QUESTION PAPER SET-5

1. How do ASW aircraft and helicopters assist naval operations?

(a) By engaging enemy ships directly (b) By deploying sonobuoys and conducting aerial surveillance
(c) By conducting amphibious landings (d) By refuelling naval ships at sea
2. What is the primary objective of Surface Warfare?
(a) Engaging and destroying enemy ships (b) Conducting underwater reconnaissance
(c) Protecting satellites in space (d) Conducting peacekeeping missions
3. Which of the following ships are typically used in Surface Warfare?
(a) Submarines and fishing boats (b) Destroyers, frigates, and corvettes
(c) Amphibious assault ships and cruise liners (d) Oil tankers and civilian vessels
4. What types of weapons are commonly used in Surface Warfare?
(a) Air-to-ground missiles and torpedoes (b) Anti-ship missiles, anti-air missiles, and naval guns
(c) Land mines and sniper rifles (d) Chemical and biological warfare agents
5. Why is Surface Warfare crucial for a navy?
(a) It enables naval forces to control surface waters and secure sea lanes
(b) It focuses only on coastal patrols
(c) It is used mainly for ceremonial naval parades
(d) It ensures that no naval engagement takes place
6. What was the Indian Navy's role in the 1971 Indo-Pak War?
(a) Evacuation of Indian citizens (b) Striking Karachi's naval base
(c) Securing Indian coastal waters (d) Blocking the Suez Canal
7. The Indian Navy's role includes:
(a)Coastal security (b)Maritime diplomacy
(c)Disaster relief operations (d)All of the above
8. Who is the highest-ranking officer in the Indian Navy?
(a)Vice Admiral (b)Chief of Naval Staff
(c)Admiral of the Fleet (d)Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief
9. What is the highest award given at the national level to an NCC cadet?
(a) Governor's Medal (b) Defence Secretary Commendation Card
(c) Raksha Mantri Medal (d) DG NCC Commendation Card
10. The Best Cadet Award is presented at which levels?
(a) Unit, Group, Directorate, and National (b) Unit and Group only
(c) National only (d) Directorate and National only
11. Who among the following is the only Indian Air Force officer to receive the Param V Chakra?
(a) Flying Officer Nirmal Jit Singh Sekhon (b)Captain Vikram Batra
(c) Major Shaitan Singh (d) Lt. Manoj Kumar Pandey
12. What is the purpose of the cargo hold?
(a) To control the movement of the ship (b) To store fuel
(c) To store goods and cargo (d) To maintain ship balance
13. How does an anchor help a ship?
(a) It enhances speed (b) It prevents the ship from drifting due to wind or currents
(c) It stores fuel for the ship (d) It supports communication systems
14. Bulkheads and compartments in a ship serve what purpose?
(a) To enhance structural strength and safety (b) To provide additional cargo space
(c) To improve navigation efficiency (d) To increase speed
15. Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) are primarily used for.
(a) Patrolling Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) and anti-piracy missions
(b) Engaging enemy aircraft in combat
(c) Providing air support to destroyers (d) Conducting underwater surveillance
16. What is the function of Mine Countermeasure Vessels?
(a) They provide fuel resupply to warships at sea
(b) They transport troops and vehicles during amphibious operations
(c) They detect and neutralize mines in shipping lanes
(d) They engage enemy ships in direct combat
17. Amphibious ships, also known as landing ships, are designed for.
(a) Deploying troops, vehicles, and equipment onto shore during amphibious operations
