AIRBUS A320

PRACTICAL TEST - ORAL INCREMENT

STUDY GUIDE

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 INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK

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 Introduction
The Practical Test-Oral Increment Study Guide is intended to introduce the student to the type and
variety of questions that can be expected during the oral increment portion of the A320 type rating
practical test. This study guide is not intended to be a single-source document to prepare you for the
oral increment portion of the practical test. The Limitations Study Guide, Memory Items Study Guide,
and the Limitations and Protection Laws Study Guide are other resources that should be reviewed.

While the oral increment can be administered by the examiner in any order this guide will proceed
through the panel in a sequential order that follows the preflight flow.

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 CALLS Panel

How should a pilot call a mechanic outside the aircraft?

• Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR
PANEL and an external horn sounds.

How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?

• Press the FWD button

What happens when a pilot presses the EMER push-button?

• Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
• EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
• High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers

What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?

• The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
• The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
• 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit
• System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system

OXYGEN Panel

What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean?

• A signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors

Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?

• Some masks may have to be deployed manually

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 What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
• Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet

Once deployed, how is Oxygen generated and for how long approximately?
• Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 13 to15 minutes

What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY push-button?

• Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the crew

RCDR Panel

Why is the GND CTL push-button selected to ON during preflight?

• To power the CVR which records preflight activities in the cockpit

If the GND CTL push-button was not selected ON, how would the system
work in automatic mode?
• The CVR is ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
• The CVR is also powered when at least one engine is operating, stops 5 min
after last engine shut down

What allows the cabin PA’s to be recorded?

• ACP 3 PA volume knob out and in the 3 o’clock position

GPWS Panel

What does pressing the SYS push-button do?

• All basic GPWS alerts (mode1 to 5) are inhibited

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS push-button indicate on the GPWS panel?
• Illuminates with an ECAM caution, with a failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5

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 What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS push-button have
on the TERRAIN mode?
• No effect at all

Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3

• To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3
• In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL

Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE push-button.
• To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
• FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off

What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
• No effect whatsoever

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
• AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are not powered, and the RAT is not supplying electrical power

When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?
• The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not
being supplied (approximately eight seconds) or Emergency Generator failure

How can the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) be deployed?

• Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR panel) or RAT MAN ON
(HYDRAULIC panel).
• Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2

What is the difference between automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT
deployment when the RAT MAN ON push-button is pressed on the HYD panel?
• RAT MAN ON located on the HYD panel, causes the RAT to extend but the RAT only
supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI, no electrical generation is provided

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 After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON push-button on the
HYD panel if it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power.
How can this be accomplished?
• By pressing the MAN ON push-button on the EMER ELEC PWR supplies
the Emergency Generator.

What does the RAT supply?

• Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator

What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?

• AC ESS and AC ESS Shed
• DC ESS and DC ESS shed

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

• Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of
avionics smoke?
• ECAM warning
• Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER push-buttons on
the VENTILATION panel

If an ECAM procedure directs a pilot to select the GEN 1 LINE push-button to OFF,
what will occur?
• Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
• AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor
• Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank

EVAC Panel

What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Cockpit Preparation Flow?
• CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position

What occurs when the COMMAND push-button is pressed?

• In the cockpit: EVAC light flashes red
• In the cabin: EVAC light flashes at FWD and AFT flight panels
• Evacuation tone sounds

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 Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
• Fly-By-Wire system

Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated

• Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

• Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
• Amber/Black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

• Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

• Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
• Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

• Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
• Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

When operating in NORMAL LAW in “flight” mode, what does the side stick
command for pitch and roll?
• Pitch – G load
• Bank – Roll rate

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
• The other pilot has gained side stick authority

Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each

• ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
• SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
• FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)

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 What are some of the Elevator Aileron Computer (ELAC) functions?
• Normal elevator
• Normal aileron
• Normal pitch and roll
• Alternate pitch
• Direct pitch and roll
• Abnormal attitude
• Aileron droop
• Autopilot orders

What are some of the Spoiler Elevator Computer (SEC) functions?

