14-09-2025

1103CMD303003250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/sec north to 40 km/sec east in 20 sec.
What is the magnitude of average acceleration during this time ?

(1) 2.5 km/sec2

(2) 12.5 km/sec2
(3) 22.5 km/sec2
(4) 32.5 km/sec2

2) A car travel 'x' km distance by speed of 60 km/hr and next 'x' km distance by 40 km/h find out
average speed of complete journey ?

(1) 50 km/hr
(2) 60 km/hr
(3) 65 km/h
(4) 48 km/hr

3) A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant displacement
from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

4) Position-time relation x = 8 + 12t2 – t3. Calculate the time when a = 0 :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 3sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 8 sec

5) Match the columns (initial velocity = 0, acceleeration = 10 m/s2 (constant) )

Column
Column I
II

Distance travelled in 19th sec

A. P. 180
in metre
 Distance travelled in 6 sec in
B. Q. 10
metre

C. Velocity after 3.2 sec in m/s R. 32

Acceleration after 3.2 sec in

D. S. 185
m/s2
(1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R

6) The velocity of any particle is related with its displacement as , calculate acceleration
at x = 5m. (m/s2)

(1) 10
(2) 240
(3) 24
(4) 100

7) The velocity versus time graph of a body moving in a straight line is as follows. The distance

travelled by the body in 5 sec is:

(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 5 m

8) A body moves along the circular path as shown in figure. Find magnitude of displacement

between point A & B.

(1) R/2
(2) R/4
(3) R
(4) 2R
9) The graph of displacement versus time is shown. Its corresponding velocity-time graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) An engine of a train moving with uniform acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u and
the last compartment with velocity v. The middle point of the train passes the same pole with a
velocity of:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n second is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) Assertion :- A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason :- A body is momentarily at rest when it reverse its direction while moving in a straight line.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but R is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

13) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time. Then, it retards at a
constant rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. If it remains in motion for 3 second, then the maximum
speed attained by the car is :

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

14) A body starts from rest with uniform accleration. If its velocity after n second is v, then its
displacement in the last two seconds is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on
planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the
same person on the planet B :-

(1) 18m
(2) 6m

(3)

(4)

16) A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m
twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20m/sec.
(2) 25 m/sec.
(3) 30m/sec.
(4) 35 m/sec.
17) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

The co-ordinates of a particle in x-y plane are given as

x = 2t2 + t and y = 16t2 + 8t

The motion of the particle is :-

(1) Along a straight line
(2) Along a circular path
(3) along a parabolic path
(4) along a hyperbolic path

19) A particle is moving with velocity of 4 m/sec along positive x-direction. An acceleration of 1
m/sec2 is acted on a particle along negative x-direction find the distance travelled by particle in 10
sec ?

(1) 10 m
(2) 26 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 8 m

20) Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower, one after the other with an internal of one
second. The first one reaches the ground after 4 second. When the first one reaches the ground, the
distances between the first and second, the second and third and the third and fourth will be,
respectively :-

(1) 35, 25 and 15m

(2) 30, 20 and 10m
(3) 20, 10 and 5m
(4) 40, 30 and 20m

21) A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens out. Then he
descends with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s2. If he bails out to the plane at a height of 2495 m and g =
10 m/sec2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be :-

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

22) A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of the earth, then the velocity time graph
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle starts from rest and undergoes acceleration as shown in figure. The velocity time

graph from figure will have a shape

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H with velocity 20 m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the same instant when ball is thrown. What should be
the velocity of man to catch the ball before striking to the ground. (Consider height of man
negligible):-

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) none of these

25) A shot is fired from a point at a distance of 200 m from the foot of a tower 100 m high so that it
just passes over it. The direction of shot is :-

(1) 30o
(2) 45o
(3) 60o
(4) 70o
26) A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1 second it is moving at
angle 45° with the horizontal and after 2 seconds it is moving horizontally. The speed of projection
of the ball is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) If the instantaneous velocity of particle projected as shown in figure is given

by where a, b and c are positive constants, the range on the horizontal plane will be:

(1) 2ab/c
(2) ab/c
(3) ac/b
(4) a/2bc

28) A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high tower with an initial velocity of 10
m/s. The air drag is negligible. The speed of the stone when it is at the same distance from top as
well as base of the tower (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 25 m/s

29) The equation of motion of a projectile is: . The horizontal component of velocity is
–1 –2
3 ms . Given that g = 10 ms , what is the range of the projectile?

(1) 12.4 m
(2) 21.6 m
(3) 30.6 m
(4) 36.0 m

30) Two paper screens A and B are separated by 150 m. A bullet pierces A and then B. The hole in B
is 15 cm below the hole in A. If the bullet is travelling horizontally at the time of hitting A, then the
velocity of the bullet at A is : (g = 10 ms–2) :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Two balls are thrown from a tower as shown in the figure :- Which of
the ball will hit the ground first :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both will strike at the same time
(4) Depends on height of tower

32)

A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure then the distance from the foot of the tower
where it will strike the ground will be :

(taken g = 10m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3) 2000 m
(4) 3000 m

33) Two trains one travelling at 15 m s–1 and other at 20 m s–1 are headed towards one another along
a straight track. Both the drivers apply brakes simultaneously when they are 500 m apart. If each
train has a retardation of 1 m s–2, the separation after they stop is :-

(1) 192.5 m
(2) 225.5 m
(3) 187.5 m
(4) 155.5 m
34) A ball is dropped from 1000 m height, simultaneously another ball is thrown upward with speed
of 200 m/s, find the time when they meet :

(1) 5 second
(2) 10 second
(3) 20 second
(4) second

35) If the rain is falling vertically downwards with velocity 20 m/s and a bike is going with velocity
30 m/s. Calculate at what angle from the vertical a man on the bike must incline his umbrella so that
he can save himself from rain

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A river flows from east to west with a speed of 5 m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable of
swimming at the rate of 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time, he
should swim

(1) Due north

(2) Due north-east
(3) Due north-east with double the speed of river
(4) None of the above

37) A boat is moving with a velocity 3i + 4j with respect to ground. The water in the river is moving
with a velocity – 3i – 4j with respect to ground. The relative velocity of the boat with respect to water
is -

(1) 8j
(2) – 6i – 8j
(3) 6i + 8j
(4)

38) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between

them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

39) Two men P and Q are standing at corners A and B of a square ABCD of side 8m. They start
moving along the track with constant speed 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. Find the time when they

will meet for the first time.

