17-08-2025

1103CMD303003250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x(t) = (1–e–At) where A and B

are constants. The dimensions of is same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

2) The frequency of vibration of a string is given by:

Here p is the number of segments in which the string is divided, F is the tension in the string and l is
its length. The dimensional formula for m is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

4) In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then
the dimensional formula of energy is :-

(1) FA2T
(2) FAT2
(3) F2AT
(4) FAT

5) Measurement of two quantities along with the error of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

6)

If the orbital velocity of a planet is given by n = GaMbRc, then value of (abc) is :-

(G universal gravitational constant, M mass of planet & R radius of planet)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Error in the measurement of 3 parameters a, b, c are 1%, 0.5% and 0.25% respectively. Then the

error in measurement of is

(1) 2.75 %
(2) 2.5 %
(3) 2.25 %
(4) 1.75 %

8) The external and internal radius of a hollow cylinder are measured to be and
respectively. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) A Vernier Calliper has 20 divisions on vernier scale which coincides with 19 main scale divisions.
The least count of the instrument is 0.1mm. The length of 1 main scale division is

(1) 1 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 3 mm
(4) 4 mm

10) The resistance R = V/i where V = (100 ± 5)V and i = (10 ± 0.2)A. The percentage error in R is
(1) 5%
(2) 1%
(3) 7%
(4) 2%

11) Suppose refractive index µ is given as :

Where A and B are constants and is the wavelength, then dimensions of B are same as that of

(1) Wavelength
(2) Volume
(3) Pressure
(4) Area

12) If L1 = 2.331 cm, L2 = 2.1 cm, then L1 + L2 = ? (with correct significant figure)

(1) 4.431 cm
(2) 4.43 cm
(3) 4.4 cm
(4) 4 cm

13) If dimension of A and B are different, then which of the following operation is valid?

(1) A/B
(2) e-A/B
(3) A - B
(4) A + B

14) Plane angle and solid angle have

(1) Dimensions but no units

(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions

15) A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it ?

(1) A meter scale

A vernier calliper where 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 divisions in main scale and
(2)
the main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
(3) A screw gauge having 100 division in the circular scale and pitch as 1mm.
(4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1mm.

16) Given P = a – b. If percentage errors in a and b are a0% and b0% respectively, percentage error
in P is
(1) a0% + b0%

(2)

(3) a0% – b0%

(4)

17) Assertion (A) :- Length, volume and linear momentum cannot enter into the list of fundamental
quantities in any system of unit.
Reason (R) :- Dimension of a derived quantity may be zero in any base quantity.

(1) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

18) If E, m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant

respectively, the quantity has the dimensions of :-

(1) Mass
(2) Length
(3) Time
(4) Angle

19) The figure shows a vernier (whose least count = 0.1 mm) with jaws of vernier are touching each
other. The zero error in the vernier calliper is :-

(1) + 0.5 mm
(2) – 0.5 mm
(3) + 0.5 cm
(4) – 0.5 cm

20) A physical quantity σ is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of P, Q,

R and S are 2%, 1%, 3%, 6% respectively. Then find out the % error in σ.

(1) 14%
(2) 12%
(3) 16%
(4) 8%
21) A student performs experiment with simple pendulum and measures time for 10 vibrations. If he
measures a time for 100 vibrations, the relative error in measurement of time period will be reduced
by :-

(1) 10%
(2) 90%
(3) 100%
(4) 1000%

22) Potential energy of an object at any postion x is given by, U = , The dimensions of B are
:–

(1) [M L–1/2 T–2]

(2) [M L1/2 T–2]
(3) [M L1/2 T–1]
(4) [M L–1/2 T–1]

23) The period T of a soap bubble under SHM is given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is
density and S is surface tension. Then the value of a, b and c are :-

(1)

(2) –1, –2, 3

(3)

(4)

24)

If force (F), work (W) and velocity (V) are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
formula of time (t) is :-

(1) [WFV]
(2) [WFV–1]
(3) [W–1F–1V–1]
(4) [WF–1V–1]

25) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

26) Dimensional analysis can be used to derive formulae :-

(1) containing trigonometrical functions

(2) containing exponential functions
(3) containing logarithmic functions
(4) none of the above

27) The velocity v (in cm/sec) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the equation:

The dimensions of a, b and c are

(a) (b) (c)

(1) [L2] [T] [LT2]

(2) [LT2] [LT] [L]

(3) [LT–2] [L] [T]

(4) [L] [LT] [T2]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) A bus travels distance x, when accelerates from rest at constant rate a1 for some time and after
that travels a distance x2 when decelerates at a constant rate a2 to come to rest. A student

established a relation x1 + x2 = .
Choose the correct option.

(1) The relation is dimensionally correct

(2) The relation is dimensionally incorrect
(3) The relation may be dimensionally correct
(4) None of the above

29) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.05320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

30) The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation :
F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt
The dimensional formula of D/B is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0 0
(2) [M L T–1]
0 0
(3) [M L–1T ]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

31) Assertion :- Light year and year, both measure time.

Reason :- Light year is the time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

32) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The velocity of water waves v may depend on their wavelength λ, the density of water r and the
acceleration due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these quantities
as :-

(1) v2 ∝ λ g ρ
(2) v2 ∝ λ–1 g–1 ρ–1
(3) v2 ∝ g λ
(4) v2 ∝ r λ

34) Choose the wrong option :-

(1) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct.

(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect.
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct
(4) A dimensionally incorrect equation must be incorrect.

35) Two physical quantities of which one is a vector and the other is a scalar having the same unit :-

(1) Work and energy

(2) Force and momentum
(3) Speed and Velocity
(4) Power and pressure

36)

If the dimensions of A and B are different, then which of the following operation is not valid :-

(1)

(2)

(3) A3B
(4)

37) In a vernier callipers one main scale division is x unit and y division of vernier scale coincide
with (y-2) division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A student measured the diamenter of a wire using a screw gauge with least count 0.001 cm and
listed the measurement. The correct measurement could be :-

(1) 4.2 cm
(2) 4.23 cm
(3) 4.230 cm
(4) 4.2300 cm

39) S = ut + 3at2
In this equation if S denotes displacemnt, u denotes inital velocity, a denotes acceleration & t
denotes time, then the equation is :-

(1) Physically correct & dimensionally incorrect

(2) Physically correct & dimensionally correct
(3) Physically incorrect & dimensionally incorrect
(4) Physically incorrect & dimensionally correct

40) Match the type of unit (Column A) with its corresponding example (Column B):

Column-A Column-B
(a) Base unit (i) N
(b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
(e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)

41) If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and the units of length and time are changed in
kilometer and hour respectively, then the numerical value of acceleration will be :-

(1) 360000
(2) 72000
(3) 36000
(4) 129600

42) Which of the following is not a derived unit ?

(1) newton (N)

(2) watt (W)
(3) joule (J)
(4) ampere (A)

43) If u1 & u2 are the units selected in two systems of units and n1 and n2 are their numerical values,
then :

(1) n1u2 = n2u1

(2)

(3) n1n2 = u1u2

(4) n1 – u1 = n2 – u2

44) The period of oscillation is recorded as 2.63 sec, 2.56 sec, 2.42 sec, 2.71 sec, 2.80 sec then
average absolute error will be :-

(1) 0.11 sec

(2) 0.01 sec
(3) 0.1 sec
(4) 1.0 sec

45) If the units of length and force are increased four times, then the unit of energy will :-

(1) increase 8 times

(2) increase 16 times
(3) decrease 16 times
(4) increase 4 times

CHEMISTRY

1) What is the shortest wavelength in the Paschen series of Li+2 ion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

Which is not isoelectronic with O2– :-

(1) N–3
(2) Na+
(3) F–
(4) Ti+

3) Isotone of is/are -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

4) Correct electronic configuration of Cr is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 × 10–16 m

(1) 9.9 × 10–10 J

(2) 6.6 × 10–11 J
(3) 9.9 × 10–12 J
(4) 4.8 × 10–11 J

7) Which electron is associated with the least energy:-

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(3) n = 4, l = 1, m = +1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2

8) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

9) Which of the following metal ions will have maximum number of unpaired electrons :-

(1) Fe2+
(2) Co2+
(3) Ni2+
(4) Mn2+

10) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :-

(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)

11) Which will be the nodal planes in dxy orbital :–

(1) xz & yz
(2) xy & zy
(3) zy & yx
(4) None of the above

12) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength :-

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) H2O

13) The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is : –

(1)
2, 0, 0, +
2, 1, –1,+
(2)

(3)
3, 1, 1,+

(4)
3, 0, ±

14) Which of the following sets of quantum number belong to highest energy :-

(1)
n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(4)
n = 4, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +

15) The correct relation according to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is/are :-

Δx . Δp ≥
(1)

ΔE × Δt ≥
(2)

Δx × Δv ≥
(3)

(4) All of the above

16) Ratio of frequency of revolution of electron in the second excited state of He+ and second state
of hydrogen is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following subshell can accommodate as many as 10 electrons ?

(1) 2d
(2) 3d
(3) 3dxy
(4)

18) Which one is in the ground state :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1 shell such that:
2n2 + 3n1 = 18
2n2 – 3n1 = 6
What will be the total number of photons emitted when electrons transit to n1 shell?

(1) 21
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 10

20) For the configuration which rule is violated :-

(1) Aufbau Rule

(2) (n + ℓ) Rule
(3) Hund's Rule
(4) Pauli's Rule

21) Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom releases the greatest amount of energy :-

(1) n = 3 → n = 2
(2) n = 5 → n = 3
(3) n = 6 → n = 5
(4) n = 3 → n = 6

22) One molecule of a substance absorbs one quantum of energy. The energy involved, when 1.5
mole of the substance absorbs red light of frequency 7.5 × 1014 sec–1 will be :-

(1) 2.99 × 105 J

(2) 3.23 × 105 J
(3) 4.48 × 105 J
(4) 2.99 × 106 J

23) Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have same 3d
electronic configuration is :-

(1) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+

(2) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+
(3) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
(4) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+

24) When electron jumps from 5th excited state to 1st excited state in H-atom then spectral line
belongs to :-

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Humphrey series
(4) Pfund series

25) An isotone of 32Ge76 is:-

(i) 32Ge77 (ii) 33As77
(iii) 34Se77 (iv) 34Se78

(1) (ii) & (iii)

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)

26) Evaluate the following ratio for the energy of the electron in a particular orbit :
 [Kinetic : Potential] and [Total : Kinetic]

(1) [1 : –2] and [–1 : 1]

(2) [1 : 2] and [1 : 1]

(3) [1 : 1] and [1 : 2]

(4) [1 : 2] and [1 : 2]
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h
= 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 4.42 × 10–15

(2) 4.42 × 10–18
(3) 6.67 × 1015
(4) 6.67 × 1011

28) Which of the following observations was not correct during Rutherford's Scattering experiment :-

(1) most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil undeflected.
(2) A small fraction of the α-particles was deflected by a small angle
(3) A large number of the α-particles were bounced back
(4) A very few α-particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back

29) Angular momentum of N-shell electron :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

30) Calculate the ratio of difference in energy between the first and second bohr orbit to that
between second and third bohr orbit :-

(1) 4/9
(2) 1/3
(3) 27/5
(4) 1/2

31) The longest wavelength line in lyman series of H-spectrum is :-

(1) 1025.8 Å
(2) 1215.8 Å
(3) 972.6 Å
(4) 949.8 Å

32) Find out the ratio of velocity of electron in 3rd orbit of He+ and 4th orbit of H :-

(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 8 : 3
(4) 3 : 8

33) Uncertainty in momentum of an e– is 10–5 kg ms–1. The uncertainty in its position will be :-

(1) 2 × 10–28 m
(2) 2 × 10–26 m
(3) 5.27 × 10–20 m
(4) 5.27 × 10–30 m

34) Which of the following will have xy nodal plane:-

(1) px
(2) py
(3) pz
2
(4) pz

35) Lyman series lies in which region :-

(1) Visible region

(2) Ultraviolet
(3) Infrared
(4) Gamma

36) Angular momentum in 2nd Bohr orbit of H-atom is x. Then find out angular momentum in Ist
excited state of Li+2 :-

(1) 3x
(2) 9x

(3)

(4) x

37) The e/m ratio is maximum for :-

(1) D+
(2) He+
(3) H+
(4) He2+

38) Which of the following are isodiaphers ?

11 13
(1) 5B , 6C
39 40
(2) 19K , 20Ca
3 4
(3) 1H , 2He
(4) None of these

39) What is the potential energy of an electron present in N-shell of the Be3+ ion:-

(1) –3.4 eV
(2) –6.8 eV
(3) –13.6 eV
(4) –27.2 eV

40) An electron travels with a velocity of x ms–1. For a proton to have the same de-Broglie
wavelength, the velocity will be approximately :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1840 x
(4) x

41) If mass of proton is doubled and mass of neutron is halved, and mass of e– is 3 times. Then %
change in atomic mass of will be :-

(1) 50% increased

(2) Unchanged
(3) 25% increased
(4) None of these

42) The frequency of a wave of light is 12 × 1014 s–1. The wave number associated with this light is :-

(1) 5 × 10–7 m–1

(2) 4 × 10–8 cm–1
(3) 2 × 10–7 m–1
(4) 4 × 104 cm–1

43) An electron in excited hydrogen atom falls from fifth energy level to second energy level. In
which of the following regions, the spectrum line will be observed and is part of which series of the
atomic spectrum ?
(1) Visible, Balmer
(2) Ultraviolet, Lyman
(3) Infrared, Paschen
(4) Infrared, Brackett

44) The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be :-

(1) 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s

(2) 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d
(3) 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d, 5s
(4) 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d, 5s

45) The orbital angular momentum of 3p electron is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) Zero

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which mode of nutrition is not found in kingdom Monera?

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Holozoic
(3) Saprophytic
(4) Parasitic

2) Find out the incorrect match in the following:-

(1) Eubacteria - True bacteria

(2) Archaebacteria - Production of methane
(3) Cyanobacteria - Heterocyst outer layer thick & made up of lignin
(4) Mycoplasma - Pathogenic in animals & plants

3) How many organisms shows heterotrophic mode of nutrition :- Fungi, Wheat, slime mould and
protozoa.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

4) Which of the following is not included in five kingdom of Whittaker as a kingdom?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Eubacteria
(4) Fungi

5) Identify the diagram a, b and c :–

(1) a-Mucor, b-Agaricus, c-Aspergillus

(2) a-Mucor, b-Aspergillus, c-Agaricus
(3) a-Agaricus, b-Mucor, c-Aspergillus
(4) a-Agaricus, b-Aspergillus, c-Mucor

6) Which special cell is responsible for nitrogen fixation in Cyanobacteria

(1) Heterocyst
(2) Endospore
(3) Hormocyst
(4) Vegetative cell

7) Which of the following is found in prokaryotes but is absent in eukaryotes ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Membrane bound organelles
(4) Pili

8) Choose the incorrect match of the following :-

(1) Phycomycetes – Yeast

(2) Deuteromycetes – Alternaria
(3) Basidiomycetes – Agaricus
(4) Ascomycetes – Aspergillus

9) Which option is not correct about members of kingdom protista ?

(1) They have cilia or flagella

(2) They secrete poison in water
(3) They show CO2 and nitrogen fixation
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles

10)

Arrange the following events in correct sequence for sexual cycle of fungi ?
(a) Karyogamy
(b) Meiosis
(c) Zygote formation
(d) Plasmogamy
(e) Dikaryon formation

(1) d, e, a, c, b
(2) d, a, e, c, b
(3) e, a, d, b, c
(4) a, d, e, c, b

11) Which of following structure is present in members of kingdom protista but absent in members
of kingdom-monera ?

(1) Presence of cilia

(2) Presence of flagella
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Both 1 and 3

12) Which of the following disease is not caused by any living organism ?

(1) Citrus canker

(2) Tetanus
(3) Potato spindle tuber disease
(4) Typhoid

13) Choose the incorrect match :-

(1) Salty areas – Halophiles

(2) Hot springs – Thermoacidophiles
(3) Marshy area – Methanogens
(4) Distilled water – Eubacteria

14) Which of the following match is not correct for monerans ?

(1) Cell type - Prokaryote

(2) Structure - Very simple
(3) Behaviour - Very complex
(4) Heterocyst - Photosynthesis

15) Which of the following possess heterocyst ?

(1) Nostoc
(2) Anabaena
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Spirogyra
16) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
(A) Plamodium (i) Diatoms
(B) Mixotrophic nutrition (ii) Euglenoids
(C) Red tide (iii) Dinofalgellates
(D) Oceanic chief producers (iv) Slime moulds
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

17) Which of the following is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work ?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Neurospora
(3) Claviceps
(4) Agaricus

18) Which of the following is not a sexual spore in fungi ?

(1) Ascospore
(2) Oospore
(3) Basidiospore
(4) Zoospore

19) Penicillin doesn’t work on mycoplasma because :-

(1) They have penicillin resistant gene.

(2) Their cell wall is made up of complex polysacharide.
(3) They don’t have cell wall since penicillin works on cell wall.
(4) Their cytoplasm have antipenicillin protein.

20) What is the example of chemoautotroph ?

(1) Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter

(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Euglena

21) The name of some common diseases are given below in the box :

How many of these diseases are caused by bacteria?

(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Four

22) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) All bacteria are parasite

(2) All bacteria are saprotroph
(3) Many bacteria are heterotrophs
(4) Bacteria are mostly autotrophs

23) The following figure shows :

(1) Haplontic life cycle

(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Gametic meiosis
(4) Both 2 and 3

24) Find out the organism on the basis of following character.

Cell wall absent, have contractile vacuole, chloroplast and stored food paramylum

(1) Dinoflagellates Diatom

(2) Diatom
(3) Euglena
(4) Slime mould

25) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II
(Types of spore) (Production)
 a Zoospores 1 Exogenous
b Alpanospores 2 Endogenous
c Conidia
d Ascospores
e Basidiospores
(1) a-1, b-2, c-1, d-2, e-1
(2) a-2, b-1, c-2, d-1, e-2
(3) a-2, b-2, c-1, d-2, e-1
(4) a-1, b-2, c-2, d-2, e-1

26) Bacteriophages are generally :-

(1) ss DNA virus

(2) ds DNA virus
(3) ss RNA virus
(4) ds RNA virus

27) Which of the following is not a fungus ?

(1) Albugo
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Ustilago
(4) Trypanosoma

28) Capsid, a structure found in virus is formed of:-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) Nucleic acid

29) Chrysophytes include -

(1) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae)

(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Slime moulds

30) Select the correct option, which include all that are not mentioned in Whitaker's classification?

(1) Virus, Lichen and algae

(2) Viroid, Lichen and algae
(3) Viroid, Lichen, Prion and Virus
(4) Virus, Viroid, Prion and fungi

31) Neither plasmogamy and nor karyogamy occurs in :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

32) Which of the following classification includes two kingdoms of prokaryotic organisms?

(1) R.H. Whiltaker’s

(2) Carl woese’s
(3) Copeland's
(4) Linnaeus's

33) Which of the following is correctly matched?

(i) Virus- Nucleoprotein particles
(ii) Prion - Causes CJD & kuru in human beings
(iii) Viroid - Consist of only ss-RNA
Options :-

(1) i, ii only
(2) i, ii and iii
(3) ii and iii only
(4) ii only

34) Which of the following is not the role of mesosomes in bacteria ?

(1) Help in DNA replication

(2) Motility
(3) Respiration
(4) Secretion

35) Cell wall of dinoflagellates is made up of stiff plates possessing ?

(1) Silica, cellulose

(2) Cellulose
(3) Silica, protein
(4) Cellulose, chitin

36) Assertion : Deuteromycetes known as imperfect fungi.

Reason : Only the asexual vegetative phases of these fungi are known.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Assertion : Boundaries of kingdom protista are not well defined.

Reason : Kingdom protista includes all single celled eukaryotes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion : Spores of slime mould can survive for many years even under adverse conditions.
Reason : Slime mould forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tip.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Assertion: Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are member of kingdom protista.

Reason: Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are single cell eukaryotic organism.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

40) What is indicated by A to D in this figure ?

(1) A-Collar, B-Tail fibres, C-Head, D-Sheath

(2) A-Sheath, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibres
(3) A-Tail fibres, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Head
(4) A-Tail fibres, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Sheath

41) By observing following figure, find correct match with their example.

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Examples:-
(i) Vibrio
(ii) Spirillum
(iii) Bacillus
(iv) Coccus

(1) a(i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)

(2) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)
(3) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i)
(4) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)

42) Statement A : They have a protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible.
Statement B : Under suitable conditions they form an aggregation called plasmodium.

(1) Both statements A & B are correct for slime moulds.

(2) Statement A is correct for slime moulds.
(3) Statement B is correct for Euglena.
(4) Statement A is correct for Euglena and statement B is correct for slime mould.

43) According to two kingdom classification, fungi, bacteria and Spirogyra are members of :-

(1) Animals and protista

(2) Monera, Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Prokaryotes and plantae

44) Match the Kingdoms listed under column I with the characteristics give under column II choose
the answer which give the correct combination.

Column I
Column II characteristics
Kingdom

(A) Animalia (P) Unicellular prokaryotes

( B) Plantae (Q) Multicellular heterotrophs

(C) Protista (R) Multicellular autotrophs

(D) Monera (S) Unicellular eukaryotes

(1) A–S, B–Q, C–R, D–P
(2) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P
(3) A–S, B–R, C–Q, D–P
(4) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P
45) Which of the following is odd?

(1) Bracket fungi

(2) Puff balls
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Rust and Smut fungi

46) Cockroach is.................:-

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Ammonotelic
(3) Guanotelic
(4) Uricotelic

47) Which structure is not correctly matched with its physiological function in cockroaches ?

(1) Gastric caecae – digestion

(2) Malpighian tubules – Excretion
(3) Trachea – Respiration
(4) Antennae – Vision

48) In male cockroach, the genital pouch is formed by :

(1) 5th, 6th and 7th tergum

(2) 6th, 7th and 8th tergum
(3) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th tergum

49) In each segment, sclerites of cockroach are joined to each other by _____________

(1) Sternum
(2) Tergum
(3) Articular or Arthrodial membrane
(4) Peritrophic membrane

50) In Peripleneta americana, the wings extends beyond the tip of abdomen in:-

(1) Males
(2) Females
(3) Both male and females
(4) None of the above

51) How many ovarioles are found in the ovaries of cockroach?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 10

52) The abdomen of both male and female cockroach consists of :-

(1) 9 segments
(2) 7 segments
(3) 10 segments
(4) 12 segments

53) On an average, female cockroaches produce.....oothecae containing 14 -16 eggs.

(1) 4 – 5
(2) 9 – 10
(3) 14 – 15
(4) 21 – 22

54) Which of the following is not an excretory structure of Periplaneta ?

(1) Malphigian tubules

(2) Nephrocytes
(3) Uricose glands
(4) Mushroom gland

55) Identify (A), (B) and (C) in the labelled diagram below:

(1) Phallic gland, Vas deferens, Pseudopenis

(2) Right phallomere, Caudal style, Phallic gland
(3) Phallic gland, Ejaculatory duct, Pseudopenis
(4) Phallic gland, Phallic duct, Pseudopenis

56) Statement 1: Each simple eye of cockroaches consist of 2000 hexagonal ommatidia.
Statement 2: Cockroaches are ureotelic animals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below -

(1) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct

(2) Both statements 1 & 2 are incorrect
(3) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

57)

Head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of :-

(1) Six segments and triangular in shape

(2) Ten segments and trigonal in shape
(3) Eleven segments and rectangular in shape
(4) Three segments and tetragonal in shape

58) Total number of spiracles in cockroach are _______

(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 4

59) Main character for the distinction between male and female cockroach :

(1) Antennae
(2) Mandibles
(3) Anal cerci
(4) Anal style

60) The body cavity of cockroach is called :

(1) Pseudocoel
(2) Coelom
(3) Hydrocoel
(4) Haemocoel

61) How many Malpighian tubules are present in cockroach?

(1) 60-100
(2) 90-110
(3) 100-150
(4) 70-90

62)

Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth.

(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Rectum

(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
63) Testes of cockroach are located in -

(1) 1-3 abdominal segments

(2) 2-5 abdominal segments
(3) 4-6 abdominal segments
(4) 2-4 abdominal segments

64) In cockroach, apposition or mosaic vision is present with

(1) Less resolution and more sensitivity

(2) More resolution and less sensitivity
(3) Less resolution and less sensitivity
(4) More sensitivity and more resolution

65) Heart of cockroach consists of an elongated muscular tube lying along–

(1) Mid ventral line of thorax

(2) Mid ventral line of abdomen
(3) Lateral to the alimentary canal
(4) Mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen

66) In cockroach, brain is represented by :

(1) Supra-pharyngeal ganglion

(2) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(3) Gastro-oesophageal ganglion
(4) Cerebral ganglion

67) The dorsal plate of exoskeleton found in the abdominal segments of cockroach is called:-

(1) Pleuron
(2) Tergum
(3) Sternum
(4) Vertex

68) Statement I : In cockroach, there are three pairs of wing viz. prothoracic, mesothoracic and
metathoracic.
Statement II : Forewing is prothoracic.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II is correct

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

69) Assertion: Development in Periplaneta americana is paurometabolous type.

Reason: Development in cockroach occurs through nymphal stage.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

70) The head of cockroach shows great mobility in all direction due to :

(1) Flexible head capsule which also bears compound eyes

(2) Flexible neck which is an extension of prothorax
(3) Flexible neck which is an extension of mesothorax
(4) Flexible neck which is an extension of metathorax

71) Assertion: If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
Reason: Head holds a bit of a nervous system.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

72) Assertion: Cockroaches are harmful to humans.

Reason: They are carriers of several diseases.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

73) Statement A : Tegmina of cockroaches help in flight.

Statement B : Male and female cockroaches can be distinguished on the basis of presence or
absence of anal cerci.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Only statement B is incorrect
(4) Both statements are incorrect

74) Which mouth part of cockroach acts as upper lip?

(1) Labium
(2) Labrum
(3) First maxilla
(4) Hypopharynx

75) Select the incorrect statement regarding cockroach

(1) Cockroaches possess open circulating system
(2) Blood vessels are highly developed and open into heart
(3) Visceral organs located in hemocoel are bathed in haemolymph
(4) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia

76) How many times does the nymph of the Periplaneta americana undergo moulting before
becoming an adult ?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 17
(4) 13

77) Which structure is known as lower lip of cockroach ?

(1) Labrum
(2) Labium
(3) Mantum
(4) Submentum

78) Select the correct statement about Periplenata.

(1) Grinding of food is carried out by gizzard and mandibles

(2) Six to eight hepatic caecae occurs at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
(3) A pair of anal cerci are found in males only.
(4) All of the above.

79) Mark the incorrect match in given option.

(1) Seminal vesicle - Storage of sperm

(2) Phallic gland - Covering of spermatophore
(3) Collateral gland - Oothecal covering
(4) Phallomeres - Nourishing sperms

80) In cockroach, which of the following help in exchange of gasas ?

(1) Spiracles
(2) Respiratory tubule
(3) Tracheoles
(4) Abdomen

81) Malpighian tubules are present at _____.

(1) Junction of foregut and midgut

(2) Foregut
(3) Hindgut
(4) Junction of midgut and hindgut

82) Cockroach has ........ kind of mouth parts.

(1) Lapping and sponging

(2) Biting and chewing type
(3) Piercing and suking type
(4) Chewing and sucking

83) Assertion :- Cockroach is monoecious.

Reason :- Male and female sex organs are present in single organism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

84) Statement-I :- Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open type.

Statement-II :- Blood vessels are well developed and open into space.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Only statement-I is correct.
(3) Only statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

85) Which one of the following structure is related to female reproductive system of cockroach?

(1) Phallic gland

(2) Ejaculatory duct
(3) Spermatheca
(4) Vas deferens

86) Which of the following part of cockroach's alimentary canal secretes digestive juices?

(1) Malpighian tubules

(2) Gizzard
(3) Hepatic caeca
(4) Crop

87) Malpighian tubules of cockroach are lined by ______.

(1) Non glandular cells

(2) Only ciliated cell
(3) Glandular and ciliated cells
(4) Fat body
88) Heamolymph of cockroach consists of __________.

(1) Plasma
(2) Haemocyte
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of these

89) Which of the following statements are correct regarding cockroach?

(1) Sperms are transferred through spermatophores.

(2) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule.
(3) Coackroaches destroy food and contaminate it.
(4) All of the above.

90) In cockroach, __________________acts as a tongue.

(1) Maxillae
(2) Mandible
(3) Labium
(4) Hypopharyx
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 4 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

[At] = [M°L°T°]
⇒ [A] = T–1

= [L]
⇒ [B] = T–1L–1

= [LT–2]

2) [v] = [T–1]
[ℓ] = [L1]
[F] = [M1L1T–2]

[m] = [M1L–1]

3) n2u2 = n1u1
n2(newton) = 1 (unit of force)

⇒ 1 unit of force in particular system = 0.1 N

4) E = KFa Ab Tc

a = 1, a + b = 2 ⇒ b = 1
and – 2a – 2b + c = – 2 ⇒ c = 2
∴ E = KFAT2

5) Error in AB
= ± 0.075 = ± 0.08
Therefore AB = (0.25 ± 0.08) m

6) v = Ga Mb Rc
LT–1 = [M–1L3T–2]a [M]b [L]c
0
M L1T–1 = M–a+b L3a+c T–2a
Comparing powers of M, L and T
–a + b = 0
3a + c = 1

–2a = –1 ⇒ a =

So, abc =

7)

2.75 %

8)

9)

2 mm

10)

7%

11)

Area

12)

L1 + L2 = 4.431 cm

13)

A/B

14)

Units but no dimensions

15)
Since measured length is 3.50 cm ⇒ Least count of measurement = 0.01 cm
(1) L.C. of meter scale is 1mm = 0.1 cm
(2) L.C of vernier caliper = M.S.D-VSD (as 10VSD = 9MSD)

L.C = MSD – MSD = (MSD) = 0.01 cm

(3) L.C of screw gauge (100 division) = = 0.01 mm = 0.001 cm

(4) L.C of screw gauge (50 division) = = 0.02 mm = 0.002 cm

16)

17)

A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

2 –2
18) [E] = [ML T ], [m] = [M]
[L] = [ML2T–1], [G] = [M–1L3T–2]

∴
0 0 0
= [M L T ]

As angle has no dimensions, therefore has the same dimensions as that of angle.

19) As zero of V.S. lies towards right of main scale

ZE = +ve ; 5th div. of V.S. coincides
ZE = +5 × 0.1 mm = + 0.5 mm.

20)

= ± [4+3+3+2] = ± 12%

21) Because error decreases if no of observations increases. If no. of observations increase n

times, then new error will be times of initial Error.

22)

U=
A will have dimensions equal to

[U] =

⇒ [B] =

[B] =

23) T = Pa Db Sc
T = [ML–1 T–2]a [ML–3]b [MT–2]c
0 0
M L T1 = Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
a+b+c=0
–a – 3b = 0

–2a – 2c = 1 ⇒ a + c =

b= ,a= ,c=1

a= ,b= ,c=1

24) 1. Question Explanation (30 words)

The problem gives force F, work W, and velocity V as fundamental quantities. We are asked to
find the dimensional formula of time t in terms of these quantities.

2. Concept-Based (Subtopic) (30 words)

This involves dimensional analysis. We use the fact that force, work, and velocity are related to
time, and we apply the dimensional formulas of force, work, and velocity to derive the formula
for time.

3. Formula Used
The dimensional formulas of the quantities are as follows:
Force: [F] = MLT–2
Work: [W] = ML2T–2
Velocity: [V] = LT–1
We need to find the dimensional formula of time t.

4. Calculation
We need to express time t in terms of force F, work W, and velocity V. To do this, we equate
the dimensional formulas.
We start with the dimensional formulas of each quantity:
[F] = MLT–2
[W] = ML2T–2
[V] = LT–1

Now, express time f in terms of these quantities. We are looking for a combination of F. W. and
V that results in the dimensional formula of time, which is [T].

We can start by assuming the time t is a combination of these quantities:

[t] = [F]a [W]b [V]c
Substitute the dimensional formulas of F, W and V
T = (MLT–2)a (ML2T–2)b (LT–1)c
Simplifying the exponents:
[T] = Ma La T–2a Mb L2b T–2b Lc T–c
Now, collect the powers of each base quantity (M, L, T)
Ma + b La + 2b + c Ta– 2a – 2b – c
0 0
For the dimensional formula of time, we need the exponents of M, L and T to match M L T1

From the powers of each base:

0
1. Ma + b = M implies a + b = 0
0
2. La+2b+c = L implies a + 2b + c = 0
3. T–2a–2b–c = T1 implies – 2a – 2b – c = 1

Now, solve the system of equations:

1. a + b = 0 → a = – b
2. Substitute a = – b into a + 2b + c = 0
– b + 2b + c = 0 ⇒ b + c = 0 ⇒ c = –b
3. Substitute a = – b and c = – b into – 2a – 2b – c = 1 ;
– 2 (– b) – 2b – (– b) = 1 ⇒ 2b – 2b + b = 1 ⇒ b = 1

Thus b = 1 a = – 1 and c = – 1
Therefore, the dimensional formula of time t is:
[t] = [F]–1 [W]1 [V]–1

Option (4) is correct

25) Least count =

zero error = (CSR) (least count)
Final reading = (MSR + CSR × L.C) – (zero error)
= (3 × 2 mm + 46 × .01 mm) – (.05mm)
= 6.41 mm

26)

Dimensional analysis cannot be used to derive formula when formula contains trigonometry,
exponential and logarithmic function.

27)

28) L.H.S.
0 0
[x1 + x2] = [x1] = [x2] = [M L1T ]
R.H.S.
 [LHS] = [RHS]
It is dimensionally correct

29)

30)
0
[M L1T–1]

31)

Light year used to measure distance.

year to measure time
One light year is equal to distance travelled by Light in One year.

32)

33)

v ∝ λa ρb gc

Comparing powers of M, L and T

b=0
a–3b + c=1

–2c = – 1 ⇒ c =

a=
v ∝ λ1/2 g1/2

v2 ∝ λg

34)

A dimensonally correct equation may be correct

35) Torque
 = m × kg m/s2 ⇒
work =

36) Product and division is possible for physical quantities of different dimensions
Sum and difference is not possible for physical quantities of different dimensions.

This operation is not possible.

37)

For vernier callipers

1MSD = x unit
y VSD = (y – 2) MSD

Least count = 1MSD

38)

A : Question Explanation:
The question asks which of the given measurements of a wire's diameter is correct,
considering the screw gauge used has a least count of 0.001 cm. The least count is the
smallest measurement the instrument can accurately make. Therefore, the measurement
should be recorded up to the decimal place corresponding to the least count.
B : Given Data:

A. Least count of screw gauge = 0.001 cm

C : Concept:
The measured value should be expressed up to the same decimal place as the least count of
the measuring instrument.
D : Mathematical Calculation:
In this case, the least count is given to three decimal places (thousandths of a centimeter).
Therefore, the correct measurement should also be expressed to three decimal places.

The correct measurement is 4.230 cm. This option is the only one that reflects the precision of
the screw gauge (three decimal places).
F : Question Level:
Easy

39)

Physically incorrect & dimensionally correct

40) Base unit → kg

 Derive unit → N or (kgms–2)
Improper unit → kg-wt
Practical unit → hp
Supplementary unit → radian

41)

129600

42) Ampere (A) is fundamental unit

43) The physical quantity nu remains same in all systems.

44) Tm =

= = 2.624 = 2.62
|ΔT1| = 0.01 |ΔT3| = 0.20 |ΔT5| = 0.18
|ΔT2| = 0.06 |ΔT4| = 0.09

ΔTm =

= = 0.108 = 0.11 sec

45) Dimensionally,
E = [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2][L]
= (4) [MLT–2][4L]= 16 [ML2T–2]

CHEMISTRY

46) λminimum in Paschen series

n1 = 3, n2 = ∞

47) Explanation :- not isoelectronic with the oxide ion (O²⁻).

Concept:- isoelectronic electron mean same no. of electron

Solution:

A. O²⁻ = 8+2=10
 A. N³⁻ = (7 + 3 = 10).

B. Na⁺ = (11 - 1 = 10).

C. F⁻ = (9 + 1 = 10).

D. Ti⁺ = (22 - 1 = 21).

Final Answer : Option (4) :

48)

Explanation:
Isotones are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons but a
different number of protons.

Given Data: You haven't provided the options, but I'll explain how to find them. Let's say the
options were:

1. ¹⁴₆C
2. ¹⁵₇N
3. ¹⁶₈O
4. ¹⁷₉F

Concept:
Isotones, atomic number (number of protons), and mass number (number of protons +
neutrons). The number of neutrons is calculated as: Number of Neutrons = Mass Number -
Atomic Number.

Solution:
Mathematical Calculation:

Calculate the number of neutrons in : 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

Now, check each option:

¹⁴₆C: 14 - 6 = 8 neutrons

¹⁵₇N: 15 - 7 = 8 neutrons

¹⁶₈O: 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

¹⁷₉F: 17 - 9 = 8 neutrons

Final Answer: (4)

49)

Higher exchange energy gives more stability to 3d5 4s1 configuration over 3d4 4s2.

50)
First line of Balmer series ⇒ 3 → 2

51) Asking : Energy of photon

Concept : Plank's Theory

Solution : E =
where h = 6.02 × 10–34
c = 3 × 108
λ = 2 × 10–10

∴E=

52)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which electron, defined by its quantum numbers, has the least energy.

Concept:
n + l rule

Explanation:
Let's calculate the (n+l) values for each option:

A. n = 3, l = 2: n + l = 3 + 2 = 5

B. n = 4, l = 0: n + l = 4 + 0 = 4

C. n = 4, l = 1: n + l = 4 + 1 = 5

D. n = 5, l = 0: n + l = 5 + 0 = 5

Comparing the 'n' values:

A. Option 1 has n=3.

B. Option 2 and 3 have n=4.

 C. Option 4 has n=5.

The lowest 'n' value is 3. So option 1 has the lowest n.

Comparing (n+l) values:

A. Option 1: 5

B. Option 2: 4

C. Option 3: 5

D. Option 4: 5

The lowest (n+l) is 4. So option 2 has the lowest (n+l).

Since option 2 has the lowest (n+l) value, option 2 has the least energy.

Final Answer

The electron associated with the least energy is the one with n = 4 and l = 0.

Correct Option: (2)

53)

=2:1

54)

Mn2+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

55) Explanation : Relation between 1 & 2

Given data :
E1 = 25ev , E = 50 ev

Concept :

Calculation :
Final Answer : λ1 = 2λ2
Correct option : 2
56)

NCERT, Class-11th Part-I, Article no. 2.6.2,

Page no. 58, Edition 2023-24

57)

Explain Question : Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength

Concept : de-Broglie wavelength (λ): λ=h/mv

Solution : least mass ⇒ longest λ

Proton, Neutron = intermediate mass
H2O molecule = highest mass ⇒ least λ

Final Answer : option (4)

58) Unpaired electron of Cl atom is 3p1 for which n = 3,

ℓ = 1, m = –1, 0 or + 1 and s =

59) represents the energy.

60)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given mathematical relations correctly
represent Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. It wants to know if the principle applies to
position and momentum, energy and time, and position and velocity and if all these forms are
valid.

Underlying Concept: Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is a fundamental concept in

quantum mechanics that states it is impossible to simultaneously know certain pairs of
physical properties (like position and momentum or energy and time) of a particle with perfect
accuracy. The more precisely one property is measured, the less precisely the other can be
known. This principle highlights the intrinsic limitations on measurement at the quantum
scale.

Relevant Formulas: 1. 2. 3.
Where: - = uncertainty in position - = uncertainty in momentum - = uncertainty in
energy - = uncertainty in time - = uncertainty in velocity - = mass of the particle - =
Planck's constant

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Heisenberg's uncertainty principle has multiple forms
depending on which pair of variables is being considered. It's helpful to memorize the common
pairs: position-momentum and energy-time and relate velocity through momentum divided by
mass.

Common Mistakes: Confusing classical uncertainties with quantum uncertainties, or

assuming the uncertainty product can be zero. Also, mixing up variables or not recognizing
that all forms given are valid expressions of the principle.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The options listing only one or two forms are
incomplete because the principle extends to multiple variable pairs. Each of the relations is a
valid expression; thus, 'All of the above' is the correct comprehensive choice.

61)

62)

2d → Not Possible
3d → 10e–

63) Question Asking : The ground state of an atom

Concept : Ground state
Solution :
1. Analyze Each option :
Option 1 : Electrons are not filled from the lowest energy level upwards.
Option 2 :
Electrons are filled from the lowest energy level upwards.
Hund's rule is followed
All orbitals are filled in the correct order.
Option 3 :
The first orbital only has one electron. This violates the Aufbau principle, as the first orbital
should be filled with two electrons before filling the next orbital.
Option 4 : The first orbital only has one electrons. This violates the Aufbau principle, as the
first orbital should be filled with two electrons before filling the next orbital.
Determine the correct answer
Option 1,3 and 4 violate the Aufbau principle.
Thus option 2 is the most complete configuration.

64) n1 = 2
n2 = 6

Total number of photon emitted

65)

According to Pauli's exclusion principle, in an orbital, electrons must have opposite spin.
66) Energy is released when e– gets de-excited from higher energy level to lower energy level.
Moreover, the energy gap is more for lower 'n' value transitions. (Bohr's correspondence
principle)

67) 1 molecule absorb 1 quantum of energy

given, 1.5 mole contains 1.5 × NA molecules
no. of quantum of energy used (1.5 × NA)
n = 1.5 × NA
E = nhν
= 1.5 × 6.02 × 1023 × 6.6 × 10–34 × 7.5 × 1014
= 446.98 × 103
E = 4.47 × 105 J

68)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to identify which given series of transition metal
ions all have the same number of electrons in their 3d orbitals, meaning they share the same
3d electronic configuration.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is the electronic configuration of transition metals,
specifically the number of d-electrons in their ions. Transition metal ions lose electrons
starting from their 4s orbital before losing from their 3d orbitals. By subtracting the charge
from the neutral atom's electron count, we determine the number of remaining d-electrons.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Using the atomic numbers: Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25,
and their configurations: - Ti^{2+}: The neutral Ti atom has [Ar] 3d^2 4s^2. Losing 2
electrons (usually from 4s) leaves [Ar] 3d^2 4s^0 → 2 d-electrons. - V^{3+}: Neutral V is
[Ar] 3d^3 4s^2. Losing 3 electrons leaves [Ar] 3d^2 4s^0 → 2 d-electrons. - Cr^{4+}:
Neutral Cr is [Ar] 3d^5 4s^1. Losing 4 electrons leaves [Ar] 3d^2 4s^0 → 2 d-electrons. -
Mn^{5+}: Neutral Mn is [Ar] 3d^5 4s^2. Losing 5 electrons leaves [Ar] 3d^2 4s^0 → 2 d-
electrons. Thus, all the ions in the series Ti^{2+}, V^{3+}, Cr^{4+}, Mn^{5+} have 2 d-
electrons each.

Tips and Tricks: Recall the electron configurations of neutral transition metals and the
typical order of electron removal when forming cations.

Common Mistakes: Assuming electrons are removed from 3d orbitals before 4s, or not
correctly subtracting the charge from total electrons, which leads to wrong d-electron counts.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Other options contain ions with different d-electron
counts because the charges assigned don't make their d-electron configurations match. For
example, Ti^{3+} and V^{2+} will not both have the same d-electrons.

69) Explanation :
We are asked to determine which spectral series a spectral line belongs to when an electron in
a hydrogen atom transitions from the 5th excited state to the 1st excited state.
Given :
Initial state = 5th excited state = n = 6
Final state = 1st excited state = n = 2
Concept : Hydrogen spectrum
In hydrogen atom transitions, spectral lines are grouped into series based on the final energy
level (n) :
• Lyman series final n = 1 (UV region)
• Balmer series final n = 2 (Visible region)
• Paschen series final n = 3 (IR region)
• Brackett series final n = 4 (IR region)
• Pfund series final n = 5 (IR region)
• Humphrey series final n = 6 (IR region)
Since the electron fails to n = 2 the spectral line belongs to the Balmer series
Answer-2
Balmer series

70)

A — Z must be same

71)

KE = ; PE = ; T.E = –

72)

E= =

73) Explanation :
We need to identify the incorrect observation from Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment.
This experiment helped propose the nuclear model of the atom by observing how alpha
particles interacted with a this gold foil.

Given :
Four statements are provided about the behavior of alpha particles during the experiment.
One of them is not consistent with the actual results.

Concept :
Rutherford's atomic model
Evaluation of options :
1. Most of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil undeflected - this is correct
2. A small fraction of the alpha particles was deflected by a small angle- this is correct.
3. A very few alpha particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back - This is correct.
4. A large number of the alpha particles were bounced back - This is not correct, it contradicts
the actual observation.
Answer
 A large number of the α-particles were bounced back

74) Asking About : Angular momentum

Concept : Quantum number

Formula : Am =
Solution/Explanation : Here, ℓ = Azimuhal Quantum Number
For N–Shell
Value of 'n' = 4
So value of 'ℓ' = 0, 1, 2, 3 [i.e. 0 to (n – 1)]
for ℓ = 0 AM = 0

ℓ = 1 Am =

option (1) is correct answer.

75)

E1 = –13.6 eV E2 = –3.4 eV
E3 = –1.51 eV ; E4 = –0.85 eV

76)

First line of lyman series have minimum energy and maximum wavelength.

λ = 1216 Å (approx)

77)

A: QUESTION EXPLANATION

The question asks us to find the ratio of the velocities of an electron in two different orbits
of two different ions.

B: GIVEN DATA

● He⁺: n₁ = 3, Z₁ = 2
 ● H: n₂ = 4, Z₂ = 1

C: CONCEPT

● The velocity of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit of an atom or ion with atomic
number Z is given by: v = (2.18×106m/s)×(Z/n)

D: MATHEMATICAL CALCULATION

A. Velocity of electron in the 3rd orbit of He⁺ (v₁):

v1​=(2.18×106m/s)×(Z1​/n1​) = (2.18×106m/s)×(2/3)

B. Velocity of electron in the 4th orbit of H (v₂):

v₂ =(2.18×106m/s)×(Z2​/n2​)=(2.18×106m/s)×(1/4)

C. Ratio of v₁ to v₂:

v1​/v₂ =[(2.18×106m/s)×(2/3)]/[(2.18×106m/s)×(1/4)] =8/3

E: FINAL ANSWER

The ratio of the velocity of the electron in the 3rd orbit of He⁺ to the 4th orbit of H is 8:3.

Therefore, the correct option is (3) 8 : 3.

78) 1. Question Explanation

The question asks for the uncertainty in the position of an electron given its uncertainty in
momentum.
2. Given Data

A. Uncertainty in momentum (Δp) = 10-5 kg m/s

3. Concept

A. Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: This fundamental principle of quantum mechanics

states that it's impossible to simultaneously know the exact position and momentum of a
particle with absolute certainty.

Mathematically: x * p ≥ h/4π where: x is the uncertainty in position p is the uncertainty in

momentum h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10-34Js)
4. Mathematical Calculation

A. Using Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: x ≥ h / (4π * ΔΡ)

B. Substitute the given values: Δx ≥ (6.626 x 10-34 J s)/(4 x π x 10-5 kg m/s )
A. Calculate: Δx ≥ 5.27 x 10-30m

5. Final Answer
The uncertainty in the position of the electron is 5.27 x 10-30 m.

79)

pz has xy nodal plane

80) Lyman series lies in ultraviolet region.

81)

Angular momentum (mvr) =

A.M. ∝ n

82) D+ He+ H+ He2+

83) Isodiaphers → having same n.p.

84)

For N-shell n = 4

∴ E4 = – 13.6 × = – 13.6 eV
and P. E. = 2 × – 13.6 eV
= – 27.2 eV

85)

m∝

86)

In ⇒ 6P, 6n
∴ mass = 12 amu with the change according to question
6P ⇒ 12 amu
6n ⇒ 3 amu
∴ new mass of = 15 amu

% increase =
 87)
= 4 × 104 cm–1

88)

Transition in H-atom from any level to n = 2 belongs to Balmer series (visible spectrum).

89) Explain Question:

Question is asked to find the correct order of filling of electrons in atomic orbitals.

Concept:
Aufbau principle, (n + l) rule

Solution: Electron filling follows the Aufbau principle, which states electrons fill orbitals in
order of increasing (n + l) value. For equal (n + l), lower n fills first.
Order:
4s fills before 3d, which fills before 4p

Final Answer: Option 2

90) Question explanation:

Find the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the 3p orbital.

Concept:
Orbital angular momentum is given by

where I is the azimuthal quantum number.

Solution: For a p-orbital, l = 1 Substituting this value:

Final answer: Option (4)

BIOLOGY

91)

Holozoic

92) NCERT (XI) Pg # 19,20

93)

94)

Eubacteria

95)

a-Mucor, b-Aspergillus, c-Agaricus

96)

Heterocyst

97)

Pili

98)

Phycomycetes – Yeast

99) NCERT XI Pg # 20,21

100) NCERT XIth Pg.#23

101)

Presence of consumer

102)

Potato spindle tuber disease

103)

Distilled water – Eubacteria

104)

Heterocyst - Photosynthesis
105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 19

106)

A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

107) Neurospora

108)

Zoospore

109)

They don’t have cell wall since penicillin works on cell wall.

110) Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter

111)

Four

112)

Many bacteria are heterotrophs

113)

Haplontic life cycle

114)

Euglena

115)

a-2, b-2, c-1, d-2, e-1

116)

ds DNA virus

117) NCERT 2.3 / 23

118)

Protein

119) NCERT Page # 20

120) NCERT Pg. # 25, para 2.6

121)

Deuteromycetes

122)

Carl woese’s

123) NCERT Pg # 27

124)

Motility

125) NCERT Pg. # 21

126)

NCERT Pg. No. 24, 2.3.4

127) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 14

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

129)

NCERT-XI, Page # 18, 20

130) NCERT XI Pg. # 26

131)

a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)

132)

Solution:

Correct answer: 4. Statement A is correct for Euglena and statement B is correct for slime
mould.

A. Statement A: True for Euglena – it has a protein-rich pellicle for flexibility.

B. Statement B: True for slime moulds – they form a plasmodium under suitable conditions

133)

Plantae

134) NCERT Pg. # 17

135) Trichoderma

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

137)

Antennae – Vision

138) NCERT XI Pg. # 113, IInd para

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 112, IInd para

140) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 112

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. #114, Para No. 7.4.2

142)

10 segments

143) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 115, Ist Para

144)

Mushroom gland
145)

Phallic gland, Vas deferens, Pseudopenis

146) Each compound eye of cockroaches consists of 2000 hexagonal units called ommatidia
and they are uricotelic animals.

147)

NCERT Pg. # 112, 1st para

148)

20

149)

Anal style

150)

Haemocoel

151)

100-150

152) NCERT Pg # 113

153)

4-6 abdominal segments

154)

Less resolution and more sensitivity

155)

Mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen

156)

Supra-oesophageal ganglion
 157) NCERT – XI, Pg. # 111

158)

Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect

159) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 115

160)

Flexible neck which is an extension of prothorax

161) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Assertion: True. If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it can survive for up to a week. This is
because its open circulatory system and simple nervous system allow basic bodily functions to
continue, and cockroaches breathe through spiracles located in their body segments.
Reason: True, but not the correct explanation. While the head does contain some nervous
system components, cockroaches can survive without a head due to their decentralized
nervous system, which includes ganglia located throughout their body.
The correct answer is :
Option 2 (If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion).

162)

Question Explanation
Assertion: Cockroaches are harmful to humans.
Reason: They are vector of several diseases.

Explanation

A. Assertion: Cockroaches are harmful to humans. This is TRUE. Cockroaches can

contaminate food, spread diseases, and trigger allergies, making them harmful to humans.
B. Reason: They are vectors of several diseases. This is also TRUE. Cockroaches can carry
and transmit various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and parasites, acting as vectors
for diseases like salmonellosis, gastroenteritis, and others.

The reason is the correct explanation. The fact that cockroaches are vectors of diseases is a
direct and significant reason why they are harmful to humans. Their ability to spread pathogens
makes them a risk to human health

Final Answer (1)

163)

Both statements are incorrect

164)
Labrum

165) NCERT Pg # 113

166)

13

167)

Labium

168)

Grinding of food is carried out by gizzard and mandibles

169)

Phallomeres - Nourishing sperms

170)

Tracheoles

171)

Junction of midgut and hindgut

172)

Biting and chewing type

173) NCERT XI Pg. # 114

174) NCERT XI Pg. # 113

175)

Spermatheca

176)

Hepatic caeca
177) NCERT XIth [Link]. 114

178)

Both (a) and (b)

179)

All of the above.

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112