22-04-2026

7101CMD303001260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The dimensional formula for impulse is

(1) MLT-2
(2) MLT-1
(3) ML2T-1
(4) M2LT-1

2) The physical quantity that has no dimensions

(1) Velocity
(2) Momentum
(3) Power
(4) Strain

3) Which of the following has same dimension as energy

(1) Power
(2) Force
(3) Momentum
(4) Work

4) The dimension of wavelength (λ) is :-

(Wavelength = Distance travelled by wave in one time period)

(1) [M°L°T°]
(2) [M°LT°]
(3) [M°L–1T°]
(4) None of these

5) Light year is a unit of :-

(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Distance
(4) Energy

6) What is the number of significant figures in 0.310×103

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

7) A physical quantity A is related to four observable a, b, c and d as follows, , the

percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2% respectively. What is the
percentage error in the quantity A.

(1) 12%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 14%

8) The resistance where V= 100 5 volts and i = 10 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in
R

(1) 5%
(2) 7%
(3) 5.2%

(4)

9) A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ±0.2) m in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. The velocity of the
body within error limits is

(1) (3.45 ± 0.2) ms-1

(2) (3.45 ± 0.3) ms-1
(3) (3.45 ± 0.4) ms-1
(4) (3.45 ± 0.5) ms-1

10) Velocity is given by v = A + . Dimensional formula of A, B and C will be respectively :

0
(1) M L1T1, L1, T1
0
(2) M L1T–1, L1, T–1
0
(3) M L1T–1, L1, T1
(4) None

11) Dimension of plane angle are

(1) M1L1T1
0 0
(2) M L T1
0 0 0
(3) M L T
(4) M1L–1T–1
12) First kinematical equation represented as V = u + ax The X must be have same dimension as

(1) Velocity
(2) Acceleration
(3) Time
(4) Displacement

13) The equation is describing the rate of change of velocity of a body falling from rest
in a resisting medium. The dimensions of A and B are :-

(1) LT–3, T
(2) LT–3, T–1
(3) LT, T
(4) LT, T–1

14) A wave is represented by

y = a sin (At – Bx + C)
where A, B, C are constants. The dimensions of A, B, C are

0 0 0
(1) T–1, L, M L T
0 0 0
(2) T–1, L–1, M L T
(3) T, L, M
(4) T–1, L–1, M–1

15) The force is given in terms of time (t) and displacement (x) by the equation :
F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt

Then, the dimensions of are :-

(1) MoLoTo
(2) MoLoT–1
(3) MoL–1To
(4) MoLT–1

16) Unis of length, velocity and force are doubled. Which of the following is correct :-

(1) Units of time is doubled

(2) Unit of mass is doubled
(3) Unit of momentum is doubled
(4) Unit of energy is doubled

17) Which of the following sets can not enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of
units?

(1) length, mass, velocity

(2) length, time, velocity
(3) length, time, mass
(4) mass, time, velocity

18) The area of rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the
value for correct significant digits is

(1) 1382
(2) 1382.5
(3) 14 × 102
(4) 138 × 101

19) Statement I A physical quantity that does not have any unit must be dimensionless.
Statement II The physical relation involving logarithm, exponential, trigonometric ratio, can be
derived by method of dimensional analysis.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

20) Assertion If the percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 3% and 5%
respectively. then percentage error in the estimation of kinetic energy will be 13%
Reason The relative error in kinetic energy is given by

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

21) Assertion: Number of significant figure in 0.0003 is one and that in 0.3000 is four.
Reason: The zero placed to the left of the first number are never significant.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason in incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

22) The number 3.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give

(1) 3.85
(2) 3.80
(3) 3.83
(4) 3.84
23) A new system of units is proposed in which, the unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m, and
unit of time is γ s. What will be the value of 5 J in the new system?

(1) 5α –2 β–1 γ–2

(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–1β2γ2
(4) 5αβ2γ–2

24) If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental physical quantities, then
dimensional formula of pressure is :-

(1) F V T–2
(2) F V2 T–2
(3) F V–2 T–2​
(4) F V T2​

25) If 3.8 × 10–6 is added to 4.2 × 10–5 , then the result in significant figures will be

(1) 4.58 × 10–5

(2) 4.6 × 10–5
(3) 45 × 10–5
(4) None of these

26) Choose the correct statement

(1) Error in a measurement is equal to the sum of true value and measured value of the quantity
(2) Systematic errors occur in both directions, positive and negative
(3) Random errors occur irregularly and at random, in magnitude and direction
(4) In constant errors, errors affect each observation by the different amount

27) Which of the following instruments has minimum least count?

A vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the vernier scale coinciding with 19 main scale
(1)
divisions.
(2) A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
(3) A spherometer of pitch 0.1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
(4) An optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light.

28) The errors in the measurement of the radius of a sphere is 2% and that in its mass is 3%, then
the error in the measuring the density of the sphere is

(1) 9%
(2) 7%
(3) 11%
(4) 5%
29) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by where ℓ is about 100 cm
and is known to have 1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured
by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is

(1) 0.1%
(2) 1%
(3) 0.2%
(4) 0.8%

30) In the expression P = EL2 m–5G–2, where E, m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum
and gravitational constant, respectively. The dimensions of P are

0
(1) [MLT ]
(2) [M2LT–1]
0 0 0
(3) [M L T ]
0
(4) [M LT–2]

31) If and ΔX, ΔA and ΔB are the maximum absolute errors in X, A and B respectively, then
the maximum fractional error in X is given by :-

(1) ΔX = ΔA + ΔB
(2) ΔX = ΔA – ΔB

(3)

(4)

32) What will be the unit of a in the following equation?

= constant

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Which of the following pairs of physical quantities may be represented in the same unit?

(1) Heat and temperature

(2) Temperature and mole
(3) Heat and work
(4) Specific heat and heat

34)
Write the dimensions of a × b in the relation where E is the energy, x is the displacement
and t is time

(1) ML2T
(2) M–1L2T1
(3) ML2T–2
(4) MLT–2

35) Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures ?

(1) 0.007 m2
(2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) 0.0006032 m2
(4) 6.3200 J

36) If work done is W = 20 Joule, then work done in CGS system will be:

(1) 2 × 107 erg

(2) 20 × 108 erg
(3) 2 × 108 erg
(4) 108 erg

37) The unit of percentage error is

(1) Same as that of physical quantity

(2) Different from that of physical quantity
(3) Percentage error is unit less
(4) Errors have got their own units which are different from that of physical quantity measured

38) When of the following combinations of three dimensionally different physical quantities P,Q,R
can never be a meaningful quantity?

(1) PQ - R

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

The velocity of a body moving in viscous medium is given by where t is time, A

and B are constants. Then the dimensions of A are :
 0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0 0
(2) [M L1T ]
0 0
(3) [M L T–1]
(4) [M1L1T1]

40)

When 96.54 is divided by 2.40 the correct result is–

(1) 40.2250
(2) 40.225
(3) 40.23
(4) 40.2

41) The velocity of a freely falling body changes as is acceleration due to gravity and h is the
height. The values of p and q are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1,1

42) Statement-1 : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three.
Statement-2 : This is because zeros are not significant.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true.

