ)
= –(gsinθ + gsinθ) = –2gsinθ
∴
Final velocity v = 0
–v02 = 2as
2
⇒ –v0 = 2(–2gsinθ)s

28)

∵ There is no friction between feet of passenger and floor of bus so passenger will not move
back when seen from ground
So Assertion is false but reason is true.

29)

μmg = maA μmg = 2maB

aA = μg …(i) aB = …(ii)
Retardation of A = µg

Acceleration of B =

aB/A =

30)

6J

31) Question Explanation :

A 1 kg block slides down a 10 m inclined plane at 30°. We need to calculate the work done by
gravity as it moves from the topmost point to the lower end.

Concept-Based (Work Done by Gravity on an Inclined Plane)

 Formula Used :

Calculation :
Given

A. m = 1 kg,
B. g = 10 m/s2,
C. θ = 30∘,
D. d = 10 m.

Correct answer : (1)

32)

42 J and 30 J respectively

33)

work = Area under the curve for displacement 1m

34)

64 J

35) No displacement is there.

36) W = Mgh = 10 × 9.8 × 10 = 980 J

37)

38)

–10 J

39)
=

40)

Work (Area) = ΔK.E

80 =
V = 40 m/s

41)

Now work done by the force

42) W = = =k

W= [64 – 0] =

43)
40 + T1 = 60
T1 = 20

44)
pseudo force = ma
 = 10 × 2 = 20 N
20 = Kx

x = 2 cm

45)

10 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

46)

XeF2, IF2– 2σ + 3ℓp linear

⇒ 5 sp3d

47)

Polarising power of cation ∝ Z+

∝
+ +2 +3
∴ order is Na < Mg < Al < Si+4

48)

49) Central atom of

ClF3 have 10e–
PCl5 have 10e–
IF7 have 10e–
After bond formation

50)

(Conductivity order)
Solid state < Fused state < Aqueous solution
 51) The larger the cation in molten state the smaller it becomes in aqueous solution.

Conductivity ∝

52)

XeF2

53)

'T' shape, See-Saw

54) Question Explanation :

Find hybridization where bond angle is exactly 109º28'.

Concept :
This question is based on hybridization.

Solution :
sp3 hybridization gives tetrahedral geometry with ideal bond angle 109º28' as in CH4.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

55)

Trigonal bipyramidal

56)

Explanation - The question asks to arrange the given hydrogen bonds (O-H, F-H, Cl-H, N-H)
in the correct order of their bond strength.

Concept - (Bond Strength Order)

A. F-H----F (b) has the strongest H-bond due to fluorine's high electronegativity.
B. O-H----O (a) is strong, but less than F-H----F.
C. N-H----N (d) is weaker than O-H----O.
D. Cl-H----Cl (c) has the weakest H-bond due to chlorine's lower electronegativity.

Final Answer - Option (3)

57) When all side atoms are same then

(B.L.)axial > (B.L.)equitorial
58)

59)

Electron deficient molecule is BeCl2

60) Explain Question : Find molecule that does not exist.

Concept : lewis octet rule.
Solution : Oxygen cannot expand its octet as it lacks vacant d-orbitals therefore OF4 does not
exist.
Final Answer : Option (3)

61)

Explanation : The question asks which set of ions/molecules has the same number of
electrons, meaning they are isoelectronic species.

Concept : (isoelectric Species)

Ca²⁺, Ar, K⁺, and Cl⁻ all have 18 electrons, making them isoelectronic.

Final Answer - Option (4)

62) Question Explanation: stability of N2, N2+, N2–

Concept :
Bond Order (B.O.) = (Bonding electrons – Antibonding electrons) / 2 Bonding Mo electron has
more stability than electron in ABMo

Solution :
Bond orders:
• N2 = 3
• N2+ = 2.5
• N2– = 2.5
Thus, stability order: N2 > N2+ > N2–

Final Answer : option (4)

63)

Correct relation :-

Stability ∝ bond order ∝ bond enthalpy ∝

 64)

Question Explanaion:
The factor that raises the boiling point of a compound.

Concept:
This question is based on Boiling point is related to the strength of intermolecular forces.
Stronger intermolecular forces require more energy to overcome, resulting in a higher boiling
point.