• Normal roll
• Speed brakes
• Alternate pitch
• Direct pitch
• Direct roll
• Abnormal attitude

What does SEC 3 control?

• Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

What are some of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) functions?

• Rudder Trim
• Rudder travel limit
• Yaw control
• Flight Envelope Protection – vertical
• Windshear Protection
• Low Energy Warning Protection
• Alpha Floor Protection
• PFD speed scale

What should happen to the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) after landing?
• Reset to zero

Describe some of the protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW

• High Speed
• High Angle-of-Attack (AOA Alpha Protection)
• Load Factor Limitation (+2.5G / -1.0G)
• Pitch Attitude (30° UP/15° DN)
• Bank Angle (67°)

Describe high-speed protection.

• High Speed protection is activated at or above VMO/MMO and induces a
pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed
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 What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
• It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW
• The aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW
(by turning 2 Air Data Reference’s (ADR’s) off, for example)

What is ALPHA MAX?

• The maximum angle-of-attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top
of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

How does high angle-of-attack Protection operate?

• When the angle-of-attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle-of-attack
is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft
side stick deflection

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?

• Load Factor Protection
• High-speed stability
• Low speed stability

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?

• None

If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?

• DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots
not engaged.

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?
• ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW

How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

• By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits

What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

• Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

With the Auto thrust engaged, what speed would the aircraft slow to if the flight crew
selected 100 knots on the speed knob?
• VLS

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 Describe what would happen if the flight crew slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle.
• The Auto Thrust would automatically disconnect.
• As airspeed decays, the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) adjusts the
pitch attitude to maintain altitude
• If the angle-of-attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT,
the pitch function of the side stick changes
o Stick movement commands a specific angle-of-attack instead of a G load change
• Since auto trimming is inoperative, the pilot must hold continuous back
pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT
• The side stick no longer provides a “G demand.”
o Instead, the pilot is requesting a specific angle-of-attack with the side stick

Continuing the preceding scenario, describe what would happen if the flight crew
continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?
• The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
• With the stick full aft the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a
maximum safe angle-of-attack (ALPHA MAX)
• This maximum angle-of-attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle-
of-attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.

At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically

applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?
• ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed
based on angle-of-attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of
thrust lever position.
• ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not
need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in
NORMAL LAW.

When a pilot rolls into a bank what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
• In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in
maintaining altitude (pitch inputs may still be needed to maintain altitude).
• If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft
would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
• Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim
is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick
pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to
maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.

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 ADIRS Panel

What is the ADIRS?

• Air Data and Inertial Reference System

What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?
• Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle-of-attack, Mach

What are some of the parameters the IR provides?

• Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular rates,
groundspeed and aircraft position

If there was an IR1/ADR1 FAULT, where would the ECAM direct the flight crew to place
the ATT/HDG knob on the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
• ATT/HDG to CAPT 3

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

• Switch from OFF to NAV
• ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
• White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment

What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?

• It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power

What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
• An external horn sounds
• An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in blue on the external power panel

What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

• Inertial Reference (IR) has failed and cannot be recovered

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 What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
• Navigation function is lost. Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
• PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast alignment
• Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
• Aircraft movement during alignment

Describe what would happen if an Air Data Reference (ADR) were to fail?
• The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack,
temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR
• The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3
or F/O 3 as appropriate
• At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal

What functions are lost when an IR fails? What would the ECAM instruct the pilots to do?
• The pilots would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude,
flightpath vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed,
and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information.
• The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or
F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot's side returns to normal.

EXT LTS Panel

If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position,
which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
• The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?

• AUTO

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 APU Panel

What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

• Automatic APU shutdown has occurred

What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?

• APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%.
In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.

What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?
• APU fire

SIGNS Panel

When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

• With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and normal AC power is lost.
• DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
• Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300 feet), NO SMOKING,
FASTEN SEATBELT and EXIT signs illuminated

Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

• It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

INT LTS Panel

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

• Captain’s instrument panel
• Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
• Standby compass

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 CABIN PRESS Panel

How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in
automatic, semi-automatic, and manual modes?
• Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
• Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
• Manual = by selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL switch

What does selecting the DITCHING push-button ON accomplish?