(2) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true.
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false.
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false.

43) What is the reading of micrometer screwgauge shown in figure which least count is 0.01 mm:-

(1) 2.31 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm
44) An experiment measures values a, b and c and x is calculated from

If percentage errors in a, b and c are ±1%, ±3% and ±2% respectively, the percentage error in x can
be :-

(1) ± 13%
(2) ± 7%
(3) ± 4%
(4) ± 1%

45) The values of measurement of a physical quantity in 5 trials were found to be 1.22, 1.23, 1.23,
1.24 and 1.25. Then pick up the incorrect answer : -

(1) average absolute error is 0.01

(2) relative error is 0.01
(3) percentage error is 1%
(4) percentage error is 0.01%

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has the same empirical formula as that of C6H12O6?

(1) C2H5OH
(2) H2C2O4
(3) C6H5OH
(4) CH3COOH

2) 10–2 mm = ....?.... m

(1) 10
(2) 10–5
(3) 105
(4) 1

3) If law of conservation of mass was to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of
H2SO4 will produce 7.3 g HCl and BaSO4 equal to :

(1) 11.65 g
(2) 23.3 g
(3) 25.5 g
(4) 30.6 g

4) Atomicity of SO2 is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

5) Empirical formula of CH3COOH :-

(1) C3H6
(2) C2H4O2
(3) CH2O
(4) CHO

6) In a molecule the number of atoms of N and O are 1.2 × 1010 and 2.4 × 1010 respectively. Its
empirical formula is :-

(1) N2O3
(2) NO2
(3) N2O4
(4) N2O

7) Which of the following is a compound

(1) C
(2) CO2
(3) HCl
(4) Both (2) and (3)

8) Empirical formula of Glucose (C6H12O6) is similar to

(1) Oxalic acid (H2C2O4)

(2) Formic acid (HCOOH)
(3) Acetic acid (CH3COOH)
(4) Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

9) A compound contains 5 g sulphur and 5 g of oxygen atom. The empirical formula of compound is :-

(1) SO
(2) SO2
(3) S2O
(4) SO3

10) Which of the following equation does not obey the law of conservation of mass?

(1) 4H + O2 → 2H2O
(2) H2 + O → 2H2O
(3) 2H + O2 → 2H2O
(4) Both 2 and 3

11) A sample of pure carbon dioxide, irrespective of its source contains 27.27% carbon and 72.73%
oxygen. The data support :-

(1) Law of constant composition

(2) Law of conservation of mass
(3) Law of constant volume
(4) Law of multiple proportions

12) Empirical formula of fructose is :

[Fructose = C6H12O6]

(1) C6H12O6
(2) C2H4O2
(3) CH2O
(4) C12H22O11

13) Different proportions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the law of -

(1) Equivalent proportion

(2) Multiple proportion
(3) Constant proportion
(4) Conservation of matter

14) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its empirical formula is.

(1) SO3
(2) SO2
(3) SO
(4) S2O

15) "Equal volume of all gases contain equal number of molecules at same temperature and
pressure". The above statement represent

(1) Law of multiple proportion

(2) Gay Lussac's law
(3) Berzilius law
(4) Avogadro's law

16) Match the following prefixes with their multiples :-

(a) Micro (i) 10–12

(b) Mega (ii) 10–6

(c) Giga (iii) 106

 (d) Pico (iv) 109
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

17) The law of conservation of mass holds good for all of the following except

(1) All chemical reactions

(2) Nuclear reactions
(3) Endothermic reactions
(4) Exothermic reactions

18) The simplest formula of compound containing 50% of element A (Atomic weight = 10) and 50 %
of element B (Atomic weight = 20):-

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) AB2
(4) A3B

19) Which one of the following pairs of compound illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?

(1) H2O, Na2O

(2) MgO, Na2O
(3) Na2O, BaO
(4) SnCl2, SnCl4

20) Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in which
the ratio of the weights of carbon and oxygen is respectively 12 : 16 and 12 : 32. These figures
illustrate the :

(1) Law of multiple proportions

(2) Law of reciprocal proportions
(3) Law of conservation of mass
(4) Law of constant proportions

21) 3 g of hydrocarbon on combustion with 11.2 g of oxygen produce 8.8 g of CO2 and 5.4 g of H2O.
The data illustrate the law of:

(1) Conservation of mass

(2) Multiple proportions
(3) Constant proportions
(4) Reciprocal proportions
22) A measured temperature on fahrenheit scale is 200°F what will this reading be on celsius scale?

(1) 40°C
(2) 94°C
(3) 93.3°C
(4) 30°C

23) Mordern atomic weight scale is based on.

(1) H-1
(2) C-12
(3) C-14
(4) C-16

24) The count of number of atoms present in a molecule is called it's :-

(1) atomicity
(2) molecularity
(3) Poisson's ratio
(4) none of these

25) The molecular weight of an organic compound is 180. Its empirical formula is CH2O. The
molecular formula is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with

(1) Avogadro’s law

(2) Law of constant proportion
(3) Law of conservation of mass
(4) Law of gaseous volumes

27) Acetic acid and glucose have _______

(1) Same empirical formula

(2) Same weight composition of elements
(3) Same ratio of masses of individual elements
(4) Same number of grama toms of each element per mole

28) Assertion (A): Law of conservation of mass is invalid for nuclear fission, fusion and
disintegration.
Reason (R): The law proposes that mass is neither created nor destroyed in reaction.
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

29) Which of the following is a compound

(1) Graphite
(2) Steel
(3) Cement
(4) Marble

30) When 100 g of ethylene polymerizes to polythylene according to equation

The weight of polyethylene produced will be :-

(1)

(2) 100 g

(3)

(4) 100n g

31)

1 angstrom is equal to

(1) 10–10 m
(2) 10–8 cm
(3) 10–12 cm
(4) Both (1) and (2)

32) Assuming the atomic weight of a metal M to be 56, find the empirical formula of its oxide
containing 70.00% of M :

(1) MO
(2) M2O3
(3) M3O2
(4) M2O

33) A hydrocarbon contains 80% of carbon by mass then its molecular formula is :-

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) C2H2
34) 1 dm3 = ....?.... mL

(1) 1000
(2) 10–3
(3) 1
(4) 102

35) 5 J = _____ erg

(1) 107
(2) 10–7
(3) 5 × 107
(4) 5 × 10–7

36) If water sample are taken from sea, river or lake, they will be found to contain hydrogen and
oxygen in the approximate mass ratio of 1 : 8. This indicates the law of :-

(1) Multiple proportion

(2) Definite proportion
(3) Reciprocal proportion
(4) None of these

37) The pure substance containing only one kind of atoms is called as :-

(1) An element
(2) A compound
(3) A mixture
(4) Liquid

38) The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 × 1010 and 9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical
formula is –

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO2
(3) Cr2O4
(4) CrO5

39) Atomicity of Na2SO4 will be

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4

40) Convert 3800 mm of Hg pressure into atm. pressure

(1) 1.5 atm
(2) 5 atm
(3) 3 atm
(4) 7.5 atm

41) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are :

(1) 104, 71 and 71

(2) 71, 71 and 104
(3) 175, 104 and 71
(4) 71, 104 and 71

42) The law of multiple proportion was proposed by :

(1) Lavoisier
(2) Dalton
(3) Proust
(4) Gay lussac

43) Which of the following pairs of compound illustrates law of multiple proportion ?