Solution:

Intermolecular hydrogen bonding: Hydrogen bonding is a strong type of intermolecular force. It

requires significant energy to break these bonds, thus raising the boiling point.

Therefore, intermolecular hydrogen bonding raises the boiling point of a compound.

Hence.
Correct Option: 1

65) Question Explanation: In this question we have check dipole moment.

Concept:
This question is based on Dipole moment ⊺ shape

Solution:
F — Be — F linear, Non ℓ.p., μ = 0

bent , ℓ.p. , μ ≠ 0

Hence,
Correct Option (2)

66) Question is Asking About: In this question we have to check given compounds are polar
/ non polar.
Concept:
This question is based on μ = 0

Solution:
 → regular, μ = 0, Non polar.

Hence,
Correct Option (2)

67) Explain Question :

In the question we have to check dipole moment.

Concept : This question is based on Dipole moment.

Solution :

Final Answer : option (1)

68) Concept: Fajan's rules

Solution: Polarizability increases with ion size and number of electrons. Down the halogen
group, size increases (F⁻ < Cl⁻ < Br⁻ < I⁻), making the electron cloud easier to distort. Thus,
the decreasing order of polarizability is I⁻ > Br⁻ > Cl⁻ > F⁻.

69)

70)

Question Explanation :
No. of & bond is asked

Concept :
This question is based on (σ bond and π bond) By structure

Solution :

10 σ, 3 π
Final Answer :
Option (1)

71)

π-bond forms by collateral overlapping i.e p-p collateral

Hybridised orbital form σ-bond
s-s overlapping form σ-bond
Head on overlapping of p-p orbitals forms σ-bond.

72)

73) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about in which shapes of molecules.

Concept:
VSEPR theory

Answer Explanation:

Molecules Shape Structure

(1) PCl3 (iii) Trigonal Pyramidal

(2) IF3 (iv) T-Shape

(3) PF5 (ii) Trigonal Bipyramidal

(4) BrF5 (i) Square Pyramidal

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2).

74) NCERT-XI, Part-I, Chemical bonding

75) 50% – s – character.

76)

4 can accomodate duplet only

77)

Intermolecular H-bonding will present ortho position.

78)

o-nitrophenol is having intramolecular H-bonding and p-nitrophenol is having intermolecular

H-bonding. Thus, ortho-nitrophenol is more volatile.

79)

80)

A Question: What is the number of unpaired electrons in an inert gas?

B Given Data:

A. Inert gases are also known as noble gases.

C Concept:

A. Inert gases have a completely filled outermost electron shell, giving them a stable
electronic configuration.

B. This stable configuration means all their electrons are paired.

D Mathematical Calculation (Not Applicable): No calculations are needed for this concept-
based question.
E Final Answer: The number of unpaired electrons in an inert gas is zero.

81) Explanation -
The question asks: Which of the listed diatomic molecules is unstable and does not form a
chemical bond, based on molecular orbital theory?

Concept - (Diatomic molecule, v/s chemical bond by molecular orbital theory)

He2 doesn't exist because its bond order is zero, due to filled bonding and antibonding orbitals.

Final Answer - Option (1)

82) Explanation→ We have to find correct statement.

0
Concept:- (1) Cl → 3s2 3p5 4d
Ground state→ covalency = 1
1st excited state→ covalency = 3
st
2 excited state→ covalency = 5
3st excited state→ covalency = 7
(2) N → 2s2 2p3

N+ → maximum covalency = 4
Hint: 2 period element. Therefore only 4 orbitals available
nd

0
(3) S → 3s2 3p4 3d
Ground state →

1st excited state

o→ 2s2 2p4
Hint:- 2nd Period element, Therefore can form only 2 bonds Hence, OF4 doesn't exist.

83)

Question Asking About:

Due to low EN of C H-bond cannot exist in CH4 molecule.