• Closes all valves below the waterline
o Closes the outflow valve
o Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet
o Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves
o Closes pack flow control valves
o Forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
o Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically (if installed)

How many controllers are in the pressurization system? Do they swap?

• Two, only one is used at a time
• They swap roles after each landing

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 ANTI ICE Panel

What is accomplished if the WING anti ice push-button is selected ON while

the aircraft is on the ground?
• The system will self-test for 30 seconds and then the valves will close until the
aircraft is airborne

What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
• Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
• Low pressure

What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
• Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic.

• Probes and window heat come on automatically (probes LOW on ground /
HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne
• TAT not heated on ground

What part of the wing is heated?

• Outboard 3 slats

In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
• Wing – valves CLOSE
• Engine – valves OPEN

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 AIR COND Panel

If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing
BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?
• HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic

If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
• All trim air valves close
• PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value
• PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT
CABIN temperature selector knobs

How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

• Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?

• Low air pressure
• Compressor outlet overheat
• Pack outlet overheat

What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
• Bleed overpressure
• Bleed overheat
• Wing or engine leak on the related side
• Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
• Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON

What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?

• SHUT = the valve is closed
• AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or
there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start)
• OPEN = the valve is open

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 What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
• APU bleed leak

What does selecting the RAM AIR push-button accomplish?

• Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI

What is the RAM AIR push-button used for?

• Smoke removal in cabin
• Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure

ELEC Panel

What is the minimum battery voltage?

• 25.6 V

What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?

• Select BAT push-buttons to AUTO and select the EXT Power On for 20 minutes

Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?
• Select ELEC on ECAM
• Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
• Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
• If it fails the test, call maintenance

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 Describe the electrical power system
• The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz
constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC system
• Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then
transformed into direct current for certain applications
• Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network
• If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power
• If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the
batteries into AC power

If all AC power is lost, what happens?

• DC power from the batteries is converted into AC

What would be an expected indication on the GEN push-buttons prior to engine

start?
• FAULT indication

Define and describe an IDG.

• Integrated Drive Generator consisting of a constant speed drive unit and a generator
• Takes variable engine RPM and gives a constant generator speed

How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?

• Lift the red guard and push the IDG push-button
o Pressing the IDG pb more than three seconds may damage
the disconnection mechanism

How would an IDG be reconnected?

• This cannot be done by the flight crew – it is a maintenance function

Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO

• Allows a single source of power to run entire electrical system
• Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to power the electrical system
• Inhibits multiple AC sources connected simultaneously

If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?

• The electrical system automatically replaces the failed generator with the
remaining generator or APU Gen if available

How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

• From AC bus 1

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 If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
• AC bus 2 automatically supplies the AC ESS bus

What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

• When the electrical load on any generator load is above 100% rated output

Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY push-button

• Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

• DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?

• AC essential bus
• DC essential bus by the essential TR

What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

• Battery charging current outside limits
• When this occurs, the BAT contactor opens

When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?

• APU start
• Battery charging
• AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots

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 FUEL Panel

Describe the layout of the fuel tanks

• Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
o The wing tanks are divided into inner tanks and outer tanks.

What is the total fuel capacity?

• 42,000 lbs. (FCOM denotes a value of 41,893 lbs.)

Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs.

indicated on the ECAM FOB?
• The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard

How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?
• There are seven total fuel pumps:
o Two center tank pumps
o Four wing tank pumps (two in each wing)
o One APU fuel pump
• The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low
(due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)

Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks).
• At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
• After both engines are started the center tank pumps turn on and continue to
run for 2 minutes.
• If slats are selected within those 2-minutes the center tank pumps will
continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop
• If the slats are extended at any other time the center pumps will shut off
• At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks
• When slats are retracted to zero the fuel is fed from the center tank
• When the center tank runs low the pumps continue to run for 5-minutes

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 What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS push-buttons indicate?
• Low delivery pressure

What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?