(b) High-speed naval warfare
(c) Mine detection and clearance
(d) Submarine hunting missions
18. What type of fire is caused by gases?
(a) Class A (b) Class (c) Class D (d) Class B
19. Which firefighting technique involves lowering the temperature of the fire using water
(a) Smothering (b) Starving (c) Cooling (d) Electrical insulation
20. What does the "starving" method of firefighting involve?
(a) Removing the fuel source (b) Cutting off oxygen supply
(c) Spraying water continuously (d) Using a fire alarm
21. How does the smothering method extinguish a fire?
(a) By reducing temperature with water (b) By removing the fuel source
(c) By cutting off oxygen supply using fire blankets (d) By increasing air circulation
22. Which type of fire extinguisher is best suited for electrical fires (Class E)?
(a) Water extinguisher (b) AFFF extinguisher (c) CO2 extinguisher (d) Sand extinguisher
23. How can damage in the remote zone affect a ship?
(a) By causing shock waves leading to structural damage and fires
(b) By immediately sinking the ship
(c) By blocking all exits
(d) By shutting down the entire electrical system
24. What is the purpose of leak-stopping devices?
(a) To repair engines after battle damage (b) To prevent water from spreading to other compartment
(c) To improve ship ventilation (d) To completely remove all water from the ship
25. Which of the following is NOT a leak-stopping device?
(a) Wooden shores and plugs (b) Splinter boxes
(c) Radar systems (d) Quick-hardening cement
26. What does the "Red Zone" indicate on a ship?
(a) Areas at high risk of flooding (b) Areas used for storage
(c) The safest areas of the ship (d) Locations of emergency exits
27. What do "red openings" marked with red triangles signify?
(a) Structural weaknesses in the ship (b) Areas that need repainting
(c) Openings that pose an immediate flooding risk(d) Emergency exit points
28. What is the term for the difference in height between high water and low water?
(a) Slack water (b) Tidal range (c) Neap tide (d) Chart datum
29. What is the period called when tidal currents are at their weakest?
(a) High water (b) Low water (c) Slack water (d) Maximum rate
30. What is the Lowest Astronomical Tide (LAT)?
(a) The average tide level of the sea (b) The highest tide recorded in history
(c) The lowest predictable tide level at a given location (d) A tide that occurs only during earthquakes
31. When do spring tides occur?
(a) During quarter moon phases (b) When the Moon and Sun are at right angles
(c) During full moon and new moon phases (d) Only in the summer season
32. What is the name of the horizontal movement of water caused by tides?
(a) Tidal stream (b) Wind current (c) Land breeze (d) Ocean swell
33. What is the primary function of a marine chronometer in navigation?
(a) To measure the altitude of celestial bodies
(b) To determine longitude by providing accurate time readings
(c) To find the direction of ocean currents
(d) To estimate the speed of a ship
34. Why is a sextant an essential tool in astronavigation?
(a) It measures wind direction and speed
(b) It helps determine underwater terrain
(c) It helps determine latitude and longitude through angle measurements
(d) It tracks the movement of celestial bodies over time.
35. What time reference is used in celestial navigation for longitude calculations?
(a) Local time (b) Standard time
(c) Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) (d) Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
36. Who invented the marine chronometer, which revolutionized celestial navigation?
(a) Isaac Newton (b) Galileo Galilei (c) John Harrison (d) Ferdinand Magellan
37. Why is astronavigation still relevant despite modern GPS technology?
(a) It is faster than GPS calculations
(b) It does not rely on electronic systems and remains functional in case of GPS failure
(c) It is the only method used for long-distance navigation
(d) It is a mandatory skill for all sailors
38. What makes a joggle shackle unique?
 (a) It has a swivelling mechanism (b) It has an offset or stepped body
(c) It is made from lightweight aluminium (d) It cannot be detached once fastened
