20-07-2025

1103CMD303003250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

Find correct one according to ASTC rule.

Cos(150°), sin(3π/4), tan(5π/6), cot(4π/3) :-

(1) –,–, +, –
(2) –, +, –, +
(3) +, –, –, +
(4) –, +, –, –

3)

The value of – tan (–30°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 1

4)

then equals to

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) y = tan3x then

(1) sec3x
(2) 3tan2x sec x
(3) 3tan2x sec2x
(4) 3tan x

6) The integral is equal to-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) sin(10°) + sin(20°) + sin(30°) + ......+ sin(340°) + sin(350°) equals to

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

8) ln(1000) = ? (approximately)

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

9)

cos2 (20°) is equal to :-

(1) 1 + cos 40°

(2) 1 – cos 40°

(3)
(4)

10)

If tan θ = then value of θ are :-

(1) 30°, 150°

(2) 60°, 120°
(3) 150°, 210°
(4) 150°, 330°

11) radian = ...........?

(1) 60°
(2) 18°
(3) 36°
(4) 108°

12) If y = –2|cosx| then graph between y & x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Differentiation of cos with respect to x is

– sin
(1)
(2) – sin

(3) – sin

(4)
– sin

14)

A car moves along a straight line whose equation of motion is given by

s = 12t + 3t2 – 2t3

where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The velocity of the car at start will be :– (Hint : )

(1) 7 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 16 m/s

15) In the graph shown angle made by the line with +ve x-axis is :

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) 143°
(4) 127°

16) Determine the average value of y = x + 1 in the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 :-

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

17) will be:

(1) –cos30° + C
(2)

(3)

(4) 2x + C

18) Statement-1 : For very small angle θ, we may use approximation sin θ ≈ θ ≈ tan θ.
Statement-2 : For very small angle θ, the hypotenuse and the base become approximately of the
same length.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

19) The equation = 2x, represents that graph between x and y is a :-

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Circle

20) If = constant
when x = x1, then y = 300, then find the y

when x =

(1) 450
(2) 375
(3) 675
(4) 405

21) then

(1) 10x – cosx + sin x + log x + c

(2) 10x + cosx + sinx + logx + c
(3) 10x – cosx – sinx + logx + c
(4) 10x + cosx – sinx + logx + c

22) What will be angle between minute hand and Hour hand considering hour hand as refrerence
when time is 3 : 00 AM.

(1) 90°
(2) –270°
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

23) For the given function x = t2 then graph between & t will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m2 > m3
25) If is a unit vector, then what is the value of β ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) 2

26) A vector makes 120° angle with positive x-axis and an another vector makes angle 30° with
positive y-axis. If both angle are in anticlockwise direction then their resultant will have magnitude :-

(1)

(2)

(3) P + Q
(4) P – Q

27) Three coplanar vectors and have magnitudes 4, 3 and 2 respectively. If the angle between

any two vectors is 120° then which of the following vector may be equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector , then the value of α is :

(1) –1
(2) 1/2
(3) –1/2
(4) 1

29) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at angle θ. Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to and ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) If = , then the value of is :

(1)

(2) A + B
(3) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

31) If and , then the scalar and vector products of and have the
magnitudes respectively as :

(1) 5,
(2) 4,
10,
(3)

(4) 10, 2

32) Two adjacent side of a parallelogram are represented by the two vectors
and . The area of parallelogram is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33)

Consider a vector Another vector that is perpendicular to is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) and are two vectors. The angle between them will be

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

35)

Which of the following vector identities is false ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36)

If and then the angle between and is :

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

37) There are two force vectors, one of 5 N and other of 12 N at what angle the two vectors be
added to get resultant vector of 17 N, 7 N and 13 N respectively

(1) 0°, 180° and 90°

(2) 0°, 90° and 180°
(3) 0°, 90° and 90°
(4) 180°, 0° and 90°

38)

Component of perpendicular to it self is :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3)
(4) 0

39)

If than find angle between and ?

(1) 0°

(2)
(3)

(4) π

40) Given that and is perpendicular to . Then :-

(1) 2B = R
(2) B = 2R
(3) B = R
(4) B2 = 2R2

41) Two vectors have magnitudes P and Q. The maximum and minimum magnitudes of their
resultants are in the ratio 2 : 1, then :-

(1) P = 3Q
(2) P = 2Q
(3) P = Q
(4) 2P = 3Q

42) A vector is turned without a change in its length through a small angle dθ. The value of
and Δa are respectively :-

(1) 0, a dθ
(2) a dθ, 0
(3) 0, 0
(4) None of these

43) In going from one city to another, a car travels 75km north, 60 km north-west and 20 km east.
The magnitude of displacement between the two cities is :

(1) 170 km
(2) 137 km
(3) 119 km
(4) 140 km

44)

If and than is :

(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 13

45) Particle's position as a function of time is given as x = 5t2 – 10t + 3 then find out minimum value
of position:-
(1) –2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) –3

CHEMISTRY

1) Find number of molecules present in 0.16 g CH4 :-

(1) 100 NA
(2) 0.1 NA
(3) 0.01 NA
(4) 10 NA

2) An element M exist as two isotopes having mass no. 4 and 3 with % occurance of 80% and 20%
respectively then its average atomic weight would be :-

(1) 3.2
(2) 3.8
(3) 3.7
(4) 3.9

3) 50 g urea (NH2CONH2) is present in its 500 g solution. Calculate molality(m).