• Failure of the AUTO mode
• Center tank has more than 550 lbs. and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.

How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?

• REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is
entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open.
Describe Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) cooling and how it relates to the FADEC
• Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line
in that engine through the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) heat exchanger
(where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to the outer tank,
depending on the aircraft.
• This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when
at low engine power

What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center
tanks are feeding?
• The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs.

When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?
• When either inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.

Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
• Automatically at the next refueling operation

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 HYD Panel

What are the three HYD systems called?

• GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems

How is each system powered?

• GREEN – engine driven
• BLUE – electrically driven
• YELLOW – engine driven, electrically driven, or a hand pump

When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

• After the first engine is started

If the BLUE system lost pressure how would pressure be restored?

• The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE
system loss of pressure, so it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN
ON push-button

What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

• On the ground, coordinate with personnel, turn on the beacon, and YELLOW
ELEC pump pb ON.

With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?
• By using a hand pump

What causes the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) to operate in if selected in AUTO?
• Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems

When is the PTU inhibited?

• On the ground with master switches split and either the nose wheel steering
disconnected or the parking brake ON
• For 40-seconds after cargo door is operated

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 What are some users of the GREEN system?
• Landing gear
• ENG 1 thrust reverser
• Normal brakes
• Slats and flaps

What are some users of the BLUE system?

• Emergency generator
• Slats

What are some users of the YELLOW system?

• Flaps
• Alternate brakes
• Nose wheel steering
• ENG 2 thrust reverser

What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

• Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls

What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?

• Pump low pressure
• Over temp in reservoir
• Low air pressure in reservoir
• Reservoir level is low

If the FAULT light illuminated in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the
specific reason for the FAULT?
• ECAM will display the reason

FIRE Panel

Where are the engine fire loops installed?

• Pylon nacelle
• Engine core
• Fan section

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 What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?
• FIRE warning will be issued if breaks in both loops occur within 5-seconds of each other

What does an amber DISCH light mean?

• Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

• Two

What happens when the ENG FIRE push-button is pushed?

• Silences the aural fire warning
• Arms the squibs
• Closes the hydraulic fire valve
• Closes the LP fuel valve
• Closes the engine fuel return valve after the IDG
• Deactivates the generator
• Closes the pack flow control
• Closes the engine bleed valves
• Deactivates FADEC

What happens when the ENG FIRE TEST button is pressed?

• Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) sounds
• MASTER WARNING lights flash
• ENG FIRE push-button illuminates red
• SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
• ECAM fire warning
• FIRE light on ENG panel

What would occur if the APU is running, and an APU fire is detected on the ground?
In flight?
• On the ground, APU EMER shut down and bottle discharges automatically
• In the air there are no automatic functions

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 ENG Panel

What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the
ground or an Auto Start in the Air?
• The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong

What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
• The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide
appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
• Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available

With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START push-
button is pressed?
• The start valve opens
• Both pack flow control valves close

At what point, if any will the start valve automatically close?

• At 43% N2 the start valve automatically closes

When would it be appropriate to do a manual start?

• After aborting an engine start due to:
o Hung Start
o EGT overlimit
o Low Air Pressure

• If expecting a start abort due to any of the following:

o Degraded bleed due to hot conditions, or at High altitude airports
o Reduced EGT margins in hot conditions or at High altitude airports.
o Low Air Pressure from External Pneumatic Power

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 26 of 60

 VENTILATION Panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?
• Low blower pressure
• Duct overheat
• Computer power supply failure
• Smoke warning activated

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?
• Low extract pressure
• Computer power supply failure
• Smoke warning activated

What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?
• BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both
engines stopped

CARGO SMOKE Panel

Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke
bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
• The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due
to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?
• Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the
discharge can only be directed to one compartment.

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 27 of 60

 AUDIO MGMT Panel

When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

• Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in
case of individual ACP failure

MAINTENANCE Panel
Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?
• Only if an MEL directs or other procedure

Overhead Circuit Breaker Panel

What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?