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 1 s
(4) 6 s

40) The displacement (x) of a particle depends on time t as x = αt2 – βt3. Choose the incorrect
statements from the following :-

(1) The particle returns to its starting point at time α/β

(2)
The particle comes to instantaneous rest after time
(3) The initial velocity of the particle is zero
(4) The initial acceleration of the particle is zero

41) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Path length is a scalar quantity whereas displacement is a vector quantity

The magnitude of displacement is always equal to the path length traversed by an object over a
(2)
given time interval
The displacement depends only on the end points whereas path length depends on the actual
(3)
path followed
(4) The path length is always positive whereas displacement can be positive, negative and zero

42) The friction of the air causes a vertical retardation equal to 10% of the acceleration due to
gravity (take g = 10 ms–2). The maximum height will be decreased by :-

(1) 8%
(2) 9%
(3) 10%
(4) 11%

43) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by :
s = (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m
The displacement when the acceleration becomes zero is :-

(1) 0 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) –2 m

44)

A ball is thrown upwards and returns to the ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the
following quantities remains constant?

(1) Kinetic energy of the ball

(2) The speed of the ball
(3) The vertical component of velocity
(4) The horizontal component of velocity

45) A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m upto which height he
can throw the same ball in vertical upward direction.

(1) 100 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 50 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1

(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

2) Correct order of E.A. :-

(1) O > S > Se > Te

(2) S > O > Se > Te
(3) S > Se > Te > O
(4) Te > Se > S > O

3) Which is not transition element.

(1) Cu
(2) Ac
(3) Sc
(4) Pd

4) Which of the following is exothermic:

(1) N(g) + le– → N– (g)

(2) P(g) + le– → P– (g)
(3) Na(g) → Na+ (g) + le–
(4) Be(g) + le– → Be– (g)

5) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic No.) (Block)
(a) 15 (P) s-block
(b) 19 (q) p-block
(c) 25 (r) d-block
(d) 64 (s) f-block
(1) a–(q), b–(p), c–(r), d–(s)
(2) a–(r), b–(p), c–(q), d–(s)
(3) a–(p), b–(r), c–(q), d–(s)
(4) a–(q), b–(r), c–(p), d–(s)

6)

Which of the following is not an representative element ?

(1) Li
(2) B
(3) C
(4) Fe

7) Observe the following set of species and select the option in which shortest radius and highest
radius are present in first and last position in the same set ?

(1) Li+ Na+ K+ Be+2 Cs+

(2) F– Cl– Br– S–2 O2–
(3) B Al Ga In Tℓ
(4) C Si Ge Pb Sn

8) In which of the following pair, both the species are isoelectronic but the first one is large in size
than the second :-

(1) S–2, O–2

(2) Cl–, S2–
(3) F–, Na+
(4) N3–, P–3

9) In which of the following the energy change corresponds to first ionisation potential -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Successive ionisation energies of an element (x) are given below (in K/cal) :-

IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4

165 195 556 595

Which of the following set is correct?

electronic Stable Group
configuration O.S. No.

(1) ns2 +2 12th

(2) ns1 +1 1st

(3) ns2 +2 2nd

(4) ns2np1 +3 13th

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match the column :-

(a) Nitrogen family (P) Chalcogens

(b) Oxygen family (Q) Noble gases

(c) Fluorine family (R) Pnicogens

(d) Zero group (S) Halogens

Option:-
a b c d

(1) S P Q R

(2) R P S Q

(3) P Q R S
 (4) Q S P R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Math the column :

Column-I Column-II
(A) 52 (P) p-block
(B) 30 (Q) Transition elements
(C) 57 (R) d-block element
(D) 91 (S) Inner transition element

A B C D

(1) P R Q,R T

(2) R P C S

(3) Q R R T

(3) P,R R,Q Q,R R

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Atomic radius of F & Ne in Angstrom unit are given by :

(1) 0.72, 1.60

(2) 1.60, 1.60
(3) 0.72, 0.72
(4) None of these

14) The correct sequence given below containing neutral, acidic, basic and amphoteric oxide each,
respectively, is

(1) NO, ZnO, CO2, CaO

(2) ZnO, NO, CaO, CO2
(3) NO, CO2, ZnO, CaO
(4) NO, CO2, CaO, ZnO

15) Electron affinity of :

(1) carbon is greater than oxygen

(2) sulphur is lesser than oxygen
(3) iodine is higher than bromine
(4) bromine is lesser than chlorine

16) Which of the following pairs of elements have almost similar atomic radii:-

(1) Zr, Hf
(2) Mo, W
(3) Co, Ni
(4) All

17) Screening effect is not observed in:-

(1) He+
(2) Li+2
(3) H
(4) All of these

18) Match the following lists and select the correct answer –

List -I List - II
A d-block clement I 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p6, 4s1
B Halogen II 1s2, 2s22p6,3s23p6
C Alkali metal III 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d6, 4s2
D Noble gas IV 1s2, 2s22p5
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

19) In periodic table, the basic character of oxides

(1) Increases from left to right and decreases from top to bottom
(2) Decreases from right to left and increases from top to bottom
(3) Decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom
(4) Increases from right to left and decreases from top to bottom

20) The element having maximum value for its 3rd ionisation enthalpy is

(1) B
(2) Be
(3) Al
(4) C

21) Match the following :-

 (1) (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 (a) Noble gas

(2) Ga (b) Halogen

(3) Ar (c) Transition element

(4) Cl (d) Eka aluminium

(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

22) If the lattice energy of NaF is 'x' then lattice energy of MgO may be

(1) x
(2) 2 x
(3) 4 x
(4) 8 x

23) In which of the following set all compounds does not exist?