39. Which type of hook is designed for quick release in emergencies?
(a) Swivel Hook (b) Tackle Open Hook (c) Release Hook (d) Recovery HooK
40. What is the primary function of blocks in rigging?
(a) To store ropes (b) To provide a mechanical advantage in lifting
(c) To secure chains (d) To fasten sails
41. Which material is commonly used to make synthetic resin-bonded fibre (SRBF) blocks
(a) Hardwood (b) Stainless Steel (c) Composite materials (d) Galvanized iron
42. Why are metal blocks preferred in heavy-duty applications?
(a) They are lightweight (b) They offer high load-bearing capacity
(c) They are easy to replace (d) They reduce friction
43. The halyard is used for which of the following purposes?
(a) Steering the boat (b) Hoisting and lowering the sail
(c) Securing the mast to the deck (d) Controlling the boom
44. What is the primary function of the boom vang?
(a) To support the mast (b) To reduce sideways drift
(c) To control the downward force of the boom (d) To attach the jib sail
45. Which sail is typically set ahead of the foremast and helps with speed and balance?
(a) Genoa (b) Mainsail (c) Jib (d) Mizzen sail
46. The shrouds in a sailboat serve what purpose?
(a) Providing lateral support to the mast (b) Securing the jib to the mast
(c) Steering the boat (d) Raising the sails
47. What is the purpose of the rudder in a sailing boat?
(a) To stabilize the mast (b) To control the direction of the boat
(c) To reduce sideways drift (d) To adjust the sail angle
48. What does the term 'close-hauled' refer to in sailing?
(a) Sailing with sails set loose. (b) Sailing directly into the wind.
(c) Sailing with the sails pulled in close to the boat centreline (d) Sailing with no wind assistance.
49. What is the primary purpose of the right-of-way rules in sailing?
(a) To allow the fastest boat to have priority
(b) To ensure safe and orderly navigation of boats.
(c) To make sailing more competitive. (d) To help boats avoid strong winds.
50. According to sailing right-of-way rules, which boat has priority?
(a) A boat on a port tack. (b) A boat on a starboard tack.
(c) A boat running free on a port side . (d) A boat that is moving faster.
51. What is the purpose of wearing a life jacket while sailing?
(a) It makes sailing more comfortable. (b) It is only required in stormy conditions.
(c) It ensures safety in case of accidents or falling overboard (d) It helps increase boat speed.
52. What is the meaning of the command "Ready About"?
(a) Prepare to tack (b) Prepare to gybe.
(c) Slow down the boat. (d) Stop the boat immediately.
53. Which sailing manoeuvre involves changing direction by turning the stem through wind?
(a) Tacking (b) Gybing (c) Close-hauled sailing (d) Running free
54. Why is teamwork important in sailing?
(a) To ensure smooth coordination and precise execution of commands
(b) To allow each sailor to sail independently.
(c) To reduce the importance of wind conditions
(d) To make sailing more competitive.
55. Which of the following is NOT a standard sailing command?
(a) "Helm's Alee" (b) "Gybe Ho (c) "Prepare to Fly (d) Ready About
56. Why are Rigid Inflatable Boats (RIBs) preferred for rescue operations?
(a) They are heavy and move slowly (b) They have excellent stability and speed
(c) They require minimal maintenance (d) They have large storage capacity
57. Which type of power boat is widely used for law enforcement and military operation)
(a) GRP Motor Boats (b) Gemini Crafts (c) Rigid Inflatable Boats (d) Outboard Boats
[Link] material is used to construct GRP motor boats?
(a) Aluminium (b) Wood (c) Glass Reinforced Plastic (Fiberglass) (d) Steel
59. What is the primary function of a boat's cooling system?
(a) To increase the boat's speed (b) To prevent the engine from overheating
(c) To reduce noise from the engine (d) To clean the fuel system.
60. Why is regular maintenance of the lubrication system necessary?
(a) To reduce friction and prevent engine wear (b) To improve the boat's speed
(c) To decrease the boat's weight (d) To enhance fuel consumption
61. Sailing models are primarily used to teach cadets about.
(a) Ship stability and hydrodynamics (b) Wind-powered navigation and rudder control
(c) Warfare strategies (d) The history of shipbuilding
62. Which feature distinguishes a working model from a static model?
(a) Working models are larger (b) Static models have moving parts
(c) Working models can operate in water (d) Static models have more detailing
63. What type of ship model is commonly used to test new ship designs?
(a) Concept Model (b) Sailing Model (c) Static Model (d) Working Model
64. In which type of ship model is a scaled-down sail an essential feature?
(a) Working Model (b) Static Model (c) Sailing Model (d) Concept Model
65. Waterline models are designed to show
(a) Only the visible part of a ship above the water (b) The entire ship, including the submerged portion
(c) The ship's structural compartments (d) The internal framework of a ship
66. What is the correct formula for calculating sail area?
(a) Sail Area (Luff Length x Foot Length)/2 (b) Sail Area Luff Length + Foot Length
(c) Sail Area (Luff Length x Foot Length) x 2 (d) Sail Area Luff Length + Foot Length
67. What does "Luff Length" refer to in a sail?
(a) The length along the boom (b) The width of the sail
(c) The length along the mast (d) The diagonal length of the sail
68. Why might a smaller sail area be preferable in strong wind conditions?
(a) To increase speed (b) To maintain stability and prevent tipping
(c) To improve appearance (d) To make the boat heavier
69. What factor influences the ideal sail area for a ship model?
(a) The number of sails used (b) The model's size and weight
(c) The colour of the sails (d) The type of wood used in construction
70. How does a larger sail area affect a ship model in light wind conditions?
(a) It increases speed (b) It reduces stability
(c) It prevents the ship from moving (d) It makes the ship sink
71. What is a key feature of a working model competition?
(a) Models are non-functional and for display only (b) Models must be large and heavy
(c) Models must be operational and able to float and navigate (d) Models must be painted in bright colours
72. Sailing model competitions test.
(a) Speed and manoeuvrability (b) Strength of materials used
(c) The ship's ability to submerge (d) The ability to stay stationary in water
73. Which judging criterion assesses the accuracy of ship model details compared to the actual design?
(a) Craftsmanship (b) Functionality (C) Accuracy (d) Aesthetic appeal
74. What is tested in the "Straight Run" performance evaluation?
(a) The ability to float on water (b) The model's ability to move in a straight line with minimal deviation
(c) The durability of the model in rough water (d) The speed of the model
75. How is the "Turning Circle" of a working model evaluated?

(a) By testing how fast the model can complete a circle (b) By checking if the model remains stationary
(c) By ensuring the ship does not tum (d) By measuring the smallest turning radius
76. How should sandpaper be stored to maintain its effectiveness?
(a) Rolled up in a tight tube (b) Placed in a dry place, flat or in a folder
(c) Kept in direct sunlight (d) Folded multiple times
77. What is the best method to clean paintbrushes after use?
(a) Using only dry tissue paper
(b) Cleaning immediately with water for water-based paints or solvent for oil-based paints
(c) Leaving them to soak overnight in any liquid
(d) Rubbing the bristles against sandpaper
78. Why is lubrication important for tools with moving parts?
(a) It makes them heavier (b) It prevents overheating
(c) It ensures smooth operation and reduces wear (d) It makes them look shiny
79. What is a recommended method for preventing rust on tools?
(a) Keeping tools wet after use (b) Storing tools in a damp place
(c) Wiping tools dry and using silica gel packs to reduce humidity (d) Applying excessive oil
80. Why is it important to store tools in a proper case or organizer?
(a) To display them for decoration (b) To prevent misplacement and damage
 (c) To make them look more professional (d) To keep them hidden from others
81. What should be the first step in a pre-operation checklist for an RC ship model?
(a) Painting the hull (b) Checking and charging the battery
(c) Replacing the motor (d) Adding extra weight for stability
82. What is the purpose of a signal range test before operating an RC ship model?
(a) To verify control responsiveness over a distance (b) To check the ship's weight
(c) To test the water temperature (d) To determine battery life
83 How is throttle control typically adjusted in an RC ship model?
(a) By using a voice command (b) By pushing a button
(c) By using a trigger or joystick to control speed (d) By manually adjusting the motor
84. What is the best way to combine throttle and rudder controls?
(a) Using them separately (b) Operating both together for smooth navigation and manoeuvring
(c) Only using the rudder in high-speed situations (d) Avoiding rudder movements in competitions
85. Why is launching an RC model in calm water conditions recommended?
(a) To avoid excess water resistance (b) To ensure stable navigation and minimize external disturbances
(c) To increase speed (d) To make the model look more realistic
86. What should be the first step in a pre-operation checklist for an RC ship model?
(a) Painting the hull (b) Checking and charging the battery
(c) Replacing the motor (d) Adding extra weight for stability
87. What is the purpose of a signal range test before operating an RC ship model?
(a) To verify control responsiveness over a distance (b) To check the ship's weight
(c) To test the water temperature (d) To determine battery life
88. How is throttle control typically adjusted in an RC ship model?
(a) By using a voice command (b) By pushing a button
(c) By using a trigger or joystick to control speed (d) By manually adjusting the motor
89. What is the best way to combine throttle and rudder controls?
(a) Using them separately (b) Operating both together for smooth navigation and manoeuvring
(c) Only using the rudder in high-speed situations (d) Avoiding rudder movements in competitions
90. Why is launching an RC model in calm water conditions recommended?
(a) To avoid excess water resistance (b) To ensure stable navigation and minimize external disturbances
(c) To increase speed (d) To make the model look more realistic
91. What is the correct definition of a bight in rope work?
(a) A technique for joining two ropes together
(b) A simple loop or curve in a rope without crossing over itself
(c) A method of securing a rope to an object
(d) A process used to reduce the thickness of a rope
92. What is a bend used for in rope work?
(a) To secure a rope to an object (b) To prevent fraying
(c) To reduce the thickness of a rope (d) To join two ropes together
93. What is crows footing (cockling) in rope maintenance?
(a) The process of whipping a rope end (b) A type of rope used for mooring
(c) A distortion in rope strands due to back twisting (d) A technique for creating a loop
94. Which material is used to make Manila ropes?
(a) Coconut husk (b) Hemp plant stalks
(c) plant fibres (d) Agave plant leaves
95. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of bends, hitches, and knots in seamanship?
(a) Ensuring safety in operations (b) Enhancing the appearance of ropes
(c) Providing reliability in securing objects (d) Preventing slippage and breakage
96. The "Round Turn and Two Half Hitches" combination is used for what purpose?
(a) Joining two ropes together (b) Securing a rope to an object under heavy load
(c) Forming a loop at the end of a rope (d) Creating a decorative knot
97. Which type of anchor is known for its hinged shank and adaptability to different seabed conditions?
(a) Admiralty Pattern Anchor (b) Danforth Anchor
(c) CQR (Chatham Quick Release) Anchor (d) AC-12 Anchor
98. What does the term “bower anchor” refer to?
(a) A backup anchor for emergencies (b) The main anchor used to secure a ship
(c) A lightweight anchor for small vessels (d) An anchor used specifically in deep waters

99. What is the primary material used for modern ship anchor cables?
(a) Hemp rope (b) Studded chain
 (c) Nylon fibre (d) Steel wire
100. What is the significance of an anchor during rough weather?
(a) It helps the ship move faster (b) It prevents the ship from drifting off course
(c) It allows the ship to submerge (d) It reduces ship vibrations

[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans

1 B 26 A 51 C 76 B
2 A 27 C 52 A 77 B
3 B 28 B 53 A 78 C
4 B 29 C 54 A 79 C
5 A 30 C 55 C 80 B
6 B 31 C 56 B 81 B
7 D 32 A 57 C 82 A
8 B 33 B 58 C 83 C
9 C 34 C 59 B 84 B
10 A 35 C 60 A 85 B
11 A 36 C 61 B 86 B
12 C 37 B 62 C 87 A
13 B 38 B 63 D 88 C
14 A 39 C 64 C 89 B
15 A 40 B 65 A 90 B
16 C 41 C 66 A 91 B
17 A 42 B 67 C 92 D
18 D 43 B 68 B 93 C
19 C 44 C 69 B 94 D
20 A 45 C 70 A 95 B
21 C 46 A 71 C 96 B
22 C 47 B 72 A 97 C
23 A 48 C 73 C 98 B
24 B 49 B 74 B 99 B
25 C 50 B 75 D 100 B