Key Concept:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

84)
 Explanation -
To determine which pair of species has the same bond order.
Concept - (Bond Order)
CN−:

A. Total electrons = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14
B. Molecular orbital configuration: (σ1s​)2(σ*1s)2(σ2s​)2(σ*2s​)2(π2p​)4(σ2p​)2
C. Bond order = (10 – 4) / 2 = 3

NO+:

A. Total electrons = 7 + 8 – 1 = 14
B. Molecular orbital configuration: (σ1s​)2(σ*1s)2(σ2s​)2(σ*2s​)2(π2p​)4(σ2p​)2
C. Bond order = (10 – 4) / 2 = 3

Bond orders are the same.

Final Answer - Option (1)

85) Explaining the Question :- Identify compound formed by complete electron transfer
between atoms
Concept:- This question is based on Ionic bond
Solution :- NaCl and MgO are formed by transfer of electrons from metal to non-metal,
creating positive and negative ions held by electrostatic forces.
Final Answer :- Option 4

86) Question Explanation:

SP2–C τ no. of π bond is as red.

Concept:
This question is based on Structure

Solution:

7 sp2–C(Dotted & Star marked) 6p-bonds

Correct Option: 3

87)

Electronegativity % s-character of hybrid orbital.

88) Question Explanation : Question is asking about correct matching of molecule regarding
geometry and polarity.
Concept : VSEPR Theory, dipole moment.
Solution :
 ClF3 → Polar and planer.
PCl5 → Non-polar and non planar
BF3 → Non-polar and planar
SF6 → Octahedral geometry is non-planar. Due to the symmetrical arrangement of the atoms,
the molecule is non-polar.

Final Answer: Option (4)

89)

Bond order ∝

90)

Explain Question: Find species having maximum atoms present in the same plane.
Concept: This question is based on Hybridisation
Solution: XeF4 is square planar with 1 Xe atom and four F atoms in one plane; maximum five
atoms are coplanar as compared to others.

Final Answer: option (4)

BIOLOGY

91)

Assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

92) NCERT Pg. # 67, 68, 70

93)

Heterosporous habit
94) NCERT Pg.# 65

95)

II and III

96)

None of the above

97)

Gymnosperms may be homosporous

98) NCERT Pg # 71

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

100)

Three

101) NCERT Pg # 73

102) NCERT-XI Pg. # 38

103)

Roots may give rise to leaves

104) NCERT, Pg. # 75, 79, 81

105) NCERT XIth Pg # 66

106) NCERT Pg. # 30, 32

107) NCERT Pg. # 66

108) Question Explanation :

The question asks for a plant whose roots exhibit negative geotropism, meaning they grow
upward, away from the force of gravity.
Concept :
This question is based on The root.

Solution :
In some plants like Rhizophora, roots grow upwards (against gravity) to get oxygen – these are
called pneumatophores and show negative geotropism"

Final Answer :
Option (3)

109)

Multicellular female gametophyte

110) NCERT Pg # 68

111)

Ncert Pg No: 39, 2021-22

112) NCERT-XI # Chapter - 5 ; Page No. 68 & 69

113)

Vascular, embryophyte

114)

A and R both are correct and R is explanation of A.

115) NCERT Pg # 72

116) NCERT XI # 59

117) NCERT Pg # 69

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 62

119)

Flowers are borne in basipetal order

120)

Monadelphous - Pea

121)

Calyx and corolla both are distinct and are termed as perianth

122) NCERT Pg # 68

123)

Male strobili

124) NCERT Pg # 69-70

125)

NCERT Pg # 67

126)

NCERT Pg#71

127) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.38

128)

Three

129) Flowers are borne on successive nodes on the stems.

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 63, 64

131)

Spore mother cell

132)

NCERT Page No. # 37

133)

Prothallus

134)

Pteris and Adiantum

135)

Both (1) and (2)

136) While both living tissue and the earth's crust contain the same elements, living organisms
have a higher relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen compared to other elements, which
is not the case with the earth's crust.

137)

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

138)

Cholesterol

139)

Only inorganic compounds/elements

140) NCERT-154

141)

Explaining the Question: Correct statements

Concept: Lipids, proteins

Solution: (A) RuBisCo is most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere

(B) Bomacromoleucles have a hierarchy of structures, secondary tertiary and quaternary

(C) Lecithin containa phosphorylated nitrogenous compound.

