25-04-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS16 MD

PHYSICS

1) A cylindrical vessel is filled with water upto a height of 92 cm. It has four holes 1,2,3 and 4 which
are respectively at heights of 20cm, 30cm, 46cm and 80cm from the horizontal floor. The water
falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the vessel comes from :-

(1) hole 4
(2) hole 3
(3) hole 2
(4) hole 1

2) Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance (z) with frequency f in
series LCR circuit?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight can be put on
the raft to make it just sink ?

(1) 120 kg
(2) 200 kg
(3) 40 kg
(4) 80 kg
4) An ac supply is connected across a series LCR circuit. If capacitor is removed then which of the
following phasor diagram may be correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released.
Interaction between the particles is only of gravitational in nature and there is no external force
present. Acceleration of one particle with respect to the other when separation between them is R,
has a magnitude :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) not possible to calculate due to lack of information

6) Statement (1) : If quality factor is large i.e. R is low or L is large the circuit is more selective.
Statement (2) : Less sharp the resonance less is the selectively of the circuit or vice-versa.
Choose the correct statements.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement-(1) is true but statement-(2) is false
(4) Statement-(1) is false but statement-(2) is true

7) Find the height over the earth's surface at which the weight of a body becomes half of its value at
the surface.
(1) time of radius of earth
(2) Equal to radius of earth
(3) times the radius of earth
(4) None of these

8) A conductor wire having 1029 free electrons/m3 carries a current of 20 A. If the cross-section of the
wire is 1mm2, then the drift velocity of electrons will be :- (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)

(1) 1.25 × 10–5 ms–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–3 ms–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 ms–1
(4) 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

9) An aeroplane is flying in a horizontal direction with a velocity of 360 km hr–1 and at a height of
1960 m. When it is vertically above the point P on the ground a bomb is dropped from the aeroplane
which strikes the ground at a point Q. What will be the time taken by the bomb to hit the ground:-

(1) 10 s
(2)
(3) 20 s
(4)

10) In the following figure the current through 4 ohm resistor is :-

(1) 1.4 amp

(2) 0.4 amp
(3) 1.0 amp
(4) 0.7 amp

11) Motion of a particle is given by the equation s = (2t3 + 3t2 + 4t + 2) m, where s is displacement
in meter and t is time in second. The value of acceleration of particle at time t = 1s is

(1) 12 m/s2
(2) 18 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) Zero

12) An electric network is shown in figure. The resistance across AB will be :

(1) 12 Ω
(2) 6 Ω
(3) 4 Ω
(4) 18 Ω

13) The minimum magnetic dipole moment of electron in hydrogen atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

14) A rod of mass 'm' and length 'ℓ' is placed in horizontal position. Find workdone by external force

against gravity to take it from horizontal position to vertical position.

(1) mgℓ
(2) mgℓ/2
(3) mgℓ/3
(4) zero

15) Two long parallel current carrying conductors 30 cm apart having current each of 10A in
opposite direction, then value of magnetic field at a point of 10 cm between them, from any of the
wire.

(1) 1 × 10–5 T
(2) 6 × 10–5 T
(3) 1.5 × 10–5 T
(4) 3 × 10–5 T

16) A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of two
fragments are (3 + 2 ) m/s and (– – 4 ) m/s. The velocity of the third fragment (in m/s) is :-

2 +2
(1)

2 –2
(2)

–2 + 2
(3)
 –2 – 2
(4)

17) Equation of progressive wave is . Its wave speed is :-

(1) 360 π m/s

(2) 360 m/s
(3) 36 m/sec

(4)

18) The inner and outer radii of a spherical condenser are 50 cm and 60cm respectively
(concentric system) and a material with dielectric constant 6 is filled in it. Its capacity will be:-
(Assume the outer surface is grounded.)

(1) 2×10–9 farad

(2) 4×10–9 farad
(3) 6×10–10 farad
(4) 5×10–10 farad

19) An organ pipe open at one end is vibrating in first overtone and is in resonance with another
pipe open at both ends and vibrating in third harmonic. The ratio of the length of two pipes is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 3 : 8

20) What will be the acceleration of the system and tension in the rope connecting 5kg and 1kg :-

(1) 4 m/s2, 20 N
(2) 2 m/s2, 10 N
(3) 4 m/s2, 10 N
(4) 2 m/s2 , 20 N

21)

A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :-
(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

22) According to De Broglie, wavelength of electron in third orbit is 10–9 metre. Then the
circumference of orbit is :

(1) 10–9 m
(2) 2 × 10–9 m
(3) 3 × 10–9 m
(4) 4 × 10–9 m

23) A partical of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height h is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
increased to 225 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would :

(1) increase by 2 times

(2) decrease by 2 times
(3) decrease by 3 times
(4) increase by 4 times

25) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal

lengths; the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at
height. The equilibrium separation r' between the balls now become :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A block of mass 80 kg is supported by two cables as shown in the figure. Then the ratio of

tensions T1 and T2 is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2)
(3)
(4) 1:3

27) In the electrostatic field of a point charge q kept at centre of circle (Figure). we move similar
charge starting from point 1 to point 2, 3, 4 respectively. Find out relation between work done.

(1) W2 < W3 > W4

(2) W2 < W3 < W4
(3) W2 = W3 = W4
(4) W2 = W4 < W3
28) An bubble in glass (µ = 1.5) is situated at a distance 3 cm from a convex surface of diameter 10
cm as shown in figure At what distance from the surface will the bubble appear:

(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

29) Equal charges Q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude
of the force on the charge at B will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

30)

Select the outputs Y of the combination of gates shown below for inputs A = 1, B = 0; A = 1, B = 1
and A = 0, B = 0 respectively.

(1) (0 1 1)
(2) (0 0 1)
(3) (1 0 0)
(4) (1 1 1)

31) Current in AC ckt is i = i1 sinωt + i2 cosωt. It r.m.s. value is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

32) A pendulum clock runs faster by 5 seconds per day at 20 °C and goes slow by 10 second per day
at 35 °C. It shows the correct time at a temperature of:

(1) 27.5 °C
(2) 25 °C
(3) 30 °C
(4) 33 °C

33) A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 wb/m2 and area vector
makes an angle of 60o with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the

magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to

(1) 2 weber
(2) 1 weber
(3) 3 weber

(4)
weber

34) In the Young's double slit experiment a point P on the central bright fringe is such that the

intensity of the point P is times, the maximum intensity. Distance between the slits is d and
wavelength is λ. Then angular position of point P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In a circuit a coil of resistance 2 , then magnetic flux changes from 2.0Wb to 10.0Wb in 0.2 sec.
The charge flow in the coil during this time is :–

(1) 5.0 C
(2) 4.0 C
(3) 1.0 C
(4) 0.8 C

36) Assertion (A): A electron in a certain region of uniform magnetic field is moving with constant
velocity in a straight line path.
Reason (R): The magnetic field in that region is along the direction of velocity of the electron.