(1) H2O, N2O

(2) Na2O, MgO
(3) CO2, MgO
(4) D2O, D2O2

44) Which of the following relation is correct?

(1) 1 m3 = 1000 L
(2) 1 cm = 100 m
(3) 1 Joule = 4.2 calorie
(4) 2 m = 200 dm

45) A compound contains 69.5% oxygen, 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92. The formula
of compound is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) The lowest category in a taxonomical hierarchy (w.r.t. seven obligate categories) is :

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Family
(4) Subspecies

2) Which of the following has least number of similar characters ?

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Class
(4) Order

3) Which of the following is mismatched ?

(1) Wheat – Belongs to Poaceae family

(2) Housefly – Belongs to the order Diptera
(3) Humans – Belongs to the class Mammalia
(4) Mango – Belongs to the family Sapindales

4) Two different organisms belong to the same order but not the same genus. These two organisms
may belong to the same :

(1) Family
(2) Species
(3) Subspecies
(4) None of these

5) The two components of binomial nomenclature are :

(1) Generic name

(2) Specific epithet
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Subspecies

6) Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called :

(1) Trinomial
(2) Vernacular
(3) Binomial
(4) Polynomial

7) Which one of the following is not a category?

(1) Species
(2) Class
(3) Phylum
(4) Convolvulaceae

8) Which is not a part of taxonomic hierarchy?

(1) Genus and species

(2) Order and class
(3) Kingdom and class
(4) Catalogue and herbarium

9) The zoological name of cat is :

(1) Mangifera
(2) Solanum truberosum
(3) Solanum melongena
(4) Felis domesticus

10) The practical purpose of classification of living organism is to :

(1) Explain the origin of living organisms

(2) Trace the evolution of living organisms
(3) Name the living organisms
(4) Facilitate identification of unknown organisms

11) The genera Datura, Petunia are included in family :-

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Convoluceae
(4) Cyperaceae

12) Which of the following option includes only obligate or essential categories ?

(1) Kingdom → Sub division → Class → Sub species

(2) Kingdom → Division → Order → Genera
(3) Kingdom → Division → Sub-order → Family
(4) Kingdom → Division → Class → Sub-family

13) Assertion : Biological names are derived from Latin language or latinised.
Reason : Latin is a very popular language.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false statements.

14) The term 'systematics' refers to

(1) The identification and classification of plants and animals.
(2) The nomenclature and identification of plants and animals.
(3) The diverse kind of organisms and their evolutionary relationship.
(4) The different kinds of organisms and their classification.

15)

Which of the following is not correct statement:-

Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters in comparisation to
(1)
families
Convolvulaceae and Solananeae families are included in order polymoniales mainly on the basis
(2)
of floral characters
(3) In hierarchy both broad categories and sub categories are used
(4) Class is a sub category which includes related order

16)

Evolutionary classification is called:

(1) Artificial system

(2) Natural system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) None of the above

17) Observe the gradation of taxonomic categoreis and identify the missing categories according to

the statements given below (i) B is a group of related species

(ii) B is a group of related genera
(iii) D is a group of related orders
The correct options are :-

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

18) For declaration of new species of higher plants what characters are mainly used :–
(1) Floral character of new species
(2) Anatomical characters of new species
(3) Physiological character of new species
(4) Character of endosperm

19) Consider the following;

Solanum, tuberosum, Mangifera indica, Triticum aestivum, Solanum nigrum, Panthera Ieo,
Panthera pardus, Solanum Melongana, Panthera tigris, Homo sapiens
How many family, genus and species are represented by above set of organisms?

(1) 5 ,5 5 respectively
(2) 5, 5, 9 respectively
(3) 9, 6, 5 respectively
(4) 6, 5, 9 respectively

20) The correct definition of a order may be.

(1) it is an aggregate of distantly related genera

(2) it is group of genera present in a given area
(3) it is an aggregate of closely related family
(4) it is a group of species present in a common habitat

21) The least number of similar characters observed among the following is
Order, Genus, Family, Species, Division and Class.

(1) Genus
(2) Division
(3) Species
(4) Order

22) Binomial nomenclature was popularized and Systema naturae was written by

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Whittaker
(3) Mayr
(4) Bentham

23) Find out the correct option by assigning the categories to the below given taxa or ranks?
A. Mammalia
B. Plantae
C. Monocotyledonae
D. Angiospermae
E. Sapindales

(1) [Link] b. Kingdom c. Order d. Class e. Order

(2) a. Class b. Kingdom c. Class d. Division e. Family
(3) a. Kingdom b. Division c. Class. d. Order e. Family
(4) a. Class b. Kingdom c. Class d. Division e. Order

24) Statement 1 : ICBN and ICZN are the organisations which will provide names to all the
organisms
Statement 2 : Scientific names ensure that each organism has standarise name.

(1) Statement 2 correct and statement 1 incorrect

(2) Statement 1 correct and statement 2 incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

25) In potato, brinjal, makoi , lion and leopard how many species, genera and families are there?

Species Genus Family

(A) Five Three Two

(B) Four Two Three

(C) Five Two Two

(D) Four Three Two

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

26) In which of the following taxonomic category has real existence?

(1) Kingdom
(2) Family
(3) Species
(4) Genus

27) How many of the following taxa represents hierarchy above family?
Canidae, Polymoniales, Brassicaceae, Diptera, Poales, Anacardiaceae

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

28) Read the following table carefully and select the correct options for W, X, Y, Z

Common Name Biological Name Family Order

Wheat Triticum aestivum X Y

Mango W Z Sapindales
 W = Oryza, Sativa, X = Poaceae
(1)
Y = Poaceae, Z = Anacardiaceae
(2) W = Mangifera indica, X = Anacardiaceae Y = Sapindales ; Z = Poaceae
W = Oryza sativa; X = Sapindales
(3)
Y = Poaceae, Z = Poales
W = Mangifera indica, X = Poaceae
(4)
Y = Poales; Z = Anacardiaceae

29) Which of the following character forms the basis of modern taxonomic studies?

(1) Structure of cell

(2) Developmental process of organisms
(3) Ecological information of organisms
(4) All of the above

30) What is the practical significance of taxonomy ?

(1) Study of living being

(2) Identification of unknown organisms
(3) Study of interrelationship in organisms
(4) Grouping of organisms

31) Taxonomic categories together makes–

(1) Identification
(2) Criteria for nomenclature
(3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(4) Keys

32) Systematic includes–

(1) Identification only

(2) Nomenclature and classification only
(3) Evolutionary relation only
(4) All of these

33)

Solanum tuberosum, Mangifera indica,

Triticum aestivum, Solanum nigrum.
How many different families are present in the above list of taxa ?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
34) Biological concept of species was given by.