(1) 1.66
(2) 1.85
(3) 2.35
(4) None

4) Volume of 1.7 g NH3 gas at 1 atm and 0°C is :-

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 mL
(4) 2.24 mL

5) The number of molecules in 89.6 litre of a gas at NTP are :-

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 2 × 6.02 × 1023
(3) 3 × 6.02 × 1023
(4) 4 × 6.02 × 1023

6)
A person adds 1.71 gram of sugar (C12H22O11) in order to sweeten his tea. The number of carbon
atoms added are (mol. mass of sugar = 342)

(1) 3.6 × 1022

(2) 7.2 × 1021
(3) 0.05
(4) 6.6 × 1022

7) Which of the following has least number of atoms?

(1) 0.01 mol urea (NH2CONH2)

(2) 0.04 mol acetic acid (CH3COOH)
(3) 0.05 mol NH3
(4) 0.2 mol sucrose (C6H12O6)

8) Insulin has 3.2% sulphur. Find out the minimum molecular weight of insulin :-

(1) 32
(2) 100
(3) 1000
(4) 320

9)

1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 g of calcium carbonate concentration of the solution
is :

(1) 10 ppm
(2) 100 ppm
(3) 1000 ppm
(4) 10,000 ppm

10)

Calculate molality of the solution obtained by dissolving 11.7 g NaCl in 500 g water

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.3 m
(3) 0.2 m
(4) 0.4 m

11)

One gm-molecule of N2 will not equal to :

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecule

(2) 22.4 lit of N2 at NTP
(3) 11.2 lit of N2 at NTP
(4) 28 gm of N2

12) 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weight 1.15 gm. The atomic mass of the element is :-

(1) 10 amu
(2) 2.3 amu
(3) 35.5 amu
(4) 23 amu

13) Which of the following contains the largest mass of Hydrogen atoms?

(1) 5 mole C2H2O4

(2) 1.1 mole C3H8O3
(3) 1.5 mole C6H8O6
(4) 4 mole C2H4O2

14) Match the following with the moles:

Column I Column II

(A) 10 g of CaCO3 (P) 0.2 mol

(B) 8 g of NaOH (Q) 0.3 mol

(C) 11.2 L of CH4(g)

(R) 0.1 mol
at STP

(D)
(S) 0.5 mol
molecules of glucose
(1) A - R, B - P, C - S, D - Q
(2) A - P, B - R, C - S, D - Q
(3) A - R, B - P, C - Q, D - S
(4) A - P, B - R, C - Q, D - S

15) At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weight 8 grams. The vapour density of gas is :-

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 48

16) Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one molecule
of haemoglobin is

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

17) Calculate the number of atoms in 11.2 litre of SO2 gas at STP:

(1)

(2)

(3) 3NA
(4) NA

18) What quantity of lime stone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO :-

(1) 1000 kg
(2) 56 kg
(3) 44 kg
(4) 100 kg

19) Number of molecules in 100 mL of each of O2, NH3 and CO2 at STP are -

(1) in the order CO2 < O2 < NH3

(2) in the order NH3 < O2 < CO2
(3) the same
(4) NH3 = CO2 < O2

20) The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produced 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

21) If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4 the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
that can be formed is -
3BaCl2 + 2Na3 PO4 Ba3 (PO4)2 + 6NaCl

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.1

22) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

23) A solution contain 2.5 mol of ethanol (C2H5OH) and 7.5 mol of H2O. calculate the mole fraction of
each component of the solution xethanol & .

(1) 0.25, 0.25

(2) 0.25, 0.75
(3) 0.75, 0.75
(4) 0.75, 0.25

24) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives C
38.71 % and H 9.67 % and rest oxygen. The empirical formula of compound would be :

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

25) A compound contains 70.5 % C, 4.20 % H, 11.8 % N and 13.5 % O by mass. Its molecular
formula is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Molecular weight of Ca3(PO4)2

(1) 300
(2) 310
(3) 320
(4) 290

27) The Number of electrons present in 19 gm of F2

(1) 18 NA
(2) 16 NA
(3) 20NA
(4) 9NA

28) Empirical formula of glucose is -

(1) C6H12O6
(2) C3H6O3
(3) C2H4O2
(4) CH2O

29) Caffine has a molecular weight of 194. It contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen Number of atoms
of nitrogen in one molecule of it is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

30) The number of moles of carbon dioxide which contain 8g of oxygen is -

(1) 0.5 mole

(2) 0.20 mole
(3) 0.40 mole
(4) 0.25 mole

31) The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produced 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