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

37) A coil of resistance 10Ω and an inductance 5H is connected to a 100 volt battery. Then energy
stored in the coil is :-

(1) 125 erg

(2) 125 J
(3) 250 erg
(4) 250 J

38) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the

velocity 'v ' of the fluid is :

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

39) A uniform but time varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown in figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field

at point P at a distance r from the centre of the circular region :-

(1) is zero

(2)
decreases as
(3) increases as r
 decreases as
(4)

40) Two tuning forks A and B produce notes of frequencies 336 Hz and 340 Hz. An unknown note of
guitar string when sounded with fork A produce certain beats. When same note is sounded with fork
B, the beat frequency gets doubled. The unknown note of guitar string is (the frequency of guitar
string is less than that of A)

(1) 332 Hz
(2) 340 Hz
(3) 344 Hz
(4) 348 Hz

41)

For an electromagnetic wave

0
E = E sin 12 × 106 (z – 2.5 × 108 t)

in a medium, then refractive index is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find tension in string which connected between 2kg and 1kg.

(1) 10 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 2 N

43) The angle of deviation (δ) vs angle of incidence (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the incorrect
statement.

(1) The angle of prism is 60°.

(2) The refractive index of the prism is n =
(3) For deviation to be 65° the angle of incidence i1 = 55°
(4) The curve of 'δ' vs 'i' is parabolic

44) A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In order that each division reads 1V
the resistance in ohm needed to be connected in series with the coil will be :–

(1) 99995
(2) 9995
(3) 103
(4) 105

45) The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15m. Then the radius ofa nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be :

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 9 × 10–15 m
(3) 6 × 10–15 m
(4) 24 × 10–15 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the following reaction :-

The product 'A' is :-

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5OH
(3) C6H5COCH3
(4) C6H5Cl

2) If 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M CH3COOH (pKa = 4.74), the pH of the

resulting solution is :-

(1) 4.44
(2) 9.56
(3) 8.96
(4) 9.26

3) The relative reactivity of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of :-

(1) Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride
(2) Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide
(3) Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide
(4) Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride

4) Consider the reaction equilibrium

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2 SO3(g) ; ΔH° = – 198 kJ
On the basis of Le-Chatelier's principle, the condition favourable for the forward reaction is

(1) Lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure

(2) Any value of temperature as well as pressure
(3) Lowering of temperature as well as pressure
(4) Increasing temperature as well as pressure

5) Ph–C≡N (A) (B) ; Product (B) is :-

(1) PhCH2NH2
(2) Ph–OH
(3) Ph–NH2
(4) Ph–CH3

6) Which of the following corbocation is the most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The common ion effect is shown by which of the following sets of solutions :-

(1) BaCl2 + Ba(NO3)2

(2) NaCl + HCl
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4) None

9) Which of the following test or reaction is not given by glucose -

(1) Fehling solution test

(2) Tollen's test
(3) Schiff's test
(4) Osazone formation

10) The entropy change in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from 10 L
to 100 L at 300 K is:

(1) 42.3 JK–1

(2) 35.8 JK–1
(3) 38.3 JK–1
(4) 32.3 JK–1

11) Match the column :-

Colum-I Column-II

(I) Water soluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(II) Water insoluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

Vitamins which act as

(III) (R) C, D and E
antioxidants
 Increased blood clotting
(IV) (S) K
time
(1) (I) → (Q), (II) → (P), (III) → (R), (IV) → (S)
(2) (I) → (P), (II) → (Q), (III) → (R), (IV) → (S)
(3) (I) → (R), (II) → (Q), (III) → (P), (IV) → (S)
(4) (I) → (S), (II) → (R), (III) → (Q), (IV) → (P)

12) An imaginary process X → 2Y takes place in three step :-

X → 2A ; ΔH = x
A → B ; ΔH = y
B → Y ; ΔH = z
Then Heat of reaction X → 2Y will be :

(1) x + y + z
(2) x + 2y + z
(3) x + 2y + 2z
(4) x + y + 2z

13) Assertion: Ce4+ is used as an oxidising agent in volumetric analysis.

Reason: Ce4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

14) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

15) The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13 elements follows the order :-

(1) Al < Ga < Tl < In

(2) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) Ga < Al < In < Tl

16) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is :-

(1)

(2) Zero
(3)

(4)

17) The correct order of bond dissociation energy of the halogens is

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(4) Cl2 > I2 > Br2 > F2

18) A compound possesses 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass of compound is :-

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 155
(4) 355

19) Match the following column.

(1) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(2) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(3) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(4) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

20) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1g cm–3) is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3

21) Assertion (A): In NaH, oxidation number of H is –1

Reason (R): Na is more electropositive than hydrogen

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
22) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

23) Identify the electrolytes A and B in the mentioned graph.

A = KCl
(1)
B = CH3COOH
A = CH3COOH
(2)
B = HCl
A = CH3COOH
(3)
B = KCl
A = KCl
(4)
B = HCl

24) Which of the following is not linear shape?

(1) N2O
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Which of the following graph represents zero order reaction ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of the above

26) Which of the following has zero dipole moment

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

27) A study of chemical kinetics of the reaction A + B → products, gave the following data at 25°C :-

Exp
[A] [B] Rate
No.

(i) 1.0 0.15 4.2 × 10–6

(ii) 2.0 0.15 8.4 × 10–6

(iii) 1.0 0.20 5.6 × 10–6

Find out rate law
(1) r = K [A]
(2) r = K[B]
(3) r = K [A] [B]
(4) r = K[A][B]2

28) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) NO
(4) All

0 0
29) If PA and PB are 108 and 36 torr respectively. What will be the mole fraction of A is vapour
phase if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5.

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.35

30)

Correct order of Ka value for given compound:-

(1) IV > II > III > I

(2) III > IV > II > I
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) IV > III > I > II

31) If Ksp for AgCl is 10–10. Calculate solubility of AgCl in 0.1M NaCl solution in mol/litre.

(1) 10–5
(2) 10–9
(3) 10–4
(4) 10–7

32) Which of the following is most reactive towards AgNO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The pH of 0.01 M NH4Cl solution is :

[Kb(NH3)] = 2 × 10–5

(1) 5.65
(2) 6.8
(3) 8.6
(4) 7

34) Identify the product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is :-

(1) – 1.8 Δ0
(2) – 1.6 Δ0 + P
(3) – 1.2 Δ0
(4) – 0.6 Δ0

36) The transition of electron in H-atom that will emit maximum energy is :

(1) n3 → n2
(2) n4 → n3
(3) n5 → n4
(4) All have same energy

37) In which of the following, entropy decreases ?