(1) A.P. de Candolle

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) John Ray
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

35) Taxonomically a species is.

(1) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities.

(2) A group of individuals capable of interbreeding.
(3) A group of individuals living together in a habitat
(4) A group of individuals having same anatomical features only

36) Select the incorrectly written match pair of

botanical/zoological name with their common name.

(1) Man – Homo sapiens

(2) Tiger – Panthera tigris
(3) Wheat – Triticum indica
(4) Housefly – Musca domestica

37) What do A and C represent in the given scientific name, respectively ?

Panthera leo Linn
A B C

(1) Generic name and specific name

(2) Specific name and author's name
(3) Generic name and author's name
(4) Specific name and generic name

38) A group of plants or animals with similar traits at any rank is :

(1) Taxon
(2) Order
(3) Species
(4) Genus

39) Convolvulaceaea and Solanaceae are kept under polymoniales because they have similar

(1) Vegatative characters

(2) Natural distribution
(3) Floral Characters
(4) Leaf characters

40) When we move from kingdom to species in taxonomic hierarchy

(1) Number of similar characters decreases
(2) Number of similar characters increases
(3) Specificity remains unchanged
(4) Specificity decreases

41) Taxonomically known member of species is

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 5 to 3 million
(3) 17 lakhs
(4) 17 million

42) Assertion : Animals, mammals and dogs represent taxa at different levels.
Reason : Plants and wheat are taxa at same level.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Assertion A: Taxonomy involves the processes of characterisation, identification, classification,

and nomenclature.
Reason R: These processes are based on the external and internal structures, cell structure,
development processes, and ecological information of organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

44) Which character defines a species, but not used in taxonomy ?

(1) Morphological resemblance

(2) Biochemical resemblance
(3) Anatomical characters
(4) Interbreeding

45) Match the common name given in column-I with their taxonomic category family given in
column-II and choose the correct combination from the options given below :-

Column-I Column-II
(Common Name) (Taxonomic category family)

A Man I Poaceae

B Datura II Anacardiaceae

C Mango III Solanaccae

 D Wheat IV Hominidae
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

46) The structural complexity of respiratory system depends upon -

(1) Habitat
(2) Level of organisation
(3) Presence of pseudocoelom
(4) Both (1) & (2)

47) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Total volume of air a person can expire after normal inspiration is called expiratory capacity.
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of CO2.
(3) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to alveoli.
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to tissue under normal
(4)
physiological condition.

48) If a person is suffering from emphysema, his/her -

(1) Bronchioles are found damaged.

(2) Alveolar walls are found damaged.
(3) The plasma membrane is found damaged.
(4) The respiratory muscles are found damaged.

49) What happens to the volume of pulmonary cavity when there is an increase in the volume of
thoracic chamber?

(1) It decreases
(2) It increases
(3) It remains same
(4) Find decreases and then increases

50) Inspiration can occur if the -

PL = Pulmonary pressure
PA = Atmospheric pressure

(1) PL > PA
(2) PL < PA
(3) PL = PA
(4) Size of thoracic cavity decrease
51) If a person's functional residual capacity is 2300 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml & inspiratory
capacity is 3500 ml then find out it's vital capacity -

(1) 7000 ml
(2) 4600 ml
(3) 2300 ml
(4) 5800 ml

52) Pick out the correct statement regarding (A) Curve

'C' may be normal curve.
(B) Curve 'A' may be for myoglobin.
(C) Curve 'B' represents saturation of Hb at low PO2.
(D) Curve 'B' represents higher pCO2.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, D
(4) All are correct

53) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tracheal tubes (I) Arachinda

(B) Gills (II) Frog

(C) Moist skin (III) Cockroach

(D) Book lungs (IV) Fishes

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

54) O2 is used _______ by our tissue

(1) Directly
(2) Indirectly
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above

55) Which of the following facilitates the following reaction ?

(1) Chloride shift

(2) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Hamburger phenomenon
(4) Bohr effect

56) At which level of thoracic vertebrae trachea divides

(1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae

(2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(3) 3rd thoracic vertebrae
(4) 4th thoracic vertebrae

57) Expiration occurs due to

(1) Relaxation of diaphragm & external inter costal muscles.

(2) Contraction of internal inter costal muscle & diaphragm
(3) Relaxation of abdominal & internal inter costal muscle
(4) Contraction of diaphragm & relaxation of abdominal muscles.

58) Chemosensitive area is present in :-

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Cerebrum

59) Function of type II pneumocytes in alveolar wall is :-

(1) Provide more surface area for gaseous exchange

(2) Phagocytosis
(3) Prevent alveoli from collapsing by secreting lecithin
(4) Filter and clear the air

60) How much CO2 is transported as ?

(1) 3%
(2) 7%
(3) 23%
(4) 70%

61) In case of decrease in carbon dioxide concentration of blood, the HbO2 saturation curve will shift
towards

(1) Right side

(2) Left side
(3) No change in the position of saturation curve
(4) First right and then left

62) If the thoracic wall of the lungs is punctured then:

(1) The lungs get inflated.

(2) The man dies as the lungs get collapsed.
(3) The breathing rate remain unaffected
(4) The breathing rate increases

63) Which of the following structures/chemical prevent collapse of bronchioles/passage of

conduction zone and exchange zone respectively?

(1) C-shape hyaline rings; Lecithin

(2) PSCCGE; YFCT sheath
(3) C-Shaped elastin rings; Lecithin
(4) C-Shaped hyaline rings; YFCT sheath

64) Assertion : Process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is
called breathing.
Reason : Respiration includes breakdown of glucose.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

65) Four statements (A-D) are given. How many statements are correct?
A. O2 can bind to haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin
B. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of O2
C. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2
D. About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

66) Exchange zone (respiratory tree) include ?

(1) Respiratory branchiole

(2) Alveolar duct & atria
(3) Alveolar sac and alveoli
(4) All of above

67) The partial pressure of oxygen at atmospheric air at sea level is :

(1) 760 mmHg

(2) 592 mmHg
(3) 159 mmHg
(4) 104 mmHg

68) Consider the statements given below and select the correct option w.r.t. humans.
Statement I: External nostrils lead to nasal chamber, which opens into the pharynx.
Statement Il: Entire pharynx is the common passage for both food and air.

(1) Statement l is correct, statement Il is incorrect

(2) Statement l is incorrect, statement Il is correct
(3) Both statements | and Il are correct
(4) Both statements | and Il are incorrect

69) 300 million alveoli (approximately) are present in both Lungs whose inner surface area is
approximately.

(1) 50 – 70 mt2
(2) 70 – 100 mt2
(3) 80 – 110 mt2
(4) 100 – 120 mt2

70) The quantity 1200 ml in the respiratory volumes of a normal human adult refers to

(1) Maximum air that can be breathed in and breathed out

(2) Residual volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Total lung capacity

71) Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli from blood capillaries includes-

(1) Alveolar epithelium

(2) Basement membrane
(3) Endothelium of blood capillaries
(4) All of above

72) Observe the figure given below

 Under which condition the oxygen dissociation curve will shift to
the left side?