Final Answer: Option_2

142)

Solution/Explanation:
In β-Glucose, the hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to the anomeric carbon (carbon 1) is
positioned upward when the glucose ring forms. This is characteristic of the β-anomeric form
of glucose.

The structure you described corresponds to β-Glucose (Option 2).

143) Concept:
The interaction between starch and iodine is a classic chemical test for the presence of starch.
This interaction is based on the specific three-dimensional structure of one of the components
of starch.

Explanation:
Statement-I: Starch indeed gives a characteristic blue-black color when iodine solution is
added. This is a well-known and widely used test for starch. Therefore, Statement-I is true.
Statement-II: Starch is composed of two main polysaccharides: amylose and amylopectin.
Amylose is a linear polymer of glucose units linked by α(1→4) glycosidic bonds, and it tends to
coil into a helical structure. This helical structure has a hydrophobic interior of a suitable size
to accommodate iodine molecules (I2). The interaction of iodine molecules within this helix
results in the intense blue-black color. Amylopectin is a branched polymer and does not form
such a regular helix, contributing a reddish-brown color with iodine. Therefore, Statement-II is
also true.

Final Answer: 3

144) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Proteins are made from different amino acids so they are heteropolymers. Proteins
are formed by linking 20 different amino acids in various sequences and lengths.
Answer :- 1

145)

Explaining the Question :-

Correct statements
Concept:- Protein
Solution :-
(C) Secondary Metabolites → Used as drug → for curing human disease.
(D) First amino acid in proteins in N-terminal amino acid.
Correct statement C and D.
Final Answer :- Option (3)

146)

Glycerol

147)

Question Explanation: Identifying axes on an enzyme kinetics graph.

Concept: Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
Solution: The y-axis, 'a', represents the velocity of the reaction (V), which is how fast the
enzyme is converting the substrate. The x-axis, 'b', represents the concentration of the
substrate [S]. The graph shows how the reaction velocity changes as the substrate
concentration increases, eventually reaching a maximum velocity (Vmax​).
Final Answer: a - velocity of reaction, b - concentration of substrate

148) NCERT XI Pg # 158

149)

Explanation:
Identification sugar

Concept:
This question is based on Monosaccaride

Solution:
Ribose → 5C

Hence,
Correct option: (3) Ribose

150)

Solution:
Sucrose → Non-reducing sugar (does NOT have a free anomeric carbon, as glucose and
fructose are linked via their anomeric carbons in an α(1→2)β linkage).

Answer : (2)

151) Question Explanation:

Identification of A; B

Concept:
This question is based on Glycogen - polysaccharide

Solution:
A → ∝ – 1, 4 - Glycosidic bond - chain
B → ∝ – 1, 6 - Glycosidic bond - Branch

Hence,
Correct option: (4) A = -glycosidic bonds,
B= -glycosidic bonds

152) Question Explanation:

Zwitter ion
Concept:
This question is based on Amino acid

Solution:

Hence,
Correct option: (2)

153) Allen module, fact based.

154) Ncert Page 109.

155) Concept
Primary (1) structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
Higher-order structures (2", 3", 4") involve folding and interactions but not the basic
sequence.
Explanation
Only the 1 structure shows the specific order/position of amino acids in a protein.
Final Answer
Option 2-1" structure

156)

157)

DNA and RNA differ in two major aspects:

1 Sugar Difference

A. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) contains deoxyribose (lacks an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

B. RNA (Ribonucleic acid) contains ribose (has an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

2 Nitrogen Base Difference

A. DNA contains Thymine (T).

B. RNA contains Uracil (U) instead of thymine.

 Final Answer : Option (4) All of the above

158)

Correct Answer is option (1).