32) If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Na3PO4 the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
that can be formed is -

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.1

33) Liquid benzene (C6H6) burns in oxygen according to the equation,

How many litres of O2 at the STP are needed to complete the combustion of 39 g of liquid benzene?
(Mol. weight of O2 = 32, C6H6 = 78)

(1) 74 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 84 L
34) The number of molecule in 4.25 g of NH3 is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

35) Equal mass of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in a container in identical conditions.
What is the ratio of their moles :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

36) One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 g at STP. The gas may be -

(1) C2H2
(2) CO
(3) O2
(4) NH3

37) When 40 cc of slightly moist hydrogen chloride gas is mixed with 20 cc of ammonia gas the final
volume; of gas left at the same temperature and pressure will be NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH4Cl(s)

(1) 20 cc
(2) 40 cc
(3) 60 cc
(4) 100 cc

38) Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules ?

(1) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2
(2) 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
(3) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2
(4) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2

39) If 3.01×1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4 left
are-

(1) 0.1 × 10–3

(2) 0.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.66 × 10–3
(4) 9.95 × 10–2

40)
Arrange the following in order of increasing masses.
(i) 1 molecule of oxygen
(ii) 1 atom of nitrogen
(iii) 1 x 10–10 moles of oxygen
(iv) 10–10 gm of copper

(1) ii < i < iv < iii

(2) i < ii < iv < iii
(3) ii < i < iii < iv
(4) i < ii < iii < iv

41)

Which of the following compounds can NOT demonstrate the law of multiple proportions?

(1) NO, NO2

(2) CO,CO2
(3) H2O, H2O2
(4) Na2S, NaF

42)

In C12 atom if mass of electron is doubled and mass of proton is halved then calculate percentage
change in mass of C12.

(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 12.5%
(4) No change

43) The weight of substance that displaces 22.4 L air at NTP is :

(1) Ml. wt.

(2) At. wt.
(3) Eq. wt.
(4) All

44) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the
ratio of :-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

45) 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2 are mixed and exploded. The composition by volume of mixture is–
(1) 24 L of HCl (g)
(2) 0.8 L Cl2 and 20.8 L HCl (g)
(3) 0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g)
(4) 22.4 L HCl (g)

BIOLOGY

1) Sexual classificaiton of plants was first proposed by:-

(1) Huxley
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Decandolle
(4) Tippo

2) Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic categories, from broadest to narrowest?

(1) Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

(2) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family
(3) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family
(4) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Family, Order

3) Which of the following is not true about binomial nomenclature ?

(1) They are latinised

(2) Generic name starts with capital letter
(3) When printed in italics they are separately underlined
(4) They are printed in italics

4) The number of species that are known and described till now range between :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 lakh

(2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(3) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(4) 17 - 18 million

5) Anacardiaceae is a plant Family. which of the following is belongs to that?

(1) Makoi
(2) Potato
(3) Mango
(4) Wheat

6) Which taxon is not related to wheat :-

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

7) When we go higher from species to kingdom in taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
characters goes on :

(1) Increase
(2) First decrease then increase
(3) Decrease
(4) Either decrease or increase

8)

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Family (i) Solanum tuberosum

(b) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales

(c) Order (iii) Solanum

(d) Species (iv) Plantae

(e) Genus (v) Solanaceae

(1) (a)-v, (b)-iv, (c)-ii, (d)-i, (e)-iii
(2) (a)-v, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-iii, (e)-ii
(3) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-v, (e)-iv
(4) (a)-ii, (b)-i, (c)-iii, (d)-iv, (e)-v

9) Read the following statements and select the incorrect one :-

(1) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are not living things but surely living reactions.
(2) Some organisms reproduce by both asexual and sexual methods.
(3) All organisms from prokaryotes to the most complex eukaryotes have self consciousness.
(4) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in cell free system.

10)

Which taxonomic category is not applicable in animal classification

(1) Phylum
(2) Class
(3) Division
(4) Order

11)
Species are considered as :-

(1) Units of variety

(2) Real unit of taxonomy
(3) The highest unit of taxonomy
(4) Real basic unit of classification

12)

Which one of the following has least similar characters :-

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Genus
(4) Species

13) 'Systema Naturae' were written by :

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Darwin
(3) [Link]
(4) Ernst Mayr

14) Which statement is correct to Rule Binomial Nomenclature?

(A) Biological Names are generally taken from Latin Language Irrespective of their origin
(B) The first word in a Biological name represents its genus while the second component denote the
specific epithet
(C) The first word Denoting Genus starts with a capital letter, while specific epithet starts with a
small letter
(D) The name of the Author is written after specific epithet in abbreviated form

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D
(4) Only B

15) Which of the following represents a 'Phylum'?

(1) Insecta
(2) Mammalia
(3) Chordata
(4) Diptera

16) Felidae and Canidae are :-

(1) species
(2) genus
(3) families
(4) order

17) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities–

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Family
(4) Taxon

18) Self consciousness is the property of

(1) All animals

(2) Few animals
(3) All plants
(4) All bacteria

19) Tiger, lion and cat belongs to which family?