• Green – monitored by ECAM
• Black – not monitored by ECAM

MCDU/FMGS
What are the main components of the Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS)?
• 2 FMGCs
• 2 MCDUs
• 1 FCU
• 2 FACs

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 28 of 60

 What are the functions of the Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGC’s)?
• Flight guidance
• Flight management

What are the three modes of FMGC operation?

• Independent
• Single
• Dual

What are the two modes of flight guidance?

• Managed guidance
• Selected guidance

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

• Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS

What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

• Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

• Selected guidance

How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?
• On the A/C STATUS page

What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?
• A hybrid IRS/GPS position

What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

• Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

• If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
• If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
• If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 29 of 60

 Glareshield

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

• Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
• Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
• Both autopilots fail

What is an appropriate response to an AUTOLAND warning light illuminating

below 200 feet RA?
• Immediate go-around

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.
• Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time
• Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the
speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash
o Side stick inputs are algebraically summed

ECAM Control Panel

Should the ECAM control panel fail, what functions are available as hard-wired buttons?
• CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC and ALL

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 30 of 60

 What does the EMER CANC accomplish?
• Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)
• Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
• Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the
TITLE of the failure
• Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than 3-seconds

What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC push-button?

• Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

Engines / Thrust Levers

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

• FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

What functions does the FADEC control?

• Fuel metering
• Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
• Start sequencing
• Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD

What redundancy does the FADEC have?

• Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby

What is the power source for the FADEC?

• The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft
electrical system when N2 is above10%
• If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 31 of 60

 When will the FADEC abort an automatic start?
• Hot start
• Stalled start
• No ignition

The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?
• There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the
start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted)
automatically.

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

• Bleed demands
• Approach configuration
• High engine or IDG temperatures

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?
• One igniter with the other serving as a backup
• The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

• Two, both A and B

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

• Engine anti ice ON
• Approach idle
• Engine flameout detection
• TOGA/FLEX power selected
• Failure of the EIU
• In-flight unscheduled sub idle or surge
• Master switch cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position

What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?

• TOGA – Take Off/Go Around
• FLX / MCT – Flex/ Maximum Continuous Thrust
• CL – Climb
• IDLE – Idle
• MAX REV – Maximum Reverse Thrust

On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

• By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX
temperature inserted in the MCDU)
• At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 32 of 60

 What is the active range of the A/THR?
• Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
• Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)

What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is active?
• The CL detent

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
• The thrust lever angle

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

• A/THR push-button
• Instinctive disconnect push-buttons
• Thrust levers to IDLE

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?
• Press and hold the instinctive disconnect push-button for 15 seconds. The A/THR
cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?
• Thrust – TOGA
• FMA – A. FLOOR

When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?
• Upon reaching a lower angle-of-attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

Following ALPHA FLOOR, how would the crew return normal A/THR function?
• Press the instinctive disconnect push-button
• Return thrust levers to CL detent
• Push the A/THR push-button to engage A/THR

When is ALPHA FLOOR protection active?

• From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach

When would Thrust Lock occur?

• Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR push-button on the FCU is pushed, or
• A/THR disconnects due to a failure

How is A/THR normally armed?

• By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 33 of 60

 TRANSPONDER Panel

How many transponders are installed?

• Two
What does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate?
• Only the selected transponder has failed.

Flaps / Slats

When selecting the flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or higher,
what setting will the flaps and slats go to?
• CONF 1 + F
• This configuration has a maximum speed of 215 knots, with automatic
retraction of flaps occurring at 210 knots.

What is the normal flap setting for a go-around?

• Retract one step

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 34 of 60

 How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure is available?
• The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

• Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

What causes the WTBs to activate?

• Runaway
• Over speed (flaps)
• Asymmetry
• Movement (un-commanded)

If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?
• The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited

How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?

• Two

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

• The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever

and how do they differ?
• CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
• CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

• During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract
to 0 at 210 knots

What is ALPHA LOCK?