(1) PCl5, NF3, NH3

(2) PF5, PH3, SiH4
(3) H2O, OF2, OF4
(4) XeF5, NF5, PCl4

24) The correct order of bond-strength is

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(2) N2 > O2 > H2 > F2
(3) 1s-1s > 1s-2p > 1s-2s > 2pπ-2pπ > > 2p–2p
(4) C – C > C = C > C ≡ C

25) Geometry of SF4 is :

(1) Sea-saw
(2) T-shape
(3) Tetrahedral
(4) all of these

26) Which of the following is an expanded octet molecule ?

(1) PCl5
(2) SF6
(3) H2O
(4) (1) and (2) both
27) The paramagnetic property of oxygen is well explained by:

(1) Molecular orbital theory

(2) Resonance theory
(3) Valence bond theory
(4) VSEPR theory

28) Which of the following molecule have zero dipole moment:

(1) BF3
(2) CH2Cl2
(3) NF3
(4) SO2

29) Assertion : BF3 is planar while NF3 is non-planar molecule.

Reason : B–F bond is more polar than N–F bond.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

30) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(Molecule) (Shape)

(A) BrF5 (I) T-shape

(B) H2O (II) See-saw

(C) (III) Bent

(D) SF4 (IV) Square pyramidal

(1) A–I; B–II; C–IV; D–III
(2) A–IV; B–III; C–I; D–II
(3) A–III; B–IV; C–I; D–II
(4) A–II; B–I; C–III; D–IV

31) Which reaction involves a change in the electron–pair geometry for the under lined element?

– –
(1) BF3 + F ⟶ BF4
+ +
(2) NH3 + H ⟶ NH4
(3) 2SO2 + O2 ⟶ 2SO3
+ +
(4) H2O + H ⟶ H3O

32) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

33) Which is correct match.

Molecule Molecule Type

(1) ClF3 AB3L1

(2) XeF4 AB4L0

(3) H2O AB2L2

(4) NH3 AB2L1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which geometry not seen in sp3d hybridisation?

(1) Trigonal bipyramidal

(2) T-shape
(3) Square planar
(4) See saw

35) Which is incorrect match.

Inter
Orbital nuclear Bond
axis

(1) S+S Any σ

(2) Px + Px x σ

(3) Py + Py x σ

No bond
(4) Px + Pz y
formation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) During protonation of H2O molecule, change occurs in : ––

(1) Hybridisation of oxygen atom
(2) Shape of the molecule
(3) Both hybridisation and shape
(4) Hybridisation changes but shape do not change

37) Which of the following is the correct order for increasing bond angle?

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

(2) H2O < OF2 < Cl2O
+ + + +
(3) H3Te < H3Se < H3S < H3O
(4) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3

38) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II
(a) BeH2 (p) Odd electron molecules
(b) SF6 (q) Expanded octet
Incomplete octet of Central
(c) NO2 (r)
atom
(1) (a)- p ; (b)- q ; (c)- r
(2) (a)- q ; (b)- r ; (c)- p
(3) (a)- r ; (b)- q ; (c)- p
(4) (a)- r ; (b)- p ; (c)- q

39) Molecule in which d-orbitals is not used in hybridisation ?

–
(1) I3
–
(2) ICl4
+
(3) ICl4
(4) POCl3

40) Bond order in C2+ is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

41) Bond order of which among the following molecule is zero ?

(1) F2
(2) O2
(3) Be2
(4) Li2

42) Among the following compound which one has maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on
central atom :

–
(1) ClO3
(2) XeF4
(3) SF4
–
(4) l3

43) Which of the following has a regular geometry?

(1) CCl4
(2) PCl3
(3) XeF6
(4) SF4

44) The dipole moment of HBr is 2.60 × 10–30 cm and the interatomic spacing is 1.41Å. What is the
percent ionic character of HBr?

(1) 50%
(2) 11.5%
(3) 4.01%
(4) 1.19%

45) Which of the following is the correct sequence of bond-energies?

(1) (O-O) > (S -S) > (Se - Se) > (Te - Te)
(2) (Te - Te) > (Se - Se) > (S - S) > (O-O)
(3) (S-S) > (Se - Se) > (O - O) > (Te - Te)
(4) (Te - Te) > (O - O) > (Se - Se) > (S - S)

BIOLOGY

1) Identify the bryophytes marked as A and B :-

(1) A = Male Sphagnum ; B = Female Sphagnum

(2) A = Female Marchantia ; B = Male Marchantia
(3) A = Male Marchantia ; B = Female Marchantia
(4) A = Female Sphagnum ; B = Male Sphagnum

2) Pyrenoids are found in the chloroplast of :-

(1) Algae
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperms

3)

Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given :–

Column-I Column-II

(a) Chlorophyceae (i) Chlorophyll a, c

(b) Phaeophyceae (ii) Chlorophyll a, d

(c) Rhodophyceae (iii) Chlorophyll a, b

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

4) Plant body of brown algae is divided into :-

(1) Root, stem, leaf

(2) Stipe, hold fast, frond
(3) Foot, seta, capsule
(4) Rhizoid, protonema, mesosome

5) Isogamous type of sexual reproduction with non-flagellated gametes found in :-

(1) Spirullina
(2) Selaginella
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Pinus

6) Seeds of gymnosperms are :-

(1) Covered by ovary wall

(2) Not covered by any ovary wall but after fertilization they are covered by ovary wall
(3) Covered by ovary wall before fertilization
(4) Not covered by any ovary wall before and after fertilization
7) Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Agar-Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

(2) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food.
(3) Mannitol is stored food in phaeophyceae
(4) Algin and carrageenin are products of fungi

8) Red algae differ from the green algae and brown algae in having :-

(1) Chlorophyll 'a'

(2) Haemoglobin with in their cells
(3) Aquatic nature
(4) No motile stage present in their life cycle

9) Gemma cups are found in :-

(1) Marchantia
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Selaginella
(4) Fern

10) Which of the following is incorrect for Bryophytes?

(1) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular

(2) Main plant body of bryophyte is haploid
(3) Bryophytes are called as amphibian of plant kingdom
(4) The sporophyte is free living and photosynthetic

11) Leaves of Mosses and Ferns are :-

(1) Analogous and homologous both

(2) Analogous but not homologous
(3) Homologous but not analogous
(4) None of the above

12) Life cycle of gymnosperm is :-

(1) Haplontic
(2) Haplodiplontic
(3) Diplontic
(4) Diplohaplontic

13)

After fertilization, which structure produces seed:-

(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Embryo
(4) Endosperm

14)

Female reproductive part of bryophytes is called

(1) antheridium
(2) oogonium
(3) archegonium
(4) sporangium

15)

Which of the following plant groups is considered first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues
xylem and phloem?