(1) Canidae
(2) Felidae
(3) Carnivora
(4) Panthera

20) "Darwin of 20th Century" proposed.

(1) Typological concept of species

(2) Biological concept of species
(3) Natural concept of classification
(4) Numerical concept of classification

21) Each unit of classification is called

(1) Rank
(2) Species
(3) Category
(4) Both (1) & (3)

22) Assertion:– All living organism present, past and future are linked to one another.
Reason:– Because all organism sharing common genetic material, but to varying degrees.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

23) Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat?

(1) Genus : Triticum, Family : Anacardiaceae, Order : Poales, Class : Monocotyledonae

(2) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales, Class : Dicotyledonae
(3) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Sapindales, Class : Monocotyledonae
(4) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales, Class : Monocotyledonae

24) Assertion :- Genera are aggregates of closely related species. Reason :- Genus comprises a
group of related species which has more common characters in comparison to species of other
genera.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

25) Assertion : Reproduction cannot be an inclusive defining characteristics of all living organisms.
Reason : Many organisms like mules, sterile worker bees, infertile human couples don't reproduce.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26)

Study the following representation and choose the correct option

(1) A & C → Polymoniales, E & G → Carnivora

(2) B & D → Monocotyledonae, F & H → Canidae
(3) A & C → Convolvulaceae, F & H → Felidae
(4) B & D → Poales, E & G → Mammalia

27) The given flow charge represents the hierachy of various taxonomic categories. Identify the
missing categories (A, B and C) and select the correct statements regarding these
(i) A is the taxonomic category, which contains a number of related genera
(ii) Examples of category B are monocotyledonae, Dicotyledonae, Mammalia etc.
(iii) C represents the basic unit of taxonomic hieracy.
(iv) Examples of category C are plant, animal etc.

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

28) How many of the following terms are not related with Mango ? Mangifera, Anacardiaceae,
Poales, Dicotyledonae, Angiospermae, Monocotyledonae

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Genera belongs to family solanaceae are :-

(1) Solanum, Datura and Petunia

(2) Solanum, Musca and Petunia
(3) Solanum, Triticum and Petunia
(4) Solanum, Mangifera and Petunia

30) Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events for

(1) Algae and higher plants

(2) Higher plants and animals
(3) Liverworts, dicots and ferns
(4) Unicellular organism

31) Assertion (A) : Cellular organisation of body is the defining feature of life form.
Reason (R) : Consciousness is the defining feature of living organism.
(1) Both A and R is correct R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R is correct R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect

32) Which of the following 'suffixes' used for units of classification in plants indicates at taxonomic
category of 'family' ?

(1) –ales
(2) –onae
(3) –aceae
(4) –ae

33) Why reproduction cannot be considered as an inclusive defining characteristic of all living
organisms?

(1) non living organisms also reproduce

(2) many living organisms are sterile
(3) reproduction is synonym to growth in all organisms
(4) Both (1) and (2)

34) Choose the correct from followings:

(1) Mangifera is a name of species

(2) Polymoniales is a name of family
(3) Dicotyledonae is a name of division
(4) Triticum is a name of Genus

35) Statement I : The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is metabolism.
Statement II : All plants, animals and fungi exhibit metabolism but microbes do not show
metabolism.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

36) Statement-A: Properties of tissues are present in the constituent cells.

Statement-B: Properties of cellular organelles are not present in the molecular constituents of the
organelle but arise as a result of interactions among the molecular components.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement-B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement-A is correct
37)

True regeneration is found in

(1) Amoeba
(2) Lizard
(3) Planaria
(4) Bacteria

38) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A Man i Order-Carnivora

B Mango ii Family-Poaceae

C House fly iii Genus-Musca

D Tiger iv Phylum-Chordata

E Wheat v Family-Anacardiaceae
(1) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-i, E-ii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i, E-v
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v

39) Which of the following system of classification is based on gross morphology of plants?

(1) Natural system

(2) Artificial system
(3) Practical system
(4) All system

40) Recognise the following flow diagram and find the correct option according to taxonomic

hierarchy.

(1) 1 – Canis, 2 – Felis, 3 – Homo, 4 – Felidae, 5 – Hominidae, 6 – Primata

(2) 1 – Canidae, 2 – Felidae, 3 – Hominidae, 4 – Carnivora, 5 – Primata, 6 – Mammalia
(3) 1 – Canidae, 2 – Felidae, 3 – Hominidae, 4 – Carnivora, 5 – mammalia, 6 – Chordata
(4) 1 – Canis, 2 – Felis, 3 – Homo, 4 – Carnivora, 5 – Primata, 6 – mammalia

41) Which of the following taxonomic category includes all others?