• This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle-of-attack
and low airspeed

When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the E/WD, what is indicated?
• Flaps/slats in transit

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

• The ailerons droop

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 35 of 60

 Speed Brakes / Spoilers

When is speed brake extension inhibited?

• SEC 1 and 3 failed
• Angle of Attack protection is active
• Flaps in CONF FULL (A319/A320)
• Thrust levers above the MCT position
• ALPHA FLOOR is active
• L or R elevator failed

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff

• If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground
spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle
• If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected
on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle)
o Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground
spoiler deployment

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing

• Full extension:
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
o Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at
least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
o Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground
- Reverse selected on at least one engine
(and the other thrust lever below MCT position)

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 36 of 60

 • Partial extension:
In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping
(PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection
when the following conditions are met:
o Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position
o Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground
- Reverse selected on at least one engine
(and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate
thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when
the following conditions are met:
o Ground spoilers armed
o Both main landing gears on ground
o Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position

• Retraction:
The ground spoilers retract:
o After landing with Thrust Reversers at idle and speed brake lever down
o After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed
o During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
• Thrust levers at IDLE and speed brake lever is down
• When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected, or electrical power is lost?

• The spoilers automatically retract

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 37 of 60

 RADAR Panel

What capabilities does the RADAR system have?

• Weather avoidance
• Turbulence detection
• Terrain mapping
• Predictive windshear detection

What would prevent the weather display on the ND?

• Mode selector in PLAN
• TERR selected ON

When is WX/TURB mode available?

• At ranges of 40 nm or less

How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?
• If the PWS switch is in AUTO, windshear detection is still available, even
though the RADAR system is off

What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?

• Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL

When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?

• When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL
• When landing below 50 feet AGL

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 38 of 60

 Radio Management Panel (RMP)

How are the communications radios controlled?

• From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

• RMP 1

Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

• VHF COM 1, HF 1

Audio Control Panel (ACP)

With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position, and the side stick
transmit switch keyed, what radio will the crewmember transmit on?
• The radio selected by the transmission key on the ACP

What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

• The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
• Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask mic (louder)

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 39 of 60

 Parking Brake

What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?
• All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated

When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?

• With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP

Aft Pedestal

When hand flying the aircraft how can the pilot trim the rudder?
• Using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch

What happens if the rudder trim is actuated with the autopilot engaged?
• Nothing

What is the RESET button used for?

• To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged

What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination
functions?
• Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.

What three things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?
• GREEN hydraulic pressure is removed
• Gear doors are opened
• Uplocks are unlocked

How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?

• Three

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 40 of 60

 Nose Wheel Steering

What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

• YELLOW

The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction?
• +/- 75° from center

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
• Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to 0° at 130 knots

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?
• Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder
pedals until released

What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switches were selected to OFF?
• Nose wheel steering is lost
• Anti-skid is deactivated
• YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes

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 Performance and Limitations
[Performance, Weight & Balance, and Flight Planning]

NOTE: Refer to the performance, weight and balance, and flight planning handout(s) that
were completed during ground school

What would be the impact of CG by removing First Class Passengers?

• The CG would move AFT

How would you calculate this?

• By adjusting the ARM (adjusting the ARM aft in this example) which in turn will change the moment

What is the definition of MAC?

• The average chord length of the wing (Mean Aerodynamic Chord)

What is the forward CG limit for takeoff and landing?

• CG % MAC

What is the maximum weight allowable for takeoff given the conditions specified
in the performance problem handout?
• MTOW

What is the N1 for the conditions given in the handout for takeoff?
• N1

What are the V speeds for takeoff?

• V1
• VR
• V2

How often must a multi-engine airplane used in Part 135 operations be weighed?
• Within the preceding 36 calendar months

What is the fuel density lbs. per gallon for type JET-A?
• 6.55 lbs./gal.

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 43 of 60

 What is Maximum Zero Fuel Weight?
• Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft w/ passengers and cargo excluding fuel

What formula is used to calculate MOMENT?

• Weight X Arm =

Moment is a force that causes the nose of the aircraft to pitch up and pitch down.
What would be the result of a Negative Moment ?
• Negative moments cause the nose of the aircraft to pitch down

What is the purpose of ODPs?

• Obstacle Departure Procedures are designed to assist pilots in avoiding
obstacles in the climb after takeoff until reaching the MEA.

14 CFR 121.189 states that the takeoff weight of a turbine powered airplane must
allow the aircraft to clear obstacles by what vertical or horizontal distance?
• Must clear all obstacles by a vertical height of 35’ or by at least 200 feet horizontally.

When calculating Maximum Takeoff Thrust, what effect does an increase in

pressure altitude do to the N1 value?
• The higher the pressure altitude for a given temperature, the higher the N1 must be.

The maximum thrust certified for takeoff is limited to how many minutes for two
engines vs 1 engine following an engine failure on takeoff?
• 5 minutes for 2 engine operations and 10 minutes for single engine operations.

What effect does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a
turbine engine?
• Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density

What is the definition of V2 speed?

• Takeoff safety speed

What is the maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff
and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance?
• V1

How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?

• An abrupt change in relative wind, resulting in an abrupt increase in the angle-of-attack

What items are included in the OPERATIONAL EMPTY WEIGHT of an aircraft?

• Manufacturers empty weight plus the operator’s items such as the flight and cabin
crew and their baggage, unusable fuel, engine oil, emergency equipment, toilet
chemicals and fluids, galley structure, catering equipment, seats, documents etc.

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 44 of 60

 When determining Actual Landing Distance, what are some factors that go into the
measured stopping distance?
• The approach speed is VLS (1.23 VS) for manual landing
• The pilot applies maximum braking, and the antiskid system is operating
• Ground spoilers are operating
• Reverse thrust is NOT considered.

When the A/THR is used, a 5 KT increment is added to VLS when calculating VAPP.
In strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 KTS, how much increment can be
added to VLS?
• Minimum 5 KTS up to a Maximum of 15 KTS.

The Actual Landing Distance is the measured distance between what two points?
• At a point 50 ft. above the runway threshold and the point at which
the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

If the runway surface is wet, what is the percentage of increase that must be
added to the dry runway required landing distance?
• 115%

Upon receiving the ATIS, the crew notices the QNH is 30.45”
What effect does a higher than standard QNH have on pressure altitude?
• The effect would be a lower pressure altitude.

After boarding is complete, the ground crew advises additional cargo was added to the
aft cargo compartment causing the CG to move further aft. How does aft CG affect the
aircraft performance related to stability, fuel efficiency, stall speed, and stall recovery?
• Less stable
• More fuel efficient
• Lower stall speed
• Poor stall and recovery characteristics decreasing the ability of the aircraft to right
itself after certain maneuvers and/or turbulence

What are some factors that increase actual landing distance?

• Runway contamination
• Airport Elevation
• Tailwind
• Forward CG

How would an increase in ISA temperature affect the cruise altitude of the aircraft?
• A substantial increase in ISA will reduce the OPT and MAX Altitude of the
aircraft, which on long flights could increase fuel burn. This increase may
result in the need for additional fuel.

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 45 of 60

 APPLICANTS FOR THE INITIAL ISSUANCE OF THE ATP

REGULATIONS

What is the required reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight?
• Enough fuel to fly to planned destination
• Enough fuel to fly to the most distant alternate airport
• Thereafter, fly 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption

What is meant by “Sterile Cockpit”?

• Crewmembers must refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight

When do Sterile Cockpit procedures apply?

• Critical phases of flight are all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and
landing, and all other operations below 10,000 feet except cruise flight

When may a Pilot-in-Command exercise emergency authority to exclude any

and all persons from the flight deck?
• In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command
may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that
emergency. Therefore, Yes in the interest in safety.

What must pilots and/or flight crew involved in a near midair collision do?
• Report each incident immediately by radio or telephone to the nearest
FAA ATC facility or FSS

How often must a Pilot-in-Command complete a Proficiency Check or simulator training?