(1) Dissolving sucrose in water

(2) Vaporisation of camphor
(3) Melting of ice
(4) Stretching of rubber band
38) 'Q'
what is 'Q' ?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH3

(3)

(4)

39)

The pair not correctly matched is :-

(1) [CoBr(NH3)5]SO4 and [CoSO4(NH3)5]Br ⇒ ionisation isomerism

(2) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 . H2O ⇒ Linkage isomerism
(3) [Cr(H2O)4(NO2)2]Cl and [Cr(H2O)4(ONO)2]Cl ⇒ Linkage Isomerism
(4) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] . Cl. H2O ⇒ Hydrate isomerism

40) How many number of conformations are less stable than anti form of butane about C2–C3 rotation
:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Infinite

41) The order of crystal field Splitting energy is :

+3 +3 +3
(1) [Co(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O)6] > [Ir(H2O)6]
+3 +3 +3
(2) [Co(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O)6] < [Ir(H2O)6]
+3 6 +3 +3
(3) [Ir(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O) ] < [Co(H2O)6]
+3 +3 +3
(4) [Co(H2O)6] = [Rh(H2O)6] = [Ir(H2O)6]

42) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity in SN1 reaction

(a) Ph–-CH2–Cl (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > c > b > a

(2) c > d > b > a
(3) a > b > c > d
(4) b > a > c > d

43) The reaction of SOCl2 on alkanols to form alkyl chlorides gives good yields because :

(1) Alkyl chlorides are immiscible with SOCl2

(2) The other products of the reaction are gaseous and escape out
(3) Alcohol and SOCl2 are soluble in water
(4) The reaction does not occurs via intermediate formation of an alkyl chloro sulphite

44) C6H5 – O – CH2 – CH3 (P) + (Q)

In the given reaction, (P) and (Q) are respectively :-

(1) C6H5I and CH3–CH2–I

(2) C6H5–OH and CH3–CH2–I
(3) C6H5I and CH3–CH2OH
(4) C6H5OH and H2C=CH2

45)

Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of nucleophilic addition reaction.

(1) ii > iv > iii > i

(2) i > ii > iii > iv
(3) iv > iii > ii > i
(4) ii > iii > iv > ii

BOTANY

1) Which of the following option have correct information regarding Mango and Wheat?

Category Mango Wheat

(1) Family Poaceae Anacardiaceae
(2) Class Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
(3) Division Angiospermae Gymnospermae
(4) Genus Indica Aestivum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Assertion (A): Chlorella and Chlamydomonas are now place under Kingdom protista.
Reason (R): Life cycle of Chlorella & Chlamydomonas are similar with green algae.

(1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of 'A'.
(2) Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A is false but R is false.

3)

Identify the A, B, C and D

A - Equisetum, B - Paramoecium,
(1)
C - Funaria, D - Sphagnum
A - Euglena, B - Agaricus,
(2)
C - Ginkgo, D - Nostoc
A - Agaricus, B - Ginkgo,
(3)
C - Euglena, D - Equisetum
A - Nostoc, B - Euglena,
(4)
C - Agaricus, D - Ginkgo

4) Statement-I :- Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.

Statement-II :- Selaginella and Salvinia produce microspore and megaspore.

(1) Both statement I & statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

5) Read the following statements regarding Gymnosperm :-

(A) The main plant body is sporophytic and it is woody.
(B) Roots of some gymnosperm have Cyanobacterial association.
(C) The multicellular female gametophyte bears two ore more archegonia.
(D) The male and female cones may be developed on the same tree or on different trees.

(1) Statements A, C and D are correct but statement B is incorrect.

(2) Statements A, B and D are correct but statement C is incorrect.
(3) Statements A and D are correct but statement B and C are incorrect.
(4) All statement are correct

6) Consider the following characteristics.

(a) Occurrence of true roots, stem and leaves
(b) Heterosporous nature
(c) Presence of vascular tissues
(d) Independent free-living gametophytes
(e) Presence of archegonia
(f) Formation of seeds
How many of the above are common in both Angiosperm and Gymnosperm ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

7) Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of :-

(1) Indigofera
(2) Aloe
(3) Tomato
(4) Tulip

8) Which of the following characters is/are true

(A) Diadelphous condition occur in solanaceae.
(B) Wings & Keel of petal are characters of family fabaceae.
(C) Axile placentation found only in malvaceae.
(D) Tobacco belongs to family solanaceae.

(1) only A
(2) B & D
(3) Only C
(4) A & C

9) Stomata develop from -

(1) Dermal tissue

(2) Ground tissue
(3) Stelar tissue
(4) Vascular tissue
10) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) Prop roots are mainly found in Banyan tree.
(B) Axillary bud are capable of forming a branch or a flower.
(C) At maturity sieve tube elements have well developed nucleus.
(D) Bulliform cells are small, empty, colourless cells present on the adaxial surface of monocot
leaves.

(1) Statement A and B are correct

(2) Statement B, C and D are correct
(3) Statement A, B and D are correct
(4) Statement A and C are correct

11) Assertion (A): Cell is the basic structural & functional unit of living organism.
Reason (R): Cell of unicellular organism show independent existence and perform all function of
life.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
A is false, but R is true
(4)
.

12) Choose the correct option with respect to given diagram

(1) B – Frequently observed in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion
(2) D – Major site for synthesis of protein–like steroidal hormones in plant cell.
(3) C – Divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments.
(4) A – Synthesis of r–RNA and ribosome

13) Identify the above figure (A) and choose the correct statements regarding them :-
 (a) Present in plant cells.
(b) Double membrane structures.
(c) 70S kind of ribosomes are present.
(d) Figure ‘A’ is responsible for trapping light energy.

(1) a, b only
(2) b, c only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) a, b, c, d

14) The number of bivalents in prophase-I of meiosis are 10. How many chromosomes will be in
anaphase-II of meiosis at each pole?

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 40

15) (i) Initiation of the process of chromatin condensation.

(ii) Separation of the duplicated centrioles.
(iii) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle.
Above events are related with which of the following phases of cell cycle?

(1) S-phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase

16) If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to ______ during S-phase :-

(1) 2C
(2) 4C
(3) 8C
(4) 16C

17) Assertion: In Calvin cycle carboxylation is the most crucial step.

Reason: The reaction is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase, which results in formation of
two molecule of 3-PGA .
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Select correct option with respect to the given diagram:

(1) A = Impermeable to gaseous exchange B = Permeable to gaseous exchange

(2) A = Impermeable to gaseous exchange B = Impermeable to gaseous exchange
(3) A = Permeable to gaseous exchange B = Impermeable to gaseous exchange
(4) A = Permeable to gaseous exchange B = Permeable to gaseous exchange

19) Bundle sheath cells are similar to mesophyll cells in :-

(a) having large number of chloroplast
(b) having grana
(c) being involved in CO2 fixation
(d) being impervious to gaseous exchange.
(e) Their primary CO2 fixation product.

(1) Only c & e

(2) Only a, b & e
(3) Only c
(4) Only a & d

20) During chemiosmosis in mitochondria protons get accumulated in :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

21) Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(1) Conversion of succinate to fumarate

(2) Conversion of fumarate to malate
(3) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A
(4) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

22) Which is the correct sequence of following events, with respect to development ?
(a) Plasmatic growth (b) Differentiation
(c) Senescence

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, a
(3) c, a, b
(4) c, b, a

23) Select correct option with respect to A, B and C for given graph :-

(1) A = lag phase ; B = stationary phase ; C = log phase

(2) A = stationary phase ; B = log phase ; C = lag phase
(3) A = log phase ; B = lag phase ; C = stationary phase
(4) A = lag phase ; B = log phase ; C = stationary phase

24) Assertion (A) :- Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason (R) :- This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to developing embryosac.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

25) Identify the type of pistil in the given diagram -

(1) Monocarpellary syncarpous of wheat

(2) Monocarpellary apocarpous of maize
(3) Multicarpellary syncarpous of Papaver
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpous of Michaelia

26) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers prevent :-

(1) Autogamy only

(2) Geitonogamy only
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

27)

Inner layer of pollen wall, i.e., intine is made of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Pectocellulose
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Cutin

28) In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were crossed. The F1 plants produced red, pink and
white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two
plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and white by rr genes.