(1) Family
(2) Order
(3) Genus
(4) Species

42) Evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called :

(1) ontogeny
(2) taxonomy
(3) phylogeny
(4) systematics

43) The term ‘Taxon’ is used for

(1) The ranks of species and genus

(2) The ranks up to phylum
(3) The species epithet only
(4) Any rank of taxonomic hierarchy

44) Recognise the following flow diagram and find the correct option according to taxonomic

hierarchy :-

(1) a-Sapindales, b-Anacardiaceae

(2) a-Polymoniales, b-Convolvulaceae
(3) a-Polymoniales, b-Solanaceae
(4) a-Solanaceae, b-Polymoniales

45) In Binomial system when name of any plant is hand written then it should be :-
(1) Italicized
(2) Underlined cummulatively
(3) Underlined separately
(4) Closed in bracket

46) Identify the figures A, B, C and D and select the correct option.

A B C D
Liver Male
(1) Hirudinaria Nereis
fluke Roundworm
Liver Female
(2) Hirudinaria Nereis
fluke roundworm
Liver Male
(3) Nereis Hirudinaria
fluke roundworm
Liver Female
(4) Nereis Hirudinaria
fluke roundworm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Which of the following possess high regeneration capacity?

(1) Pleurobrachia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Planaria
(4) Trypanosoma

48) Which of the following statement is incorrect about Ctenoplana ?

(1) They are radial symmetrical organism which have tissue grade body organisation
(2) Their body bears only four external ciliary plates for locomotion
(3) Asexual reproduction is absent
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular type

49) Assertion :- Hooks and suckers are present in Taenia solium.

Reason :- Osmoregulation in Taenia solium occurs by flame cells.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50) Which animal show the metagenesis ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Aurelia
(3) Obelia
(4) Adamsia

51) What is the correct sequence of canal system ?

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel

(2) Spongocoel → Osculum → Ostia
(3) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

52) Which of the following statement is incorrect about the given diagram :-

(1) Digestion is extracellular & intracellular

(2) Mouth and tentacles directed upward
(3) Jelly fish
(4) Free swimming

53) Identify the diagram :-

(1) Coelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Acoelomate
(4) All of the above

54)

Which of the following animal's body is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot, and
visceral hump ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55) Assertion : Most sponge's body are said to be asymmetrical.

Reason : Body of most sponge can't be divided into two equal half by any plane passing through the
centre of body.

Both the Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion.
Both the Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assetion.
(3) The Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both the Assertion and Reason are false.

56) Read the following statement.

Statement I: In Aschelminthes, alimentary canal is incomplete with a well-developed muscular
pharynx.
Statement II: Aschelminthes are bilateral symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate animals.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

57) Which one of the following statements is incorrect :–

(1) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia

(2) Radial symmetry is found in Asterias
(3) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal
(4) Taenia is a triploblastic animal

58) Select the correct statements for animal kingdom

(a) Sponges are generally marine and mostly asymmetrical.
(b) Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusa form the polyp asexually
(c) Flatworms are mostly ectoparasites.
(d) Flame cells help in osmoregulation in liver flukes.

(1) (c) (d)

(2) (a) (b)
(3) (a) (b) (c)
(4) (a) (d)

59) Presence of water vascular system is not present in :-

(1) Chaetopleura
(2) Asterias
(3) Echinus
(4) Antedon

60) Assertion :- Members of phylum Aschelminthes are called round worms.

Reason :- The body of Aschelminthes is circular in cross section.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Which one of the following is a radially symmetrical, diploblastic animal with blind sac body
plan?

(1) Asterias
(2) Spongilla
(3) Earthworm
(4) Hydra

62) Which one of the following animal show the open circulatory system with metameric
segmentation.

(1) Annelida
(2) Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Platyhelminthes

63) In some animals a cell present on the tentacle and its body contain the stinging capsules it is
called
(1) Choanocyte
(2) Cnidocyte
(3) Trichocyst
(4) Statocyst

64) Corals belongs to phylum :-

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Porifera

65)

How many of the following phyla exhibit both extracellular and intracellular digestion ?

Porifera, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Hemichordata, Protozoa, Ctenophora, Cnidaria.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

66) Pick the odd pair:-

(1) Cellular level - Porifera

(2) Tissue level - Aschelminthes
(3) Organ level - Platyhelminthes
(4) Organ system level - Annelida

67) Select the incorrect matching pair

(1) Ascaris : Round worm

(2) Ancylostoma : Pin worm
(3) Wuchereria : Filarial worm
(4) Hirudinaria : Blood sucking leech

68) Match the animals list with names under column-I with the animals listed with regular
zoological name given under column–II.
(1) A = R, B = S, C = P, D = Q
(2) A = R, B = P, C = S, D = Q
(3) A = Q, B = R, C = S, D = P
(4) A = Q, B = P, C = S, D = R

69) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Instead, the Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between
endoderm and [Link] animals are called :-

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate

70) Which is a correct match for the animal and its common name :

(1) Obelia – Jelly fish

(2) Taenia – Tapeworm
(3) Neries – Earthworm
(4) Pila – Pearl oyster

71) First Phylum to have complete digestive tract is:-

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Nematoda (Aschelminthes)
(4) Platyhelminthes

72) Common name of Ctenoplana :-

(1) Sea urchin

(2) Sea cucumber
(3) Sea walnut
(4) Sea lily

73) Animal possess various type of symmetry, select the correctly matched :-
(1) Larval Echinodermates – Radial
(2) Ctenophora – Asymmetrical
(3) Coelenterates – Radial
(4) (1) & (3) both

74) Choose the correct option :-

(1) Ctenophores and platyhelminthes possess complete digestive system

Aschelminthes to chordates, all possess organ system level of organization along with complete
(2)
digestive system.
Coelenterates and aschelminthes possess organ system level of organization along with
(3)
complete digestive system.
(4) Poriferan may possess complete digestive system.