Explanation:
1. Cellulose → Polysaccharide (Made of β-D-glucose; found in plant cell walls)
2. Starch → Polysaccharide (Made of α-D-glucose; energy storage in plants)
3. Glycogen → Polysaccharide (Made of a-D-glucose; energy storage in animals)
4. Chitin → Polysaccharide (Made of N-acetyl-D-gkycisanube; found in fungi & exoskeletons)
5. Inulin → Polysaccharide (Made of fructose; a storage carbohydrate in plants)

159)

Adenine + Sugar → Adenosine

Here, adenine (a nitrogenous base) combines with a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose) to
form a nucleoside (Adenosine).
So, X = sugar molecule
Adenosine + Phosphate → Adenylic acid (AMP - Adenosine Monophosphate)
When a phosphate group is added to adenosine, it forms a nucleotide called adenylic acid
(AMP)
So, Y = phosphate group
Thus, X = sugar molecule & Y = Phosphate group,

160)

Fructose

161)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking about the two groups involved in peptide bond formation between
successive amino acids.

Concept :
This question is based on Protein.

Solution :
(1) is the amino group (–NH2) and (3) is the carboxyl group (–COOH) where group (–COOH)
and group (–NH2) are involved in peptide bond formation.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

162)
Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about the categories of the inorganic
compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc. after grinding of a living tissue in trichloroacetic
acid
Concept:- Analysis of chemical composition
Solution :- When a living tissue is ground in trichloroacetic acid, Inorganic compounds like
sulphate, phosphate, sodium, potassium, etc., are small, water-soluble molecules dissolve and
are found in the acid soluble fraction. Final Answer :- Option_2

163)

C5H10O4

164) Question Explanation

The question is asking about storage of carbohydrates in mammals.

Concept
The concept based on Polysaccharide.

Solution
Carbohydrates are stored in mammals primarily as glycogen in Liver and Muscles.

Final Answer (4)

165)

Allen module.

166) NCERT Pg # 144

Unsaturated fatty acid are more reactive as compared to saturated fatty acid because in
unsaturated fatty acid double bond is present between carbons while in saturated fatty acid
single bond is present between carbon. So reason is incorrect.

167) NCERT Page no. 145

168)

Concept:

A. Collagen: Most abundant protein in animals (connective tissues).

B. RuBisCo: Most abundant protein in the biosphere (enzyme in plants for photosynthesis).

Explanation:
 A. In animals, collagen provides structure and support.

B. In the entire biosphere, RuBisCo is extremely abundant due to its role in carbon fixation.

169)

10 million times

170)

Question Explanation : Correct Match - Molecules

Concept : This question is based on Chemical tissue analysis

Solution :
→ Protein → Acid insoluble fraction → Biomacromolecule
→ Nucleic Acid → Acid insoluble fraction → Biomacromolecule

Final Answer : option (2) i and ii

171)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about sugar with five membered ring

Concept
The concept based on Carbohydrate

Solution
Furanose refers to a sugar molecule with a five-membered ring (four carbon atoms + one
oxygen atom).

Final Answer (2)

172)

6, 4-13, four

173)
Explanation:

A. Proteins are polymers of amino acids, linked together by peptide bonds.

B. A peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid and
the amino group (-NH₂) of another amino acid through a condensation reaction.
 Final Answer : Option (2) Amino acids

174)

Explaining the Question :-

X and Y-identification
Concept:-
Tissue chemical analysis
Solution :-
X → Acid Insoluble → Molecular weight 800 dalton and more.
– Polymers are abundant.
Y → Monomers are present → Acid soluble fraction
→ Molecular weight 18-800 datons → Acid soluble fraction
→ Amino acid, Nucleotides, Monosaccharide's → Acid soluble fraction
Final Answer :- Option (1)

175)

Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

176)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which element is the second most common by
amount in the human body from the given options.

Underlying Concept: The human body is primarily composed of a few key elements. Oxygen
is the most abundant due to its presence in water and organic molecules. Carbon is the next
most abundant element because it forms the backbone of all organic molecules essential for
life.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the acronym CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen)
which represents the four most abundant elements in living organisms, with Carbon usually
after Oxygen in abundance.

Common Mistakes: Confusing hydrogen as the second most abundant, because it is common
in water, but it's actually less abundant than carbon in the human body by mass.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Oxygen is the most abundant, so it cannot be second.
Hydrogen is abundant but less than carbon when considering mass. Nitrogen is significant but
less abundant than carbon.

177)

All of the above

178)

Ribozyme

179) Allen module

180)

NCERT XII. Pg. No 105