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

16)

In gymnosperms, dominant phase is

(1) sporophyte
(2) gametophyte
(3) haploid
(4) triploid

17) Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is :-

(1) Anisogamous
(2) Isogamous
(3) Oogamous
(4) All three type of

18)

Most reduced gametophyte generation is found in :-

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Algae
19)

Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum, Lycopodium, Pteris belong to how many classes of
pteridophytes?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

20)

Select the correct statements w.r.t. pteridophytes

(1) The dominant phase in the life cycle is gametophytes

(2) Most of the members are homosporous
(3) The gametophyte require cool, damp and shady places
(4) More than one option is correct

21)

Gametophyte is dioecious in

(1) Salvinia
(2) Pteris
(3) Adiantum
(4) Dryopteris

22)

Classification of algae is mainly based up on :-

(1) Reproductive organs

(2) Structure of spores
(3) Pigments
(4) Stored food

23)

Brown algae is brown due to dominance of

(1) Xanthophyll
(2) Carotene
(3) Carotenoid
(4) Fucoxanthin

24)
Generally algal member have sex organs, which are unicellular and non jacketed except :-

(1) Chlorella
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Chara

25)

Algae have cell wall made up of :

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins

26) Match the following:

Column-I Column-II
(Class) (Example)

(P) Sphenopsida (i) Adiantum

(Q) Pteropsida (ii) Equisetum

(R) Lycopsida (iii) Selaginella

(S) Psilopsida (iv) Psilotum

(1) P - ii, Q - i, R - iv, S - iii
(2) P - i, Q - ii, R - iii, S - iv
(3) P - i, Q - ii, R - iv, S - iii
(4) P - ii, Q - i, R - iii, S - iv

27) Identify the above diagrams and select the option that correctly explains :-

(1) Figure A - Fucus - Source of Iodine and Bromine.

(2) Figure B - Volvox - Motile colony called coenobium.
(3) Figure C - Sphagnum - Packing material for transshipment of living material.
(4) Azolla - Aquatic in nature

28) If number of chromosome in Antherozoid mother cell is 40. Then the number of chromosome in
Male gamete will be :-
(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 10

29) Zygotic meiosis

(1) found in animals

(2) Occur in all pteridophytes and angiosperms
(3) Is seen in green algae
(4) Occur in all gymnosperms and angiosperms

30) Coralloid roots are found in

(1) Pinus
(2) Sequoia
(3) Cycas
(4) All gymnosperms

31) Find the odd one out

(1) Chara
(2) Nostoc
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Spirogyra

32) Zoospores are common types of spores produced during asexual reproduction in algae. They are

(1) non–flagellated, non–motile.

(2) non–flagellated, motile.
(3) flagellated, motile
(4) flagellated, non–motile

33) Assertion :- Gymnosperm have naked seed.

Reason :- Ovules are not enclosed by ovary.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason is correct. Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is correct. Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect.

34) Assertion : Gelidium and Gracilaria are member of rhodophyceae.

Reason : They are autotrophic, marine organism and they have predominance of the red pigment r-
phycoerythrin in their body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) What is the ploidy of plant given in diagram?

(1) 2n
(2) n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

36) Choose the incorrect statement from followings

(1) Almost all Gymnosperms are Xerophytes

(2) All Gymnosperms show Heterosporous nature
(3) All Gymnosperms show seed habit
(4) All Gymnosperms are Monoecious

37)

Select the CORRECT statement.

(1) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms

(2) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
(3) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
(4) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

38) Correct set for members of red algae is

(1) Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Fucus, Chlamydomonas

(2) Fucus, Dictyola, Sargassum, Ectocarpus
(3) Porphyra, Macrocystis, Laminaria, Dictyol
(4) Porphyra, Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Gracilaria

39) In which plants male gametes are motile :-

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta
(C) Angiosperm (D) Algae

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A, B & D

40) Choose the ploidy of gametophytic generation of A,

B and C :-

(1) A-2n, B-2n, C-2n

(2) A-n, B-2n, C-n
(3) A-2n, B-n, C-2n
(4) A-n, B-n, C-n

41) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A Cycas i Heterosporous fern

B Pinus ii Homosporous fern

C Salvinia iii Pinnate leaves

D Adiantum iv Needle like leaves

(1) A → iv; B → iii; C → ii; D → i
(2) A → iv; B → iii; C → i; D → ii
(3) A → iii; B → iv; C → i; D → ii
(4) A → iii; B → iv; C → ii; D → i

42) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A. Carrageen (i) Brown algae

B. Algin (ii) Red algae

C. Agar-agar (iii) Gelidum

(iv) Gracilaria
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii, iv), C-(iv)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii, iii), C-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii, iv)
(4) A-(i, ii), B-(iii), C-(iv)

43) Find out the incorrect match :-

(1) Ulothrix – Filamentous

(2) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular non flagellated
(3) Chlorella – Unicellular
(4) Volvox – Colonial

44) Identify the algal shown in figure and match Correct match it with the given characters

Number of
Name of Stored
flagella in
Algae food
gametes

(1) Polysiphonia Absent Floridean starch

(2) Porphyra 2-apical Laminarin & starch

(3) Herveyella 2-lateral Starch

(4) Porphyra Absent Floridean starch

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) In mosses, reduction division takes place in :-

(1) Anthredium
(2) Archegonium
(3) Capsule
(4) Gamete

46) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells.

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

47) Which element is present in very less amount in Earth crust?

(1) Si
(2) O
(3) N
(4) Mg

48) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

49) Name the four elements called 'big four' which make 95% of all elements found in a living
system :-

(1) C,H,O,P
(2) C,H,O,N
(3) C,N,O,K
(4) C,H,O,S

50) Which is a micromolecule ?

(1) Polysaccharide
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Protein
(4) Monosaccharides

51) The molecule given in diagram belongs to which category of biomolecules :-

(1) Fatty acids

(2) Phospholipids
(3) Triglycerides
(4) Steroids

52) Which of the following is not a polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) :-

(1) Linoleic acid

(2) Linolenic acid
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Arachidic acid

53) Primary structure of a protein relates to

(1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide

(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

54) Most of the biological activities of proteins are due to :-

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration

55) Given below is the chemical formula of

(1) Palmitic acid

(2) Stearic acid
(3) Glycerol
(4) Galactose

56) is :-

(1) Amphipathic
(2) Zwitter ion
(3) Hydrophobic
(4) Both (1) & (3)

57) Which one is an amino acid ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

58) structure represent :-

(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Serine
(4) Valine

59)

How many amino acid in the list given below are sulphur containing?

Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Cysteine, Proline, Methionine, Valine, Serine.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

60) In the above

diagram (B) is zwitterionic form of an amino acid (A) and (C) form of amino acid develop respectively
in :-

(1) Acidic and basic medium

(2) Basic and basic medium
(3) Basic and acidic medium
(4) Acidic and neutral medium

61) In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is ____ and left end is called ____ :-

(1) Reducing, non reducing respectively

(2) Non reducing, reducing respectively
(3) N-terminal, C-terminal respectively
(4) C-terminal, N-terminal respectively
62) Which of the following is structure of β-D-Glucopyranose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

63) A typical fat molecule is made up of three molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---. The
linkage is called ---C---.

A B C

(1) Glycerol Fatty acid Ester

(2) Fatty acid Glycerol Glycosidic

(3) Fatty acid Glycerol Ester

(4) Fatty acid Glycerol Peptide bond

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon
(B) In a polysaccharide chain, one end is called reducing end while the other end is called
non-reducing end.
(C) Cellulose form helical secondary structure.
(D) In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes How many of the above
statements are wrong?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

65) Which of the following pair is non-reducing sugar ?

(1) Glucose & fructose

(2) Sucrose and maltose
(3) Sucrose & glycogen
(4) Sucrose and fructose

66) Identify the configuration of polypeptide chains in given figure (a) & (b) :-

(a) (b)
(1) Primary Tertiary
(2) Secondary Tertiary
(3) Secondary Quaternary
(4) Primary Secondary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) A polypeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 120 then what
will be the molecular weight of that polypeptide ?

(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 528

68) For a protein to have a quaternary structure, it must

(1) have four amino acids

(2) consist of two or more polypeptide subunits
(3) consist of four polypeptide subunits
(4) have at least four disulphide bridges.
69) The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be :-

(1) protein
(2) water
(3) sugar
(4) nucleic acid

70) Which of the following bond is formed by dehydration process ?

(1) Glycosidic bond

(2) Peptide bond
(3) Phosphoester bond
(4) All of the above

71) A protein is imagined as a line, the left end is represented by first amino acid and the right end
is represented by the last amino acid. The first and last amino acids are called as :-

(1) N–terminal amino acid C–terminal amino acid, respectively

(2) C–terminal amino acid N–terminal amino acid, respectively
(3) O–terminal amino acid C–terminal amino acid, respectively
(4) Carboxy terminal amino acid and Amino terminal amino acid, respectively

72) Given below are the example of few amino acids :

Glutamic acid, Lysine, Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
How many of the above are neutral amino acids ?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

73) In animal world, the most abundant protein is____ while in the whole biosphere the most
abundant protein is_____ :-

(1) Antibody, collagen

(2) Collagen, RuBisCo
(3) RuBisCo, collagen
(4) Collagen, oxidase

74) Hemicellulose is a :-

(1) Homopolysaccharide
(2) Heteropolysaccharide
(3) Protein
(4) Nutritional polysaccharide
75)
In the above diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen, glycosidic bonds represented by
A, B and C are :-

A B C
(1) α-1'-4'' α-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(2) β-1'-6'' β-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(3) α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'' α-1'-4''
(4) α-1'-4'' α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) is the structure of which of the following compounds?

(1) Glyceraldehyde
(2) Glycerol
(3) Glyceric acid
(4) Triglycerides

77) Triglyceride consists of

(1) Three fatty acids + two glycerols

(2) Three fatty acids + one glycerol
(3) One fatty acids + one glycerol
(4) One fatty acids + three glycerols

78) Identify the incorrect pair

(1) Alkaloids - Codeine

(2) Toxin - Abrin
(3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(4) Drugs - Ricin

79) Select a secondary metabolite which is alkaloid also

(1) Carotenoids
(2) Morphine
(3) Vinblastin
(4) Ricin

80) All the carbon compounds that we get from the living tissue can be called:-

(1) Biomolecules
(2) Slurry
(3) Retentate
(4) All

81) Select the statement which hold true for lipids

(1) Arachidonic acid has 20C excluding carboxyl carbon

(2) Palmitic acid has 18C excluding carboxyl carbon
(3) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane
(4) Neural tissues have lipids with more simple structures

82)
Given structural formula is correctly identified along with its related function by which of
the following options?

(1) Cholesterol - A component of animal cell membrane

(2) Lecithin - A component of cell membrane
(3) Triglyceride - An energy source
(4) Adenosine - A component of nucleic acids

83) The biomolecule whose weight is less than____ dalton (Da) is referred to as biomicromolecule.

(1) 800
(2) 18
(3) 1000
(4) 10000
84) Which of the following is correct about lipids?

(1) On the basis on melting points they are divided into fats and oils
(2) Neural tissues are made up of simple lipids only
(3) Phospholipids never forms a part of cell membrane
(4) Lipids are strictly macromolecule

85) Fats or oils are

(1) Monoglycerides
(2) Diglycerides
(3) Triglycerides
(4) Any of the above

86) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues/cells in term of % of the total cellular
mass :

(1) Nucleic acid > proteins > H2O > carbohydrates > ion > lipids
(2) H2O > proteins > nucleic acid > carbohydrates > lipids > ions
(3) H2O > proteins > carbohydrates > nucleic acid > lipids > ions
(4) Lipids > ions > carbohydrates > H2O > proteins > nucleic acid

87) Glycogen is -

(1) Polymer of amino acids

(2) Polymer of fatty acids
(3) Unsaturated fats
(4) Polymer of glucose

88) Pentoses and Hexoses are common

(1) Oligosaccharides
(2) Disaccharides
(3) Monosaccharides
(4) Poly saccharides

89) Most abundant and least abundant element in Earth crust are respectively ?

(1) O and Si
(2) Si and O
(3) S and N
(4) O and N

90) Which of the following is most abundant element present in Human body ?

(1) Carbon
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Oxygen
(4) Nitrogen
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2.5 km/sec2

2)

3) Question Explanation: To find the net displacement of body.

Concept: Distance and displacement.

Formula: &
Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

4)

4 sec

5)

A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q

6)

240

7)

Distance = Area of V t curve

S= + + (1 × 1)
S = 3 + 1 + 1 = 5m

8)
 s = 2r sin

s = 2r sin

s = 2r
s=r

9) As slope of s-t graph decreases with t, so v-t will decrease. At the top of the graph slope is
zero, so velocity is zero. In the downward journey slope of s-t graph increases negatively. So
velocity represented by it will be negative.

10)

v2 – u2 = 2as
Suppose velocity of the middle part = vm

then v2m – u2 = 2as × = as

or v2m = u2 + as

= u2 + =

11) …(1)

…(2)

12)

Explaining : If R is correct it explain A or not.

Concept : This question is based on Instantaneous velocity & acceleration.
Solution : Acceleration is change in velocity per unit time. One cannot tell acceleration just by
knowing velocity at a one instant of time only. That is why if velocity of the particle is zero at
some instant then its acceleration can be zero or non-zero at that instant. Statement of reason
is one example of the asserted statement it is not the correct explanation.
Final Answer : (2)

13)

V=0+2×t …(1)
0 = V – 4(3 – t) …(2)
V = +12 – 4t = 2 t
t = 2 sec.
V = 4 m/s

14)

15)

18m

16)

BC = × 10 × 22
BC = 20 m
and AB = 25 m Given,
AC = 25 + 20 = 45 m
use v2 = u2 + 2 as
O = u2 – 2 × 10 × 45 ⇒ u = 30 m/s

17)

From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30

as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

18)
Along a straight line

19)

Since velocity and acceleration is in opposite direction so first velocity becomes zero so
v = u + at
O = 4 – (1)t
t = 4 sec.

Total distance = OA + AB

OA = = = 8

AB ⇒ S = u + at2

S = (0) (6) + (1) (6)2 = 18

Total distance = OA + AB = 8 + 18 = 26 m

20)

S1 – 2 = g(42 – 32) = 35 m

S2 – 3 = g(32 – 22) = 25 m

S3 – 4 = g(22 – 12) = 15 m

21)

5 m/s

22)
23)

24)

ux should be same.

25)

45o

26) Suppose the angle made by the instantaneous velocity with the horizontal be α.Then

tan α =
Given : α = 45°, when t = 1 sec
α = 0°, when t = 2 sec
This gives : u cos θ = u sin θ –g
and u sin θ –2g = 0
on solving we have, u sin θ = 2g
u cos θ = g
on solving we get ; u =

27)

Initial and final speeds are same, so change in kinetic energy is zero.

28)

From conservation of energy

∴ v2 = u2 + 2gh = (10)2 + 2 × 10 × 10
∴v= m/s

29)

At x = R (range), y = 0

So, 12x – =0
⇒ x = 0, x = 21.6 m
OR compare given equation with

y = x tanθ
with y = 12x –

or y = 12x

R= = 21.6 m

30)

31)
Both will strike at the same time

32)

33)

187.5 m

34)

5 second

35)

Angle with vertical

36) For shortest time he has to cross the river by swimming perpendicular to flow i.e. due
north.

37)
 6i + 8j

38)

39)
Relative speed of Q w.r.t. P = 10 – 2 = 8ms–1
Relative distance = 8 + 8 + 8 = 24 m
Required time = 24/8 = 3s

40)

The initial acceleration of the particle is zero

41)

The magnitude of displacement is always equal to the path length traversed by an object over
a given time interval

42)

9%

43)

0m

44)

In the projectile motion, the horizontal component of the velocity remains same.

45)

50 m

CHEMISTRY
46) Question Explanation: Identify which of the given electron configurations belongs to an
s-block element.

Concept: Electronic Configuration.

Solution:
1s22s22p63s23p63d10 4s1 → Cu(29) → d-block
1s22s22p6 3s23p6 4s1 → K(19) → s-block

Final Answer:
Option (2)

47)

S > Se > Te > O

48)

Ac

49)

Be(g) + le– → Be– (g)

50) Atomic no. Element Block 15 P p-Block

19 K s-Block
25 Mn d-Block
64 Gd f-Block

51) Representative elements → s and p block elements (Li, B and C) are called representative
elements.
D → Fe → not a representative element as it belongs to d-block.

52) (A) Incorrect :- Be2+ has shortest radius due to less number of shells and high Zeff.
(B) Incorrect :- Br– has highest radius
(C) Correct :- B has shortest radius and Tl has highest radius.
(D) Incorrect :- Pb is slightly bigger than Sn.

53)

F–, Na+

54)
 55) Sudden jump in both 2nd IP & 3rd IP
So, configuration - ns2

56)

a b c d

(2) R P S Q

57) (A) 52
[Kr] 5s2 4d10 5p4
Last e– enters in p subshell, it is p-block element It is also a Reprsentative element.
A → P, S
(B) 30
[Ar] 4s2 3d10
Last e– enters in d-subshell, D-Block element
B→R
(C) 57
[Xe] 6s2 5d1
Last e– enters d subshell it is D–Block element also it is a transition element.
C → QR
(D) 91
[Rn] 7s2 5f2 6d1
Last e– enters f-subshell, it is Inner transition element
D→T

58)

0.72, 1.60

59) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about Nature of oxide is asked.

Concept :
This question is based on nature of oxides.

Solution :
Neutral oxide → CO, N2O , NO
Basic oxide → Metal oxide generally basic natural.
Acidic oxide → Non-Metal oxide generally acidic in nature.
Amphoteric → Be, SnO2 , ZnO etc.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

60)

EA order
 (1) C < O
(2) S < O
(3) I < Br
(4) Br < Cl

61)

All

62)

All of these

63) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

64)

Basic character of oxides decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom

65)

Be

66)

(1) (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 (c) Transition element

(2) Ga (d) Eka aluminium

(3) Ar (a) Noble gas

(4) Cl (b) Halogen

67) Explanation -
The question is asking you to compare the lattice energies of two ionic compounds, Sodium
Fluoride (NaF) and Magnesium Oxide (MgO).

Concept - (Lattice energy of ionic compounds NaF & MgO)

A. Lattice energy is influenced by ionic charges and sizes.

B. MgO has higher charges (+2 and -2) compared to NaF (+1 and -1).
C. Increased charges result in stronger electrostatic forces and higher lattice energy.
D. Therefore, MgO's lattice energy is approximately 4 times that of NaF.

Final Answer - Option (3)

68)

Explanation:
 A. Existence of compounds depends on factors like the central atom's ability to expand its
octet, availability of d-orbitals, electronegativity differences, and steric hindrance.

Concept:

A. PCl₅, NF₃, NH₃: All exist. P can expand its octet. N cannot expand its octet but forms
stable NF₃ and NH₃ due to size and electronegativity.

B. PF₅, PH₃, SiH₄: All exist. P and Si can expand their octets. N cannot, but P can.

C. H₂O, OF₂, OF₄: H₂O and OF₂ exist. OF₄ does not exist. Oxygen cannot expand its octet.

D. XeF₅, NF₅, PCl₄:

A. XeF₅ does not exist. Xe typically forms even-numbered fluorides due to its
electron configuration.

B. NF₅ does not exist. Nitrogen cannot expand its octet.

C. PCl₄ does not exist as a stable monomer. It exists as [PCl₄]⁺ salts.

Answer option 4, (XeF₅, NF₅, PCl₄).

69)

N2 > O2 > H2 > F2

70)

Sea-saw

71)

(1) and (2) both

72)

Molecular orbital theory

73)

BF3
 74)

If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

75)

(IV) Square
(A) BrF5
pyramidal

(B) H2O (III) Bent

(C) (I) T-shape

(D) SF4 (II) See-saw

76) (1) BF3 (sp2) + F– ⟶ BF4– (sp3).

3 + + 3
(2) NH3 (sp ) + H ⟶ NH4 (sp )
(3) 2 SO2 (sp2) + O2 ⟶ 2 SO3 (sp2)
3 + + 3
(4) H2O (sp ) + H ⟶ H3O (sp )

77)

–1, +1, –1

78) NCERT Pg. # 115

79) NCERT Pg. # 115

80)

NCERT Pg. # 121

81)
 Shape of the molecule

82)

H3Te+ < H3Se+ < H3S+ < H3O+

83)

(a)- r ; (b)- q ; (c)- p

84)

POCl3

85)

86)

Be2

87)

88)

σ l.p.
CCl4 (4 + 0 = 4)
PCl3 (3 + 1 = 4)
XeF6 (6 + 1 = 7)
SF4 (4 + 1 = 5)

89)

11.5%

90)

(S-S) > (Se - Se) > (O - O) > (Te - Te)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 34 Fig - 3.2 (a, b)

92) NCERT Pg. # 32

93) NCERT Pg No. # 33

94)

Stipe, hold fast, frond

95) NCERT XI Pg. # 32

96) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 38 (3.4)

97)

NCERT XI Pg # 32,33

98) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 33

99) NCERT Pg. # 35

100) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 35

101)

Analogous but not homologous

102)

Diplontic

103)

Ovule

104)

archegonium

105)

Pteridophytes
106)

sporophyte

107)

Isogamous

108)

Gymnosperms

109)

Three

110)

More than one option is correct

111)

Salvinia

112)

Pigments

113)

Fucoxanthin

114)

Chara

115)

Cellulose, galactans and mannans

116) Ncert Page 38.

117) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 31, 34, 37, Fig. 3.1 (a-ii), 3.1 (b-i), 3.2 (d), 3.3 (d)
118)

40

119)

Is seen in green algae

120)

Cycas

121)

Nostoc

122)

flagellated, motile

123)

NCERT XI Pg # 38

124)

NCERT Page No. 34, 34

125) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 31

126)

All Gymnosperms are Monoecious

127)

Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

128)

NCERT Page No. 33

129)

A, B & D
 130)

A-n, B-n, C-n

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 30, 32, 33

132)

A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii, iv)

133)

Chlamydomonas – Unicellular non flagellated

134)

Number of
Name of Stored
flagella in
Algae food
gametes

(4) Porphyra Absent Floridean starch

135) Module No. 1, Page. no. 64

136)

Question Explanation : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on Cell composition

Solution :
Biomolecules → Percentage in Cell
(a) Proteins (iii) 10-15%
(b) Carbohydrates (ii) 3%
(c) Lipids (iv) 2%
(d) Nucleic acids (i) 5-7%

Final Answer : option (2)

137) NCERT, Page No. 105

138)

Question Explanation : Most abundant

Concept : This question is based on Ash analysis

Solution : Oxygen is present most abundant element in human body.

 Final Answer : option (2)

139)

Question Explanation : Big four elements.

Concept : This question is based on Ash Analysis

Solution : C, H, O, N ]→ it form 95% of elements in a living system.

Final Answer : option (2)

140)

Question Explanation : Micromolecule

Concept : This question is based on Biomolecule
Solution :
– Monosaccharides
→ Micromolecule
Final Answer : option (4)

141)

Question Explanation : Identification - Biomolecule

Concept : This question is based on Lipids

Solution : Triglycerides

Final Answer : option (3)

142)

Question Explanation : Polyunsaturated fatty acid.

Concept : This question is based on Lipids

Solution :

A. Arachidic acid
A. Hare double bonds

Final Answer : option (4)

143) Correct Answer option 3. The sequence of amino acids Explanation/Solution : The
primary structure is simply the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain,
held together by peptide bonds. It does not involve any folding or interactions.

144)
Correct Answer option 3. Tertiary configuration
Explanation/Solution : The tertiary structure gives the protein its three-dimensional
shape, which is essential for its biological activity, including enzyme function, binding, and
interaction with other molecules.

145)

Question Explanation :

Identification :

Concept :
This question is based on Lipids

Solution :

Palmitic acid

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Palmitic acid

146)

Explanation:

Zwitterion: The molecule has both a positive (NH3+) and a negative (COO-) charge, making it
a zwitterion.

The correct answer is 2. Zwitter ion.

147)

Question Explanation :
Amino acid

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (1) is correct
148)

Question Explanation :
structure-Identification

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Serine

149) Solution/Explanation:

A. Tyrosine: Does not contain sulfur.

B. Phenylalanine: Does not contain sulfur.

C. Cystine: Contains a disulfide bond (S-S) between two cysteine residues, so it contains
sulfur.

D. Proline: Does not contain sulfur.

E. Methionine: Contains sulfur in its side chain.

F. Valine: Does not contain sulfur.

G. Serine: Does not contain sulfur.

Therefore, the sulfur-containing amino acids in the list are Cystine and Methionine.

The correct answer is option 3 (Two).

150)
 Question Explanation :
Diagram - A and C - identify.

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :
A → Acidic medium
B → Basic medium

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

151)

Reducing, non reducing respectively

152)

Fact

153)

Correct Answer: (3) Fatty acid, Glycerol, Ester

A typical fat molecule (triglyceride) consists of:
Three molecules of fatty acids (A)
One molecule of glycerol (B)
Ester bonds (C) connecting them

154) NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 144, 148

155) Explanation:

A. Reducing sugars are sugars that can donate electrons or reduce other compounds. They
typically have a free aldehyde or ketone group.
B. Non-reducing sugars do not have a free aldehyde or ketone group and therefore cannot reduce
other compounds.

The correct answer is Option 3: Sucrose and glycogen.

156)

The image presents a biology-related question related to protein structure. It shows two
simplified diagrams, labeled (a) and (b), representing different configurations of polypeptide
chains.

(a) depicts a helical structure.

(b) depicts a more complex, folded structure with arrows indicating directionality.

Below the diagrams, there are four multiple-choice options, each with a pair of terms
describing the protein structure in (a) and (b) respectively:

(1) Primary, Tertiary

(2) Secondary, Tertiary

(3) Secondary, Quaternary

(4) Primary, Secondary

Primary Structure: The linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Secondary Structure: Localized folding patterns of the polypeptide backbone, such as alpha-
helices and beta-sheets.

Tertiary Structure: The overall three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain.

Quaternary Structure: The arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains in a protein complex.

The correct answer is (2) Secondary, Tertiary.

157)

Explaining the Question: One amino acid = 120 molecular weight of polypeptide chain

Concept: Polypeptide chain → Protein

Solution:

→ 1 Amino acid = 120

5 Amino acid = 120 × 5 = 600

approx. → 528
Final Answer: Option_4

158)

consist of two or more polypeptide subunits

159) Explanation :
Water is the most abundant chemical in living organisms. It makes up about 70-90% of the
total mass of most cells. Water is essential for all life processes, acting as a solvent,
temperature regulator, and participating in many biochemical reactions.

160)

Question Explanation : Bond formed in dehydration

Concept : This question is based on Bonding → Bioneokeules.

Solution :
→ Ghycosidic bond
→ Reptide
→ phospodiester
→ These all bonds do dehydration during formation.

Final Answer : option (4)

161)

Question Explanation : We are identifying the correct names for the first and last amino
acids in a protein chain when imagined as a straight line.

Concept : This question is based on Configuration of proteins?

Solution :
Proteins are made of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
The first amino acid has a free –NH₂ group → called the N-terminal (Amino-terminal).
The last amino acid has a free –COOH group → called the C-terminal (Carboxy-terminal).
The last amino acid has a free –COOH group → called the C-terminal (Carboxy-terminal).

Final Answer : option (1)

162)

Explanation:
The neutral amino acids in the list are Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, and Tryptophan. These
amino acids do not have acidic or basic side chains, so they remain neutral at physiological pH.

Answer: 1 (four neutral amino acids).

163)

Concept

A. Collagen: The most abundant structural protein in animals.

 B. RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase): The most abundant protein
in the biosphere due to its crucial role in photosynthesis.

Explanation

A. Within the animal world, collagen is the most abundant protein, providing structural
support to tissues.

B. In the entire biosphere, RuBisCO is the most abundant protein, as it is essential for
carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 2. Collagen, RuBisCo.

164)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to identify the correct classification of

hemicellulose among the given options: Homopolysaccharide, Heteropolysaccharide, Protein,
or Nutritional polysaccharide.

Underlying Concept: Hemicellulose is a type of polysaccharide found in plant cell walls.

Polysaccharides are carbohydrate polymers made up of sugar units. A homopolysaccharide
consists of only one type of sugar monomer, while a heteropolysaccharide is composed of
different types of sugar monomers. Hemicellulose contains various sugar units, making it a
heteropolysaccharide.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that 'hetero-' means different, and 'homo-' means same; thus,
heteropolysaccharides have different sugar monomers.

Common Mistakes: Confusing hemicellulose with cellulose, which is a homopolysaccharide

made only of glucose, or mistaking it for a protein based on the name.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Homopolysaccharide is incorrect because hemicellulose

contains multiple types of sugars, not just one. Protein is incorrect because hemicellulose is a
carbohydrate, not a protein. Nutritional polysaccharide is a vague term and doesn't specifically
classify hemicellulose.

165)

Explaining the Question: Identification of A, B, and C

Concept: Polysaccaride-Carbohy drate

Solution:

A → α – 1, 4-Glycosidec bond → Chain formation

B → α – 1, 6-Glycosidec bond → Branched formation

C → α – 1, 4-Glycosidec bond → Chain formation

Glycogen structure
Final Answer: Option_4

166)

Glycerol

167) NCERT pg-144

168)

Drugs - Ricin

169) [NCERT Pg. 146]

170) [Pg-143,E]

171)

NCERT Pg.144

172)

Lecithin - A component of cell membrane

173)

1000

174)

On the basis on melting points they are divided into fats and oils

175)

Triglycerides

176)

H2O > proteins > nucleic acid > carbohydrates > lipids > ions
177)

Polymer of glucose

178)

Monosaccharides

179)

O and N

180)

Oxygen