(1) High pH and high pO2

(2) High temperature
(3) High H+
(4) High pCO2

73) Statement-I : Haldane effect is potentially opposite to that of Bohr effect.

Statement-II : Haldane effect refers to left shift whereas Bohr effect refers to right shift.

(1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement are correct
(3) Both statement are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect II is correct

74) The respiratory centre in the brain is stimulated by :-

(1) CO2 concentration in venous blood

(2) O2 concentration in artery blood
(3) CO2 concentration in artery blood
(4) O2 concentration in venous blood

75) The formation of Bicarbonate ion is processed in RBC but transported in plasma, why it is not
formed completely in plasma ?

(1) In plasma carbonic anhydrase is not available in such extent.

(2) In RBC Hb help in its formation
(3) In plasma carbonic anhydrase is absent
(4) 2 & 3 both

76) Which of the following statement is/are true ?

(1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is 20–25 times higher than that of O2

(2) The solubility of CO2 is 20–25 times higher than that of O2
(3) The diffusion capacity of O2 is 20–25 times higher than that of CO2
(4) More than one statements are correct

77) Choose the correct statement regarding the partial pressures of respiratory gases :-

(1) pCO2 is more than that of O2 in atmosphere

(2) pCO2 in oxygenated blood is equal to partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood
(3) Solubility of CO2 is 20-25 time lesser than O2
(4) pCO2 in tissues is equal to O2 partial pressure in oxygenated blood

78) A person having 10 gm Haemoglobin per 100 ml of blood. In such person how much O2 present
in 500 ml of oxygenated blood ?

(1) 100 ml
(2) 50.25 ml
(3) 67 ml
(4) 16.75 ml

79) Vital capacity in human the amount of air _____:-

(1) That can be filled in lungs by normal inspiration

(2) That can be breath in after forceful expiration
(3) That remains in lungs after normal expiration
(4) That can be breathout after forceful expiration

80) Pulmonary surfactant is :-

(1) Amino acid

(2) Steroid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Glycolipid

81) Neural signal from this center can reduce the duration of inspiration, this is :

(1) Respiratory rhythm center present in medulla

(2) Respiratory rhythm center present in pons
(3) Pneumotaxic center present in medulla
(4) Pneumotaxic center present in pons

82) Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume?

(A) Tidal volume
(B) Inspiratory capacity
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume
(D) Vital capacity

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) A < C < B < D
(3) A < D < C < B
(4) A < D < B < C

83) Which one of the following is not correct statement for respiration in humans ?

(1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
(2) About 93% of oxygen is carried by haemoglobin
(3) Cigarette smoking may be lead to emphysema
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can decrease the duration of
(4)
inspiration

84) Which of the following pairs is CORRECT?

(1) Scorpion - Tracheal System

(2) King Crab - Book Gills
(3) Earthworm - Gills
(4) Prawn - Book Lungs

85) A person holds their breath. The urge to breathe again is primarily triggered by

(1) Falling O₂ concentration in the blood.

(2) Rising CO₂ concentration (and consequently H⁺ ions) in the blood.
(3) Falling CO₂ concentration in the blood.
(4) Conscious decision of the brain.

86) Which of the following muscles are correctly paired with their role in normal, quiet inspiration?

(1) Diaphragm and Internal Intercostal Muscles - Contract

(2) Diaphragm and External Intercostal Muscles - Contract
(3) Abdominal Muscles and Internal Intercostal Muscles - Contract
(4) Diaphragm and Abdominal Muscles - Relax

87) What is the correct sequence of air passage in humans during inhalation?

(1) Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Alveoli

(2) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Alveoli
(3) Nasal Chamber → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Bronchioles
(4) External Nares → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveoli

88) A child is running a marathon. Mention the volume of air inspired forcefully during running –

(1) Residual volume

(2) Functional residual volume
(3) Inspiratory Reserve volume
(4) Tidal volume
89) Receptors in aortic arch and carotid artery can recognize the changes in the concentration of-

(1) O2 and CO2

+
(2) CO2 and H
(3) Only OH-
(4) H+ and OH-

90) Whether a child died after birth or died before birth can be confirmed by measuring:

(1) Residual volume

(2) Weight of child
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Dead space volume
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

MLT-1

2)

Strain

3)

Work

4)

[M°LT°]

5)

Distance

6)

7)

14%

8)

7%

9)
(3.45 ± 0.3) ms-1

10)
0
M L1T–1, L1, T1

11)
0 0
M L T0

12)

Time

13) Here, dv/dt is rate of change of velocity, v is velocity and t is time.

So, dimension of A = dimension of {dv/dt}/dimension of the
=[LT–2]/[T] = [LT–3]
dimension of A = [LT–3]
Dimension of B = dimension of
{dv/dt}/dimension of
=[LT–2]/[LT–1] = [T–1]
∴ dimension of B = [T–1]

14) y = a sin (At - Bx + C)

Angle has no dimensions. so,
0 0 0
Dimensions of At = [M L T ]
⇒ A = [T–1]
0 0 0
Dimensions of Bx = [M L T ]
⇒ B = [L–1]
0 0 0
Dimensions of C = [M L T ]

15) F = A cosBX + C sinDt

the argument, θ of cos or sin should be
dimensionless
therefore,
dimension of Bx = [MLT]
[B] [L'] = [MLT]
0
[B] = [ML T]
Similarly [D] [T'] = [MLT]
0
[D] = [MLT

dimension of DB =
= [L1T–1]
16) 1 unit length = 2m

1 unit velocity = 2m/s =

1 unit force = 2N =
Clearly velocity is doubling due to doubling of length
Force is also doubling due to doubling of length
So, no change is there in unit of mass or time

Momentum = Mv =
Momentum will also double due to double of length unit

Energy = KMv2 =
Unit of energy will become 4 times.

17) The correct option is 2 length, time and velocity

A fundamental quantity should be such that it does not depend on other fundamental
quantities. Speed is defined as the ratio of distance to time. Hence, length, time and velocity
cannot be listed under fundamental quantities in any system of units.

19) Question Explanation : In this question, it is asking about the correct option for the
given statements.

Concept : This question is based on dimensional analysis.

Solution : Statement (1) is true because a unitless quantity must be dimensionless.

Statement (2) is false because the physical relations involving exponential, logarithm,
trigonometric ratio, etc., cannot be derived using dimensional analysis.
because they do not have dimensions. (Limitations of dimensional analysis)

Final Answer : Option (2)

20) Since, , hence relative error in KE is given by

= 3% + 2 × 5%
= 13%
Thus, both Assertion and Reason are correct

21) Theory

22)
Question Explanation : We need to round off the number 3.835 to 3 significant figures.

Concept : This question is based on significant figures and round off.

Solution :

When the digit to be dropped (the rounding digit) is exactly 5, and the digit before it (the third
SF in this case) is odd, that preceding odd digit is increased by one (rounded up).

The third SF is 3 (which is odd).

Since the digit after it is 5, the '3' is rounded up to 4.

Rounding 3.835 to 3 significant figures gives 3.84.

Final answer : Option (4)

23) We know that, joule is the unit of energy and the dimension formula of energy is [ML2T–2].
a b c
Comparing with [M L T ], we get a = 1, b = 2, c = – 2

As,

24) P – Q is invalid. As P & Q same different dimensions.

25) 3.8 × 10–6 + 4.2 × 10–5

4.58 × 10–5
Thus, the addition of the given numbers is 4.6 × 10–5

26) Statement given in option (c) is correct but rest are incorrect and these can be corrected
as
Error in a measurement is equal to the difference of true value and measured value of the
quantity.
Systematic errors occur only in one direction, either positive or negative.
In constant errors, errors affect each observation by the same amount.

27) Optical instrument learnt count is in the order of 10–7 M

28)
29) ⇒ T2 = 4π2 ℓ/g = g =

Here % error in ℓ=

and % error in T =
∴ % error in g = % error in ℓ + 2(% error in T)
= 0.1 + 2 × 0.05 = 0.2 %

30) The given expression is P = EL2m–5G–2

Dimensions of energy E = [ML2T–2]
Angular momentum, L = [ML2T–1]
Mass, m = [M]
Gravitational constant,
G = [M–1 L3 T–2]
Substituting dimensions of each term in the given expression,
P = [ML2T–2] × [ML2T–1]2 × [M]–5 × [M–1L3T–2
= [M1 + 2 - 5 + 2 L2 + 4 – 6 T – 2 – 2 + 4 ]
0 0 0
= [M L T ]
Therefore, P is a dimensionless quantity.

32) \(\eqalign{ & \left( {p + \frac{a}{{{V^2}}}} \right).\left( {V - b} \right) = cons\tan t \cr &
p = \frac{F}{A} = \frac{{dyne}}{{c{m^2}}} \cr}\)

Unit of p = unit of

⇒ Unit of a = unit of

=
=

33) Heat is form of energy. Energy is defined as capacity to do work.

34) M–1L2T1

35)

6.3200 J
 36)

2 × 108 erg

37)

Percentage error is unit less

38)

You cannot add or subtract different physical quantities. In options (3) , (P-Q) in numerator is
meaningless as P and Q are different physical quantities.

39) Question Explanation : The velocity of a body moving in a viscous medium is given by

, where t is time and A, B are constants. Find the dimensions of A.

Concept : This question is based on dimensional analysis of exponential equations.

Formula : Exponential term argument must be dimensionless

Solution :
Velocity v has dimensions [v] = [L T–1]

From

⇒ [B] = [T1]

is dimensionless

0 0
[A] = [VB] = [LT–1] [T] = [L] = [M L1T ]

Final answer : Option (1)

40)

Question Explanation : Determine the correct result of dividing the number 96.54 by 2.40
while adhering to the rules of significant figures.

Concept: Significant figure

Solution:
When dividing 96.54 by 2.40, the final result should have same significant figures as that of least

significant figures of the given number &, i.e, 3 in 2.40. Hence,

After rounding off to 3 significant figures will give 40.2 as final answer.

Final Answer: option (4)

41) (given)
By substituting the dimension of each quantity and comparing the powers in both sides we get

42)

Explain Question : To cheak statements based on significant figure.

Concept : This question is based on significant figure.

Solution :

Since zeros placed to the left of the number are never significant, but zeros placed to right of the
number are significant.

Final Answer : option (3)

43)

2.31 mm

2 –3
44) x = ab c
⇒ % Δx = %Δa + 2% Δb + 3% Δc
=1+2×3+3×2
= 13 %

45) Average and relative errors are 0.01 percentage error is 0.01 × 100 = 1%
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

CHEMISTRY

46) C6H12O6 and CH3COOH(C2H4O2) both have same empirical formula CH2O.

47) Question Explanation:

The question asks to convert length from millimeter into meter.

Concept:
Unit Conversion.
 Solution:
∵1 milli = 10–3
∵1 milli meter = 10–3 meter
10–2 mm = 10–2 × 10–3 m
10–2 mm = 10–5 m

Final Answer: Option (2)

48) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

20.8 + 9.8 = x + 7.3
23.3 = x

49) Question Explanation :

We are asked the atomicity of SO2.

Concept : Atomicity

Solution :

A. Atomicity = number of atoms present in one molecule.

B. In SO2: 1 atom of sulfur + 2 atoms of oxygen = 3 atoms.

Final Answer : Option (4)

50)

2 mole CHI3 ≡ 1 mole C2H2

0.01 mole CHI3 forms × 0.01 mole C2H2

= 0.005 mole
V = 0.005 × 22.4
= 112 × 10–3 L

51)
NO2

52)

Question Explanation : We are asked to identify which among the given species is a
compound.

Concept : Elements vs Compounds

Solution :
 A. (C): Element (not a compound).

B. (CO2): Compound (carbon + oxygen).

C. (HCl): Compound (hydrogen + chlorine).

D. So both (2) and (3) are compounds.

Final Answer : Option (4)

53) Explanation: To determine Empirical formula at glucose is similar to

Concept: Empirical formula is simplest ratio of elements
C6H12O6 ⇒ Empirical formula ⇒ C1H2O1
its similar to acetic acid
(CH3COOH) [C2H4O2]
Empirical formula ⇒ [CH2O]
Final answer: Option 3

54) ind the empirical formula from 5 g sulfur and 5 g oxygen.

Concept :
Empirical formula = simplest whole-number mole ratio of elements.

Solution :
Moles S = 5/32 = 0.15625
Moles O = 5/16 = 0.3125
Divide by smaller: S : O = 1 : 2 → SO2

Final Answer :
Option (2)

55)

Explain Question:
We are asked to identify which chemical equation violates the law of conservation of mass.

Concept:
Law of conservation of mass. Total number of atoms of each element must be equal on both
sides of the equation.

Solution:
• Option 1: 4H + O2 → 2H2O
Reactants: 4 H, 2 O
o

Products: 4 H, 2 O → balanced
o

• Option 2: H2 + O → 2H2O
Reactants:2 H, 1 O
o

Products: 4 H,2 O → not balanced

o
• Option 3: 2H + O2 → 2H2O
Reactants: 2 H, 2 O
o

Products: 4 H, 2 O → not balanced

o

Final answer: Option (4)

56) Explain Question:

We are asked which law is supported by the fact that CO2 always contains 27.27% C and
72.73% O by mass, irrespective of source.

Concept:
If a compound always has the same percentage composition of elements, it follows the Law of
Constant Composition (Definite Proportions).

Solution:
• Law of constant composition: Supported, since CO2 always has fixed ratio of C and O.
• Law of conservation of mass: Deals with total mass before and after reaction, not
composition.
• Law of constant volume: Related to gaseous reactions, not applicable here.
• Law of multiple proportions: Applies when two elements form more than one compound (e.g.,
CO and CO2), not this case.

Final Answer: Option (1)

57) C6H12O6 = fructose

empirical formula = CH2O

58)

Explain the Question : Identify which law is proved by different oxygen proportions in
various nitrogen oxides.
Concept : This question is based on different simple ratios of same elements → law of multiple
proportion.
Solution : Nitrogen forms several oxides : NO, NO2, N2O etc.
For fixed mass of nitrogen, oxygen combines in simple whole-number ratios.
This is Dalton's law multiple proportion.
Final answer : 2

59)

Explain the Question : Find empirical formula of sulphur oxide containing 50% sulphur by
mass from given options.
Concept : This question is based on empirical formula determined from % composition and
atomic weights ratio.
Solution :
S O
1:2
SO2
Final answer : 2

60)

Refer Allen module

61) NCERT Pg. # 23, Q. 1.13

62) Law of conservation of mass does not holds good for nuclear reactions as some amount of
mass is converted into energy in nuclear reaction.

63)

A = 50%

B = 50%
Empirical formula = A2B

64) SnCl2, SnCl4

65)

C + O2 → CO C + O2 → CO2
Given mass ratio = 12 : 16 Given mass ratio = 12 : 32
Ratio of 'C' atom is same but ratio of 'O' atom is 1 : 2
Law of multiple proportions.

66) =
Hence, law of conservation of mass is verfied.

67)

⇒
°C = = 93.3 °C

68) C-12

69)

Explain Question : We need to find the definition term which is used when we count how
many atoms are present in a molecule.

Concept : This question is based on Atomicity.

Solution : Atomicity :- Total Number of atoms present in a molecule.

Example :- Atomicity of H2O = 3

Final Answer : option (1)

70) (n factor)
Therefore molecular formula

71) Conceptual

72) Same emperical formula

73) Conceptual.

74) Marble is compound. (CaCO3)

75) (module - Page No:27, Ques. No. 9)

Law of conservation of mass.

76)

Refer Allen module

77)

Explain the Question : Find the empirical formula of oxide of metal (M) with 70% (M) by
mass.
 Concept : This question is based on empirical formula from percent composition.
Solution : Percentage of metal M = 70.00 and that of oxygen = 30.00
Hence, empirical formula = M2O3

Atomic Least Whole

Element %
ratio ratio number ratio

Metal 70.00 2

Oxygen 30.00 3

Final answer : (2)

78) Explanation find molecular formula

given data C = 80% H=100-80=20%
Concept
nc nH

1:3 → E.F.
2:6 (X2) → M.F.
Final Answer C2H6
Correct option (3)

79) Question Explanation:

Question asks conversion of volume from Cubic decimeter to milliliter.

Concept:
Unit Conversion of Volume.

Solution:
∵ 1 dm3 = 1L
∵ 1 dm3 = 1000 mL (∵ 1L = 1000 mL)

Final Answer: Option (1)

80)

Question Explanation : The question asks to convert energy from joules into ergs using the
standard unit conversion.

Concept : This question is based on Interconversion of energy unit.

Solution :
∵ 1 J = 107 erg
5 J = 5 × 107 erg

Final Answer: option (3)

81)

Question Explanation : The question asks which chemical law is indicated mass ratio of H
and O in water from any source.

Concept : Law of definite proportions.

Solution :
Water from any source always contains hydrogen and oxygen in a fixed mass ratio of 1 : 8.
This demonstrates the law of definite proportions, which states that a compound has constant
composition.

Final Answer: option (2)

82)

Correct Answer: An element

83)

E. f. provides simplest ratio of atoms

Gives Cr = 4.8 × 1010 , 0 = 9.6 ×1010
Simplest ratio 1 : 2
Empirical formula = CrO2

84)

Explain Question : We need to find Atomicity of Na2SO4 molecule.

Concept : This question is based on Atomicity :- Total Number of atoms present in a molecule.

Solution : Atomicity of Na2SO4 = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7

Final Answer : option (3)

85)

Question Explanation : We have to convert a given pressure in mm of Hg into atmospheric

pressure unit.

Concept : This question is based on Pressure unit conversion.

Solution :
∵ 760 mm Hg = 1 atm
1 mm Hg = atm

3800 mm Hg = × 3800 = 5 atm.

3800 mm Hg = 5 atm.

Final Answer: option (2)

86)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : No. of Protons = 71 = No. of Electrons
No. of Neutrons = Mass No. − No. of Protons
= 175 − 71 = 104
Final Answer : (4)

87) Explain the Question : We need to identify who proposed the law of multiple proportions.
Concept: This question is based on law of multiple proportions → When two elements form
more than one compound, the masses of one element combining with a fixed mass of the other
are in simple whole number ratios.
Solution :
Lavoisier → proposed law of conservation of mass.
Proust → proposed law of definite proportions.
Gay-Lussac → proposed law of gaseous volumes.
John Dalton (1803) → proposed law of multiple proportions as part of his atomic theory.
So, the correct scientist is Dalton.
Final answer : (2)

88)

Explain Question : We need to find correct pair of compounds illustrates law of multiple
proportion.

Concept : This question is based on Law of Multiple proportion.

Solution :
H2O and N2O ⇒ Different elements (not same pair of elements)
Na2O and MgO ⇒ Different elements involved (Na & Mg)
CO2 and MgO ⇒ Different elements (C & Mg)
D2O and D2O2 ⇒ Same elements (D and O), forming water and Hydrogen peroxide (different
ratios of O with fixed D.)
D2O and D2O2 ⇒ illustrates law of multiple proportion.
Final Answer : option (4)

89)

(1) 1 L = 1000 mL = 1000 cm3

=1000 × (10–2 m)3 = 103 × 10–6 m3
 1 L = 10–3 m3
or 1m3 = 1000 L
(2) 1 m = 100 cm
(3) 1 cal = 4.2 J
(4) 2 m = 20 dm

90)
Empirical formula
Empirical formula weight = 46

Molecular formula

BIOLOGY

91)

Species

92)

Class

93)

Mango – Belongs to the family Sapindales

94)

Family

95)

Both (1) and (2)

96)

Binomial
97)

Convolvulaceae

98)

Catalogue and herbarium

99)

Felis domesticus

100)

Trace the evolution of living organisms

101)

Solanaceae

102)

Kingdom → Division → Order → Genera

103)

If assertion is true but reason is false.

104)

The diverse kind of organisms and their evolutionary relationship.

105)

Class is a sub category which includes related order

106)

Phylogenetic system

107)

(ii) and (iii)

 108)

Floral character of new species

109)

5, 5, 9 respectively

110)

it is an aggregate of closely related family

111)

Ncert page 7 and 8.

112)

Ncert page 4.

113)

a. Class b. Kingdom c. Class d. Division e. Order

114)

Statement 2 correct and statement 1 incorrect

115)

(C) Five Two Two

116)

Species

117)

Three

118)

W = Mangifera indica, X = Poaceae

Y = Poales; Z = Anacardiaceae
119)

In modern taxonomical studies, taxonomists use external and internal structure, along with the
structure of cell, developmental processes and ecological information of organisms. The
correct answer is - (4)

120)

Question Explanation: Understanding the main purpose of taxonomy.

Concept: Practical Application of Taxonomy

Solution: The practical significance of taxonomy is the identification of unknown

organisms. Taxonomy provides a structured system for naming, describing, and classifying all
living things. Without this system, it would be impossible for scientists to accurately identify
and communicate about the vast diversity of organisms on Earth. All other options, such as the
general study of living things or grouping organisms, are a part of or a result of this primary
function.

Final Answer: Identification of unknown organisms

121)

Taxonomic hierarchy

122)

All of these

123)

124)

Ernst Mayr

125)

A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities.

126)
Wheat – Triticum indica

127)

Generic name and author's name

128)

Taxon

129)

Explain Question: The question is asking: On what basis two different plant families
(Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae) are grouped into the same order (Polymoniales).

Concept: Order

Solution:

Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are placed under the same order Polymoniales because they
share similar floral (reproductive) characters, which are the most reliable features for higher-
level plant classification.

Final answer: Option 3

130)

Number of similar characters increases

131)

17 lakhs

132) NCERT Page No. 7

133)

Question explanation: Assertion and reason type question asking about diversity in living
world.

Concept: diversity in the living world

Solution:
Assertion (A):
Taxonomy involves the processes of characterisation, identification, classification, and
nomenclature.
True — These are indeed the four key components or steps in taxonomy.
Reason (R):
These processes are based on the external and internal structures, cell structure, development
processes, and ecological information of organisms.
True — This statement correctly describes what taxonomic studies are based on (the data
used), not necessarily what taxonomy itself involves.
While both are true, R does not explain A directly it gives supporting information, not the
reason why taxonomy involves those processes.

Final answer: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

134)

Explain the Question : The question asks about character which truly defines a species but
is not practically used in routine taxonomy.
Concept: This question is based on concept of species.
Solution : Among the options, interbreeding defines species but is not used directly in
taxonomy.
Final answer: (4)

135)

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

136) Both (1) & (2)

137) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of CO2.

138) Alveolar walls are found damaged.

139) It increases

140) PL < PA

141) 5800 ml

142) A, B, C

143) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

 144) Indirectly

145) Carbonic anhydrase

146) 5th thoracic vertebrae

147) Relaxation of diaphragm & external inter costal muscles.

148) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 276; para-7

149)

Prevent alveoli from collapsing by secreting lecithin

150) NCERT Pg. # 275,17.4.2

151) Fig.17.5 Page 274, XI NCERT

152)

Question explanation: Identify what happens if the thoracic wall of the lungs is punctured.
Concept: Breathing mechanism
Solution: The correct answer is option 2 –

A. Puncturing the thoracic wall allows air to enter the pleural cavity, destroying the negative
pressure needed to keep the lungs inflated, causing the lungs to collapse (pneumothorax),
which can be fatal.

Final answer: Option 2

153)

C-shape hyaline rings; Lecithin

154) [NCERT Pg. 268)

155) [NCERT Pg. 274]

156)

All of above
157) The partial pressure of oxygen at atmospheric air = 159 mmHg

158) Hint: Conducting part of respiratory system

Solution: A pair of external nostrils lead to nasal chamber through the nasal passage. The
nasal chamber opens into pharynx, a portion of which is the common passage for food and air.

159) Correct answer is B

160)

Residual volume

161) NCERT (XI) Pg # 273

162)

High pH and high pO2

163)

Both Statement are correct

164)

CO2 concentration in artery blood

165)

A. Question: Why is bicarbonate ion formation primarily processed in RBCs but transported in
plasma, and why isn't it formed completely in plasma?
B. Given Data: The question focuses on the location of bicarbonate formation and the role of
RBCs.
C. Concept: This question tests understanding of the mechanisms of carbon dioxide transport
in the blood.
D. Explanation:

1. In plasma, carbonic anhydrase is not available to such an extent: This is the most
accurate answer. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which catalyzes the reaction of CO2 and
water to form bicarbonate and H+ ions, is present in very high concentrations in red blood
cells (RBCs). While carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma, it is in significantly lower
concentrations. This limited availability in plasma makes the reaction much slower and less
efficient compared to what occurs in RBCs.
2. In RBC, Hb helps in its formation: While hemoglobin doesn't directly catalyze the
bicarbonate formation, it does play a crucial role. Hemoglobin binds to the hydrogen ions (H+)
that are produced during the bicarbonate formation. This buffering action by hemoglobin helps
to drive the reaction forward by preventing the buildup of H+ ions, which would otherwise shift
the equilibrium of the reaction back towards CO2 and water.
3. In plasma, carbonic anhydrase is absent: This statement is incorrect. Carbonic
anhydrase is present in plasma, but in much smaller amounts than in RBCs. It is not
completely absent.
4. 2 & 3 both: Since statement 3 is incorrect, this option is also incorrect.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: In plasma, carbonic anhydrase is not available to
such an extent.

166)

More than one statements are correct

167) NCERT XI Pg. # 272-273

168) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 258

169) NCERT (XI) Pg # 272

170)

Phospholipid

171)

[Link]: Neural signal from which center can reduce the duration of inspiration?

B. Given Data: The question asks about the neural center that controls the duration of
inspiration.

C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the respiratory control centers in the brainstem,
specifically their roles in regulating breathing.

D. Explanation:

A. Respiratory rhythm center present in medulla: The medulla oblongata contains the
primary respiratory rhythm center, which generates the basic rhythm of breathing.
However, it's the pons that influences the rate and depth of breathing, and specifically
controls the duration of inspiration.

B. Respiratory rhythm center present in pons: While the pons does contain respiratory
centers, the specific center that controls the duration of inspiration is the pneumotaxic
center.

C. Pneumotaxic center present in medulla: The pneumotaxic center is not located in

the medulla.
 D. Pneumotaxic center present in pons: The pneumotaxic center, located in the pons,
controls the rate and depth of breathing. Its primary function related to inspiration is to
limit the duration of inspiration. It sends signals to the inspiratory center in the medulla
to switch off the inspiratory muscles, thus shortening the inspiratory phase. A stronger
signal from the pneumotaxic center will result in a shorter inspiration.

E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 4: Pneumotaxic center present in pons.

172)

A<C<B<D

173) About 70% of oxygen is carried by haemoglobin

174) Solution: King Crab - Book Gills. Scorpions have book lungs, earthworms use their
cuticle, and prawns have gills.
Final Answer : (2)

175) Solution: Rising CO₂ concentration (and consequently H⁺ ions) in the blood. The
chemosensitive area in the medulla is highly sensitive to CO₂/H⁺ ions, which is the primary
stimulus for breathing.
Final Answer : (2)

176) Solution: Diaphragm and External Intercostal Muscles - Contract. These are the primary
muscles of quiet inspiration.
Final Answer : (2)

177) Solution: Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Alveoli. This is the
correct anatomical pathway.
Final Answer : (2)

178) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : During a marathon, a child breathes deeply, inspiring more air forcefully than
normal. This extra volume of air inhaled beyond the normal inspiration is called Inspiratory
Reserve Volume (IRV).
Final Answer : (3)

179) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Chemoreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid artery detect changes in CO2 and
H+ ion concentration in blood. O2 is less significant in triggering response.
Final Answer : (2)

180)
NCERT Page no.272