75) Which of the following statements are true about cnidoblast :-

(1) Help in anchorage

(2) Help in defense
(3) Help in offense
(4) All of the above

76) Statement-1 : Arthropoda is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom.

Statement-2 : Mollusca is the second largest phylum.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

77)

True feature for Poriferans :-

(1) Multicellularity
(2) Prokaryotes
(3) Have tissue level of organisation
(4) Triploblastic
78) Identify the incorrect statement about the given organism :-

(1) Body in divided into proboscis, collar & trunk

(2) It is commonly called as Acorn worm
(3) Circulatory system is of closed type
(4) External fertilisation is observed.

79)

Incomplete digestive system is found in :-

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelmintes

80) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles are found in :-

(1) Apis
(2) Pila
(3) Asterias
(4) Meandrina

81) Water vascular system in echinoderms helps in :-

(1) Locomotion
(2) Capture and transport of food
(3) Respiration
(4) All of the above

82) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body
83) Which of the following is true regarding molluscs :-

(1) All molluscs have soft bodies enclosed by calcareous shells

(2) Radula is present for feeding
(3) Adult molluscs are radially symmetrical
(4) Feather like gills are present near mouth.

84) Which of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Echinus
(3) Limulus
(4) Ancyclostoma

85) All are hermaphrodites animals in which of the following sets of animals ?

(1) Pheretima, Taenia, Sycon, Ascaris

(2) Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Nereis
(3) Sycon, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia, Ancylostoma
(4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

86) Which of the following are examples of Arthropoda ?

(1) Silver fish, Star fish and Prawn

(2) Earthworm, Apple snail and Honey bee
(3) Sea hare, Tongue worm and Scorpion
(4) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn

87) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

88) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida ?

(1) Metamerism
(2) Closed blood vascular system
(3) Comb plates for locomotion
(4) Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion

89) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

90) Tube with in tube body plan (digestive system) is absent in :

(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Earthworms
(4) Cockroach
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 2 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

–, +, –, +

3)

–tan(–30º)
= –[–tan30º]

= tan30º =

4)

then equals to .

5)

y = tan3x then 3tan2x sec2x

6)

The integral is equal to .

7)

sin(10°) + sin(20°) + sin(30°) + ......+ sin(340°) + sin(350°) equals to 0.

8)

Ans.

9) ∵ cos 2θ = 2 cos2θ – 1
∴

10) Explanation :- We are asked to find the value of sin 15° using trigonometric identities.
This requires using the angle subtraction identity to simplify the expression.
Concept :- trigonometric identities
Formula used :- sin(A – B) = sin A cos B – cos A sin B
For A = 45° and B = 30°, the formula becomes:
sin(15°) = sin(45° – 30°)

Calculation :- we know the values:

Substitude into the formula :- sin(45°) =

simplify:
Thus, the correct answer is Option 1

11) Question Explanation:

We are asked to convert radians to degrees. This requires applying the standard conversion
factor between radians and degrees.
Concept Based'
This question deals with Radian to Degree Conversion.
Formula Used'
To convert from radians to degrees, the formula is:

Degrees Radians
Calculation :

Substitute radians into the conversion formula:

Degrees =

Degrees =
Final Answer:
The correct answer is
Option 4:108°.
12) y = –2cos2x
cos2x → always positive
–cos2x → always negative
(cos2x)max = +1
(y)min = –2 (+1) = –2

13)

Let t = →

so

⇒ – sin t ·

⇒–

14) v =
v = 12 + 6t – 6t2
At t = 0 ⇒ V = 12m/s

15) Slope =

16)

17)

18)
 Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.

19)
⇒ y = 4x2 [parabola]

20)

yx2/3 = constant

300 =

y2 = ⇒ y2 = 675

21)

10x – cosx – sinx + logx + c

22)

Both (1) and (2).

23)

24) Explanation:
We are asked to compare the slopes m1, m2, and m3 at points 1, 2 and 3 on the graph,
respectively.
Concept:
This question deals with the slope of a curve at different points. The slope is the derivative of
the function, representing the instantaneous rate of change at each point.
Formula:
The slope at a point on a curve is given by the derivative of the function at that point. It
represents the slope of the tangent line at that point.
Calculation:

A. Observing the curve, we notice that it becomes sleeper as we move from point 1 to point 3.
 B. Steeper curves correspond to larger slope magnitudes.
C. Since the curve is rising from left to right, all slopes are positive.
D. Therefore, as the curve steepens, the slope increases. Hence, the relationship between the
slopes is: m1 < m2 < m3

Thus, the correct answer is option-2. m1 < m2 < m3

25)

If is a unit vector, then the value of β is 0.