(1) rrrr
(2) RR
(3) Rr
(4) rr

29) Assertion : In humans, the genotype with all dominant alleles (AABBCC) will have the darkest
skin colour.
Reason : In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele i.e., the effect of
each dominant allele is additive.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) The figure given below shows three types of crosses (A, B, C) of sex linked inheritance. Select
the option giving correct identification :

A.

B.

C.

(1) A - Carrier female for colourblindness married to normal male

B - Colour blind female having normal haemoglobin married to man having abnormal
(2)
haemoglobin but normal vision.
(3) C - Female carrier for haemophilia married to haemophilic male
B- Female carrier for sickle cell anaemia and colour blindness married to man suffering from
(4)
sickle cell anaemia.

31)

What is the genotype of III a and III b in above given pedigree chart -

(1) XcX × XY
(2) Aa × aa
(3) Aa × Aa
(4) XcX × XcY

32)

The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to
[Link] diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to
C.

​
(1) A – Transcription, B –Translation, C – Francis Crick
(2) A – Translation, B – Extension, C – Rosalind Franklin
(3) A – Transcription, B – Replication, C – James Watson
A – Translation, B – Transcription, C – Ervin
(4)

33) How does crossing over introduce variation in meiosis?

(1) When non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes exchange DNA segments
(2) Redistribution of genetic information among the paired homologous chromosomes
Crossing over produces new combination of genes on the non sister chromatids in homologous
(3)
pairs of chromosomes.
(4) All of the above

34) Assertion (A) : If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is known then the sequence in
other strand can be predicted.
Reason (R) : Both the strands of DNA are complementary of each other.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Following structure is :-

(1) Deoxyribonucleotide
(2) Ribonucleotide
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside
(4) Ribonucleoside

36) In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if

(1) detritus is rich in nitrogen

(2) detritus is rich in humus
(3) detritus is rich in sugars
(4) detritus is rich in lignin and chitin

37) In a double stranded DNA, if base sequence in one strand is ATTAGA then find out ?
(A) Total no. of hydrogen bond
(B) Total no. of phosphodiester bond
(C) Total no. of sugar molecule
(D) Total no. of nitrogen base

(1) (A)-13, (B)-12, (C)-12, (D)-12

(2) (A)-12, (B)-11, (C)-10, (D)-10
(3) (A)-13, (B)-10, (C)-12, (D)-12
(4) (A)-12, (B)-12, (C)-10, (D)-10

38) How many statements are correct :-

(a) VNTR belong to class of a minisatellite.
(b) Satellite DNA do not code for proteins.
(c) DNA from every cell or tissue from an individual show different degree of polymorphism.
(d) 99.9 percent DNA of all humans are same

(1) All statements

(2) Only one statement
(3) 2 statements
(4) 3 statements

39) DNA is the genetic material. This was proven in which of the following organism.

(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Vicia faba
(3) Drosophila
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

40) Statement I: Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually.
Statement II: In general carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

41) In the month of January Siberian Cranes migrate from Russia to India for breeding. A survey was
done :

A. In December total population of Siberian Cranes = 1200

B. Number of Birth = 400
C. Number of Death = 400
D. Number of Cranes immigrated = 600
E. Number of Cranes emigrated = 600

Calculate the final population

(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 2000
(4) 1200

42) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A: Ecological pyramids does not accommodate a food web.
Statement-B: Ecological pyramids does not take into account the same species belonging to two or
more trophic levels.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

43) The graph below shows the change in two populations of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible

reason for these changes is that –

(1) All of the plant populations in this habitat decreased.

(2) Population B competed more successfully for food than population A did.
(3) Population A produced more offspring than population B did.
(4) Population A consumed the members of population B.

44) In species area relationship, if log A = 4, Z = 0.3 and log C = 0.8, find the value of log 'S' ?

(1) 3.76
(2) 100
(3) 4.24
(4) 2

45) Which of the following components provide sticky character to the bacterial cell?

(1) Nuclear membrane

(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Cell wall

ZOOLOGY

1) Identify the correct statement(s) from the following with reference to cartilaginous fishes:-
(A) Male pectoral fin bear claspers
(B) Teeth are modified cycloid scales
(C) Air bladder is absent
(D) They have internal fertilization
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, D

2)

Select the option which includes features related to the animal shown below :

(A) Without tissue organisation

(B) Sessile and radially symmetrical
(C) Found in fresh water and has perforated body
(D) Used as a scrubber while bathing
(E) Water current passing through the body helps in gathering food and removal of wastes.
(1) B and D only
(2) A, C and E
(3) A, C, D and E
(4) A, B, C and E

3) Animals belonging to phylum chordata are characterized by the presence of structures labelled as

A, B, C & D. Identify A, B, C & D:-

A B C D

Post anal
(1) Nerve cord Gill slits Notochord
tail

Post anal
(2) Nerve cord Notochord Gill slits
tail

Post anal
(3) Nerve cord Notochord Gill slits
tail

Post anal
(4) Nerve cord Notochord Gill slits
tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of the following is a mammal without placenta?

(1) Canis
(2) Felis
(3) Pteropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus

5) Assertion: Incomplete double circulation are present in frog.

Reason: Frog have a three chambered heart.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

(1) a-cloaca, b-ovary, d-oviduct, c-urinary bladder

(2) c-cloaca, a-ovary, b-oviduct, d-urinary bladder
(3) b-cloaca, d-ovary, c-oviduct, a-urinary bladder
(4) d-cloaca, c-ovary, a-oviduct, b-urinary bladder

7) Match column I (function) with column II (Types of enzymes) and select the correct option.

Column II (Types
Column I (Function)
of enzyme)

Enzymes catalysing breakdown

A. I. Isomerases
without addition of water

Enzyme catalyzes the conversion of an

B. II. Oxidoreductase
aldose sugar to a ketose sugar

Enzyme where catalysis

C. III. Ligases
involves transfer of electrons

Enzyme catalysing bonding of

D. IV. Lyases
two components with the help of ATP.
(1) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

8) A typical fat molecule is made up of

(1) three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

(2) one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(3) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(4) three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

9) A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately _______ of air per minute.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) 500 ml
(2) 360-480 L
(3) 6-8 L
(4) All of these

10) The diffusion membrane in lungs is made up of how many cellular layers?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Many

11) Which of the following is incorrect about RBCs.

(1) Non nucleated in most mammals

(2) Life span is 120 days
(3) Formed in red bone marrow
(4) Biconvex shape

12) Blood group O(+ve) is not considered to be universal donor. Why ?

(1) They lack both antigens A & B

(2) They have both antiboides a & b
(3) They can't donate to Rh (–ve) individuals
(4) Both 1 & 2

13)

Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron ?

Most reabsorption of the major substance from

(a) Henle’s loop
the glomerular filtrate.
 Distal convoluted Reabsorption of ions into the surrounding
(b)
tubule blood capillaries.

Carries the blood away from the glomerulus

(c) Afferent arteriole
towards the renal vein.

Creates minute space (slit pores) for the

(d) Podocytes
filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

14) The principal site of absorption of sodium is:

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule

(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Loop of Henle (thick portion)
(4) Collecting duct

15) During muscle contraction

(1) Chemical energy is changed into electrical energy

(2) Chemical energy is changed into mechanical energy
(3) Chemical energy is changed into physical energy
(4) Mechanical energy is changed into chemical energy

16) Which of the following is not a cranial bone ?

(1) Zygomatic
(2) Sphenoid
(3) Ethmoid
(4) Parietal

17) Assertion(A): The neural organisation in Hydra is composed of a network of neurons.

Reason(R): The neural system in insect possess brain also.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

18) Which of the following has non-myelinated nerve fibres?

(1) Optic nerves

(2) Cranial nerves
(3) Spinal nerves
(4) Autonomic nerves

19) Assertion: Cortisol is useful in organ transplantation.

Reason: Cortisol suppresses immune response.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

20) The -cells secrete a hormone called _____, while -cells secrete _____.

(1) Insulin & Glucagon respectively.

(2) Glucagon & Insulin
(3) Somatostatin & Glucagon
(4) Cortisol & Aldosterone

21) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

22) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive system. In which identify the site

where the embryo develop?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

23) Which of the following secretes large amount of progesterone during luteal phase for
maintenance of endometrium?

(1) Macula lutea

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus albicans
(4) Corpus callosum

24) Statement-I :- Sperm is a microscopic structure.

Statement-II :-A plasma membrane envelopes the whole body of sperm.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

25) MTP is safe :-

(1) Upto 12 week of pregnancy

(2) Upto 24 week of pregnancy
(3) Upto 30 week of pregnancy
(4) Upto 36 week of pregnancy

26) MTP in India was legalized in:

(1) 1973
(2) 1951
(3) 1971
(4) 1993

27) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) MTP is safe during the first trimester.

(2) Removal of gonads is best and permanent method of contraceptive.
(3) ‘Saheli’ is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pill
(4) Intense lactation helps as a natural method of contraception

28) After industrialisastion, the gene frequency of white winged moth decreased. This is because of

(1) Change in genetic make up of moth due to smoke

(2) Change in behaviour of predator due to smoke
(3) Deforestation due to anthropogenic effect
(4) Easy detection of moths by predators against a contrasting background

29) Select the incorrect statement-

(1) Tracheophytes originate from chlorophytes

(2) Psilophytons are ancestors of Gentales and conifers
(3) Bryophytes appeared earlier than pteridophytes
(4) Zosterophyllum arise from Rhynia type plants
30) In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160
to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is -

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7

31) Fossil X is older than fossil Y because

(1) Fossil Y was found in deeper sedimentation.

(2) Fossil X was found in deeper sedimentation.
(3) Fossil Y has some vestigial organs functional in X.
(4) Fossil Y has homologous and analogous organs of X.

32) Which of the following are hallucinogens ?

(1) Charas
(2) Bhang
(3) Ganja
(4) All of these

33) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning and MRI are very useful to detect

(1) Autoimmune disorders

(2) Disease caused by viral infection.
(3) Disease caused by bacterial infection.
(4) Disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells of internal organs.

34) Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are

(1) Non-dividing
(2) Starved of mutation
(3) Different in structure
(4) Undergoing rapid division

35) Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

(1) Single stranded DNA.

(2) Single stranded RNA.
(3) Double stranded RNA.
(4) Double stranded DNA.

36) The microorganisms use for swisss cheese is :

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Geotrichum
(3) Penicillium
(4) Streptococcus

37) Bacterium which convert milk into curd is

(1) Lactobacillus
(2) Leuconostoc
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Propionibacterium

38) DNA staining by ethidium bromide is followed by the exposure to UV rays. Now DNA is seen as
bands of

(1) Blue colour

(2) Orange colour
(3) Red colour
(4) Both (2) and (3)

39) If a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of β-galactosidase enzyme, then

(1) Recombinant colonies will produce blue colour in presence of chromogenic substrate.
(2) Non-recombinant colonies will produce blue colour in presence of chromogenic substrate.
(3) Non-recombinant colonies will not produce colour due to insertional inactivation.
(4) Both recombinant and non-recombinant colonies produce blue colour.

40) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. Find out the correct
sequence.
a. Fragmentation of DNA
b. Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale
c. Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
d. Extraction of the desired product
e. Isolation of DNA
f. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
g. Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host.

(1) e → a → f → g → c → b → d
(2) e → f → a → c → g → b → d
(3) a → e → c → f → g → d → b
(4) e → a → f → c → g → b → d

41) A stirred-tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the-

(1) Mixing of the reactor contents

(2) Control the temperature of the reactor
(3) Control the pH of the reactor
(4) All of the above
42) Statement I: A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield.
Statement II : C-peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

43) A. Genetic engineering involves the use of restriction endonuclease, DNA ligase , appropriate
plasmid or viral vectors
B. Modern biotechnology uses genetically modified organisms.
C. Bacterial cell wall is digested by lysozyme -
Select the correct answer on the basis of above statements:-

(1) All are correct

(2) All are incorrect
(3) Only C is correct
(4) A & B are correct

44) Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :-

(1) Fish
(2) Mice
(3) Cow
(4) Pig

45) Why insulin is not administered orally to diabetic patient ?

(1) It is bitter in taste

(2) It is peptide & can be digested
(3) It will lead to sudden decrease in blood sugar if given orally
(4) It leads to peptic ulcer if given orally
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 4 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 4 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 2 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 4 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 3 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) For maximum range h =

2)

3) For floating
wt. = Th = vin ρw g

(120 + m)g
m = 80 kg

4)

5) Explain the Question : Find acceleration of one particle when separation between then is
R.
Concept : This question is based on gravitational force and acceleration.
Solution :

∴ m1 + m2 = M

Force on m1,

acceleration a1 =
Force on m2,

Acceleration
arel = a1 + a2
arel = a1 –(–a2)
arel = a1 + a2

Final Answer : (2)

6)

7) Solution:

1. Asking About: Height where weight becomes half of its surface value.

2. Concept: Weight is proportional to gravitational force, which varies with height as per
Newton's law of gravitation.

3. Formula:

4. Calculation / Explanation:

Given , so

Taking square root on both sides.

Solving for h,
R+h=
h=( – 1) R

5. Final Answer: ( – 1) times the radius of Earth.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

8) = 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

9)

t= = 20 s

10)

11)

18 m/s2

12)

13)

14)

15)

= 300 × 10–7 = 3 × 10–5 T

16)
All three fragments have equal masses, say 'm' each,
Then, by COLM

17)

360 m/s

18) Explain Question:

A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical shells with inner radius a = 50 cm
and outer radius b = 60cm, filled completely with a dielectric of constant k = 6. We must find
its capacitance.

Concept:
Capacitance of a spherical capacitor with dielectric.

Solution:
Capacitance of a spherical capacitor with dielectric:

With dielectric completely filling the space:

Given:
a = 0.50m, b = 0.60m, k = 6

C=

C=

C=
Final answer: Option (1)

19)

20) Question Explanation: To find out the acceleration of the system and tension in the
string.
Concept: Motion of bodies connected with pulley systems without spring.

Formula: , force = mass × acceleration

Solution:

= 2 m/s2
For mass 5 kg
T = ma
T=5×2
T = 10 N

21)

Question Asking About:

The velocity ratio at points A, B and C in a vertical circle, given critical speed at C.

Key Concept:

• Energy Conservation =
• Critical Speed at C:

Formula & Calculation:

VA = ?, VB = ?, VC = ?
• At C:
• At B:
• At A:

• Velocity Ratio:

Final Answer:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

22)

3 × 10–9 m

23)

24)

decrease by 3 times

25)

26)

27)

W2 = W3 = W4

28)

Explain the Question : A bubble is inside glass of refractive index μ1 = 1.5 at a distance of 3
cm from a convex spherical surface separating glass and air (μ2 = 1). The diameter of the
surface is 10 cm, so its radius of curvature is 5 cm. We must find the apparent distance of the
bubble from the surface as seen from air.

Concept : This question is based on refraction at a spherical surface (apparent position of an

object).

Formula :
 Solution :
Given:
μ1 = 1.5 (glass)
μ2 = 1 (air)
u = −3 cm (bubble inside glass, to the left of surface)
R = −5 cm (convex surface as seen from glass; center on glass side)

+ 0.5 = 0.1

= 0.1 − 0.5

= −0.4
v = −2.5 cm
Negative sign indicates the image appears inside the glass.
Hence, the bubble appears 2.5 cm from the surface.

Final answer : Option (1)

29)

30)

Explain Question:
The circuit uses four NAND gates, and we are to find the correct truth table for output Y based
on inputs A and B.

Concept:
NAND gate
Solution:
NAND gate output ⇒

Truth Table :
output Y = (1, 0, 0)

Final answer : 3

31) irms =

32)

......(i)

......(ii)
Equation (i) (ii)

T = 25°C

33) Explain Question:

As shown in figure find the value of magnetic flux.

Concept:
Magnetic flux.

Solution:

weber

Final Answer: Option (2)

34)
∴

35) Question Explain -

Find the charge flow in a coil with resistance 2Ω when the magnetic flux changes from 2Wb to
10 Wb in 0.2 sec.

Concept -

This question is based on Faraday's Law of Induction. The induced charge flow can be
calculated directly using the formula:

Where is the change in magnetic flux, and R is the resistance.

Formula Used -

Calculation -
1. Change in magnetic flux:

2. Charge Flow (Q) :

Level - Easy

36)

37)

38)

1.0 m/s

39) Induced electric field E at a distance r from the centre of the coil is given by
 E=

0
At r = a, E =

and at r > a, E =
Thus, outside thecoil (for r > a) the value of E decreases as 1/r

40)

nA = 336 Hz
nB = 340 Hz
Let unknown frequency is n.
It produce (Δn) beats with A.
nA – n = Δn ...(I)
nB – n = 2Δn ...(II)
subtracting I from II
∴ nB – nA = Δn
340 – 336 = Δn ∴ Δn = 4
∴ n = nA – Δn = 336 – 4 = 332 Hz.

41)

42)

43)

δ = i + e – A (for minimum deviation i = e)

∴ minimum deviation = 2i – A

60° = 2 × 60° – A ⇒ ∴ A = 60°

n= = =
δ1 = i1 + e – A
65° = i1 + 70° – 60° or i1 = 55°
the δ versus i curve is not parabolic

44) 9995

45)

6 × 10–15 m
CHEMISTRY

46) Fact

47) CH3COOH + NaOH —→ CH3COONA + H2O

inital 6 2 – –
milli-
moles
after 4 – 2 –
reaction

pH = pKa + log

48) Rate ∝ positive charge on carbonyl carbon.

49)

50)

51)

52) 1º amines gives carbylamine test.

53)

54)

Schiff's test

55)

Question explanation: Asking entropy change in isothermal expansion

Concept: Entropy

Solution: ΔS = nR ln

Given: n = 2 mol, Vi = 10 L, Vf = 100 L, R = 8.314 J/mol·K

ΔS = 2 × 8.314 × ln = 16.628 × ln 10
 ΔS = 16.628 × 2.3026 ≈ 38.3 J/K–1

Final Answer: Option (3)

56)

Explain Question : The question requires correctly matching the properties and roles of
vitamins listed in Column-I with the corresponding vitamins in Column-II.

Concept : This question is based on Biomolecules, Vitamins

Solution : The matching is based on the classification and functions of vitamins, as shown in
the table below.

Column-I Matched Column-II

(I) Water soluble vitamins (Q) B-group and C

(II) Water insoluble vitamins (P) A, D, E and K

(III) Vitamins which act as antioxidants (R) C, D and E

(IV) Increased blood clotting time (S) K

The correct matching sequence is: (I)→(Q), (II)→(P), (III)→(R), (IV)→(S).

Final Answer : option (1)

57) Explain the Question : Determine the total enthalpy for a reaction x → 2y from three
given steps.
Concept : This question is based on apply hess's law sum the ΔH of the component steps to
find overall ΔH.
Solution : (i) + (ii) × 2 + (iii) × 2
X → 2A ; ΔH = x …(i)
2A → 2B ; ΔH = 2y …(ii)
2B → 2Y ; ΔH = 2z …(iii)
___________________________
X → 2Y, ΔH = x + 2y + 2z
Final Answer : Option (3)

58)

59)

Question Explanation

We need the maximum wavelength line in the Lyman series of He⁺ ion.

Concept
Rydberg formula for hydrogen-like ions:
1/λ = RZ² (1/n₁² – 1/n₂²).

Solution

For maximum wavelength, the transition should be the smallest energy gap, i.e. n₂ = 2 → n₁ =
1 in lyman series.

For He⁺ (Z = 2):

1/λ = R × (2²) × (1/1² – 1/2²)
= 4R (1 – 1/4)
= 4R × 3/4 = 3R.
So λ = 1/(3R).

Final Answer– (Option 2)

60)

Al < Ga < In < Tl

61)

Question Explanation :
Find the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the 2s-orbital.

Concept :
Orbital angular momentum L is given by:

where I is the azimuthal quantum number. For s-orbitals, l = 0

Solution :
For 2s orbital, l = 0 so:

Final Answer : Option (2) Zero

62)

Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

63)

64)

Explain Question:
We are asked : Match each molecule with its characteristic odour or vapour appearance.
 Concept:
Odour and vapour properties depend on molecular nature:

A. CO2 : colourless, odourless gas

B. I2 : sublimates to violet fumes
C. H2S : toxic gas with rotten egg smell
D. Br2 : reddish brown vapours

Solution:

A. (P) CO2 → Odourless → (4)

B. (Q) I2 → Violet fumes → (2)
C. (R) H2S → Rotten egg smell → (1)
D. (S) Br2 → Reddish brown vapours → (3)

Final answer: Option (1)

65)

3.0 × 10–23 cm3

66)

67) Explain Question: Arrange the given isoelectronic ions in order of increasing size.
Concept: This question is based on Ionic Radii
Solution: All species have 10 electrons. For isoelectronic ions, radius decreases as nuclear
charge (protons) increases. Cations are smaller than anions, so Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–.

Atomic/Ionic Radius ∝
Final Answer : 2

68) A = KCl
B = CH3COOH

69) All are linear in shape.

N≡N→0

70) Asking about : Graph identification

Concept :
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
We know, for zero order reaction -
At = A0 – Kt

t1/2 ∝ [A0]

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

71)

72)

r = K [A] [B]

73)

Question Explanation: Asking about paramagnetic species

Concept: MOT

Solution: Paramagnetism arises from unpaired electrons in molecular orbitals

A. O₂ → (16 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px1= ​π∗2py1 → 2
unpaired electron → paramagnetic.

B. B₂ → (10 electron) - σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px1 = ​π2py1 → 2 unpaired electron →
paramagnetic.

0
C. NO → (15 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​σ2pz2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​π∗2px1= ​π∗2py →
1 unpaired electron→ paramagnetic.

All listed molecules have unpaired electrons → paramagnetic

 Final Answer: Option 4

74)

Explaining the Question :-

This question applies Raoult's Law and Dalton's Law of partial pressures to determine the
vapor phase composition of a solution.
Concept:- This question is based on Raoult's Law, Dalton's Law
Solution :-
Mole fraction of A in solution, XA​=1−XB​=1−0.5=0.5.
0
Partial pressure of A, PA​=XA​PA ​=0.5×108=54 torr.
0
Partial pressure of B, PB​=XB​PB ​=0.5×36=18 torr.
Total pressure, Ptotal​=PA​+PB​=54+18=72 torr.
Mole fraction of A in vapor phase, YA​= PA/Ptotal​ ​=54/72​=0.75.
Final Answer : (2)

75) Question Explanation: Ordering the Ka value.

Concept: Ka and Acidic Strength

Solution: A high Ka value corresponds to a strong acid. The acidity of a phenol is enhanced by
electron-withdrawing groups. The correct order is IV > III > II > I. Calculation: N/A

Final Answer: 3

76)

77)

78) Given Data:

A. Concentration of NH4Cl = 0.01 M

B. Kb of NH3 = 2 × 10–5
C. Need to find pH

Concept:
NH4Cl → NH4+ + Cl–

A. Cl– is neutral
B. NH4+ is the conjugate acid of NH3 → undergoes hydrolysis:

NH4+ + H2O NH3 + H3O+ To calculate pH, use the formula for salts of weak base
+ strong acid: Ka =
[H+] =
Mathematical Calculation

Step 1: Step 2:

Step 3: pH = – log(2.24 × 10–6) ≈

5.65

79)

Question Explanation: Identify the major product formed when 2-methyl-1-phenylprop-1-ene

reacts with HBr in the presence of Peroxide.

Concept : Anti-Markovnikov Addition, Kharasch Effect, Free Radical Mechanism, Stability of

Free Radicals.

Solution : In the presence of Peroxide, HBr adds to unsymmetrical alkenes following Anti-
Markovnikov's

[Link] reaction proceeds via a free radical mechanism where the radical attacks the
double bond first.

The radical attaches to the carbon atom to form the Most Stable intermediate radical.

Final Answer: Option (2)

80)
high spin, No pairing

0 0
CFSE = 3 × Δ +1× Δ

0 0
= Δ ⇒ – 0.6 Δ

81)

n 3 → n2

82) Explain Question:

We need to identify the process in which entropy decreases.
 Concept
This question is based on (Entropy change in physical processes)

Solution
• Dissolving sucrose in water → disorder increases → entropy increases
• Vaporisation of camphor → solid to gas → entropy increases
• Melting of ice → solid to liquid → entropy increases
• Stretching of rubber band → molecules align, randomness decreases → entropy decreases

Final answer: Option (4)

83)

84)

[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

In this pair hydrate isomerism present.
So this pairs not correctly matched.

85) Question Explanation: Number of conformations less stable than the anti form of butane.

Concept: Conformational Analysis of Butane

Solution: The anti conformation is the global minimum on the potential energy surface. Any
rotation away from this perfectly staggered angle (180°) increases strain.

A. Rotation about a single bond is continuous.

B. There are an infinite number of possible dihedral angles between the perfectly anti (180°)
and other staggered or eclipsed positions.
C. All these intermediate states have higher potential energy.

Final Answer: Option (4)

86)

[Co(H2O)6]+3 < [Rh(H2O)6]+3 < [Ir(H2O)6]+3

87)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking about the reactivity in SN1 reaction
Concept :- This Question is based SN1 reaction
Solution :- SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Rate of SN1 reaction = b > a > c > d.
Final Answer :- (4)

88)

Question Explanation: Identify why Darzen's process gives alkyl chloride in good Yield.

Concept: Darzen's process

Solution: The reaction of an alkanol (R-OH) with Thionyl chloride (SOCl2) is:

ROH + SOCl2 → RCl + SO2 → + HCl

The two by-products, Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and Hydrogen chloride (HCl), are gases that readily
escape from the reaction mixture. This removes them from the equilibrium, driving the
reaction forward to completion and yielding a pure alkyl chloride (R-Cl) that does not require
further purification.
The other products of the reaction are gaseous and escape out

Final Answer: Option (2)

89) Fact

90)

Explaining the Question :- Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of

nucleophilic addition reaction.

Solution :- Reactivity towards NAR ∝ ⊕ve charge on Carbonyl carbon ∝ ∝

Aldehydes are more reactivated than ketone towards NAR by both electronic & steric factor.
 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Order of reactivity ⇒ i > ii > iii > iv

Final Answer :- (2)

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 11/1.1

92)

93)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 13 ,15, 17, 33

94)

Explain Question:
This question is asking to identify correct or incorrect statement about heterospory in
pteridophytes.

Concept:
This question is based on Pteridophytes -heterospory

Solution:
Statement-l:- Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.-Correct
Statement-ll :- Selaginella and Salvinia produce microspore and megaspore.-Correct
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and
micro (small) spores, are known as heterosporous.

Final answer:
Option (4)

95)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 38,39

96) NCERT Pg. # 36, 38, 39

a, b, c & f are common in both Angiosperm and Gymnosperm

98) NCERT Pg # 79,80,81

99) Ncert page 72.

100)

101)

102)

103)

104)

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 163

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. 216

108)

109) NCERT XI Page No. # 218,219

110)
111)

Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A

112)

Explain Question -

The question asks for the correct chronological sequence of developmental events in plant
cells.

Concept -

Stages of development: growth → differentiation → senescence.

Solution - the sequence as:

Plasmatic growth → Differentiation → Senescence

Final answer -

Option 1

114)

NCERT XII Pg No. # 19

115)

116) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT XII Pg. # 31
In monoecious pants since male and female flowers are present on different plant so autogamy
is not possible but geitonogamy and xenogamy is possible.
Final Answer : (1)

118)

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69

120)
121)

Aa × Aa

122)

123)

125) NCERT Pg. # 00

126)

128)

NCERT-XII Pg#105

129) Bacteriophage

130)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

131)

•I nitial population in December = 1200

• Number of births = 400
• Number of deaths = 400
• Number of cranes immigrated = 600
• Number of cranes emigrated = 600
• Population after births = Initial population + births = 1200 + 400 = 1600
• Population after deaths = Population after births - deaths = 1600-400 1200
• Population after immigration = Population after deaths + immigrants = 1200 + 600 = 1800
• Population after emigration = Population after immigration - emigrants = 1800 -600 = 1200
So, the total population of Siberian Cranes after all these changes is 1200.
Therefore, the correct answer is: 4. 1200.

132) Explanation:
 A. Ecological pyramids (of number, biomass, or energy) are simplified models that represent
trophic levels in an ecosystem.
B. Statement A (Correct) - Ecological pyramids only represent a linear food chain, not a complex
food web where species have multiple feeding relationships.
C. Statement B (Correct) - Some organisms (e.g., omnivores, opportunistic feeders) occupy
multiple trophic levels, but pyramids do not reflect this complexity.

133)

Population B competed more successfully for food than population A did.

134) NCERT Pg. # 262

135)

ZOOLOGY

136)

C, D

137)

Question Explanation : The question asks which features are related to Spongilla, a
freshwater sponge.

Concept : Characteristics of freshwater sponges (Porifera)

Solution :

(A) Spongilla lacks tissue organisation.

(C) It is found in freshwater and has a perforated body.
(E) Water current passing through its body helps in food gathering and waste removal.

Thus, the features (A), (C), and (E) correctly describe Spongilla.

Final Answer : A, C and E

138) NCERT Pg. # 55

139)

Ornithorhynchus

140) NCERT Pg. # 118

142) Concept :
Solution : Enzymes are generally classified on the basis of the type of reactions that they
catalyse, like oxidoreductases, transferase, hydrolases, isomerases, lyases and ligases.
Final Answer : (3)

143) NCERT Page-144 & 145 / N-106, 107 | 2016, C

144)

6-8 L

145)

146)

Biconvex shape

148)

149) Proximal convoluted tubule

152) NCERT Page No. 231

153) NCERT Page No. 232

156)

Statement I: The edges of the infundibulum (part of the female

reproductive system, near the ovary) have finger-like projections called
fimbriae. This is correct. The fimbriae help in capturing the released
egg during ovulation.

Statement II: The labia minora are fleshy folds of tissue found in the
female genital area. This is also correct. The labia minora protect the
internal genital organs.

157)

A
 158)

Corpus luteum

159)

Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

161)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the year Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(MTP) was legalized in India.

Concept: MTP

Solution: The MTP Act was passed to provide legal access to abortion under specific
conditions, including risk to the mother’s health, fetal abnormalities, or contraceptive failure.
This Act was enacted in/legalized in 1971.

Final answer: Option 3

162)

Let's examine each statement carefully and identify the incorrect statement:

1. MTP is safe during the first trimester – Correct

A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is considered relatively safe during the first 12 weeks (first
trimester).

2. Removal of gonads is best and permanent method of contraceptive – Incorrect

A. Removal of gonads does cause sterility, but it's not considered a contraceptive method. It leads
to serious hormonal imbalances and is not medically recommended for contraception. So this
statement is incorrect.

3. ‘Saheli’ is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pill – Correct

A. Yes, Saheli is a non-steroidal weekly pill developed in India.

4. Intense lactation helps as a natural method of contraception – Correct

A. This refers to the Lactational Amenorrhea Method , which can prevent ovulation temporarily
after childbirth. So,the correct answer is option 2.

163)

Easy detection of moths by predators against a contrasting background

164) Zosterophyllum arise from Rhynia type plants

 165) Question Explanation: Calculate the frequency of allele A in a population using
genotype data.

Concept: The question is based on Hardy-Weinberg principle

Solution: Total individuals = 1000

A. AA = 360 → contributes 2 A alleles × 360 = 720

B. Aa = 480 → contributes 1 A allele × 480 = 480
C. aa = 160 → contributes 0 A alleles

Total A alleles = 720 + 480 = 1200 Total alleles in population = 1000 individuals × 2 =
2000Frequency of allele A = 1200 / 2000 = 0.6

Final Answer: Option 3

166)

The correct answer is 2. Fossil X was found in deeper sedimentation.

A. Sedimentation: Over time, layers of sediment (like sand, silt, and mud) build up on top of
each other. This creates a chronological record of the Earth's history. The deeper the layer,
the older the fossils found within it.

Therefore, if Fossil X was found in deeper sedimentation than Fossil Y, it implies that Fossil X is
older.

171)

Propionibacterium

172)

Lactobacillus

174)

Question Explanation: This is about insertional inactivation used in cloning with β-

galactosidase (LacZ) as a reporter gene.

Concept: Selection of recombinants

Solution: The β-galactosidase enzyme cleaves a chromogenic substrate (like X-gal) to produce
a blue [Link] a recombinant DNA is inserted into the LacZ gene, it disrupts the gene, so the
enzyme is not functional in recombinant [Link]-recombinant colonies have an intact
LacZ gene and will produce blue colonies due to active β-galactosidase.

Final answer: Option 2

175) Explanation:
 Recombinant DNA Steps (Shortest):

A. Get DNA.
B. Cut DNA.
C. Pick genes.
D. Paste genes into vectors.
E. Put into the host.
F. Grow host.
G. Get product.

Final Answer is Option 4 is the right answer.

176)

Question Explanation: The question asks why a stirred-tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical
or has a curved base.

Concept: Bioreactor

Solution: A cylindrical or curved-base design in a bioreactor helps in:

A. Efficient mixing of culture medium and nutrients by the impeller

B. Uniform temperature distribution through better circulation

C. Better pH control as mixing ensures even distribution of buffers

Final answer: Option 4

177)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

178)

Explain Question: The question is asking to identify which of the given statements are
correct.

Concept: Tools of r-DNA technology : Enzymes

Solution:

Explanation :

A. Genetic engineering involves restriction endonuclease, DNA ligase, and suitable plasmid or
viral vectors

Correct — these are essential tools of recombinant DNA technology.

B. Modern biotechnology uses genetically modified organisms

Correct — GMOs are a key component of modern biotechnology.

C. Bacterial cell wall is digested by lysozyme

Correct — lysozyme breaks the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls.

Final answer: Option 1

179)

Mice

180)

Question Explanation: This question asks why insulin cannot be given by mouth to diabetic
patients.

Concept: Biotechnological applications

Solution: Insulin is a protein (peptide) hormone. If insulin is administered orally, it gets

digested like other proteins by digestive enzymes in the stomach and intestine. Therefore
cannot reach the bloodstream in an active form.

Final answer: Option 2