[Link] Answer [Link] Answer [Link] Answer Q.

No Answer
1 B 26 B 51 A 76 B
2 B 27 B 52 B 77 C
3 A 28 B 53 D 78 C
4 A 29 B 54 B 79 B
5 D 30 C 55 C 80 D
6 B 31 B 56 C 81 B
7 D 32 C 57 B 82 C
8 C 33 C 58 B 83 C
9 B 34 A 59 B 84 A
10 C 35 B 60 B 85 B
11 C 36 B 61 C 86 A
12 C 37 A 62 D 87 B
13 B 38 B 63 B 88 B
14 B 39 C 64 B 89 B
15 D 40 B 65 A 90 B
16 B 41 A 66 B 91 B
17 A 42 B 67 B 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 B 93 B
19 B 44 C 69 C 94 D
20 B 45 B 70 C 95 D
21 B 46 C 71 B 96 D
22 D 47 B 72 B 97 A
23 D 48 C 73 B 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 B 99 A
25 C 50 C 75 B 100 C
 QUESTION PAPER SET-4

1. What are the three core pillars of naval warfare?

(a) Coastal defence, Aerial Surveillance, Cyber Warfare
(b) Anti-Submarine Warfare, Surface Warfare, Fleet Operations
(c) Amphibious Warfare, Missile Defence, Special Operations
(d) Maritime Trade Protection, Naval Exercises, Search & Rescue
2. What is the primary goal of Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)?
(a) Protecting surface ships from aerial threats (b) Detecting, tracking, and neutralizing enemy submarines
(c) Conducting missile strikes against enemy bases (d) Escorting merchant vessels in high-risk areas
3. Which technology is essential for detecting submarines in ASW?
(a) Sonar (b) Radar (c) GPS (d) Infrared Sensors
4. What is the difference between active sonar and passive sonar?
(a) Active sonar emits sound pulses, while passive sonar listens for sounds
(b) Active sonar is used in the air, while passive sonar is used underwater
(c) Passive sonar emits sound waves, while active sonar detects magnetic fields
(d) Active sonar is only used at night, while passive sonar operates during the day
5. Which of the following is NOT an ASW equipment?
(a) Sonobuoys (b) Depth charges (c) Torpedoes( d) Surface-to-air missiles
6. What was the Indian Navy's role in the 1971 Indo-Pak War?
(a) Evacuation of Indian citizens (b) Striking Karachi's naval base
(c) Securing Indian coastal waters (d) Blocking the Suez Canal
7. The Indian Navy's role includes:
(a) Coastal security (b) Maritime diplomacy
(c) Disaster relief operations (d) All of the above
8. What is the third-highest peacetime gallantry award in India?
(a) Param Vir Chakra (b) Kirti Chakra
(c) Shaurya Chakra (d) Vishisht Seva Medal
9. Who was the first recipient of the Param Vir Chakra?
(a) Captain Vikram Batra (b) Major Somnath Sharma
(c) Rifleman Sanjay Kumar (d) Lance Naik Albert Ekka
10. The Vishisht Seva Medal is awarded for ?
(a) Distinguished service of an exceptional order (b) Gallantry in the face of the enemy
(c) Distinguished service of a high order (d) Acts of bravery during peacetime
11. Which of the following commendation cards is NOT awarded by the armed forces?
(a) Chief of Army Staff Commendation Card (b) Chief of Naval Staff Commendation Card
(c) Chief of Defence Staff Commendation Card (d) Chief of Air Staff Commendation Card
12. Which of the following warships is smaller, highly manoeuvrable, and primarily used for coastal patrol and anti-submarine warfare?
(a) Destroyer (b) Frigate (c) Corvette (d) Aircraft Carrier
13. What are the primary roles of submarines in the Indian Navy?
(a) Air defence and coastal patrol (b) Stealth missions, intelligence gathering, and underwater attacks
(c) Providing logistical support to aircraft carriers (d) Clearing mines from shipping lanes
14. What is the primary function of shackles in maritime operations?
(a) To secure sails (b) To connect rigging components securely
(c) To measure wind speed (d) To store ropes on board
15. Which of the following is NOT a type of shackle?
(a) Bow Shackle (b) Forelock Shackle
(c) Double Shackle (d) Joggle Shackle
15. What is the main advantage of a screw shackle?
(a) It allows for quick detachment under load (b) It provides a secure and tamper-resistant fastening
(c) It is permanently fastened (d) It can rotate freely
16. A forelock shackle prevents the pin from slipping out by using:
(a) A welded seal (b) A forelock clip
(c) A screw mechanism (d) A double knot
17. Which type of shackle is designed for permanent fastening?
(a) Clenched Shackle (b) Screw Shackle
(c) Joining Shackle (d) Bow Shackle
18. Which of the following terms refers to interweaving strands of a rope to form a permanent join?
(a) Bight (b) Splicing (c) Seizing (d) Whipping
19. How should manmade fiber ropes be stored to maintain their durability?
(a) Exposed to sunlight to keep them dry (b) In shaded or covered areas to minimize UV exposure
(c) Underwater to keep them flexible (d) Near heat sources to prevent brittleness
20. Which knot is specially useful in rescue operations for lowering a person safely?
(a) Reef knot (b) Bowline on the bight
(c) Overhand knot (d) Clove hitch
21. What is the function of the button (stopper) on an oar?
(a) Helps rowers hold the oar (b) Prevents the oar from slipping through the oarlock
(c) Increases water resistance for efficient rowing (d) Provides leverage while rowing
22. Which part of the sailboat holds the sail in place while it is adjusted?
(a) Shrouds (b) Clew (c) Halyard (d) Sheets
23. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used sailing boat in the Navy?
(a) Enterprise-class boats (b) Whalers (c) Clipper ships (d) Caravel
24. What is the function of the keel in a sailing boat?
(a) To support the mast (b) To provide stability and reduce sideways drift
 (c) To hoist the sails (d)To steer the boat
25. The head of a sail is located at which part of the sail?
(a) Bottom rear comer (b) Forward lower comer
(c) Top comer (d) Bottom front comer
26. What is the purpose of reefing points on a sail?
(a) To help attach the sail to the mast (b) To allow shortening of the sail in strong winds
(c) To hold the sail open in light winds (d) To secure the boom to the mast
27. Which part of the sail runs from the head to the clew and helps control its shape?
(a) Luff (b) Leech (c) Foot (d) Bolt rope
28. What is the primary role of power boats in NCC watermanship activities
(a) Recreational sailing (b) Safety and support vessel
(c) Competitive racing (d) Passenger transport
29. Who operates power boats during NCC training?
(a) NCC cadets (b) Experienced personnel (c) Civilian volunteers (d) Senior cadets
30. Which of the following is NOT a common use of power boats?
(a) Patrolling (b) Rescue missions (c) Farming activities (d) Transportation
31. What is the main advantage of an inboard boat?
(a) Lightweight and easy to manoeuvre (b) Better weight distribution and stability
(c) Inflatable sides for added buoyancy (d) Small and easy to transport
32. What distinguishes outboard boats from inboard boats?
(a) The engine is placed inside the hull (b) They use a steam engine for propulsion
(c) The engine is mounted externally at the stem (d) They do not require an engine for movement
33. What makes the Enterprise-class sailing boat ideal for training beginners?
(a) It is the fastest sailboat available. (b) It has a complex design requiring expert handling.
(c) It is stable, easy to handle, and adaptable to various wind conditions. (d) It is used only for competitive racing
34. What type of sails does the Enterprise-class boat use?
(a) A mainsail and a jib (b) A spinnaker and a mainsail (c) A foresail and a mizzen sail (d) A square sail and a jib
35. Why is hands-on sailing experience important for NCC cadets?
(a) It helps them memorize sailing theory (b) It fosters discipline, teamwork, and problem-solving skills
(c) It allows them to win sailing competitions. (d) It replaces the need for theoretical training.
36. What is 'tacking' in sailing?
(a) A manoeuvre used to turn the stern through the wind.
(b) A process of turning the bow through the wind to change direction.
(c) A method of increasing boat speed.
(d) A technique used only for sailing downwind.
37. What does 'gybing' mean in sailing?
(a) Turning the stern through the wind, often used when sailing downwind.
(b) Turning the bow through the wind to change direction.
(c) Slowing down the boat by pulling in the sails.
(d) Increasing the sail area to catch more wind.
38. What is the primary objective of fire safety training?
(a) To increase fire awareness without action (b) To effectively prevent and respond to fire incidents
(c) To promote fire alarm installations only (d) To teach firefighting as a competitive sport
39. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of fire?
(a) Unattended cooking oil (b) Improper use of electrical equipment
(c) Safe storage of flammable materials (d) Carelessness with cigarettes
40. What is the main purpose of fire prevention measures?
(a) To ensure quick evacuation without controlling fire spread (b) To minimize fire hazards and prevent fire incidents
(c) To encourage people to fight fire themselves (d) To only install smoke alarms without inspections
41. What type of fire involves burning wood, paper, or cloth?
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class C (d) Class D
42. Which fire class includes flammable liquids like oil and petrol?
(a) Class A (b) Class B (c) Class C (d) Class E
43. What is the primary goal of damage control on a naval ship?
(a) To abandon the ship as quickly as possible (b) To ensure the ship's survivability by containing damage and flooding
(c) To fight enemy attacks directly (d) To prevent all mechanical failures
44. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of damage to a ship?
(a) Collision (b) Grounding (c) Routine maintenance (d) Enemy attack
45. What is the key factor in preventing a ship from sinking due to flooding?
(a) Rapid abandonment of the ship (b) Establishing flooding boundaries quickly
(c) Letting water drain naturally (d) Stopping all ship operations immediately
46. Which of the following is the primary zone of damage?
(a) The area farthest from the source of damage (b) The area completely unaffected by damage
(c) The area near the source of damage, experiencing complete destruction (d) The area experiencing minor leaks only
47. What characterizes the secondary zone of damage?
(a) It remains unaffected by any damage
(b) It is adjacent to the primary zone and may experience slow, progressive floodin
 (c) It has no structural damage at all
(d) It is more dangerous than the primary zone

48. Which invention revolutionized global communication and enhanced military operations?
(a) Radar (b) Steam Engine (c) Telephone by Alexander Graham Bell (d) Submarine Sonar
49. What is the key objective of naval communication?
(a) To minimize risk of miscommunication during operations (b) To increase public awareness about naval activities
(c) To provide entertainment during long voyages (d) To ensure fast transmission of non-military information
50. Which of the following is NOT a primary type of military communication equipment?
(a) Combat Net Radios (b) Secure tactical radios (c) Laser-guided torpedoes (d) Satellite navigation systems
51. In the phonetic alphabet, what word represents the letter "B"?
(a) Bravo (b) Beta (c) Baker (d) Boston
52. Why is the phonetic alphabet used in radio communication?
(a) To speed up transmissions (b) To avoid misinterpretation of similar-sounding letters
(c) To replace Morse code (d) To ensure encryption of messages
53. Which of the following is NOT a prosign used in semaphore?
(a) KN (b) AR (c) XE (d) TQ
54. What is the primary cause of tides?
(a) Wind currents (b)Gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun
(c) Earth's rotation alone (d) Movement of ocean currents
55. What is the term used for the highest point the tide reaches in a tidal cycle?
(a) Low water (b) Tidal range (c) High water (d) Slack water
56. Which area is known for experiencing the world's highest tides?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Bay of Bengal (c) Bay of Fundy (d) Pacific Ocean
57. How many high tides and low tides typically occur in most coastal areas each day?
(a) One high tide and one low tide (b) Two high tides and two low tides
(c) Three high tides and three low tides (d) Four high tides and four low tides
58. What is the effect of high tide on navigation?
(a) Reduces water depth, making entry to ports difficult (b) Allows access to areas that may be too shallow at low tide
(c) Stops all maritime activities (d) Has no effect on ship movement
59. What is the primary purpose of astronavigation?
(a) To predict weather patterns (b) To determine a ship's position at sea using celestial bodies
(c) To track ocean currents (d) To communicate with satellites
60. Which celestial body is most commonly used to determine latitude at noon?
(a) The moon (b) The sun (c) Mars (d) Jupiter
61. Which instrument is primarily used in astronavigation to measure angles between celestial bodies and the horizon?
(a) Chronometer (b) Compass (c) Sextant (d) Barometer
62. Which star remains almost fixed in the sky and is used for navigation in the Northerm Hemisphere?
(a) Sirius (b) Vega (c) Betelgeuse (d) Polaris
63. What information does a nautical almanac provide?
(a) Ocean depth readings. (b) The positions of celestial bodies at specific times
(c) Wind speed predictions (d) Sea current patterns
64. What is the primary role of sail area in a ship model?
(a) To determine the ship's colour (b) To capture wind for propulsion
(c) To add weight to the model (d) To improve the ship's durability
65. Why is calculating sail area important for NCC cadets?
(a) It helps them design efficient models (b) It increases the ship's weight
(c) It reduces the number of sails needed (d) It allows them to avoid using sails
66. What is the function of the mainsail in a sailing model?
(a) To support the mast (b) To provide primary propulsion
(c) To stabilize the ship in rough waters (d) To reduce wind resistance
67. The jib sail is positioned.
(a) At the rear of the boat (b) Forward of the mast (c) Under the hull (d) Along the keel
68. Which type of sail is primarily used for downwind sailing?
(a) Jib (b) Spinnaker (c) Mainsail (d) Square sail
69. What is the primary purpose of ship models in NCC training? Q1
(a) Entertainment (b) Enhancing artistic skills
(c) Understanding naval operations and design (d) Increasing shipbuilding costs
70. Which type of ship model is primarily used for display and educational purposes?
(a) Working Model (b) Sailing Model (c) Static Model (d) Concept Model
71. What is a key characteristic of static ship models?
(a) They are designed to operate in water (b)They emphasize structure and detailing
(c) They rely on wind for movement (d) They include motors and batteries
72. Which type of ship model is equipped with motors and remote controls?
(a) Static Model (b) Working Model (c) Sailing Model (d) Waterline Model
73. What is the main advantage of working models in NCC training?
(a) They enhance painting and detailing skills (b) They simulate real-world naval operations
(c) They serve as static displays (d) They are used exclusively in museums
74. Why is proper tool care and maintenance essential in ship modelling?
(a) It improves the colour of the model (b) It ensures accuracy, efficiency, and safety in model building
(c) It helps models float better (d) It makes ship models more decorative
75. What is the primary benefit of sharpening cutting tools regularly?
(a) It makes the tools heavier (b) It ensures precise cuts and reduces the risk of accidents
 (c) It makes the tools last forever (d) It prevents tools from getting dirty
76. How should cutting tools be stored to maintain their condition?
(a) Left in an open area exposed to air (b) Placed in a safe, dry place with blade covers or a toolbox
(c) Wrapped in a wet cloth (d) Stored with adhesive materials
77. What should be used to clean adhesive residue from tools?
(a) Water and soap (b) Vinegar (c) Acetone or a mild solvent (d) Sandpaper
78. What is the main reason for keeping adhesive containers tightly sealed?
(a) To prevent leakage (b) To avoid spilling glue on tools
(c) To prevent drying out and maintain bonding effectiveness (d) To make glue easier to use
79. Why is repairing and stabilizing ship models important for cadets?
(a) To increase the model's weight (b) To ensure longevity and structural integrity
(c) To make the model float better (d) To change the model's colour
80. Which of the following is NOT a common type of damage in ship models?
(a) Surface cracks and chips (b) Loose parts (c) Paint damage (d) Increased speed
81. What is the best adhesive for quick fixes on small parts of a ship model?
(a) Wood glue (b) Super glue (c) Paint thinner (d) Vinegar
82. How should epoxy be used in ship model repairs?
(a) To clean the model (b) To create a glossy finish
(c) To provide a strong and durable bond for structural repairs (d) To dissolve old glue
83. What should be done after filling cracks in a wooden ship model?
(a) Leave them unpainted (b) Apply a primer coat immediately
(c) Sand the area smoothly before painting (d) Apply more adhesive
84. What technique is used to reinforce joints before applying adhesive?
(a) Pin Pinning method (b) Taping method (c) Glue soaking method (d) Hammering technique
85. Why is it important to apply primer before repainting a ship model?
(a) To protect the model from water damage (b) To ensure better paint adhesion
(c) To make the paint dry faster (d) To create a glossy effect
86. What is the approximate breaking strength formula for a natural fiber rope?
(a) BS = d²/200 tons (b) BS2d+ 50 tons (c) BS = 100/d tons (d) BS = d³/500 tons
87. In firefighting, the clove hitch is commonly used for.
(a) Bundling hoses quickly (b) Securing hoses to hydrants or posts
(c) Making loops for rescue (d) Joining two water lines together
88. Why is mastering bends, hitches, and knots considered essential in seamanship?
(a) To speed up decorative ropework on ships (b) To enhance safety and efficiency in ship operations
(c) To replace mechanical winches onboard (d) To minimize the need for crew training
89. What is the role of the coxswain in a DK Whaler?
(a) Providing strength at the bow (b) Steering and guiding the crew
(c) Holding the oars in place (d) Rowing with the team
90. The command "Back Together" requires rowers to.
(a) Stop rowing (b) Move the boat backward by pushing on the loom
(c) Row faster to increase speed (d) Stow the oars
91. What is the main role of tankers and support ships in the Navy?
(a) Engaging enemy warships in combat (b) Providing essential supplies like fuel, ammunition, and food to other ships
(c) Conducting intelligence operations in enemy waters (d) Defending against air and submarine threats
92. Which of the following warships serves as a command and control hub for the Indian Navy's fleet operations?
(a) Frigate (b) Aircraft Carrier (c) Destroyer (d) Mine Countermeasure Vessel
93. Which ceremony is conducted whenever keel of a ship is launched for construction at shipyard?
(a) Commissioning of ship (b) Launching Ceremony
(c) Decommissioning of ship (d) None of these
94. Finding a position of Ship at sea is called ________.
(a) Logging (b) Methoding (c) Finding (d) Fixing
95. Commodore rank is equivalent to in Army.
(a) Lt General (b) General (c) Major General (d) Brigadier
96. AAA is the prosign for
(a) Comma (b) Full Stop (c) Dash (d) Seperative
97. India has a coastal line of _______ kms.
(a) 7517 (b) 7157 (c) 5100 (d) 7700
98. Area of Territorial water of a country is
(a) 200 NM (b) 20 NM (c) 12 NM (d) 24 NM
99. What is the position of the face in the water in backstroke?
(a) Face up (b) Face Down
(c) Alternating between up and down (d) None of the above
100. Which is often considered to be the most difficult stroke in swimming?
(a) Breast stroke (b) Back stroke (c) Butterfly (d) Free style