26)

P+Q

27)

[∵ ]

28) =0
–8 + 12 + 8α = 0 ⇒ 8α = – 4
α = –1/2

29) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Question explanation:
To find the unit vector perpendicular to two vectors p and q that are inclined at an angle θ. the
cross product of the two vectors is used. Here's the solution:
Concept:
This question is based on cross product.
Solution:

Option-2:

is a unit vector ⊥ to plane of and

...
 Final Answer: Option (2) is correct.

30) 1. Explanation
The problem asks to find the magnitude of the vector sum of two vectors, A and B, given the
relationship between their cross product and dot product magnitudes.
2. Concept
The problem uses vector operations, specifically the cross product and dot product. The key
concept is the relationship between the magnitude of the vector sum and the magnitudes of
the individual vectors.
3. Formula Used

A. Cross product magnitude:

A. Dot product magnitude:

A. magnitude of vector sum:

4. Calculation
Given that ,
we have:

Now, Using with

Thus, the correct answer is:

31)

=
=

32) Area of parallelogram =

=
=

33)

Consider a vector Another vector that is perpendicular to is .

34) and are two vectors. The angle between them will be 90°.

35)

36)

If and then the angle between and is 120°.

37)

0°, 180° and 90°

38)

Component of perpendicular to it self is 0.

39)

40)

Given that and is perpendicular to . Then B = R.

41)

Two vectors have magnitudes P and Q. The maximum and minimum magnitudes of their
resultants are in the ratio 2 : 1, then P = 3Q.

42) = 2a sin = 2a = adθ

Δa=a–a=0

43)
= (20 – 60 × 0.7) +(60 × 0.7+75) = –22 + 117
 S= = 119 km

44)

If and than is 13.

45)
10t – 10 = 0
t=1

= –2.

CHEMISTRY

46)

0.01 NA

47)

An element M exist as two isotopes having mass no. 4 and 3 with % occurance of 80% and 20%
respectively then its average atomic weight would be 3.8.

48)

1.85

49)

Volume of 1.7 g NH3 gas at 1 atm and 0°C is 2.24 L.

50)

The number of molecules in 89.6 litre of a gas at NTP are 4 × 6.02 × 1023

51)

The number of carbon atoms added are 3.6 × 1022

52)

0.01 mol urea (NH2CONH2)

53)

% element = × 100

3.2 =

(MW)min = = 1000

54)

1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 g of calcium carbonate concentration of the

solution is 10,000 ppm.

55)

0.4 m

56)

One gm-molecule of N2 will not equal to 11.2 lit of N2 at NTP.

57)

The atomic mass of the element is 23 amu.

58)

4 mole C2H4O2

59)

60)

At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weight 8 grams. The vapour density of gas is 16.

61)

The number of iron atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin
is 4.

62)
63)

The quantity of lime stone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO is 100 kg.

64)

Number of molecules in 100 mL of each of O2, NH3 and CO2 at STP are the same.

65)

The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produced 20 moles of ammonia

through Haber's process is 30.

66)

0.1

67)

The hydrocarbon is C4H10.

68)

0.25, 0.75

69)

The empirical formula of compound would be CH3O.

70)

A compound contains 70.5 % C, 4.20 % H, 11.8 % N and 13.5 % O by mass. Its molecular
formula is .

71)

Molecular weight of Ca3(PO4)2 is 310.

72)

9NA

73)

Empirical formula of glucose is CH2O

74)

The number of moles of carbon dioxide which contain 8g of oxygen is 4.

75)

The number of moles of carbon dioxide which contain 8g of oxygen is 0.25 mole.

76)

The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produced 20 moles of ammonia

through Haber's process is 30.

77)

0.1

78)

84 L

79)

80)

1 : 16 : 2

81)

C2H2

82)

20 cc

83)

16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2

84)

0.5 × 10–3

85)
 ii < i < iv < iii

86)

Na2S, NaF

87)

25%

88)

The weight of substance that displaces 22.4 L air at NTP is Ml. wt.

89)

1:3

90)

0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g)

BIOLOGY

91)

Ncert page 24.

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 8

93)

When printed in italics they are separately underlined

94) NCERT XI Pg. # 3

95) NCERT Pg. # 12

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

97) NCERT XI (E/H) pg # 11

98)

XI NEW NCERT Pg.# 6-7

99) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 5

100)

Division

101)

Real basic unit of classification

102)

Class

103)

'Systema Naturae' were written by Linnaeus.