• 6 calendar months

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 46 of 60

 EQUIPMENT, NAVIGATION AND FACILITIES
What must a pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS
II Resolution Advisory do?
• Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable

What is the “Rule of Thumb” that may be used to approximate the rate of
descent required for a 3 degree glide path?
• 5 times groundspeed in knots

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during
a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?
• When the red terminating bars or the red side row bars of the approach light
system are distinctly visible and identifiable

May a pilot who has accepted a Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
clearance perform a rejected landing should it become necessary?
• Yes - the acceptance of a LASHO clearance does NOT preclude a rejected landing

AERODYNAMICS
By changing the angle of attack of a wing what is the pilot controlling?
• Lift, airspeed, and drag

What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
• Critical Mach number

What happens if the boundary layer separates?

• The wing is about to stall and stop producing lift

What is the purpose of leading edge flaps?

• Increase the camber of the wing

With respect to aerodynamic stall what is the primary disadvantage of sweptwing design?
• The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 47 of 60

 FLIGHT OPERATIONS
When calling the tower for takeoff clearance, when should pilots state their
position on the airport?
• When departing from a runway intersection

What is the maximum authorized airspeed when flying in the airspace underlying
Class B airspace?
• 200 knots

How often are NOTAMS broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?

• Hourly- they are appended to the weather broadcast

When is an alternate airport required for departure (Takeoff Alternate)?

• If the weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport

For an aircraft with 2 engines what is the maximum distance that a Takeoff
Alternate airport can be from the departure airport?
• Not more than 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still
air with one engine inoperative

When cleared for an ILS approach, what altitude is the pilot authorized to fly?
• The pilot must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published
route or segment of the approach with published altitudes

EMERGENCIES, HAZARDS, AND FLIGHT PHYSIOLOGY

When changing transponder codes, what 3 codes should be avoided?
• 7500, 7600, 7700

It is the responsibility of the pilot to report a near-midair collision. What defines a

near midair collision?
• Proximity of 500 feet or less to another aircraft

What happens to wingtip vortices created by large aircraft?

• They tend to sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence

When visually observing traffic, which target(s) would pose a collision threat?
• One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is
increasing in size

Low partial pressure of oxygen causes what medical condition?

• Hypoxia

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 48 of 60

 METEOROLOGY

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

• Continuous updraft

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?

• Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity

A squall (SQ) means there has been a sudden increase in speed of at least how
many knots?
• At least 15 knots to a speed of 20 knots or more

With respect to a squall, the increase in wind speed needs to have lasted how long?
• At least one minute

In comparison to an approach with a moderate headwind, how would the pitch

indication be different when there is a possible wind shear due to decreasing
headwind when descending on the glideslope?
• Higher pitch attitude is required

A rapid change in either wind direction or velocity at any level in the atmosphere
is known as what?
• Wind shear

Rev. 4 01JUN2025 Page 49 of 60

 PREFLIGHT INSPECTION

Applicant may use all available cockpit reference materials (QRH, FCOM, Checklist, MEL, CDL, etc.)
to perform the (pictorial) preflight inspection.

2 1. LH FWD FUSELAGE
2. NOSE SECTION
3. NOSE L/G
3
1 4 4. RH FWD FUSELAGE
5. LOWER CENTER FUSELAGE
6. RH CENTER WING
5 7. ENG 2 LH SIDE
19 20 7 8 8. ENG 2 RH SIDE
21
6 9. RH WING LEADING EDGE
16 11 9 10. RH WING TRAILING EDGE
18
17 11. RH L/G AND FUSELAGE
10 12. RH AFT FUSELAGE
12 13. TAIL
14. APU
15
15. LH AFT FUSELAGE
16. LH LANDING GEAR
17. LH WING TRAILING EDGE
18. LH WING LEADING EDGE
13 19. ENG 1 LH SIDE
20. ENG 1 RH SIDE
14 21. LH CENTER WING

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 NOTES:

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