104)

(A) Biological Names are generally taken from Latin Language Irrespective of their origin
(B) The first word in a Biological name represents its genus while the second component
denote the specific epithet
(C) The first word Denoting Genus starts with a capital letter, while specific epithet starts with
a small letter
(D) The name of the Author is written after specific epithet in abbreviated form

105) NCERT Pg no. 11, Table :1.1

Diptera is an order while Insecta and Mammalia are classes.

106) NCERT 11th, page-9

107)

A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities Species.

108)

Self consciousness is the property of Few animals

109)
Felidae

110)

NCERT, Pg. # 2

111)

Both (1) & (3)

112)

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.

113)

Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales, Class : Monocotyledonae

114)

NCERT XI Pg. # 9 (Para 3, line 1,2,3)

115) NCERT Page No. 4

116)

A & C → Polymoniales, E & G → Carnivora

(Allen Module Pg. no 15)

117)

(i), (ii) and (iv) only

118)

NEW NCERT XI pg no. 8

119)

Old Ncert page 9.

120) Explanation:
In unicellular organisms like Bacteria and Amoeba, growth = reproduction One cell grows and
divides into two - so growth and reproduction happen together (mutually inclusive).
The correct answer is:

121)

Both A and R is correct R is not correct explanation of A.

122)

–aceae

123) many living organisms are sterile

124)

Triticum is a name of Genus

125) NCERT XI, Pg. # 5

126) NCERT page no 5.

127) Planaria

128)

A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-i, E-ii

129)

Natural system

130)

1 – Canidae, 2 – Felidae, 3 – Hominidae, 4 – Carnivora, 5 – Primata, 6 – Mammalia

131)

Order

132)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. Phylogeny refers to the evolutionary history and relationships among a group of

 organisms. It traces how species have evolved from common ancestors over time.

B. Phylogenetic trees represent these relationships based on genetic, morphological, and

molecular data.

Why not the other options?

A. Ontogeny (Option 1): Refers to the development of an individual organism from embryo
to adult, not evolutionary history.

B. Taxonomy (Option 2): The science of classifying organisms based on similarities and
differences, but it does not necessarily represent evolutionary history.

C. Systematics (Option 4): Includes taxonomy and phylogeny but is broader, involving
classification and evolutionary relationships.

Thus, phylogeny is the correct term for the evolutionary history of a group of organisms.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (3) is correct.

133) Taxon refers to any group of organisms at any rank in the taxonomic hierarchy, from
species to phylum.

134) a-Solanaceae, b-Polymoniales

135)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 4

136)

A-Liver fluke B-Female roundworm C-Nereis D-Hirudinaria

137) NCERT Pg. # 51

138) NCERT Pg. # 51

139)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

140) NCERT para : 4.2.2 pg. 50

141) NCERT XIth Pg.#49, Para-1

142) NCERT Pg. # 50

143) NCERT XI Pg. # 48

144)

145) New NCERT XI Page # 41

146) NCERT XI Page # 43

147)

Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal

148) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 49, 51

149)

Presence of water vascular system is not present in Chaetopleura.

150)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

151)
Module

152)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 47, 48

153) NCERT XI Pg. # 50

154) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

155)

Cnidaria and cternophora show both types of digestion.

156)

Ncert Page 47.

157)

Ancylostoma : Pin worm

158)

A = Q, B = R, C = S, D = P

159) NCERT XII, Page # 48

160) Taenia – Tapeworm

Pg. No. 51 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

161)

Nematoda (Aschelminthes)

162)

Sea walnut

163)

Coelenterates – Radial
 164)

1. Ctenophores and platyhelminthes possess a complete digestive system. Incorrect.

A. Ctenophores have a complete digestive system but

B. Platyhelminthes have an incomplete digestive system.

2. Aschelminthes to chordates, all possess organ system level of organization along

with a complete digestive system. Correct.

3. Coelenterates and aschelminthes possess organ system level of organization along

with a complete digestive system. Incorrect.

A. Coelenterates: have a tissue level of organization, not organ systems. They also have an
incomplete digestive system.

B. Aschelminthes: Aschelminthes have organ systems and complete digestive systems.

4. Poriferans may possess a complete digestive system.

Poriferans lack a digestive system altogether. They digest food intracellularly (within
cells). Incorrect.

Final Answer : option (2)

165)

All of the above

166)

Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.

167)

True feature for Poriferans Multicellularity

168)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45
Open type circulatory system with dorsal heart.

169)

NCERT Pg# 47
 170)

NCERT Pg. # 45

171) NCERT-XI, Page # 45

172) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

173)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

174) NCERT Pg no.44

175) Explanation:

A. Hermaphrodites have both male and female reproductive organs.

B. Spongilla (Sponge), Pleurobrachia (Ctenophore), Fasciola (Liver Fluke), and
Hirudinaria (Leech) are all hermaphrodites.
C. Other options contain Ascaris, Nereis, Wuchereria, or Ancylostoma, which are dioecious
(separate sexes) and incorrect.

Correct Answer:
Option (4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

176) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

177)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

178)

Comb plates for locomotion

179) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

180) Pg. No. 47 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition