CDMP Exam

Big Data and Data Science (2)

1- Data for big data ingestion can also be called the data lake. This needs to be carefully managed or the
data lake will become?
A An organizational statistic
B A biased report
C A level of data not usable by data scientists
D A data model
E A data swamp.
The Correct E
2- Which of the following uses for a Data Mining tool is not optimal?
A Analyze supermarket scanner data to determine when people are most likely to shop and
buy certain products
B Fraud Detection
C Identification of data quality issues with your SAP Financial system
D Predictive Analysis
E Customer Segmentation and Scoring.
The Correct C
3- You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an exploratory fashion when you
do not necessarily have a specific question to ask. What kind of data tool would you use to identify patterns
of data using various algorithms?
A ETL Jobs
B Data Quality Profiler
C Meta-Data Data Lineage View
D Data Mining
E Data Visualization Application.
The Correct D

4- Big data is often defined by three characteristics. They are:

A Volume, Variety, and Velocity
B Complexity, Compliance and Completeness
C Size, Speed, and Sensitivity
D Direction, Depth and Details
E Expansive, Engaged and Enormous.
The Correct A
5- Big data management requires
A less discipline than relational data management
B more discipline than relational data management
C no discipline at all
D a certification in data science
E big ideas with big budgets.
The Correct B
6- A 'Data Lake' is an environment where a vast amount of data can be
A updated, obfuscated, nullified and cleansed
B digested, processed, deleted and visualized
C ingested, screened, obfuscated and purged
D purged, sorted, split and scanned
E ingested, shared, assessed and analyzed.
The Correct E
7- What does data mining determine?
A The process of collecting data elements to help organizations formally manage and gain
better control over data assets
B The process of finding correlated features in a dataset
C The process of manipulating data using a computer
D The process of describing the results of various operations in a data warehouse
E The process of finding anomalies, patterns, and correlations within large datasets to
predict outcomes
The Correct E
8- A sandbox is a type of database environment used for
A User Acceptance Testing
B Low-budget projects
C Production backups
D Remote users
E Proofs of concept and to test hypotheses
The Correct E
9- Sentiment analysis of call center voice files is performed by text analysis and stored in a relational
database. Which of the following is true?
A The voice files are structured data and the sentiment analysis is unstructured data
B They are both unstructured data
C The voice files are unstructured data and the sentiment analysis is structured data
D They are both structured data
E Structured and unstructured data are the same things
The Correct C
Data Architecture (6)
1- In the common enterprise architecture model coded BIAT, the 'I' stands for?
A Information
B Integration
C Interoperability
D Instance
E Identification.
The Correct A
2- Data flows can be represented by
A Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and business
processes
B Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and business
processes
C Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and data
consumers
D Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data facts and data
dimensions
E Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and data
quality.
The Correct A
3- An enterprise data model would be composed of
A Conceptual models, logical models, and physical models
B Conceptual models, subject area models, and logical models
C Logical models, physical models, and infrastructure models
D Conceptual models, star schema models, and interface models
E Enterprise models, data models, and compositional models.
The Correct B
4- An organization's data model contains information (metadata) about which of the following?
A Information an organization is interested in
B All information available both inside and outside the organization
C Information about physical attributes
D Only the information needed for Data Governance
E Surrogate keys.
The Correct A
5- The key architecture domains include
A Zachman, TOGAF, COBIT, and Health architectures
B business, strategy, application, and technology architectures
C business, data, infrastructure, and technology architectures
D business, data, application, and technology architectures
E process, database, software, and technology architectures.
The Correct D
6- The implementation of data architecture exposes the transformation of data as it moves across the
landscape. A common name for this concept is:
A data discovery
B data interfacing
C extract, transformation and load
D data modeling
E data lineage
The Correct E
7- A data architect is best deployed
A during the early stages of a project to define and shape a strategic solution
B after the project completes to identify weaknesses and lessons learned
C by project managers to sign off all data deliverables
D to manage the delivery of all the data aspects of a program
E to build the database solution.
The Correct A
8- The goal of Data Architecture is to be?
A A bridge between technology strategy and database design
B A bridge between business analysis and data modeling
C A bridge between business execution and technology strategy
D A bridge between business strategy and technology execution
E A bridge too far.
The Correct D
9- A Data Architecture team is best described as?
A A well-managed project of architectural development
B A group of strong database administrators
C An operational data provisioning group
D The authors of reference data
E A strategic planning and compliance team
The Correct E
10- The necessity of representing organizational data at different levels of abstraction is?
A Because most organizations have more data than individual people can comprehend,
understand, and make decisions about
B Because most organizations need to accommodate the different points of view of
information Architecture and Data Architecture
C Because most architectures want to deploy a complete suite of drawings for project
deliverables
D Because most database administrators need specifications to build databases with
appropriate response times
E Because most Chied Data Officers don't have the technical background to be held
accountable for complex data diagrams.
The Correct A
11- A CRUD matrix helps organizations map responsibilities for data changes in the business process work
flow. CRUD stands for
A Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate
B Create, Review, Use, Destroy
C Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy
D Create, Read, Update, Delete
E Create, React, Utilize, Delegate.
The Correct D
12- The repeated implementation of different CRM Technologies with different data structures is mostly a
failure of
A Data Warehousing
B Data Architecture
C Data Security
D data modeling
E Data Quality
The Correct B
13- What is the purpose of the Conceptual Data Model?
A To provide an outlook of the organization by documenting how different business entities
relate to one another
B To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how different
business entities relate to one another
C To provide an experimental perspective of the organization by documenting how different
business entities relate to each other
D To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them
E Documents how data are to be stored and accessed on storage media of computer
hardware
The Correct B
14- Data architects create metadata artifacts that constitute valuable _____.
A Database that contain metadata
B Business requirements
C Opportunities for new marketing offerings
D Support for user interfaces
E Support for entire organization or enterprise
The Correct E
15- Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture influences the scope
boundaries of projects?
A performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organizational strategy
B providing enterprise data requirement for projects
C ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented
D ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place
E enforcing data architecture standards
The Correct C
16- Since data technology is rapidly becoming more diverse, one should consider which of the following
when acquiring a new type of technology
A The problem for which technology means to solve and the solution stack for which you
have already installed
B The current data retention policy
C The performance levels of the currently installed data technology
D The number of users that are connected to the current solution
E The number of servers that are currently in use
The Correct A
17- Enterprise Data architecture defines standard terms for things that are necessary to run the
organization, these things are called
A Artefacts
B Entities
C Taxonomies
D Metadata
E Relationships
The Correct B
18- Data Architecture compliance rate measures
A How fast the database can retrieve data
B How closely projects comply with an established Data Architecture
C How complete an attribute list is in an entity
D How closely projects are meeting their timelines
E How closely projects comply with the development lifecycle
The Correct B
19- The ability of an organization to respond to changes in product configuration is easier due to
generalization in the ____?
A Data Architecture
B Business Architecture
C Data Warehousing
D Data Quality
E Technical Architecture
The Correct A

Data Governance (11)

1- According to the DMBoK2, which items are not a consideration in a data valuation?
A has the same stages as the Systems Delivery Lifecycle
B Impact to the organization if data were missing
C Benefits of higher quality data
D What the data could be sold for
E How much we can be ransomed for by a malware attack.
The Correct E
2- According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC) is the highest-authority
organization for Data Governance in an organization. Who should typically chair this Council?
A The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
B Chief Data Steward (Business)/Chief Data Officer
C The chair should rotate across Data Owners
D The Chief Data Architect
E Any executive/c-level participant in the DGC.
The Correct B
3- What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
A A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their
organization's data assets
B Analyzing Data Quality
C The manager responsible for writing policies and standards that define the Data
Management program for an organization
D Identifying data problems and issues
E The data analyst who is the subject matter expert (SME) on a set of reference data.
The Correct A

4- Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?

A DG is a continuous process of data improvement
B IT is a key stakeholder in DG
C A DG initiative should always be led by the IT Department
D There are different organization models for DG
E DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets.
The Correct C
5- Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on the value of Data Governance
in the organization?
A Central Communications and Corporate Awareness
B Data stewards
C The Chief Executive Officer
D Senior Management Executive Forum
E Everyone in the Data Management community.
The Correct E
6- Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of ways. Which of the
following approaches is NOT a recognized way of doing this?
A Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive
stakeholders
B Maintaining an intranet website
C Publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
D Promoting participation in a DM forum or community
E Creating a series of "elevator pitches" for the appropriate audience.
The Correct A

7- When considering a Data Governance program, communication is a key element. There are many ways
of managing this communication, with one of the most effective being a Data Management intranet. Which
of the following would you typically NOT put onto such an communication vehicle?
A Description of the DG organization, its key members, and contact details
B Executive message regarding significant Data Management issues
C The Data steward team profiles
D Raw data results of an investigation into a possible data privacy breach
E Link to a "raise an issue" log.
The Correct D
8- When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted, Data Governance plays a
key role in the process of identifying the data and information components for compliance. What is the
most important role in any regulatory compliance project?
A Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a standard set
of regulatory compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc)
B Provide access to any possible data set to the compliance team and allow them to mine
the data for non-compliance
C Work in isolation and mine the data and information for compliance and non-compliance
issues
D Create a Data Governance "in-house" project with a team of Data Stewards to create a
standard response
E Take no part in any project at all, declaring it an audit and risk project.
The Correct A
9- The Data Governance Steering Committee is best described as?
A The community of interest focused on specific subject areas or projects
B The local or divisional council working under auspices of the CDO
C The representatives of data use on project steering committees
D A burden to the agile delivery in a modern enterprise
E The primary and highest authority responsible for the oversight and support of Data
Governance activities.
The Correct E
10- Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations, many of which regulate
how data and information are used and managed. Part of the Data Governance function is to:
A Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations
B Monitor and ensure that organizations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
C This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this
D Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the Data Governance Council on
an information-only basis
E This is about data. Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with risk and
audit reporting to Data Governance.
The Correct B
11- What organization structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
A Data Quality Board
B Data Governance Office
C Data Governance Council
D IT Leadership Team
E PMO.
The Correct C
12- Data Governance touch points throughout the project lifecycle are facilitated by this organization?
A The Project Management Office
B The Master Data Office
C The Data Stewards Office
D The Data Governance Office
E The Data Governance Steering Committee.
The Correct D
13- In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance activity Define the Data Governance
Framework is in which Lifecycle stage?
A Specify
B Enable
C Create and acquire
D Plan
E Maintain and use.
The Correct D
14- Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?
A Pre-emptive governance
B Proactive governance
C Reactive governance
D Decentralized governance
E Devolved Governance.
The Correct E
15- Information Governance and Data Governance should be?
A Managed as a single function
B Managed as separate functions
C Managed as integrated functions, with Data Governance reporting to Information
Governance
D Managed as integrated functions, with Information Governance reporting to Data
Governance
E Managed by the Chief Information Office.
The Correct A
16- Which of these does NOT characterize an effective data steward?
A Is a recognized subject matter expert in the data subject area / business domain that he or
she is responsible for
B He / She is an effective communicator
C He / She works collaboratively across the organization with data stakeholders and other
identifying data problems and issues
D He / She works in association with the Data Owner to protect and enhance the data assets
under his or her control
E Is a highly experienced technical expert in a variety of data management disciplines &
tools.
The Correct E
17- What is the definition of a business rule in the context of Data Governance?
A Outlines the steps to take when a business disruption occurs
B Clarifies an organization's objectives
C Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done in the organization
D Contains an organization's contingency plans
E Clarifies an organization's goal
The Correct C
18- Which framework component of Data Governance includes education, training, and awareness?
A Roles
B Processes
C Communication
D Data
E Tools
The Correct B
19- A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data to be exchanged, is
commonly referred to as a
A Data model
B Data Sharing Agreement
C Interface Contract
D Data Quality Assessment
E Project Charter
The Correct B
20- What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data assets?
A Data Architect
B Data Modeler
C Data Steward
D Chief Information Officer
E Data Scientist
The Correct C
21- A ______ is used for detailing collaboration principles, escalation, and dispute resolution process
between Master Data Management and its data suppliers
A Warranty
B Business requirements document
C Operational level agreement
D Metadata catalog
E Operations run book
The Correct C
22- What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?
A DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions
B Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler
C Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer
D Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer
E Any executive can chair the DGC
The Correct C
23- Who is responsible for communicating and promoting awareness of the value of Data Governance in
the organization?
A Central Communications and Corporate Awareness
B Data stewards
C The Chief Executive Officer
D Senior Management Executive Forum
E Everyone in the Data Management community.
The Correct E
Data Handling Ethics (2)
1- The right to be forgotten is
A A person's right to have all their information erased from an organization
B A person's right to have imperfect memory
C A person's right for all search criteria not to lead to their details
D A person's right to have their information removed from all databases on earth
E A person's right to change their name.
The Correct A
2- Which of the following is not included in the opinion of the European Data Protection Supervisor (EDPS)
on data ethics?
A Right to request removal of personal data
B Accountable controllers who determine personal information processing
C Privacy-conscious engineering and design of data processing products and services
D Future-oriented regulation of data processing and respect for the rights to privacy and to
data protection
E Empowered individuals
The Correct A
Data Integration & Interoperability (6)
1- Preparation and operational activities associated with data interchange include
A Specification for dataset creation
B Design, build, and test of dataset creation
C Specification and design of operational process
D Operation
E All of the above
The Correct E
2- Critical data interchanges are involved in
A RRP submissions to a regulator
B Issue of contracts and ITTs for bidding
C Business specific information published to the organization web pages
D GIS datasets published to support safety checks before operational digging
E All of the above
The Correct E
3- Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides
A Information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems
B An estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data
C Scoping boundaries of the data dictionary
D Effective project scope management
E Insights into the temporal data quality.
The Correct A
4- A data lineage tool enables a user to
A Line up the data to support sophisticated glossary management
B Visualize how the data gets to the data lake
C Track the historical changes to a data value
D Enables rapid development of dashboard reporting
E Track the data from source system to a target database; understanding its
transformations.
The Correct E
5- One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is?
A Completing the Data Architecture on time for the first release
B Maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation
C Having a Data Quality rule applicable to al source systems
D Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements
E Modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model.
The Correct D
6- We need to ensure that all data interchange scenarios are managed securely to ensure we?
A Are using the most up to date technology
B Are monitoring the activities of our employees
C Comply with legal and regulatory or external obligations to publish data
D Have created hash totals on data sets to be exchanged
E Have backed up data regularly
The Correct C
7- In Data Integration, the goal of data discovery is to
A Assign data glossary terms and data formats
B Assign data glossary terms and canonical models
C Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant
D identify key users and perform a high-level assessment of Data Quality
E Identify potential sources and perform a high-level assessment of Data Quality
The Correct E
8- What is the correct definition for change data capture?
A A Data Integration approach that updates the Data Warehouse with big changes from
Operational Systems
B A Data Warehousing approach to transforming Operational Systems into Data Marts
C A Data Quality Initiative that assesses any discrepancies between data stored in a Data
Warehouse and data in Operational Systems
D A Metadata document that describes how data is transformed in the Data Warehouse
E A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes from
Operational Systems
The Correct E
9- What is NOT part of Data Integration and Interoperability?
A Integrating structured and unstructured data
B Data Quality monitoring
C Archiving data
D Data consolidation into hubs or marts
E Enterprise Application Integration
The Correct B
10- What is the advantage of using point-to-point interaction model instead of a hub-and-spoke model?
A Improved data lineage
B The data is automatically sent to the subscribers
C Lower latency
D Management of the number of interfaces is easier
E Significant reduction of the complexity of Data Interoperability
The Correct C
11- The acronym ETL most commonly stands for
A Export Transform Log
B Extract Transform Load
C Extend Trim Load
D Efficient Trace Logging
E Extract Transpose Leverage
The Correct B
12- When Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches, results in a
difference in
A Data Quality
B lethargy
C source of truth
D time stamping
E latency
The Correct E
13- An example of an incoming formatted dataset is
A Content formatted for external send e.g. into excel tables as a formatted file
B Data sent and received within an organization
C Specified data extract sent and received within the organization
D Outgoing content examples could be a report, a document, GIS dataset, drawings, models,
photographs, records, etc
E Received content formatted e.g. into excel tables as a formatted file
The Correct E
14- What kind of interface is in place when systems are tightly coupled?
A A batch interface
B An independent interface
C A synchronous interface
D A legacy interface
E A user interface
The Correct C
15- Which integration approach has a higher latency than event-driven?
A Application interface
B Real-time synchronous across systems
C Webservices
D Streaming access to data
E Batch data integration
The Correct E
16- Data sent and received between people or systems within an organization e.g. a report, a document,
GIS dataset, drawings, models, photographs, or records is an example of
A External incoming data interchange
B External outgoing data interchange
C Regulatory data interchange
D Internal data interchange
E All of the above
The Correct D
17- Implementing a Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA) will often use
A A data lake
B ETL Servers
C An enterprise service bus
D Data Visualization tools
E A Data Modeling tool
The Correct C
18- What is NOT an example of an external outgoing data interchange?
A Outgoing formatted dataset
B Outgoing data extract
C Response to external request
D Purchased prebuilt data
E Outgoing content or document
The Correct D
19- What is one of the benefits of Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)?
A Enables application independence and the ability to replace systems with significant
changes to interfacing systems
B Provides an optimized user experience for the data consumer
C Is the fastest way to develop a new interface
D Provides oversight and control to the integration development lifecycle
E Allows access to the underlying data structures
The Correct A
20- What is the purpose of ISO 8000?
A Enable the exchange of complex information in an application-neutral form
B Create, collect, store, maintain, transfer, process, and present metadata
C Promote timely and cost-effective data integration
D Report on potential data security risk
E Ensure that data can only be used or read using a specific licensed software application
The Correct A
21- The ability of a photo app to share images with various social media applications, is an example of
A Interoperability
B Integration
C Replication
D Metadata
E Rendering
The Correct A
22- What is essential to the successful integration of data?
A Understanding data content and structure
B Understanding the organizations business objectives
C Performing Data Discovery
D Collecting Business rules
E Designing user presentation
The Correct A
23- Mapping requirements and rules for moving data from source to target enables
A Load
B Extract
C Transformation
D Analysis
E Backups
The Correct A
24- Which of the following is a goal of data discovery?
A Understanding the organization's business objectives
B Assessing the quality of data
C Having well-defined interaction between self-contained software modules
D Identifying potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort
E Making data available in the format and timeframe needed by data consumers, both
human and system
The Correct D
25- Three common interaction models for data integration are
A point to point, hub and spoke, publish and subscribe
B Point to point, wheel and spoke, public and share
C point to point, harvest and seed, publish and subscribe
D straight copy, curved copy, rondabout copy
E record and pass, copy and send, read and write
The Correct A
26- Which is the best use case to use point-to-point interfaces?
A To track changes made to a dataset over time
B To create historical snapshots of data
C To lower the complexity of integrating a large number of applications together
D To encourage reuse of integration artifacts
E Integrating two systems with data only needed by those systems
The Correct E

Data Management (2)

1- Data is an organizational asset. What international standard is concerned with asset management?
A ISO 27001
B ISO 8000
C ISO 55000/55001
D ISO 25000
E ANSI 859.
The Correct C
2- According to the DMBOK, which of the following are included as Data Management goals?
A Big Data goals need to change to reflect reality
B Data Quality goals must be aligned with ISO27001
C Data Management goals should be driven by technical capability and available capabilities
D Data Management goals must focus first on legislation
E We should ensure that data can be used effectively to add value to the enterprise.
The Correct E
3- What is NOT a discipline of Data Management according to the DAMA DMBoK?
A Data Quality Management
B Document and Content Management
C Data Virtualization
D Data Security Management
E Data Governance.
The Correct C
4- The DAMA Wheel contains?
A Data Management process
B Knowledge areas
C Data Strategy initiatives
D Maturity model dimensions
E Data Management deliverables.
The Correct B
5- SMART is an acronym for objectives in projects and programs. SMART stands for?
A Specific, Manageable, Agile, Realistic, Topical
B Systems, Management, Architecture, Resources, Technology
C Specific, Measureble, Achievable, Robust, Timely
D Structured, Manageable, Accurate, Robust, Tested
E Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timely.
The Correct E
6- Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Management?
A Capturing, storing, protecting, and ensuring the integrity of data assets
B Ensuring the quality of data and information
C Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
D Understanding the process needs of the enterprise
E Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation, or use of data and information.
The Correct D
7- In the data lifecycle, the DMBoK recommends minimizing ROT data. ROT stands for?
A Data that is not Relational, Operational, Timely
B Data that is Redundant, Obsolete, Trivial
C Data that is not Realistic, Ordered, Timely
D Data is Routine, Obsolete, Tiny
E Data that is not Requested, Orchestrated, Technology supported.
The Correct B
8- Information is:
A Data in context
B A management discipline
C Always stored in a computer systems
D A byproduct of IT systems.
E NA
The Correct A
9- Data differs with regards to other assets because
A It uses automation
B It can be used yet still retain value
C It has value
D It is big
E It is regulated .
The Correct B
10- Which is a valid Environmental component of data management?
A Motivation
B Hardware Management
C Practices & Techniques
D Project Management
E Database Management.
The Correct C
11- Which of these is not a Knowledge Area in DMBoK v2?
A Data Governance
B Master & Reference Data Management
C Data Quality Management
D Data Security Management
E Big Data & Data Science.
The Correct E
12- The Data Management Body of Knowledge is produced by?
A The Data Analysis Association
B The Data Practitioner Association
C The Project Management Institute
D The Data Management Authority
E The Data Management Association.
The Correct E
13- According to the DMBoK, which is not a component of a Data Management strategy?
A Identifying individuals for Data Management roles
B A compelling vision for Data Management
C Descriptions of Data Management roles and organizations, along with a summary of their
responsibilities and decision rights
D A summary business case for Data Management with selected examples
E A draft implementation roadmap with projects and action items.
The Correct A
14- How do Data Management professionals maintain commitment of key stakeholders to the Data
Management initiative?
A Weekly email reports showing metrics on Data Management progress or lack thereof
B Rely on the stakeholder group to be self-sustaining
C It is not necessary, as the stakeholders signed up at the beginning of the program
D Continuous communication, education, and promotion of the importance and value of
data and information assets.
E NA
The Correct D
15- Data standards used by the enterprise must?
A Promote consistent results but periodically be reviewed and updated
B Promote consistent results so they are only written once and never updated
C Be a guideline for the organization but open to the interpretation
D Set by a standards organization and not by the enterprise
E Only be necessary for the Data Governance team.
The Correct A
16- Information needs to be managed because
A It is an asset of the organization
B The volumes are large
C It contains financial facts
D It is stored in Database systems.
E NA
The Correct A
17- The Information Lifecycle
A has the same stages as the Systems Delivery Lifecycle
B Is used primarily for Data archiving
C Is only important in regulated industries
D Exists beyond the Systems Delivery Lifecycle
E Is not relevant in an Agile environment.
The Correct D

18- When outsourcing information management functions, organisations can

A Reduce cost of compliance and improve turnaround
B Align strategy and control privacy
C Improve controls while reducing costs
D Transfer accountability but not control
E Transfer control but not accountability.
The Correct D
19- What causes data redundancy or data rot?
A Poor assimilation of collected data
B Poor data management practices
C Server and human error
D Dataset inaccuracies developed over time
E All of the above
The Correct E
20- Which is the most accurate definition of the term data life cycle?
A It represents the path along which data moves from its point of origin to its point of usage,
storage, and disposal
B It represents managing the risks associated with data
C It represents the data used to manage and use data
D It represents a range of perspectives on how to approach Data Management
E It represents the theory of data being cross-functional
The Correct A
21- Which one of the following is NOT a part of the Strategic Alignment Model?
A Business Strategy
B Stakeholder Management
C IT Strategy
D Information Systems
E Organization and Process
The Correct B
22- The DMBoK identifies which of the following as common stages in the lifecycle of the information asset
A Plan, Obtain, Store/Share, Maintain, Apply, Dispose
B Get, Store, Fix, Use, Purge
C Acquire, Integrate, Apply, Share, Dump
D Plan, Specify, Enable, Create and Acquire, Maintain & Use, Archive & Retrieve, Purge
E Build/Buy, Mix/Merge, Apply, Delete
The Correct D
23- In the Data Management Practices Hierarchy, advanced data practices include the following except:
A Analytics
B Mining
C Big Data
D Warehousing
E Data Quality
The Correct E
24- According to the DAMA DMBoK, what parts of the Data Lifecycle are integral parts of the SDLC
A Plan, Specify, Enable
B Plan, Create & Acquire, Purge
C Specify, Maintain & Use, Purge
D Enable, Maintain & Use, Archive & Retrieve
E Specify, Enable, Create & Acquire
The Correct A
25 - What area do you not consider when developing a Data Governance Operating Model?
A The value of data to the organization
B The business model – decentralized versus centralized
C Cultural factors such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change
D The availability of industry data models
E Impact of regulation.
The Correct D
Data Modeling and Design (11)
1- When a project specification is reviewed by the enterprise data architect, which of the following is not a
consideration?
A Whether enterprise-wide entities conform to agreed standards
B What entities in the requirements should be included back into the overall enterprise Data
Architecture
C Whether entities on individual screens and reports align with the database
D Whether entities and definitions need to be generalized or improved to handle future
trends
E Whether to reuse existing or develop new data delivery architectures .
The Correct C
2- The role of the Physical data model in the Metadata repository is
A Which version of COTS software (E.g. SAP) is implemented
B To describe how and where our data is stored on our systems applications or packages
C What the business definition of data concepts is
D How many master data records are stored in our MDM system
E When the duplicated records were merged.
The Correct B
3- The role of the Conceptual data model in the Metadata repository is
A To determine the primary, alternate and foreign keys of entities
B To summarize the key data subjects areas for a business area at a high level of abstraction
to enable the major data concepts to be understood
C To agree the cardinality and optionally of relationships between all entities
D All of these
E None of these.
The Correct B
4- Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage design within programs.
A Software Architects, Developers
B Data Architects, Data Analysts, Database Administrators
C DM Executives, BI Analysts, Data Security Administrator
D Business Data Stewards, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)
E Suppliers, Consumers.
The Correct A
5- What are relationship labels?
A The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between two entities
B The nullability setting on a foreign key
C A foreign key that has been role-named
D A relationship without cardinality
E A non-identifying relationship.
The Correct A
6- Which of these statements has the most meaningful relationship label?
A An order line contains orders
B An order is associated with order lines
C An order is related to order lines
D An order is connected with order lines
E An order is composed of order lines.
The Correct E
7- All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except
A A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated with
many instances of the other entity, and vice versa
B A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child
entity.
C A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child entities
D A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities
E A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same entity
The Correct D
8- In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures?
A Measures are found in Fact tables
B Measures can always be added across all dimensions
C Measures should be numeric and additive
D Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure
E Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure.
The Correct B
9- In a non-identifying relationship
A The primary key of the child entity is concatenated
B The foreign key of the parent entity migrates to the child entity
C The primary key of the parent entity becomes part of the primary key of the child entity
D The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity
E The primary key of the child entity is removed.
The Correct D
10- Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model?
A Foreign Key
B Local Key
C Primary Key
D Alternate Key
E Surrogate Key
The Correct B
11- In the conceptual data model an instantiation of a particular business entity is described as
A Dataset
B Record
C Rule
D Row
E Entity occurrence.
The Correct E
12- In a recursive relationship
A All of the above
B The relationship could be an identifying relationship
C The relationship could be mandatory at either end
D None of these, recursive relationships are not allowed in Data Models
E The foreign key must have a role name to avoid attribute duplication.
The Correct E
13- The highest level of these data model types is the
A Dimensional model
B Physical model
C Conceptual Model
D Logical model
E Database model.
The Correct C
14- Components of logical data models include
A Keys
B Relationships
C Entities
D All of the above
E Attributes.
The Correct D
15- What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
A Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a
relationship between two entities, and referential integrity rules ensure valid values
B Referential integrity rules only appear on a relational data model, and cardinality rules
only appear on a dimensional data model
C There is no difference. Cardinality rules and Referential integrity rules are synonyms
D Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities, and
cardinality rules quantify the common attributes across entities
E Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate
in a relationship between two entities, and cardinality rules ensure valid values.
The Correct A
16- What is the definition of cardinality?
A Qualitative description of the relationship of elements across datasets
B Measurement specifications for elements in a dataset
C Count of data tables in a system
D Classifies variables within a dataset
E Defines how many instances of one entity are related to instances of another entity
The Correct E
17- All of the following are properties of a logical data model except
A contains relationship cardinality
B technology-independent
C contains attributes
D contains primary keys
E technology dependent
The Correct E
18- Which of the following is NOT true of a super-type or sub-type entity relationship?
A A sub-type inherits all attributes and relationships of the super-type
B Sub-type entities must be mutually exclusive
C Attributes and relationships shared by some, but not all, sub-types are modeled with the
sub-types
D Attributes and relationships shared by all sub-types are modeled with the super-type
E The subtype relationships should have a discriminator attribute
The Correct B
19- Star and Snowflake are concepts of which Data Modeling Scheme?
A Object-oriented
B Time-based
C Dimensional
D Fact-based
E NoSQL.
The Correct C
20- Which of the following is NOT a Data Modeling style?
A ORM
B UML
C IDEF1X
D CHEN
E CRUD
The Correct E
21- What is the purpose of the Logical Data Model?
A To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them
B To compare data elements
C To define data elements
D To document how data should be stored and accessed
E To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how business
entities relate to one another
The Correct A
22- Which of the following is NOT a key?
A Logical Key
B Surrogate Key
C Primary Key
D Alternate Key
E Foreign key
The Correct A
23- In the relational data model, what is the best synonym for a "relation"?
A Association
B Table
C Relationship
D Row
E Tuple
The Correct B
24- What are relationship labels in database technology?
A Verb phrases describing how to take action on the organization's mission statement
B Verb phrases comparing business rules
C Verb phrases linking business rules with technical specifications
D Verb phrases describing business rules in each direction between two entities
E Verb phrases describing relationships between data tables
The Correct D
25- Complete the following statement: A business rule _____
A Defines an Entity
B Only exists at the level of the physical data model
C Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done
D Measures a business process
E Identifies an entity instance
The Correct C
26- A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This s a way of implementing
A Temporal data
B Master Data
C Reference Data
D Event data
E Star schema data
The Correct C
27- A project scope includes the collection, exchange, and reporting of data from multiple systems.
Conceptual, logical and physical data models are maintained. How many models of each type can be
expected?
A More physical data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data model
B More logical data models than physical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models
C More conceptual data models than logical data models, and more logical data models that
physical data models
D The same number of each of the model types
E Only 1 conceptual data model, 1 logical data model, and 1 physical data model
The Correct A
28- What is the definition of a surrogate key?
A A unique alphanumeric sequence is attached to each record in a dataset
B A key that links records in a dataset to other data tables
C A set of data records that are independent of any other data
D A unique identifier attached to each record, which may be used as a primary key
E A document that identifies how data is linked to business rules
The Correct D
29- Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?
A Data rules constrain how data relates to other data
B Action rules are difficult to define in a data model
C Data rules cannot be shown on a data model
D Action rules are instructions on what to do when data elements contain certain values
E All business rules must be identified prior to the start of the Data Modeling process
The Correct C
30- Which of the following business rules should NOT appear on a logical data model?
A Each Person can work for zero to many Companies
B Customer Last Name requires a non-unique index to improve retrieval performance
C Each Company must employ one or many Persons
D Each Order can contain one or many Order Lines
E Each Policy must belong to one Policy Owner
The Correct B
31- The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalisation) is to
A optimise overall database performance across both data access and data update requests
B fully utilise all the indexes
C avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once
D ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables
E make it easier for developers to join tables
The Correct A
32- The 'x' in the information engineering subtype discriminator symbol means
A Exhaustive
B Inclusion
C Expanded
D Exclusive
E Exchange
The Correct D
33- Which of the following is true of a recursive relationship?
A It is unary
B It is also referred to as self-referencing
C It involves only one entity
D All of the above
E None of the above
The Correct D
34- A bank applies the business rule that each Customer may own one or many Accounts and each Account
must be owned by one or many Customers. Which relationship type would be most appropriate
A many-to-many
B one-to-many
C many-to-one
D one-to-one
E recursive
The Correct A
35- Examples of data model components
A Files, Folders, Links
B CPU, GPU, RAM, ROM
C Monitor, Keyboard, Mouse, Disk
D Iteration, Decision, Input, Output
E Keys, Relationships, Attributes, Entities, Facts
The Correct E
36- What is an alternate key?
A A key is a relational database that is unique for each record and used as the primary
identifier for that record
B A sequentially generated unique number is attached with each record
C A candidate key not selected to be the primary key
D A key in a relational database that links records to other tables
E Another term for a surrogate key
The Correct C
37- An employee may work for one other employee and may manage one or more employees. There is an
indeterminate number of levels in this management hierarchy. What type of relationship would work best?
A recursive
B one-to-one
C subtyping
D identifying
E non-identifying
The Correct A
38- The most common term for "entity" in the physical level of a model is
A Index
B Primary Key
C Table
D Diagram
E Database
The Correct C
Data Quality (11)
1- Data Quality rules and standards are a form of data. To be effective, they need to be managed as data
and rules should be ___________?
A Managed outside of the repository and only the results of Data Quality assessments
stored as rules metadata
B Organized with metrics so the data stewards can review the data and see what rules apply
C Documented consistently, tied to business impact, backed by data analysis, and assessable
to all data consumers
D Focused on managing relationships that have gone wrong in the past and may go wrong in
the future
E Focused on rules that can be integrated into application services.
The Correct C
2 - A Data Quality Dimension is
A The value of a particular piece of data
B A core concept in dimensional modeling
C A valid value in a list
D A measurable feature or characteristic of data
E One aspect of Data Quality used extensively in Data Governance
The Correct D
3 - The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. Three are Plan, Monitor, and Act. What is the
fourth stage?
A Improve
B Prepare
C Reiterate
D Deploy
E Manage
The Correct D
4 - Which of these is NOT a primary deliverable of Data Quality Management?
A Data attribute definitions
B Data Quality strategy and framework
C Analysis from data profiling
D Data Quality service level agreements
E Data Quality reports
The Correct A
5 - Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Data Quality Management Cycle?
A Plan
B Check
C Act
D Intervene
E Do
The Correct D
6 - Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?
A Defining business requirements and business rules
B Analyzing Data Quality
C Creating inspection and monitoring processes
D Identifying data problems and issues
E Enterprise Data Modelling
The Correct E
7 - Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart - Deming Cycle that drives the Data Quality
Improvement Lifecycle?
A Plan
B Do
C Investigate
D Check
E Act
The Correct C
8 - Which of these statements is true?
A Data Quality Management is a synonym for Data Governance
B Data Quality Management is a continuous process
C Data Quality Management only addresses structured data
D Data Quality Management is the application of technology to data problems
E Data Quality Management is usually a one-off project
The Correct B
9 - What is the goal of collecting and documenting business rules?
A To identify potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort
B To reuse existing Data Integration solutions
C To direct when to manually trigger events and alerts
D To design user-experience
E To identify the requirements for the Data Quality
The Correct E
10 - When defining Data Quality indicators, care must be taken to ensure that they have what?
A Measurability, Relevance, and Acceptability
B A direct link to the Data Governance strategy
C Items in the dashboard showing their improvement over time
D The core dimensions of Data Quality
E Timeliness, Validity, and Accuracy
The Correct A
11 - You are facilitating a committee that is developing data quality metrics. Some of the committee
members think that SMART (Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Results-focused, Time-Bound) is a good
model. Select the statement that best describes why business relevance needs to be considered as a
characteristic of Data Quality Metrics
A Unless you use business terms the end-users won't understand and lose interest in the
program
B Business relevance needs to be considered as a Data Quality metric in its own right
C Any IT Program must have some business relevance defined, or it is a waste of time
D The value of the metric is limited unless it can be linked to some aspect of a business. The
metric's acceptability threshold needs to correlate with business expectations
E Expressing business relevance in requirements assists the metadata strategy
The Correct D
12 - Top-down and Bottom-up data analysis and profiling are best done in concert because
A It gets everyone involved
B It gives something for the architects to do while the profiles get on with the work
C It allows the profilers to show the business the true state of the data
D Data Quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured
E It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data
The Correct E
13 - Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?
A Setting Data Quality Improvement priorities
B Establishing communications and feedback mechanisms
C Data Profiling and Analysis
D Producing certification and compliance policies
E Development and maintaining Data Quality
The Correct C
14 - According to the DMBoK, which of these is NOT a valid dimension of Data Quality?
A Relevance
B Timeliness
C Currency
D Completeness
E Reasonableness
The Correct A
15 - What is the purpose of a data lineage tool?
A List of potential data integration opportunities
B Formal Data Quality Assessment of a dataset
C Description of a dataset's phase within the data lifecycle
D Tracking Historical changes to a dataset
E Collection of all the metadata related to a dataset
The Correct D
16 - Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of Data Quality improvement tools?
A Data profiling
B Parsing
C Data Modeling
D Transformation
E Standardization
The Correct C
17 - A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which of these
A Roles and responsibilities for Data Quality
B A business case for data improvement
C An enterprise data model
D Detailed technical specifications for data transfer
E A breakdown of the costs of Data Quality improvement
The Correct A
18 - Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:
A Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data
B Person data, location data, and product data
C Fine data, coarse data, and rough data
D Historical data, current data, and future dated data
E Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
The Correct E
19 - When the DMBOK calls Data Quality Management a program, not a project, it means
A Data Quality is more tightly scoped and planned than ordinary projects
B Data Quality practices can stop at the end of the project
C Data Quality managers can be paid more that project managers
D Data quality management is really expensive
E Data Quality has both project and maintenance work along with communications and
training
The Correct E
20 - Whose responsibility should it be to identify and report occurrences of defects in information and
data?
A The information quality team
B Any employee
C The IT department
D Regulatory compliance officers
E Customers
The Correct B
21 - What is manual directed Data Quality correction?
A The automation of all data cleanse and correction routines
B The use of automated cleanse and correction tools with results manually checked before
committing outputs
C The use of spreadsheets to manually inspect and correct data
D Teams of data creators supervised by data subject matter experts
E Using a Data Quality improvement manual to guide data cleanse and correction activities
The Correct B
22 - Which one of these is a key process in defining Data Quality business rules?
A De-duplicating data records
B Producing Data Management policies
C Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
D Matching data from different data sources
E Producing Data Quality reports and dashboards
The Correct C
23 - Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Quality?
A Develop a governed approach to make data fit for purpose
B Define standards, requirements, and specifications for Data Quality Controls
C Implement process to measure, monitor, and report on Data Quality
D Advocate for opportunities to improve the quality of data
E The delivery of a Data Quality Strategy and framework
The Correct E
24 - What is the definition of a root cause of a problem?
A The part of the problem that is invisible to the naked eye
B A factor, that if eliminated, removes the problem itself
C A multi-factor influencer
D An incomplete requirement's statement
E The most obvious aspect of the problem
The Correct B
25 - Which of the following is the best example of the Data Quality dimension of consistency?
A The source data for the end of month report arrived one week late
B All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
C The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out
D The customer file has 50% duplicated entries
E The phone numbers in the customer fle do not adhere to the standard format
The Correct B
26 - What is the purpose of referential integrity?
A Rules that ensure data completeness
B Rules that ensure data validity
C Rules that ensure data accuracy
D Rules that ensure data is fit for organizational needs
E Rules that ensure data accessibility
The Correct B
27 - The sequence for the Shewhart - Deming improvement cycle in DMBoK is
A Design, Build, Test, Deploy
B Plan, Document, Implement, Audit
C Plan, do, check, act
D Vision, Creation, Evaluation, Optimization
E Plan, Act, Design, Comply
The Correct C
Data Security (6)
1- Obfuscation or redaction of data is the practice of?
A Making information available to the public
B Reducing the size of large databases
C Selling data
D Organizing data into meaningful groups
E Making information anonymous or removing sensitive information.
The Correct E
2 - Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security and data privacy?
A A desire for economic protectionism
B A recognition of Ethical issues in information management
C A resistance to open data and transparency
D An objective of making life more challenging for information management professionals
E ANSI 859.
The Correct B
3 - Definition of Data Security Policies should be
A A collaborative effort between Business and IT
B Reviewed by external Regulators
C Conducted by external consultants
D Based on defined standards and templates
E Determined by external Regulators.
The Correct A
4 - What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information Security policy?
A The Data Governance Council should define the Data Security Policy
B The Data Governance Council should implement the Data Security Policy
C The Data Governance Council should draft early versions of the Data Security Policy
D The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security
Policy.
E The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
The Correct D
5 - Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?
A The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the right
way, and that all inappropriate access and update is restricted
B The policies are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and technology aligned
C The procedures defined are benchmarked, supported by technology, framework based,
and peer reviewed
D None of these
E The defined procedures are tightly defined, with rigid and effective enforcement
sanctions, and alignment with technology capabilities.
The Correct A
6 - A RACI matrix is a useful tool to support the ______ in an outsourced arrangement.
A Transfer of access controls
B Alignment of Business goals
C Segregation of duties
D Service level Agreement
E Attributing Costs.
The Correct C
7 - Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management include
A Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners
B External Standards organisations, Regulators, or the Media
C Media analysts, Internal Risk Management, Suppliers, or Regulators
D The Internal Audit and Risk committees of the organisation
E All of these.
The Correct A
8 - How does Data Security contribute to competitive advantage?
A Data Security makes it harder for your competitors to find out about who you do business
with
B Data Security makes your competitors invest more effort into trying to find out your trade
secrets
C Governments do not allow organisations to trade if they do not manage Data Security
D Data Security helps to protect proprietary information and intellectual property, as well as
customer and partner information
E Data security stops organisations going out of business due to an information leak.
The Correct D
9 - The needs of data protection require us to ensure that
A Data is secured with a password
B Data can always be freely used in the company as it is a company asset
C Data is processed only in ways compatible with the intended and communicated use it
was collected for, and respects the consent of the data subject
D Data is encrypted at all times
E Data is frequently backed up so that it can be recovered in all cases.
The Correct C
10 - Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic goals should a Data
Security Management system address?
A Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS.
B Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA
C Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality
needs of all stakeholders
D Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing
E NA
The Correct C
11 - Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?
A The definition of controls, technical standards, frameworks, and audit trail capabilities to
identify who has or has had access to information
B The implementation and execution of checkpoints, checklists, controls, and technical
mechanisms to govern the access to information in an enterprise
C The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to provide
proper authentication, authorization, access, and auditing of data and information assets
D None of these
E The planning, implementation, and testing of security technologies, authentication
mechanisms, and other controls to prevent access to information.
The Correct C
12 - Which of the following define the data security touch points in an organisation?
A Risk Assessment
B Legislation
C Internal Audit
D Business rules and process workflow
E Industry standards.
The Correct D
13 - Data Security policies should be developed and communicated to ensure that ____?
A External consultants can be used effectively in implementation
B Standards and templates can be reused from other organizations
C it is easier to comply that not to comply
D External regulatory reviews and audits can be conducted efficiently
E Data that is not Requested, Orchestrated, Technology supported.
The Correct C
14 - A security mechanism that searches for customer bank account details in outgoing emails is achieving
the goal of
A ensuring stakeholder requirements for confidentiality and privacy are met
B ensuring stakeholder requirements for service and design and experience are met
C ensuring stakeholder requirements for openness and transparency are met
D ensuring stakeholder requirements for concise definitions are usage are met
E NA
The Correct A
15 - In data security, which of the following is not one of the four "A's"?
A Authentication
B Audit
C Access
D Available
E NA
The Correct D
16 - Legislation and Regulation for information security usually focusses on the ___ and not the ___?
A End/Means
B Technology/Data
C Data/Technology
D Organization/Data
E NA
The Correct A
17 - An effective Data Security Strategy needs to consider ____ as well as technical security.
A Operational (function, flexibility)
B Physical (devices, hard copy)
C Conceptual (metadata, Business Glossary)
D Functional (timing, structures)
E NA
The Correct B
18 - What is the benefit of using role groups to implement Data Security policies?
A It allows users to by typecast by the administrator
B It simplifies revoking individual permissions from an Individual user
C It allows for iterative reporting of user access
D It reduces the amount of effort to assign access rights to users if they inherit rights from
their group
E NA
The Correct D
19 - The implementation and administration of Data Security policies is primarily the responsibility of
A Knowledge Workers
B All staff
C Security administrators
D The CIO
E NA
The Correct C
20 - Obfuscation of data is to
A Put it in different databases
B Use synonyms for the same term
C Collect data from obscure sources
D Make the results clear
E Make it obscure or unclear
The Correct E
21 - The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch installed is a metric of
which knowledge area
A Data Security
B Data Storage and Operations
C Metadata Management
D Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
E Data Quality
The Correct A
22 - HTTPS indicates that the website is
A Equipped with a security layer
B Equipped with a content management system
C Equipped with third party cookies
D Equipped with an underlying database
E Equipped with a foreign language translated
The Correct A
23 - What is the difference between a Data Security Policy and an information technology security policy?
A There is no difference
B Information technology security policies are defined by external standards
C The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
D Data Security policies are more granular in nature and take a data-centric approach
E NA
The Correct D
24 - What is the name of the legislation that protects educational records in the United States?
A SOX
B BASEL II
C EPA
D GDPR
E FERPA
The Correct E
25 - The process of translating plain text into complex codes to hide privileged information is
A encryption
B encapsulation
C exaggeration
D elimination
E NA
The Correct A
26 - What is a hash?
A An algorithm that converts encoded values into data (or vise versa)
B A public key that is freely available and used to encode data along with a receiver's private
key
C A clearing house for encrypted data
D A method for masking sensitive data
E NA
The Correct A
27 - The stakeholder requirements for privacy and confidentiality are goals found in
A Data Security
B Data Architecture
C Data Quality
D Metadata Management
E Document and Content Management
The Correct A
28 - A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from usage logs. The
security mechanism being used is an
A Access
B Audit
C Authorization
D Authentication
E Entitlement
The Correct B
29 - The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent to an authentication app is
called
A 3-factor
B 2-factor
C biometric authentication
D proactive authentication
E NA
The Correct B
30 - Information security begins by classifying an organization's data in order to
A Identify which subject area the data belongs to
B Identify which systems need better supporting
C Identiy which departments need more data
D Identify which data needs protection
E Identify the metadata classification values
The Correct D
Data Storage and Operations (6)
1- Which approach is considered most effective when supporting multi-dimensional business report
requests?
A OLTP
B ODS
C OLAP
D EDI
E BI.
The Correct C
2 - The acronym ACID stands for
A Atomicity, Consistency, Independence, Dominance
B Additive, CAP, Independence, Database
C Atomicity, Cardinality, Instance, Durability
D Arity, Cardinality, Instance, Development
E Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability.
The Correct E
3 - When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should one consider doing?
A Make sure that the data is retained sufficiently long, check that critical data is encrypted,
check access rights
B Write a report and discuss with management the required budget
C Determine the risk, probability and impact, check document backup frequency
D Have the contracts in place to acquire new hardware in case of technical problems, define
policies
E Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery
time and acceptable amount of disruption, the criticality of the documents.
The Correct E
4 - Which of the following should a DBA (database administrator) do if a database schema change is failing?
A Call the software vendor of the database for technical support
B Apply the backout plan to restore a consistent database state
C Instruct the software designer to refer to the script and re-run it
D Call IT support to restore a previous version of the database
E Remove all the content of the tables and try again
The Correct B
5 - If two data stores are able to be inconsistent during normal operations, then the integration approach is
A Streaming
B Synchronous
C Faulty
D Asynchronous
E Uncontrolled
The Correct D
6 - Data that is used infrequently or not at all may be moved to an alternative data store. This is called
A replication
B analysis
C archiving
D auditing
E Authentication
The Correct C
7 - Which of the following activities are performed by data operations staff?
A Tune the file systems
B Grant access to tables and rewrite SQL statements
C Implement and control database environments, plan for data retention, keep track of
database licenses, monitor and tune database performance
D Clean data that is of bad quality
E Manage the tape libraries
The Correct C
8 - The goals of data operations include which of the following
A Assuring the quality of the structured data assets, taking backups, and managing the
security of the database
B Providing the right database access rights, solving software bugs, and managing database
logs
C Assuring the performance of the network and storage devices, the quality of the SQL
statements, and the selection of DBMS platform
D Assuring backups are taken, managing the performance of SQL, and checking data quality
E Assuring availability of the data throughout its lifecycle, protection, and integrity
assurance of structured data assets, and performance optimization of database
transactions
The Correct E
9 - The data operations team assures that data is recoverable by which of the following methods
A Defining and executing the data recovery plan
B Making sure the disks are checked regularly for write errors
C Guaranteeing the applications take proper exports of the data
D Analyzing database error logs
E Maintaining a test, development, and production environment
The Correct A
10 - A Content Distribution Network supporting a multi-national website is likely to use
A A replication solution
B An extract, transform, and load solution
C A database backup and restore solution
D An archiving solution
E A records disposal solution
The Correct A
11 - Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as
A Capacity, availability, backup instances and Data Quality
B Capacity, availability, cache performance, and user statistics
C Capacity, design, normalization, and user access
D Create, read, update and delete
E Create, read, normalization, and user access
The Correct B
12 - In the BASE vs ACID model for transaction processing, "E" is best described by which of these
statements
A End to End data consistency
B Eventual Availability of Data as described by the CAP theorem
C Eventual Data Consistency
D Extra Validation
E Business Availability of Secure data ELEMENTS
The Correct C
13 - Periodic archiving of transaction data from a production CRM system is critical for
A Training junior DBAs
B Managing deleted customer records
C Enabling the distribution of transaction data across the enterprise
D The maintenance of database performance
E Providing alternate sources for reporting systems
The Correct D
14 - What should a business continuity plan include?
A Defines unplanned disruptions that may occur
B Outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service
C Precedes Business rules
D Explains to external stakeholders why performance expectations are not being met
E Provides explanation to customers during an unplanned disruption in service
The Correct B
15 - Database performance depends upon two independent facets. These are
A Availability and speed
B Number of users and number of tables
C Hardware and network
D Choice of DBMS and programming language
E Distance to data center and network bandwidth
The Correct A
16 - What is the technique for log-based change of data capturing?
A The source system populates specific data elements in the target system
B Source Database Management system create data activity logs which are monitored and
applied on the target database
C The source system processes add to a simple list of changed objects and identifiers on
data update
D The source system processes copy data that has changed into separate objects as part of
the source data update
E Compare the current state of the source systems to a previous copy
The Correct B
17 - A database whose index is updated with a crawler program is an example of
A Database transaction technology called BASE
B Database transaction technology called ACID
C Database technology called TRIP
D Database technology called SQL
E Database technology called NoSQL
The Correct A
18 - Which technique is used to provide access to a combination of individual data stores, regardless of
structure?
A Data Federation
B Complex Event Processing
C Cloud-based integration
D Enterprise service bus
E Enterprise Application Integration
The Correct A
19 - True or False: Causes of poor Database Management include memory allocation errors, poor SQL
coding, and database volatility
A TRUE
B False.
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A
20 - Which of the following should staff do to guarantee optimum database performance of database
operations?
A Reduce the number of rows in the tables
B Discuss the amount of time a user can wait on a screen
C Discuss performance requirements with the data architects
D Decide what type of storage will be acquired
E Revoke the access rights of heavy users
The Correct C
21 - In computer programming, data types can be divided into two categories. What are they?
A Value types and reference types
B Coded types and value types
C Technical types and reference types
D Structured types and reference types
E Metadata types and reference types
The Correct A
Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence (10)
1- Which of the following is not a good example of BI?
A Strategic Analytics for Business Decisions
B Decision Support Systems
C Supporting Risk Management Decision Reporting
D Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body
E Trend Analysis.
The Correct D
2 - When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the following questions is least
relevant to identify the level of effort needed?
A How much of the tool infrastructure meets our organisational infrastructure
B The Standard source systems for which ETL is supplied
C Number of source systems we need to integrate into the tool
D How much do the canned processes in the tool match our business
E Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc. .
The Correct E
3 - Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?
A OLAP
B OLTP
C ODS
D EDI
E EIEIO.
The Correct A
4 - A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned in a data warehouse
structure to provide transactional systems with a combination of historical and near real time data to meet
customer needs. This is a definition of:
A Operational Data Store
B Behavioural Decision Support Systems
C Active Data Warehousing
D On Line Transactional Processing System
E On Line Analytical Processing Cube.
The Correct C
5 - Which of the following is a typical metric in data warehouse/BI projects?
A Number of differente metadata used
B Number of fact tables connected
C Number of concurrent users connected to the data warehouse
D Number of indexes used in the fact table
E Number of snowflake dimensions used in the projects.
The Correct C
6 - Which of the following is NOT an activity that would enable business acceptance and user satisfaction?
A Ensuring perceptions of the quality of the data in the BI system are managed
B Understanding the data and defining the operations team's responsiveness to identified
issues
C Promoting scheduled meetings with user representatives
D Defining different types of reporting tools to be used for future business needs
E Furnishing and end-to-end verifiable data lineage.
The Correct D
7 - During the implementation of a data warehouse, a roadmap is used to
A Demonstrate progress towards the desired end state
B Demonstrate alignment to the project plan
C Articulate user requirements
D Articulate Data Quality checkpoints
E Construct intricate security authorization.
The Correct A
8 - What factors should you consider when choosing data warehouse tools?
A Build vs. buy vs. rent
B Current and future requirements
C Current and future costs
D Professional service offerings
E All of the above.
The Correct E
9 - The data dictionary describes
A Mainly extract, transform, and access processes
B Mainly data in business terms directly from the logical model
C Mainly source, target, and transformation rules
D Mainly availability and integrity quality rules
E Mainly data in XML, JSON, and text forms.
The Correct B
10 - One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is
A Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain current data
B Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data
C Operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on business
strategies
D Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available during business
hours
E Operational systems focus on Data Quality; data warehouses focus on data security.
The Correct B
11 - Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is
A A strong incident management process
B A strong release management process
C A strong capacity management process
D An agile development team
E The assurance to include velocity, variety, and veracity measurements.
The Correct B
12 - A data integration approach that updates a data warehouse with small changes from operational
systems is called
A ETL
B ELT
C EII
D SOA
E CDC
The Correct E
13 - Which of these is a common OLAP operation?
A Slice and dice
B Pivot
C Drill up and drill down
D Roll up
E All of the above.
The Correct E
14 - The main part of a data vault that houses and integrates data from various source systems is referred
to as
A Metrics mart
B Business data vault
C Information mart
D Persistent staging area
E Raw data vault.
The Correct E
15 - Which users in an organization are more likely to be the recipients of business performance
management reporting?
A Operations
B Data scientists
C BI team members
D IT team
E Executives.
The Correct E
16 - To answer questions like "What does this report mean?"• or "What does this metric mean?"•, the data
warehouse/BI team should focus on
A Data lineage
B Conceptual data model
C Predictive and prescriptive analytics
D Data Quality applications
E End-to-end metadata.
The Correct E
17 - In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes
A Either an Inmon or Kimball approach
B All the data in the enterprise
C Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
D An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines
E Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas.
The Correct C
18 - Dimension tables
A Are the same as Facts
B Have few columns but many rows
C Have many columns but few rows
D Do not contain hierarchies
E Contain measures.
The Correct C
19 - What technique will identify the system of record for the data?
A data discovery
B Definition of Data Integration and Lifecycle requirements
C Analysis of lineage
D Data profiling
E Collection of business rules
The Correct C
20 - According to Henry Morris of IDC, Analytical Applications provide business with a pre-built solution to
optimize a functional area or industry vertical
A TRUE
B False.
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A
21 - Which is the best definition of a Data Warehouse?
A Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery of Business Intelligence
B An explanation of how data is linked to physical products in a warehouse
C A data system based on incremental updates from Operational Systems
D A data system in which data is stored in normal form
E Any data store that can be accessed by business users and data analysts
The Correct A
Document and Content Management (6)
1- Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document and record management?
A Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and procedures,
contracts and financial documents
B Spreadsheets, company library books, sales transactions
C Local drives of laptops, transcripts of phone calls
D Relational databases, database logs, paper documents
E Data from tracking devices, building sensor data.
The Correct A
2 - A document management system is an application used to track and store electronic documents and
electronic images of paper documents which provides the following capabilities:
A Scanning and transcoding of documents
B Local disk storage and indexing of documents
C Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
D Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of documents
E Wiki, collaboration, online editing.
The Correct C
3 - Which of these describes activities in the document/record management lifecycle?
A Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and
circulation, preservation and disposal
B Storage, disposal, managing access
C Acquisition, classification, storage, purging
D Encryption, backup, disposal, extraction
E Acquisition, editing, storage, printing, backup, disposal.
The Correct A
4 - Non value-added information is often not removed because
A Legislation is unclear on what should be kept
B Data is an asset. It is likely to be recognized as valuable in the future
C We might need the information at a later stage
D It should not be removed. All data is value-added
E The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so there
is no cost driver, and it takes more effort to dispose than to keep.
The Correct E
5 - Documents and records should be classified based on the _______ level of confidentiality for
information found in the record.
A Average
B Overall
C Highest
D General.
E Consensus
The Correct C
6 - Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?
A Documents and records are the same thing
B Documents are written and records are audio
C Records are a sub-set of documents
D Documents are a sub-set of records
E Documents and records are not related.
The Correct C
7 - Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?
A Create a content strategy
B Manage versions and control
C Capture records and content
D Audit documents and records
E Manage retention and disposal.
The Correct A
8 - In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for
A G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles
B Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices
C Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes
D Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles
E Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles.
The Correct D
9 - A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient retrieval and use of
A Information, but not data in unstructured formats
B Data and information in structured formats
C Data and information in unstructured formats
D Data, but not information in unstructured formats
E Data and information in relational formats.
The Correct C
10 - Ontology is the study of
A Beginning
B Being and existence
C Reality
D Knowledge
E Existence
The Correct B
11 - An Enterprise Content Management systems (ECM) stores the following
A Backups of the enterprise's data warehouse
B Information to be displayed on websites and contained in documents
C Documents and images, but not multimedia
D Code and scripts for enterprise development environments
E Kanban boards
The Correct B
12 - Which of the following is a reason why organizations do not dispose of non-value-adding information?
A Data Modeling the content is difficult to reproduce
B The organization's Data Quality benchmark diminshes
C The information is never out of date
D Storage is cheap and easily expanded
E The metadata repository cannot be updated
The Correct D
13 - XML provides a language for representing both structured and unstructured data and information
A TRUE
B FALSE
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A
14 - Users continue to use a shared drive instead of a new Document Management System
A A failure to back up the shared drive
B Concern about the ability to version documents
C Concurrent updates to the document are handled better by the shared drive
D The document management system is too expensive
E Onerous classification requirements when adding documents
The Correct E
15 - Which of these is the best definition of an Ontology?
A A set of concepts and categories in a subject area or domain that shows their properties
and relationships between them
B An index of terms to enable rapid retrieval and explanation
C The classification of something
D A mythical creature from ancient Greece
E The theory and science of collating structure of living things
The Correct A
16 - An enterprise organization chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting line. This is an
example of a
A compound taxonomy
B flat taxonomy
C hierarchical taxonomy
D hybrid taxonomy
E ecological taxonomy
The Correct C
17 - Taxonomy refers to
A Any classification or controlled vocabulary
B Classification of organizational resources
C Arrangement of controlled vocabulary
D Constrained set of organizational vocabulary
E Categorization of controlled phrases
The Correct A
18 - The addition of workflow to a Content Management System (CMS) will do which of the following
A Enforce the controlled review and approval of database designs
B Allow the approval of system access requests
C Restructure an enterprise glossary
D Enable the controlled review and approval of dcouments
E Implement a data warehouse landing zone
The Correct D
19 - Ontology asks ___ while metaphysics ask ____
A What/How
B Why/How
C How/Why
D How/What
E What/Who
The Correct A
20 - Which is the best example of a Taxonomy?
A Customer status codes
B Customer master records
C ISO3166
D Well completion codes
E The Dewey Decimal System for libraries
The Correct E
Metadata Management (11)
1- Updating the Metadata repository is a recommended activity during project close out in the SDLC
A TRUE
B False.
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A
2 - What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge and information about
systems?
A Unstructured Meta-Data
B Process Meta-Data
C Business Meta-Data
D Data Stewardship Meta-Data
E Technical Operational Meta-Data.
The Correct E
3 - These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores & Data Involved, Government/ Regulatory
Bodies; Roles & Responsibilities; Process Dependencies and Decomposition:
A Technical Meta-Data
B Business Meta-Data
C Process Meta-Data
D Data Stewardship Meta-Data
E Operational Meta-Data.
The Correct C
4 - Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?
A Administrative Meta-Data
B Structural Meta-Data
C Descriptive Meta-Data
D Preservation Meta-Data
E Business Meta-Data.
The Correct D
5 - Which of the following contain metrics associated with Meta-Data Management?
A Steward Representation / Coverage; Meta-Data Repository Availability; Meta-Data
Management Maturity
B Meta-Data Management Maturity; No. Of Data Stewards; No. Of Meta-Data Attributes
Listed
C Steward Representation / Coverage; Meta-Data Repository Availability; No. External
Reference Data Sources
D Meta-Data Repository Availability; No. Data Governance Meetings held annually; No.
Meta-Data Repositories.
E NA
The Correct A
6 - Business drivers for managing metadata include the following
A Provide a starting point for customization, integration, or even replacement of an
application
B Translate business needs into data and system requirements so that processes
consistently have the data they require
C Strategically prepare organizations to quickly evolve their products, services, and data to
take advantage of business opportunities inherent in emerging technologies
D Reduce data-oriented research time, improve communication between data consumers
and IT professionals, and improve time-to-market by reducing system development life-
cycle time
E Meet data requirements for multiple initiatives and reduce the risk and costs of data
integration through the use of consistent reference data.
The Correct D
7 - The number of artifacts that must be searched in the metadata repository for all business change
projects are
A Conceptual data models and the business data glossary must be examined
B Conceptual, logical, and physical models must be examined
C There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly recommended
that the library is examined
D The business data glossary and data dictionary must be examined
E The business data glossary and systems inventory must be consulted.
The Correct C
8 - By setting, enforcing, and auditing metadata standards, organizations hope to
A Ease of understanding data dictionaries
B Simplify integration and enable use
C Provide activities for the Data Governance office
D Ensure the appropriate classification or meta-metadata
E Standardize business rules in operational processes.
The Correct B
9 - Where is the best place to find the following metadata: database table names, column names, and
indexes?
A Logical data model
B Enterprise data model
C Database catalog
D Detailed business processes
E Security access authorization.
The Correct C
10 - What is the difference between an industry and a consensus meta-data standard?
A Industry standards refer to internationally approved global standards such as ISO whereas
consensus standards refer to those agreed to within an organization
B Consensus standards are formed by an international panel of experts whereas industry
standards are dictated by a panel of vendors
C Industry standards are determined by regulators within a given global region and
consensus standards are agreed on by the Data Governance Council within an
organization
D The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept.
E NA
The Correct D
11 - The ISO metadata registry standard that provides a framework for defining a metadata registry is
A ISO 9001
B ISO 4590
C ISO 4-20-99
D ISO / IEC 11179
E ISO MD 1.
The Correct D
12 - Data provenance and data lineage are examples of
A Technical metadata
B Business metadata
C Operational metadata
D Strategic metadata
E Industry metadata.
The Correct B
13 - We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when
A Assessing the impact of change
B Formulating a Governance policy
C Implementing a Data Quality tool
D Selecting a Data Storage device
E Accessing the internet.
The Correct A
14 - To which of the following initiatives was the establishment of an industry Meta-Data Standard
essential?
A Internet Protocols
B EDI
C Proprietary XML
D JSON
E BASEL II/SOX.
The Correct B
15 - We do not expect to consult the MetaData repository when
A Investigating a data issue
B Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
C Undertaking a data quality assessment
D Assessing the impact of change
E None of these.
The Correct B
16 - The MetaData repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives of data. These are:
A 3rd normal form and un normalised
B Business and Technical Perspective
C Structured and Unstructured
D Internal and External
E Dimensional and non dimensional perspective.
The Correct B
17 - What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?
A Data Lineage diagrams and models
B Data storage devices
C Data Requirements
D Data Models
E Data Dictionary.
The Correct B
18 - A business perspective product in the MetaData repository is
A ETL flow
B Systems Inventory
C Data Dictionary
D Physical Data Model
E Data Glossary.
The Correct E
19 - The library of information about our data (our metadata) is built so that
A We can have a shared formalized view of requirements (e.g. what data quality we need)
B We can better understand it
C We can be consistent in our use of terminology
D We can better manage it
E All of these.
The Correct E
20 - Which of these statements are true about Metadata?
A The repository is always a decentralized architecture
B The repository is always a centralized architecture
C A Metadata repository and a Glossary are synonyms
D Data models are components of a Metadata repository
E The repository is always a hybrid architecture.
The Correct D
21 - A 'Data Swamp' is a data lake that has become
A messy, unclean and inconsistent
B modelled, managed and muddy
C suitable for frogs, toads and salamanders
D overly catalogued, holding information and data
E a data asset that uses machine learning.
The Correct A
22 - An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is
A Data model
B Metadata
C Dictionary
D Taxonomy
E English.
The Correct D
23 - Metadata repository processes will not include
A Selecting Data Management library software, search, and storage technologies
B Managing change to data products (e.g. data dictionary or business data glossary) entries.
For example: new data terms to be defined, new data requirements, adding new database
tables, or including new systems into th etechnical landscape
C Controlling versions of a data product that will be required to manage the required single
published master copy in conjunction with the variants potentially established as work in
progress
D Assessing impact where a change to existing data product entries are proposed e.g. the
impact of change on related data on other systems
E NA
The Correct A
24 - Data consumers will get more value out of data when they are provided more
A Tools
B Stewards
C Master data
D Context or metadata
E Business rules
The Correct D
25 - Which type of Metadata focuses on the content and condition of the data and includes details related
to Data Governance?
A Technical metadata
B Operational Metadata
C Structural Metadata
D Business Metadata
E NA
The Correct D
26 - When Metadata activities are focused on documents, the information is referred to as
A Legal Metadata
B Reference Metadata
C Administrative Metadata
D Preservation Metadata
E Descriptive Metadata
The Correct D
Which of the Following is a Meta-Data schema focused specially on documents?
A Structural Meta-Data
B Descriptive Meta-Data
C Business Meta-Data
D Preservation Meta-Data
E Administrative Meta-Data
27 - What process describes controlling versions of the organization's datasets?
A Data Quality
B Master Data
C Reference Data
D data modeling
E Metadata
The Correct E
28 - Creation and maintenance of metadata should include
A Identifying and classifying sensitive data assets, locating sensitive data throughout the
enterprise, and determining how each asset needs to be protected
B Summarizing and optimizing last and promoting transparency and self-service
C Holding process owners accountable for the quality, setting and enforcing audit standards,
quality monitoring and creating feedback mechanism for consumers
D Identifying rich data sources, aligning information and analysis, and presenting the
findings and data insights
E The impact on people, potential for misuse, and the economic value of data
The Correct C
29 - What process directly involves assessing the impact of proposed changes to existing data product
entries?
A Data Governance
B Metadata
C Master data
D Reference Data
E Data Architecture
The Correct B
30 - Which international initiative established a Metadata Standard?
A BASEL I
B BASEL II
C BASEL III
D BASEL IV
E BASEL V
The Correct B
31- These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores & Data Involved, Government/ Regulatory
Bodies; Roles & Responsibilities; Process Dependencies and Decomposition"
A Technical Meta-Data
B Data Stewardship Meta-Data
C Operational Meta-Data
D Business Meta-Data
E Process Meta-Data
The correct E
32- We do not expect to consult the metadata repository when
A Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
B Undertaking a data quality assessment
C Investigating a data issue.
D Assessing the impact of change
E None of the these
The correct A
33- The number of artefacts that must be searched in the Metadata repository for all Business
change projects are
A There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly recommended
that the library is examined
B The Business Data Glossary & Data Dictionary must be examined
C "Conceptual, Logical and Physical models must be examined"
D Conceptual data models and the Business Data Glossary must be examined
E The Business Data Glossary & Systems Inventory must be consulted
The Correct A
Master and Reference Data Management (10)
1- For countries, is there an internationally recognized set of codes to use?
A No, you should use whatever your organization wants to use
B Yes, the standards set are the codes used by your country's postal service
C No, organizations should develop their own set of codes to use because the data is used
internally
D Yes, ISO 3166 is the internationally standardized set of codes used by most organizations
E No, there is no internationally recognized set of codes because each country wants to
develop their own.
The Correct D
2 - As part of the reference Data Stewardship process, it is helpful to capture basic data about each
reference data set. Which answer best describes which data should be captured?
A Enterprise Architecture, programming logic, workflows, and ETL relating to any reference
data
B Steward name, originating organization, expected frequency of updates, and processes
using the reference data
C Maturity models that access the organization's readiness to accept Data Governance
D The names of everyone who is a business or technical user of the reference data
E Metrics to quantify reference data's value to the organization.
The Correct B
3 - Are the ISO (International Standards Organization) codes for countries and languages interchangeable?
A Yes, the two codes were developed together so that organizations would only have to
worry about one set of codes
B Yes, the codes can be interchanged unless more than one language is the “official―
language of a country
C No, the two codes were developed independently and there was no attempt to use the
same code for language as for a country
D No, because there are more languages than countries
E No because one uses four digits and one uses five digits for the code.
The Correct C
4 - A strong argument for pursuing a Reference Data and/or Master Data management initiative is
A It will not require a lot of time or effort
B They are essential functions in the Data Management Framework
C Job security for the data people
D By centralizing the management of reference and master data, the organization can
conform critical data needed for analysis
E It will not require a lot of time
The Correct D
5 - Which of the following is NOT a primary Master Data Management area of focus?
A Generating a golden record / best version of the truth
B Identifying duplicate records
C Producing read-only versions of key data items
D Providing access to golden data records
E Producing clear data definitions for master data
The Correct C
6 - Is the data model important in establishing Master Data Management?
A Only if Master Data Management needs to know the processing steps for all data
B No, within a given source, data representing the same entity can be different
C No, not if the data model is physically instantiated in multiple platforms
D Yes, Master Data Management needs consistent logical definitions
E No, not if the organization has complex systems with multiple ways of capturing data
The Correct D
7 - Master data differs from reference data in which following way?
A Master data does not require a data steward
B Master data do not require business definitions
C Master data should be held to a higher Data Quality standard than reference data
D Unlike reference data, master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values
E NA
The Correct D
8 - The "consumer" of master data content received from a Master Data Management platform can also be
referred to as a
A System of record
B Subscriber
C Master Data Management platform
D Single version of the truth
E Metadata repository
The Correct B
9 - At any given point, master data values should represent what?
A The organizations best understanding of everything in the data repository
B The organizations best understanding of what is accurate and current
C The organizations best understanding of the enterprise data model
D The organizations best understanding of its transaction data
E The organizations best understanding of its conceptual entities
The Correct B
10 - Which of these is a valid definition of reference data?
A Data that is fixed and never changes
B Data used to classify or categorize other data
C Data that provides metadata about other data entities
D Data that is widely accessed and referenced across an organization
E Data that has a common and widely understood data definition
The Correct B
11 - Which one of the following statements is true?
A Business data stewards maintain lists of valid data values for master data initiatives
B Managing reference data requires the same activities and techniques as does managing
master data
C Reference Data Management involves identifying the "best" or "golden" record for each
domain
D Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting and merging an instance of a
business entity
E Master Data Management involves identifying and maintaining approved coded values
The Correct D
12 - According to the DMBOK, the system that contains the "best version" of the master data is the
A System of record
B Golden record
C Source system
D Consuming system
E Spoke
The Correct A
13 - A dataset comprised of X, Y coordinates of company stores would be an example of
A Metadata
B Master Data
C Reference Data
D Temporary Data
E Historical Data
The Correct B
14 - Plant equipment is an example of
A Reference Data
B Master Data
C Transaction Data
D Inverted Data
E None of these
The Correct B
15 - Reference Data
A Has obvious definitions
B Has limited value
C Is always supplied by outside vendors
D Is used to categorize and classify other data
E When incorrect has a greater impact that errors in master and transaction data
The Correct D

16 - What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?

A The need to improve Data Quality and data integrity across multiple data sources
B The need to build a data dictionary of all the core data entities and attributes
C Regulatory acts such as BCBS239, GDPR, and SOX
D The need to consolidate all data into one physical database
E Business Intelligence and data warehousing
The Correct A
17 - Master and reference data are forms of
A Data Security
B Data Quallity
C Data Integration
D Data Architecture
E Data Mapping
The Correct C
18 - A common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is
A It will improve Data Quality and facilitate analysis across the organization
B It can be a one-time-only project
C Managing codes and descriptions requires little effort and low cost
D It will consolidate the process of securing third party code sets
E It fosters the creative use of data
The Correct A
19 - Which of the following is NOT a way of storing Master Data?
A Transaction Hub
B Repository
C Virtual
D Consolidated
E Registry
The Correct B
20 - Why would an organization choose to purchase Reference Data?
A To summarize basic information about their enterprise data
B To set up data compliance and governance processes
C To enhance data quality and to facilitate analysis across the organization
D To define how data will be captured and tracked
E To document transactional data systems
The Correct C
21 - Master Data Management
A Controls the definition of business entities
B Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the mappings
between common data in a central location
C Is synonymous with Reference Data Management
D Is time-consuming with questionable impact on Data Quality
E Ensures coded values are always used
The Correct A
22 - A dataset comprised of customer credit reports purchased from a third-party vendor would be an
example of
A Transactional Data
B Protected Data
C Reference Data
D Master Data
E Metadata
The Correct C
23 - True or False: All organizations have master data even if it is not labeled master data
A TRUE
B False.
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A
24 - The biggest challenge to implementing Master Data Management will be
A The inability to get the DBAs to provide their table structures
B Defining requirements for master data within an organization
C Indexes and foreign keys
D Complex queries
E The disparity between sources
The Correct E
25 - What statement is most accurate about master data metadata?
A Can either be related to technical or business perspective of content, but not both
B Secures the content
C Provides the who, what, and where context about master data content
D Does little to improve fit0for-purpose choices on when and where to apply the data
E Includes a sample of content
The Correct C
26 - A type of Master data architecture
A Hybrid
B Registry
C Virtualised
D Repository
E All of the above
The Correct E
27 - Which of the following statements regarding a value domain is FALSE?
A A value domain is a set of allowed values for a given code set
B Value domains are defined by external standard organizations
C More than one set of reference data value domains may refer to the same conceptual
domain
D Conforming value domains across the organization facilitates Data Quality
E NA
The Correct B
28 - Reference data _____
A Is also known as external data
B Usually has more attributes than master data
C Is more difficult to govern than master data
D Usually has fewer attributes than master data
E Is free
The Correct D
29 - Which of these is a valid definition of master data?
A Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail
B Data that is only held in one data source
C Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath
D Data that rarely, if ever, changes
E Data about business entities that provide context for business transactions
The Correct E

30 - A dataset comprised of county-level statistics provided by the national government would be an

example of
A Reference Data
B Master Data
C Historical Data
D Metadata
E Transactional Data
The Correct A
31 - Reference Data Management includes defining relationships within and across domain value lists
A TRUE
B False.
C NA
D NA
E NA
The Correct A

Q1: Which of these describes activities in the document/record management lifecycle?

"Encryption, backup, disposal, extraction"

"Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and circulation,
preservation and disposal"
 "Storage, disposal, managing access"
"Acquisition, classification, storage, purging"
"Acquisition, editing, storage, printing, backup, disposal"

Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 16
Question: Data is an organizational asset. What international standard is concerned with asset
management?

A. ISO 27001

B. ISO 8000

C. ISO 55000/55001

D. ISO 25000

E. ANSI 859.

Correct: C

Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 18

Question: According to the DMBoK2, which items are not a consideration in a data valuation?

A. has the same stages as the Systems Delivery Lifecycle

B. Impact to the organization if data were missing

C. Benefits of higher quality data

D. What the data could be sold for

E. How much we can be ransomed for by a malware attack.

Correct: E
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 19
Question: According to the DMBOK, which of the following are included as Data Management
goals?

A. Big Data goals need to change to reflect reality

B. Data Quality goals must be aligned with ISO27001

C. Data Management goals should be driven by technical capability and available capabilities

D. Data Management goals must focus first on legislation

E. We should ensure that data can be used effectively to add value to the enterprise.

Correct: E
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 20

Question: What is NOT a discipline of Data Management according to the DAMA DMBoK?

A. Data Quality Management

B. Document and Content Management

C. Data Virtualization

D. Data Security Management

E. Data Governance.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 21

Question: The DAMA Wheel contains?

A. Data Management process

B. Knowledge areas

C. Data Strategy initiatives

D. Maturity model dimensions

E. Data Management deliverables.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 22

Question: SMART is an acronym for objectives in projects and programs. SMART stands for?

A. Specific, Manageable, Agile, Realistic, Topical

B. Systems, Management, Architecture, Resources, Technology

C. Specific, Measureble, Achievable, Robust, Timely

D. Structured, Manageable, Accurate, Robust, Tested

E. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timely.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 23

Question: Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Management?

A. Capturing, storing, protecting, and ensuring the integrity of data assets

B. Ensuring the quality of data and information

C. Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data

D. Understanding the process needs of the enterprise

E. Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation, or use of data and information.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 24

Question: In the data lifecycle, the DMBoK recommends minimizing ROT data. ROT stands for?

A. Data that is not Relational, Operational, Timely

B. Data that is Redundant, Obsolete, Trivial

C. Data that is not Realistic, Ordered, Timely

D. Data is Routine, Obsolete, Tiny

E. Data that is not Requested, Orchestrated, Technology supported.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 25

Question: Information is:

A. Data in context

B. A management discipline

C. Always stored in a computer systems

D. A byproduct of IT systems.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 27

Question: Data differs with regards to other assets because

A. It uses automation

B. It can be used yet still retain value

C. It has value

D. It is big

E. It is regulated .

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 29

Question: Which is a valid Environmental component of data management?

A. Motivation

B. Hardware Management

C. Practices & Tecniques

D. Project Management

E. Database Management.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 30

Question: Which of these is not a Knowledge Area in DMBoK v2?

A. Data Governance

B. Master & Reference Data Management

C. Data Quality Management

D. Data Security Management

E. Big Data & Data Science.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 31

Question: The Data Management Body of Knowledge is produced by?

A. The Data Analysis Association

B. The Data Practitioner Association

C. The Project Management Institute

D. The Data Management Authority

E. The Data Management Association.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 32

Question: According to the DMBoK, which is not a component of a Data Management strategy?

A. Identifying individuals for Data Management roles

B. A compelling vision for Data Management

C. Descriptions of Data Management roles and organizations, along with a summary of their
responsibilities and decision rights

D. A summary business case for Data Management with selected examples

E. A draft implementation roadmap with projects and action items.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 33
Question: According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC) is the highest-
authority organization for Data Governance in an organization. Who should typically chair this
Council?

A. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)

B. Chief Data Steward (Business)/Chief Data Officer

C. The chair should rotate across Data Owners

D. The Chief Data Architect

E. Any executive/c-level participant in the DGC.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 34

Question: What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?

A. A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their
organization's data assets

B. Analyzing Data Quality

C. The manager responsible for writing policies and standards that define the Data
Management program for an organization

D. Identifying data problems and issues

E. The data analyst who is the subject matter expert (SME) on a set of reference data.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 35

Question: Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?

A. DG is a continuous process of data improvement

B. IT is a key stakeholder in DG

C. A DG initiative should always be led by the IT Department

D. There are different organization models for DG

E. DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 36
Question: Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on the value
of Data Governance in the organization?

A. Central Communications and Corporate Awareness

B. Data stewards

C. The Chief Executive Officer

D. Senior Management Executive Forum

E. Everyone in the Data Management community.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 37
Question: Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of
ways. Which of the following approaches is NOT a recognized way of doing this?

A. Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive

stakeholders

B. Maintaining an intranet website

C. Publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email

D. Promoting participation in a DM forum or community

E. Creating a series of "elevator pitches" for the appropriate audience.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 38
Question: When considering a Data Governance program, communication is a key element.
There are many ways of managing this communication, with one of the most effective being a
Data Management intranet. Which of the following would you typically NOT put onto such a

A. Description of the DG organization, its key members, and contact details

B. Executive message regarding significant Data Management issues

C. The Data steward team profiles

D. Raw data results of an investigation into a possible data privacy breach

E. Link to a “raise an issue― log.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 39
Question: How do Data Management professionals maintain commitment of key stakeholders
to the Data Management initiative?

A. Weekly email reports showing metrics on Data Management progress or lack thereof

B. Rely on the stakeholder group to be self-sustaining

C. It is not necessary, as the stakeholders signed up at the beginning of the program

D. Continuous communication, education, and promotion of the importance and value of data
and information assets.

E.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 40

Question: Data standards used by the enterprise must?

A. Promote consistent results but periodically be reviewed and updated

B. Promote consistent results so they are only written once and never updated

C. Be a guideline for the organization but open to the interpretation

D. Set by a standards organization and not by the enterprise

E. Only be necessary for the Data Governance team.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 2.1

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 41
Question: When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted, Data
Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying the data and information components
for compliance. What is the most important role in any regulatory compliance project
A. Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a standard set of
regulatory compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc…)

B. Provide access to any possible data set to the compliance team and allow them to mine the
data for non-compliance

C. Work in isolation and mine the data and information for compliance and non-compliance
issues

D. Create a Data Governance “in-house― project with a team of Data Stewards to create a
standard response

E. Take no part in any project at all, declaring it an audit and risk project.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 42

Question: The Data Governance Steering Committee is best described as?

A. The community of interest focused on specific subject areas or projects

B. The local or divisional council working under auspices of the CDO

C. The representatives of data use on project steering committees

D. A burden to the agile delivery in a modern enterprise

E. The primary and highest authority responsible for the oversight and support of Data
Governance activities.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Handling Ethics

Question Number: 43

Question: The right to be forgotten is

A. A person's right to have all their information erased from an organization

B. A person's right to have imperfect memory

C. A person's right for all search criteria not to lead to their details

D. A person's right to have their information removed from all databases on earth

E. A person's right to change their name.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 44
Question: Data Quality rules and standards are a form of data. To be effective, they need to be
managed as data and rules should be ___________?

A. Managed outside of the repository and only the results of Data Quality assessments stored as
rules metadata

B. Organized with metrics so the data stewards can review the data and see what rules apply
C. Documented consistently, tied to business impact, backed by data analysis, and assessible to
all data consumers
D. Focused on managing relationships that have gone wrong in the past and may go wrong in
the future

E. Focused on rules that can be integrated into application services.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management Organization and Role Expectation

Question Number: 45
Question: What area do you not consider when developing a Data Governance Operating
Model?

A. The value of data to the organization

B. The business model – decentralized versus centralized

C. Cultural factors such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change

D. The availability of industry data models

E. Impact of regulation.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 46

Question: For countries, is there an internationally recognized set of codes to use?

A. No, you should use whatever your organization wants to use

B. Yes, the standards set are the codes used by your country's postal service

C. No, organizations should develop their own set of codes to use because the data is used
internally

D. Yes, ISO 3166 is the internationally standardized set of codes used by most organizations
E. No, there is no internationally recognized set of codes because each country wants to
develop their own.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 48
Question: Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations, many of
which regulate how data and information are used and managed. Part of the Data Governance
function is to:

A. Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations

B. Monitor and ensure that organizations meet any regulatory compliance requirements

C. This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this

D. Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the Data Governance Council on
an information-only basis

E. This is about data. Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with risk and audit
reporting to Data Governance.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 49

Question: What organization structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?

A. Data Quality Board

B. Data Governance Office

C. Data Governance Council

D. IT Leadership Team

E. PMO.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 50
Question: Data Governance touch points throughout the project lifecycle are facilitated by this
organization?

A. The Project Management Office

B. The Master Data Office

C. The Data Stewards Office

D. The Data Governance Office

E. The Data Governance Steering Committee.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 51
Question: In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance activity Define the
Data Governance Framework is in which Lifecycle stage?

A. Specify

B. Enable

C. Create and aquire

D. Plan

E. Maintain and use.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 52
Question: As part of the reference Data Stewardship process, it is helpful to capture basic data
about each reference data set. Which answer best describes which data should be captured?

A. Enterprise Architecture, programming logic, workflows, and ETL relating to any reference
data

B. Steward name, originating organization, expected frequency of updates, and processes using
the reference data

C. Maturity models that access the organization's readiness to accept Data Governance

D. The names of everyone who is a business or technical user of the reference data

E. Metrics to quantify reference data's value to the organization.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 53
Question: Data for big data ingestion can also be called the data lake. This needs to be carefully
managed or the data lake will become?

A. An organizational statistic

B. A biased report

C. A level of data not usable by data scientists

D. A data model

E. A data swamp.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 54

Question: Obfuscation or redaction of data is the practice of?

A. Making information available to the public

B. Reducing the size of large databases

C. Selling data

D. Organizing data into meaningful groups

E. Making information anonymous or removing sensitive information.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 60
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 55

Question: Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?

A. Pre-emptive governance

B. Proactive governance

C. Reactive governance

D. Decentralised Governance

E. Devolved Governance.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 56

Question: Information needs to be managed because

A. It is an asset of the organization

B. The volumes are large

C. It contains financial facts

D. It is stored in Database systems.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 57

Question: The Information Lifecycle

A. has the same stages as the Systems Delivery Lifecycle

B. Is used primarily for Data archiving

C. Is only important in regulated industries

D. Exists beyond the Systems Delivery Lifecycle

E. Is not relevant in an Agile environment.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 58

Question: Information Governance and Data Governance should be?

A. Managed as a single function

B. Managed as separate functions

C. Managed as integrated functions, with Data Governance reporting to Information

Governance

D. Managed as integrated functions, with Information Governance reporting to Data

Governance

E. Managed by the Chief Information Office.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 59

Question: In the common enterprise architecture model coded BIAT, the 'I' stands for?

A. Information

B. Integration

C. Interoperability

D. Instance

E. Identification.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 60

Question: Which of these does NOT characterize an effective data steward?

A. Is a recognized subject matter expert in the data subject area / business domain that he or
she is responsible for

B. He / She is an effective communicator

C. He / She works collaboratively across the organization with data stakeholders and other
identifying data problems and issues

D. He / She works in association with the Data Owner to protect and enhance the data assets
under his or her control

E. Is a highly experienced technical expert in a variety of data management disciplines & tools.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 83
Question: Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security and data
privacy?

A. A desire for economic protectionism

B. A recognition of Ethical issues in information management

C. A resistance to open data and transparency

D. An objective of making life more challenging for information management professionals

E. ANSI 859.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 130

Question: Data flows can be represented by

A. Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and business
processes

B. Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and business
processes
C. Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and data
consumers
D. Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data facts and data
dimensions

E. Two-dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and data quality.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 1.3.3

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 131

Question: Preparation and operational activities associated with data interchange include

A. Specification for dataset creation

B. Design, build, and test of dataset creation

C. Specification and design of operational process

D. Operation

E. All of the above

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 132

Question: Critical data interchanges are involved in

A. RRP submissions to a regulator

B. Issue of contracts and ITTs for bidding

C. Business specific information published to the organization web pages

D. GIS datasets published to support safety checks before operational digging

E. All of the above

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 133

Question: When a project specification is reviewed by the enterprise data architect, which of
the following is not a consideration?

A. Whether enterprise-wide entities conform to agreed standards

B. What entities in the requirements should be included back into the overall enterprise Data
Architecture

C. Whether entities on invididual screens and reports align with the database

D. Whether entities and definitions need to be generalized or improved to handle future trends

E. Whether to reuse existing or develop new data delivery architectures .

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 134

Question: An enterprise data model would be composed of

A. Conceptual models, logical models, and physical models

B. Conceptual models, subject area models, and logical models

C. Logical models, physical models, and infrastructure models

D. Conceptual models, star schema models, and interface models

E. Enterprise models, data models, and compositional models.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section: [Link]

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 135

Question: The role of the Physical data model in the Metadata repository is

A. Which version of COTS software (E.g. SAP) is implemented

B. To describe how and where our data is stored on our systems applications or packages

C. What the business definition of data concepts is

D. How many master data records are stored in our MDM system

E. When the duplicated records were merged.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 136

Question: The role of the Conceptual data model in the Metadata repository is

A. To determine the primary, alternate and foreign keys of entities

B. To summarize the key data subjects areas for a business area at a high level of abstraction to
enable the major data concepts to be understood

C. To agree the cardinality and optionally of relationships between all entities

D. All of these

E. None of these.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 137

Question: Updating the Metadata repository is a recommended activity during project close
out in the SDLC

A. TRUE

B. False.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 138

Question: What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge
and information about systems?

A. Unstructured Meta-Data

B. Process Meta-Data

C. Business Meta-Data

D. Data Stewardship Meta-Data

E. Technical Operational Meta-Data.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 139

Question: These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores & Data Involved,
Government/ Regulatory Bodies; Roles & Responsibilities; Process Dependencies and
Decomposition:

A. Technical Meta-Data

B. Business Meta-Data

C. Process Meta-Data

D. Data Stewardship Meta-Data

E. Operational Meta-Data.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 140

Question: Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?

A. Administrative Meta-Data

B. Structural Meta-Data

C. Descriptive Meta-Data

D. Preservation Meta-Data

E. Business Meta-Data.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 141

Question: Which of the following contain metrics associated with Meta-Data Management?

A. Steward Representation / Coverage; Meta-Data Repository Availability; Meta-Data

Management Maturity

B. Meta-Data Management Maturity; No. Of Data Stewards; No. Of Meta-Data Attributes Listed
C. Steward Representation / Coverage; Meta-Data Repository Availability; No. External
Reference Data Sources

D. Meta-Data Repository Availability; No. Data Governance Meetings held annually; No. Meta-
Data Repositories.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 142

Question: Are the ISO (International Standards Organization) codes for countries and
languages interchangeable?

A. Yes, the two codes were developed together so that organizations would only have to worry
about one set of codes

B. Yes, the codes can be interchanged unless more than one language is the “official―
language of a country
C. No, the two codes were developed independently and there was no attempt to use the same
code for language as for a country

D. No, because there are more languages than countries

E. No because one uses four digits and one uses five digits for the code.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 143

Question: Business drivers for managing metadata include the following

A. Provide a starting point for customization, integration, or even replacement of an application

B. Translate business needs into data and system requirements so that processes consistently
have the data they require
C. Strategically prepare organizations to quickly evolve their products, services, and data to
take advantage of business opportunities inherent in emerging tecnologies

D. Reduce data-oriented research time, improve communication between data consumers and
IT professionals, and improve time-to-market by reducing system development life-cycle time

E. Meet data requirements for multiple initiatives and reduce the risk and costs of data
integration through the use of consistent reference data.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 144

Question: The number of artifacts that must be searched in the metadata repository for all
business change projects are

A. Conceptual data models and the business data glossary must be examined

B. Conceptual, logical, and physical models must be examined

C. There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched buti t is highly recommended that
the library is examined

D. The business data glossary and data dictionary must be examined

E. The business data glossary and systems inventory must be consulted.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 145

Question: By setting, enforcing, and auditing metadata standards, organizations hope to

A. Ease of understanding data dictionaries

B. Simplify integration and enable use

C. Provide activities for the Data Governance office

D. Ensure the appropriate classification or meta-metadata

E. Standardize business rules in operational processes.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 147

Question: Where is the best place to find the following metadata: database table names,
column names, and indexes?

A. Logical data model

B. Enterprise data model

C. Database catalog

D. Detailed business processes

E. Security access authorization.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 148

Question: An organization's data model contains information (metadata) about which of the
following?

A. Information an organization is interested in

B. All information available both inside and outside the organization

C. Information about physical attributes

D. Only the information needed for Data Governance

E. Surrogate keys.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 149

Question: What is the difference between an industry and a consensus meta-data standard?

A. Industry standards refer to internationally approved global standards such as ISO whereas
consensus standards refer to those agreed to within an organization

B. Consensus standards are formed by an international panel of experts whereas industry

standards are dictated by a panel of vendors
C. Industry standards are determined by regulators within a given global region and consensus
standards are agreed on by the Data Governance Council within an organization

D. The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept.

E.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 150

Question: Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides

A. Information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems

B. An estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data

C. Scoping boundaries of the data dictionary

D. Effective project scope management

E. Insights into the temporal data quality.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 151

Question: The ISO metadata registry standard that provides a framework for defining a
metadata registry is

A. ISO 9001

B. ISO 4590

C. ISO 4-20-99

D. ISO / IEC 11179

E. ISO MD 1.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 152

Question: Data provenance and data lineage are examples of

A. Technical metadata

B. Business metadata

C. Operational metadata

D. Strategic metadata

E. Industry metadata.

Correct: B

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Question Number: 153

Question: We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when

A. Assessing the impact of change

B. Formulating a Governance policy

C. Implementing a Data Quality tool

D. Selecting a Data Storage device

E. Accessing the internet.

Correct: A

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Question Number: 154

Question: To which of the following initiatives was the establishment of an industry Meta-Data
Standard essential?

A. Internet Protocols

B. EDI

C. Proprietary XML

D. JSON

E. BASEL II/SOX.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 155

Question: We do not expect to consult the MetaData repository when

A. Investigating a data issue

B. Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on

C. Undertaking a data quality assessment

D. Assessing the impact of change

E. None of these.

Correct: B

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Question Number: 156

Question: The MetaData repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives of data.
These are:

A. 3rd normal form and un normalised

B. Business and Technical Perspective

C. Structured and Unstructured

D. Internal and External

E. Dimensional and non dimensional perspective.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 157

Question: What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?

A. Data Lineage diagrams and models

B. Data storage devices

C. Data Requirements

D. Data Models

E. Data Dictionary.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 158

Question: A business perspective product in the MetaData repository is

A. ETL flow

B. Systems Inventory

C. Data Dictionary

D. Physical Data Model

E. Data Glossary.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 159

Question: The library of information about our data (our metadata) is built so that

A. We can have a shared formalized view of requirements (e.g. what data quality we need)

B. We can better understand it

C. We can be consistent in our use of terminology

D. We can better manage it

E. All of these.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 160

Question: Which of these statements are true about Metadata?

A. The repository is always a decentralized architecture

B. The repository is always a centralized architecture

C. A Metadata repository and a Glossary are synonyms

D. Data models are components of a Metadata repository

E. The repository is always a hybrid architecture.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 161

Question: The key architecture domains include

A. Zachman, TOGAF, COBIT, and Health architectures

B. business, strategy, application, and technology architectures

C. business, data, infrastructure, and technology architectures

D. business, data, application, and technology architectures

E. process, database, software, and technology architectures.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 162

Question: The implementation of data architecture exposes the transformation of data as it
moves across the landscape. A common name for this concept is:

A. data discovery

B. data interfacing

C. extract, transformation and load

D. data modeling

E. data lineage.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 163

Question: A data architect is best deployed

A. during the early stages of a project to define and shape a strategic solution

B. after the project completes to identify weaknesses and lessons learned

C. by project managers to sign off all data deliverables

D. to manage the delivery of all the data aspects of a program

E. to build the database solution.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 164

Question: The goal of Data Architecture is to be?

A. A bridge between technology strategy and database desing

B. A bridge between business analysis and data modeling

C. A bridge between business execution and technology strategy

D. A bridge between business strategy and technology execution

E. A bridge too far.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 165

Question: A Data Architecture team is best described as?

A. A well-managed project of architectural development

B. A group of strong database administrators

C. An operational data provisioning group

D. The authors of reference data

E. A strategic planning and compliance team.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 166

Question: The necessity of representing organizational data at different levels of abstraction
is?

A. Because most organizations have more data than individual people can comprehend,
understand, and make decisions about

B. Because most organizations need to accomodate the different points of view of information
Architecture and Data Architecture

C. Because most architectures want to deploy a complete suite of drawings for project
deliverables
D. Because most database administrators need specifications to build databases with
appropriate response times
E. Because most Chied Data Officers don't have the technical background to be held
accountable for complex data diagrams.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 167

Question: Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage design within
programs.

A. Software Architects, Developers

B. Data Architects, Data Analysts, Database Administrators

C. DM Executives, BI Analysts, Data Security Administrator

D. Business Data Stewards, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)

E. Suppliers, Consumers.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 168

Question: A CRUD matrix helps organisations map responsibilities for data changes in the
business process work flow. CRUD stands for

A. Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate

B. Create, Review, Use, Destroy

C. Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy

D. Create, Read, Update, Delete

E. Create, React, Utilise, Delegate.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 169

Question: A data lineage tool enables a user to

A. Line up the data to support sophisticated glossary management

B. Visualize how the data gets to the data lake

C. Track the historical changes to a data value

D. Enables rapid development of dashboard reporting

E. Track the data from source system to a target database; understanding its trasformations.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 200

Question: Which of the following uses for a Data Mining tool is not optimal?

A. Analyze supermarket scanner data to determine when people are most likely to shop and
buy certain products

B. Fraud Detection

C. Identification of data quality issues with your SAP Financial system

D. Predictive Analysis

E. Customer Segmentation and Scoring.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 201

Question: Which of the following is not a good example of BI?

A. Strategic Analytics for Business Decisions

B. Decision Support Systems

C. Supporting Risk Management Decision Reporting

D. Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body

E. Trend Analysis.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 203

Question: When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the following
questions is least relevant to identify the level of effort needed?

A. How much of the tool infrastructure meets our organisational infrastructure

B. The Standard source systems for which ETL is supplied

C. Number of source systems we need to integrate into the tool

D. How much do the canned processes in the tool match our business

E. Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc. .

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 204

Question: You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an
exploratory fashion when you do not necessarily have a specific question to ask. What kind of
data tool would you use to identify patterns of data using various algorithms?

A. ETL Jobs

B. Data Quality Profiler

C. Meta-Data Data Lineage View

D. Data Mining

E. Data Visualization Application.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 205

Question: Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?

A. OLAP

B. OLTP

C. ODS

D. EDI

E. EIEIO.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 206

Question: A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned in
a data warehouse structure to provide transactional systems with a combination of historical
and near real time data to meet customer needs. This is a definition of:

A. Operational Data Store

B. Behavioural Decision Support Systems

C. Active Data Warehousing

D. On Line Transactional Processing System

E. On Line Analytical Processing Cube.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 207

Question: Big data is often defined by three characteristics. They are:

A. Volume, Variety, and Velocity

B. Complexity, Compliance and Completeness

C. Size, Speed, and Sensitivity

D. Direction, Depth and Details

E. Expansive, Engaged and Enormous.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 208

Question: Big data management requires

A. less discipline than relational data management

B. more discipline than relational data management

C. no discipline at all

D. a certification in data science

E. big ideas with big budgets.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 209

Question: A 'Data Lake' is an environment where a vast amount of data can be

A. updated, obfuscated, nullfied and cleansed

B. digested, processed, deletedand visualised

C. ingested, screened, obfuscated and purged

D. purged, sorted, split and scanned

E. ingested, shared, assesed and analysed.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 210

Question: A 'Data Swamp' is a data lake that has become

A. messy, unclean and inconsistent

B. modelled, managed and muddy

C. suitable for frogs, toads and salamanders

D. overly catalogued, holding information and data

E. a data asset that uses machine learning.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 211

Question: Which of the following is a typical metric in data warehouse/BI projects?

A. Number of differente metadata used

B. Number of fact tables connected

C. Number of concurrent users connected to the data warehouse

D. Number of indexes used in the fact table

E. Number of snowflake dimensions used in the projects.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 212

Question: Which of the following is NOT an activity that would enable business acceptance and
user satisfaction?

A. Ensuring perceptions of the quality of the data in the BI system are managed

B. Understanding the data and defining the operations team's responsiveness to identified
issues

C. Promoting scheduled meetings with user representatives

D. Defining different types of reporting tools to be used for future business needs

E. Furnishing and end-to-end verifiable data lineage.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 214

Question: One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is?

A. Completing the Data Architecture on time for the first release

B. Maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation

C. Having a Data Quality rule applicable to al source systems

D. Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements

E. Modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 215

Question: During the implementation of a data warehouse, a roadmap is used to

A. Demonstrate progress towards the desired end state

B. Demonstrate alignment to the project plan

C. Articulate user requirements

D. Articulate Data Quality checkpoints

E. Construct intricate security authorization.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 216

Question: What factors should you consider when choosing data warehouse tools?

A. Build vs. buy vs. rent

B. Current and future requirements

C. Current and future costs

D. Professional service offerings

E. All of the above.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 217

Question: The data dictionary describes

A. Mainly extract, transform, and access processes

B. Mainly data in business terms directly from the logical model

C. Mainly source, target, and transformation rules

D. Mainly availability and integrity quality rules

E. Mainly data in XML, JSON, and text forms.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 219

Question: Which approach is considered most effective when supporting multi-dimensional
business report requests?

A. OLTP

B. ODS

C. OLAP

D. EDI

E. BI.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 220

Question: One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is

A. Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain current data

B. Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data

C. Operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on business

strategies

D. Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available during business
hours

E. Operational systems focus on Data Quality; data warehouses focus on data security.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 222

Question: Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is

A. A strong incident management process

B. A strong release management process

C. A strong capacity management process

D. An agile development team

E. The assurance to include velocity, variety, and veracity measurements.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 223

Question: A data integration approach that updates a data warehouse with small changes from
operational systems is called

A. ETL

B. ELT

C. EII

D. SOA

E. CDC

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 224

Question: Which of these is a common OLAP operation?

A. Slice and dice

B. Pivot

C. Drill up and drill down

D. Roll up

E. All of the above.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 225

Question: The main part of a data vault that houses and integrates data from various source
systems is referred to as

A. Metrics mart

B. Business data vault

C. Information mart

D. Persistent staging area

E. Raw data vault.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 226

Question: Which users in an organization are more likely to be the recipients of business
performance management reporting?

A. Operations

B. Data scientists

C. BI team members

D. IT team

E. Executives.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section: 3.3

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 227

Question: To answer questions like "What does this report mean?" or "What does this metric
mean?", the data warehouse/BI team should focus on

A. Data lineage

B. Conceptual data model

C. Predictive and prescriptive analytics

D. Data Quality applications

E. End-to-end metadata.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 228

Question: In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes

A. Either an Inmon or Kimball approach

B. All the data in the enterprise

C. Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes

D. An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines

E. Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 229

Question: What are relationship labels?

A. The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between two entities

B. The nullability setting on a foreign key

C. A foreign key that has been role-named

D. A relationship without cardinality

E. A non-identifying relationship.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 230

Question: Which of these statements has the most meaningful relationship label?

A. An order line contains orders

B. An order is associated with order lines

C. An order is related to order lines

D. An order is connected with order lines

E. An order is composed of order lines.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 231

Question: Dimension tables

A. Are the same as Facts

B. Have few columns but many rows

C. Have many columns but few rows

D. Do not contain hierarchies

E. Contain measures.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 232

Question: All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except

A. A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated with
many instances of the other entity, and vice versa

B. A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child entity.

C. A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child entities

D. A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities

E. A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same entity

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 234

Question: In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures?

A. Measures are found in Fact tables

B. Measures can always be added across all dimensions

C. Measures should be numeric and additive

D. Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure

E. Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure.

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 236

Question: In a non-identifying relationship

A. The primary key of the child entity is concatenated

B. The foreign key of the parent entity migrates to the child entity

C. The primary key of the parent entity becomes part of the primary key of the child entity

D. The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity

E. The primary key of the child entity is removed.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 237

Question: Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model?

A. Foreign Key

B. Local Key

C. Primary Key

D. Alternate Key

E. Surrogate Key

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 238

Question: In the conceptual data model an instantiation of a particular business entity is
described as

A. Dataset

B. Record

C. Rule

D. Row

E. Entity occurrence.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 239

Question: In a recursive relationship

A. All of the above

B. The relationship could be an identifying relationship

C. The relationship could be mandatory at either end

D. None of these, recursive relationships are not allowed in Data Models

E. The foreign key must have a role name to avoid attribute duplication.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 240

Question: The highest level of these data model types is the

A. Dimensional model

B. Physical model

C. Conceptual Model

D. Logical model

E. Database model.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 241

Question: Components of logical data models include

A. Keys

B. Relationships

C. Entities

D. All of the above

E. Attributes.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 288

Question: The acronym ACID stands for

A. Atomicity, Consistency, Independence, Dominance

B. Additive, CAP, Independence, Database

C. Atomicity, Cardinality, Instance, Durability

D. Arity, Cardinality, Instance, Development

E. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 320

Question: Definition of Data Security Policies should be

A. A collaborative effort between Business and IT

B. Reviewed by external Regulators

C. Conducted by external consultants

D. Based on defined standards and templates

E. Determined by external Regulators.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 321

Question: What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information Security
policy?

A. The Data Governance Council should define the Data Security Policy

B. The Data Governance Council should implement the Data Security Policy

C. The Data Governance Council should draft early versions of the Data Security Policy

D. The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security Policy.

E. The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 322

Question: Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?

A. The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the right
way, and that all inappropriate access and update is restricted

B. The policies are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and technology aligned
C. The procedures defined are benchmarked, supported by technology, framework based, and
peer reviewed

D. None of these
E. The defined procedures are tightly defined, with rigid and effective enforcement sanctions,
and alignment with technology capabilities.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 324

Question: A RACI matrix is a useful tool to support the ______ in an outsourced arrangement.

A. Transfer of access controls

B. Alignment of Business goals

C. Segregation of duties

D. Service level Agreement

E. Attributing Costs.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 325

Question: Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management
include

A. Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners

B. External Standards organisations, Regulators, or the Media

C. Media analysts, Internal Risk Management, Suppliers, or Regulators

D. The Internal Audit and Risk committees of the organisation

E. All of these.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 326

Question: When outsourcing information management functions, organisations can

A. Reduce cost of compliance and improve turnaround

B. Align strategy and control privacy

C. Improve controls while reducing costs

D. Transfer accountability but not control

E. Transfer control but not accountability.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 327

Question: How does Data Security contribute to competitive advantage?

A. Data Security makes it harder for your competitors to find out about who you do business
with

B. Data Security makes your competitors invest more effort into trying to find out your trade
secrets

C. Governments do not allow organisations to trade if they do not manage Data Security

D. Data Security helps to protect proprietary information and intellectual property, as well as
customer and partner information

E. Data security stops organisations going out of business due to an information leak.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 328

Question: The needs of data protection require us to ensure that

A. Data is secured with a password

B. Data can always be freely used in the company as it is a company asset

C. Data is processed only in ways compatible with the intended and communicated use it was
collected for, and respects the consent of the data subject

D. Data is encrypted at all times

E. Data is frequently backed up so that it can be recovered in all cases.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 329

Question: Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic
goals should a Data Security Management system address?

A. Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS.

B. Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA

C. Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality
needs of all stakeholders

D. Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing

E.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 330

Question: Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?

A. The definition of controls, technical standards, frameworks, and audit trail capabilities to
identify who has or has had access to information

B. The implementation and execution of checkpoints, checklists, controls, and technical

mechanisms to govern the access to information in an enterprise
C. The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to provide
proper authentication, authorization, access, and auditing of data and information assets

D. None of these

E. The planning, implementation, and testing of security technologies, authentication

mechanisms, and other controls to prevent access to information.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 331

Question: Which of the following define the data security touch points in an organisation?

A. Risk Assessment

B. Legislation

C. Internal Audit

D. Business rules and process workflow

E. The Industry standards.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section: 2.1.1

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 360

Question: Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document and record
management?

A. Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and procedures,
contracts and financial documents

B. Spreadsheets, company library books, sales transactions

C. Local drives of laptops, transcripts of phone calls

D. Relational databases, database logs, paper documents

E. Data from tracking devices, building sensor data.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 361

Question: A document management system is an application used to track and store electronic
documents and electronic images of paper documents which provides the following
capabilities:

A. Scanning and transcoding of documents

B. Local disk storage and indexing of documents

C. Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval

D. Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of documents

E. Wiki, collaboration, online editing.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:
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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 362

Question: Which of these describes activities in the document/record management lifecycle?

A. Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and

circulation, preservation and disposal

B. Storage, disposal, managing access

C. Acquisition, classification, storage, purging

D. Encryption, backup, disposal, extraction

E. Acquisition, editing, storage, printing, backup, disposal.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 363

Question: An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is

A. Data model

B. Metadata

C. Dictionary

D. Taxonomy

E. English.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 364

Question: Non value-added information is often not removed because

A. Legislation is unclear on what should be kept

B. Data is an asset. It is likely to be recognized as valuable in the future

C. We might need the information at a later stage

D. It should not be removed. All data is value-added

E. The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so there is
no cost driver, and it takes more effort to dispose than to keep.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 365

Question: Documents and records should be classified based on the _______ level of
confidentiality for information found in the record.

A. Average

B. Overall

C. Highest

D. General.

E. Consensus

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 366

Question: Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?

A. Documents and records are the same thing

B. Documents are written and records are audio

C. Records are a sub-set of documents

D. Documents are a sub-set of records

E. Documents and records are not related.

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 367

Question: Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management
lifecycle'?

A. Create a content strategy

B. Manage versions and control

C. Capture records and content

D. Audit documents and records

E. Manage retention and disposal.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 368

Question: In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and
information. GARP stands for

A. G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles

B. Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices

C. Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes

D. Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles

E. Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 369

Question: A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient
retrieval and use of

A. Information, but not data in unstructured formats

B. Data and information in structured formats

C. Data and information in unstructured formats

D. Data, but not information in unstructured formats

E. Data and information in relational formats.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 370

Question: When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should one
consider doing?

A. Make sure that the data is retained sufficiently long, check that critical data is encrypted,
check access rights

B. Write a report and discuss with management the required budget

C. Determine the risk, probability and impact, check document backup frequency

D. Have the contracts in place to acquire new hardware in case of technical problems, define
policies

E. Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery
time and acceptable amount of disruption, the criticality of the documents.

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 534

Question: What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?

A. Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a
relationship between two entities, and referential integrity rules ensure valid values

B. Referential integrity rules only appear on a relational data model, and cardinality rules only
appear on a dimensional data model

C. There is no difference. Cardinality rules and Referential integrity rules are synonyms

D. Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities, and
cardinality rules quantify the common attributes across entities

E. Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a
relationship between two entities, and cardinality rules ensure valid values.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 600

Question: The repeated implementation of different CRM Technologies with different data
structures is mostly a failure of

A. Data Warehousing

B. Data Architecture

C. Data Security

D. data modeling

E. Data Quality

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 601

Question: What is the definition of a business rule in the context of Data Governance?

A. Outlines the steps to take when a business disruption occurs

B. Clarifies an organization's objectives

C. Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done in the organization

D. Contains an organization's contingency plans

E. Clarifies an organization's goal

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 602

Question: We need to ensure that all data interchange scenarios are managed securely to
ensure we?

A. Are using the most up to date technology

B. Are monitoring the activities of our employees

C. Comply with legal and regulatory or external obligations to publish data

D. Have created hash totals on data sets to be exchanged

E. Have backed up data regularly

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 603

Question: Ontology is the study of

A. Beginning

B. Being and existence

C. Reality

D. Knowledge

E. Existence

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 604

Question: Which of the following should a DBA (database administrator) do if a database
schema change is failing?

A. Call the software vendor of the database for technical support

B. Apply the backout plan to restore a consistent database state

C. Instruct the software designer to refer to the script and re-run it

D. Call IT support to restore a previous version of the database

E. Remove all the content of the tables and try again

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 605

Question: A Data Quality Dimension is

A. The value of a particular piece of data

B. A core concept in dimensional modeling

C. A valid value in a list

D. A measurable feature or characteristic of data

E. One aspect of Data Quality used extensively in Data Governance

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 606

Question: What is the definition of cardinality?

A. Qualitative description of the relationship of elements across datasets

B. Measurement specifications for elements in a dataset

C. Count of data tables in a system

D. Classifies variables within a dataset

E. Defines how many instances of one entity are related to instances of another entity

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 607

Question: If two data stores are able to be inconsistent during normal operations, then the
integration approach is

A. Streaming

B. Synchronous

C. Faulty

D. Asynchronous

E. Uncontrolled

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 608

Question: Data Security policies should be developed and communicated to ensure that ____?

A. External consultants can be used effectively in implementation

B. Standards and templates can be reused from other organizations

C. it is easier to comply that not to comply

D. External regulatory reviews and audits can be conducted efficiently

E. Data that is not Requested, Orchestrated, Technology supported.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 609

Question: Data that is used infrequently or not at all may be moved to an alternative data
store. This is called

A. replication

B. analysis

C. archiving

D. auditing

E. Authentication

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 610

Question: In Data Integration, the goal of data discovery is to

A. Assign data glossary terms and data formats

B. Assign data glossary terms and canonical models

C. Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant

D. identify key users and perform a high-level assessment of Data Quality

E. Identify potential sources and perform a high-level assessment of Data Quality

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 611

Question: The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. Three are Plan, Monitor, and
Act. What is the fourth stage?

A. Improve

B. Prepare

C. Reiterate

D. Deploy

E. Manage

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 612

Question: Which of the following activities are performed by data operations staff?

A. Tune the file systems

B. Grant access to tables and rewrite SQL statements

C. Implement and control database environments, plan for data retention, keep track of
database licenses, monitor and tune database performance

D. Clean data that is of bad quality

E. Manage the tape libraries

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 613

Question: The goals of data operations include which of the following

A. Assuring the quality of the structured data assets, taking backups, and managing the security
of the database

B. Providing the right database access rights, solving software bugs, and managing database
logs
C. Assuring the performance of the network and storage devices, the quality of the SQL
statements, and the selection of DBMS platform

D. Assuring backups are taken, managing the performance of SQL, and checking data quality

E. Assuring availability of the data throughout its lifecycle, protection, and integrity assurance
of structured data assets, and performance optimization of database transactions

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 614

Question: What is the correct definition for change data capture?

A. A Data Integration approach that updates the Data Warehouse with big changes from
Operational Systems

B. A Data Warehousing approach to transforming Operational Systems into Data Marts

C. A Data Quality Initiative that assesses any discrepancies between data stored in a Data
Warehouse and data in Operational Systems

D. A Metadata document that describes how data is transformed in the Data Warehouse
E. A Data Integration apporach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes from
Operational Systems

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 615

Question: What is NOT part of Data Integration and Interoperability?

A. Integrating structured and unstructured data

B. Data Quality monitoring

C. Archiving data

D. Data consolidation into hubs or marts

E. Enterprise Application Integration

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 616

Question: A strong argument for pursuing a Reference Data and/or Master Data management
initiative is

A. It will not require a lot of time or effort

B. They are essential functions in the Data Management Framework

C. Job security for the data people

D. By centralizing the management of reference and master data, the organization can conform
critical data needed for analysis

E. It will not require a lot of time

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 617

Question: Which of the following is NOT a primary Master Data Management area of focus?

A. Generating a golden record / best version of the truth

B. Identifying duplicate records

C. Producing read-only versions of key data items

D. Providing access to golden data records

E. Producing clear data definitions for master data

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 618

Question: Which of these is NOT a primary deliverable of Data Quality Management?

A. Data attribute definitions

B. Data Quality strategy and framework

C. Analysis from data profiling

D. Data Quality service level agreements

E. Data Quality reports

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 619

Question: What is the advantage of using point-to-point interaction model instead of a hub-
and-spoke model?

A. Improved data lineage

B. The data is automatically sent to the subscribers

C. Lower latency

D. Management of the number of interfaces is easier

E. Significant reduction of the complexity of Data Interoperability

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 620

Question: The data operations team assures that data is recoverable by which of the following
methods

A. Defining and executing the data recovery plan

B. Making sure the disks are checked regularly for write errors

C. Guaranteeing the applications take proper exports of the data

D. Analyzing database error logs

E. Maintaining a test, development, and production environment

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 621

Question: Metadata repository processes will not include

A. Selecting Data Management library software, search, and storage technologies

B. Managing change to data products (e.g. data dictionary or business data glossary) entries.
For example: new data terms to be defined, new data requirements, adding new database
tables, or including new systems into th etechnical landscape
C. Controlling versions of a data product that will be required to manage the required single
published master copy in conjunction with the variants potentially established as work in
progress
D. Assessing impact where a change to existing data product entries are proposed e.g. the
impact of change on related data on other systems

E.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 622

Question: What is the purpose of the Conceptual Data Model?

A. To provide an outlook of the organization by documenting how different business entities

relate to one another

B. To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how different

business entities relate to one another
C. To provide an experimental perspective of the organization by documenting how different
business entities relate to each other

D. To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them

E. Documents how data are to be stored and accessed on storage media of computer hardware

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 623

Question: Which framework component of Data Governance includes education, training, and
awareness?

A. Roles

B. Processes

C. Communication

D. Data

E. Tools

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 624

Question: A security mechanism that searches for customer bank account details in outgoing
emails is achieving the goal of

A. ensuring stakeholder requirements for confidentiality and privacy are met

B. ensuring stakeholder requirements for service and design and experience are met

C. ensuring stakeholder requirements for openness and transparency are met

D. ensuring stakeholder requirements for concise definitions are usage are met

E.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 625

Question: All of the following are properties of a logical data model except

A. contains relationship cardinality

B. technology-independent

C. contains attributes

D. contains primary keys

E. technology dependent

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 626

Question: Is the data model important in establishing Master Data Management?

A. Only if Master Data Management needs to know the processing steps for all data

B. No, within a given source, data representing the same entity can be different

C. No, not if the data model is physically instantiated in multiple platforms

D. Yes, Master Data Management needs consistent logical definitions

E. No, not if the organization has complex systems with multiple ways of capturing data

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 627

Question: Data architects create metadata artifacts that constitute valuable _____.

A. Database that contain metadata

B. Business requirements

C. Opportunities for new marketing offerings

D. Support for user interfaces

E. Support for entire organization or enterprise

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 628

Question: A Content Distribution Network supporting a multi-national website is likely to use

A. A replication solution

B. An extract, transform, and load solution

C. A database backup and restore solution

D. An archiving solution

E. A records disposal solution

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 629

Question: The acronym ETL most commonly stands for

A. Export Transform Log

B. Extract Transform Load

C. Extend Trim Load

D. Efficient Trace Logging

E. Extract Transpose Leverage

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 630

Question: Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture
influences the scope boundaries of projects?

A. performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organisational strategy

B. providing enterprise data requirement for projects

C. ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented

D. ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place

E. enforcing data architecture standards

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 631

Question: In data security, which of the following is not one of the four "A's"?

A. Authentication

B. Audit

C. Access

D. Available

E.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 632

Question: Which of the following is NOT true of a super-type or sub-type entity relationship?

A. A sub-type inherits all attributes and relationships of the super-type

B. Sub-type entities must be mutually exclusive

C. Attributes and relationships shared by some, but not all, sub-types are modeled with the
sub-types

D. Attributes and relationships shared by all sub-types are modeled with the super-type

E. The subtype relationships should have a discriminator attribute

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 633

Question: Master data differs from reference data in which following way?

A. Master data does not require a data steward

B. Master data do not require business definitions

C. Master data should be held to a higher Data Quality standard than reference data

D. Unlike reference data, master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values

E.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 634

Question: What causes data redundancy or data rot?

A. Poor assimilation of collected data

B. Poor data management practices

C. Server and human error

D. Dataset inaccuracies developed over time

E. All of the above

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 635

Question: What technique will identify the system of record for the data?

A. data discovery

B. Definition of Data Integration and Lifecycle requirements

C. Analysis of lineage

D. Data profiling

E. Collection of business rules

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 636

Question: Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Data Quality Management Cycle?

A. Plan

B. Check

C. Act

D. Intervene

E. Do

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 637

Question: The "consumer" of master data content received from a Master Data Management
platform can also be referred to as a

A. System of record

B. Subscriber

C. Master Data Management platform

D. Single version of the truth

E. Metadata repository

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 638

Question: Data consumers will get more value out of data when they are provided more

A. Tools

B. Stewards

C. Master data

D. Context or metadata

E. Business rules

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 639

Question: What does data mining determine?

A. The process of collecting data elements to help organizations formally manage and gain
better control over data assets

B. The process of finding correlated features in a dataset

C. The process of manipulating data using a computer

D. The process of describing the results of various operations in a data warehouse

E. The process of finding anomalies, patterns, and correlations within large datasets to predict
outcomes

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 640

Question: Legislation and Regulation for information security usually focusses on the ___ and
not the ___?

A. End/Means

B. Technology/Data

C. Data/Technology

D. Organization/Data

E.

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 641

Question: When Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches,
results in a difference in

A. Data Quality

B. lethargy

C. source of truth

D. time stamping

E. latency

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 642

Question: An effective Data Security Strategy needs to consider ____ as well as technical
security.

A. Operational (function, flexibility)

B. Physical (devices, hard copy)

C. Conceptual (metadata, Business Glossary)

D. Functional (timing, structures)

E.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 643

Question: What is the benefit of using role groups to implement Data Security policies?

A. It allows users to by typecast by the administrator

B. It simplifies revoking individual permissions from an Individual user

C. It allows for iterative reporting of user access

D. It reduces the amount of effort to assign access rights to users if they inherit rights from
their group

E.

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 644

Question: At any given point, master data values should represent what?

A. The organizations best understanding of everything in the data repository

B. The organizations best understanding of what is accurate and current

C. The organizations best understanding of the enterprise data model

D. The organizations best understanding of its transaction data

E. The organizations best understanding of its conceptual entities

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 645

Question: Star and Snowflake are concepts of which Data Modeling Scheme?

A. Object-oriented

B. Time-based

C. Dimensional

D. Fact-based

E. NoSQL.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 646

Question: Which of these is a valid definition of reference data?

A. Data that is fixed and never changes

B. Data used to classify or categorize other data

C. Data that provides metadata about other data entities

D. Data that is widely accessed and referenced across an organization

E. Data that has a common and widely understood data definition

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 647

Question: A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data to be
exchanged, is commonly referred to as a

A. Data model

B. Data Sharing Agreement

C. Interface Contract

D. Data Quality Assessment

E. Project Charter

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 648

Question: Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?

A. Defining business requirements and business rules

B. Analyzing Data Quality

C. Creating inspection and monitoring processes

D. Identifying data problems and issues

E. Enterprise Data Modelling

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 649

Question: Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as

A. Capacity, availability, backup instances and Data Quality

B. Capacity , availability, cache performance, and user statistics

C. Capacity, design, normalization, and user access

D. Create, read, update and delete

E. Create, read, normalization, and user access

Correct: B

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Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 650

Question: Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Business data stewards maintain lists of valid data values for master data initiatives
B. Managing reference data requires the same activities and techniques as does managing
master data
C. Reference Data Management involves identifying the "best" or "golden" record for each
domain

D. Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting and merging an instance of a
business entity

E. Master Data Management involves identifying and maintaining approved coded values

Correct: D

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Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 651

Question: The implementation and administration of Data Security policies is primarily the
responsibility of

A. Knowledge Workers

B. All staff

C. Security administrators

D. The CIO

E.

Correct: C

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Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 652

Question: An example of an incoming formatted dataset is

A. Content formatted for external send e.g. into excel tables as a formatted file

B. Data sent and received within an organization

C. Specified data extract sent and received within the organization

D. Outgoing content examples could be a report, a document, GIS dataset, drawings, models,
photographs, records, etc

E. Received content formatted e.g. into excel tables as a formatted file

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 653

Question: Which of the following is NOT a Data Modeling style?

A. ORM

B. UML

C. IDEF1X

D. CHEN

E. CRUD

Correct: E

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Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 654

Question: What is the purpose of the Logical Data Model?

A. To define the structure of data elements and to set relationships between them

B. To compare data elements

C. To define data elements

D. To document how data should be stored and accessed

E. To provide a data-centric perspective of the organization by documenting how business

entities relate to one another

Correct: A

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Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 655

Question: An Enterprise Content Management systems (ECM) stores the following

A. Backups of the enterprise's data warehouse

B. Information to be displayed on websites and contained in documents

C. Documents and images, but not multimedia

D. Code and scripts for enterprise development environments

E. Kanban boards

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 656

Question: According to the DMBOK, the system that contains the "best version" of the master
data is the

A. System of record

B. Golden record

C. Source system

D. Consuming system

E. Spoke

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 657

Question: Which of the following is NOT a key?

A. Logical Key

B. Surrogate Key

C. Primary Key

D. Alternate Key

E. Foreign key

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 133

Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 658

Question: In the BASE vs ACID model for transaction processing, "E" is best described by
which of these statements

A. End to End data consistency

B. Eventual Availability of Data as described by the CAP theorem

C. Eventual Data Consistency

D. Extra Validation

E. Business Availability of Secure data ELEMENTS

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 659

Question: Obfuscation of data is to

A. Put it in different databases

B. Use synonyms for the same term

C. Collect data from obscure sources

D. Make the results clear

E. Make it obscure or unclear

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 660

Question: In the relational data model, what is the best synonym for a "relation"?

A. Association

B. Table

C. Relationship

D. Row

E. Tuple

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 661

Question: What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data
assets?

A. Data Architect

B. Data Modeler

C. Data Steward

D. Chief Information Officer

E. Data Scientist

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 78
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 662

Question: Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart - Deming Cycle that drives the
Data Quality Improvement Lifecycle?

A. Plan

B. Do

C. Investigate

D. Check

E. Act

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 663

Question: Which type of Metadata focuses on the content and condition of the data and
includes details related to Data Governance?

A. Technical metadata

B. Operational Metadata

C. Structural Metadata

D. Business Metadata

E.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 422

Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 664

Question: Periodic archiving of transaction data from a production CRM system is critical for

A. Training junior DBAs

B. Managing deleted customer records

C. Enabling the distribution of transaction data across the enterprise

D. The maintenance of database performance

E. Providing alternate sources for reporting systems

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 665

Question: What are relationship labels in database technology?

A. Verb phrases describing how to take action on the organization's mission statement

B. Verb phrases comparing business rules

C. Verb phrases linking business rules with technical specifications

D. Verb phrases describing business rules in each direction between two entities

E. Verb phrases describing relationships between data tables

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 164

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 666

Question: Which of these statements is true?

A. Data Quality Management is a synonym for Data Governance

B. Data Quality Management is a continuous process

C. Data Quality Management only addresses structured data

D. Data Quality Management is the application of technology to data problems

E. Data Quality Management is usually a one-off project

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 667

Question: What is the goal of collecting and documenting business rules?

A. To identify potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort

B. To reuse existing Data Integration solutions

C. To direct when to manually trigger events and alerts

D. To design user-experience

E. To identify the requirements for the Data Quality

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 668

Question: What should a business continuity plan include?

A. Defines unplanned disruptions that may occur

B. Outlines how a business will continue operating during an unplanned disruption in service

C. Precedes Business rules

D. Explains to external stakeholders why performance expectations are not being met

E. Provides explanation to customers during an unplanned disruption in service

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 327

Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 669

Question: A dataset comprised of X, Y coordinates of company stores would be an example of

A. Metadata

B. Master Data

C. Reference Data

D. Temporary Data

E. Historical Data

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 363

Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 670

Question: When Metadata activities are focused on documents, the information is referred to
as

A. Legal Metadata

B. Reference Metadata

C. Administrative Metadata

D. Preservation Metadata

E. Descriptive Metadata

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 425

Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 671

Question: What kind of interface is in place when systems are tightly coupled?

A. A batch interface

B. An independent interface

C. A synchronous interface

D. A legacy interface

E. A user interface

Correct: C

DMBOK Section: [Link]

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 672

Question: When defining Data Quality indicators, care must be taken to ensure that they have
what?

A. Measurability, Relevance, and Acceptability

B. A direct link to the Data Governance strategy

C. Items in the dashboard showing their improvement over time

D. The core dimensions of Data Quality

E. Timeliness, Validity, and Accuracy

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 4.4

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 673

Question: Which integration approach has a higher latency than event-driven?

A. Application interface

B. Real-time synchronous across systems

C. Webservices

D. Streaming access to data

E. Batch data integration

Correct: E

DMBOK Section: 2.2.4

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 674

Question: The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch
installed is a metric of which knowledge area

A. Data Security

B. Data Storage and Operations

C. Metadata Management

D. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

E. Data Quality

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 4.4.2

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 675

Question: Plant equipment is an example of

A. Reference Data

B. Master Data

C. Transaction Data

D. Inverted Data

E. None of these

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 676

Question: Reference Data

A. Has obvious definitions

B. Has limited value

C. Is always supplied by outside vendors

D. Is used to categorize and classify other data

E. When incorrect has a greater impact that errors in master and transaction data

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 677

Question: Which of the following is a reason why organizations do not dispose of non-value-
adding information?

A. Data Modeling the content is difficult to reproduce

B. The organization's Data Quality benchmark diminshes

C. The information is never out of date

D. Storage is cheap and easily expanded

E. The metadata repository cannot be updated

Correct: D

DMBOK Section: 2.2.4

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 678

Question: You are facilitating a committee that is developing data quality metrics. Some of the
committee members think that SMART (Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Results-focused,
Time-Bound) is a good model. Select the statement that best describes why busines
A. Unless you use business terms the end-users won't understand and lose interest in the
program

B. Business relevance needs to be considered as a Data Quality metric in its own right

C. Any IT Program must have some business relevance defined, or it is a waste of time
D. The value of the metric is limited unless it can be linked to some aspect of a business. The
metric's acceptability threshold needs to correlate with business expectations

E. Expressing business relevance in requirements assists the metadata strategy

Correct: D

DMBOK Section: 4.4

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 679

Question: Data sent and received between people or systems within an organization e.g. a
report, a document, GIS dataset, drawings, models, photographs, or records is an example of

A. External incoming data interchange

B. External outgoing data interchange

C. Regulatory data interchange

D. Internal data interchange

E. All of the above

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 680

Question: What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?

A. The need to improve Data Quality and data integrity across multiple data sources

B. The need to build a data dictionary of all the core data entities and attributes

C. Regulatory acts such as BCBS239, GDPR, and SOX

D. The need to consolidate all data into one physical database

E. Business Intelligence and data warehousing

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 681

Question: Master and reference data are forms of

A. Data Security

B. Data Quallity

C. Data Integration

D. Data Architecture

E. Data Mapping

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 682

Question: A common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is

A. It will improve Data Quality and facilitate analysis across the organization

B. It can be a one-time-only project

C. Managing codes and descriptions requires little effort and low cost

D. It will consolidate the process of securing third party code sets

E. It fosters the creative use of data

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 683

Question: Complete the following statement: A business rule _____

A. Defines an Entity

B. Only exists at the level of the physical data model

C. Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done

D. Measures a business process

E. Identifies an entity instance

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 684

Question: Which of the following is NOT a way of storing Master Data?

A. Transaction Hub

B. Repository

C. Virtual

D. Consolidated

E. Registry

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 369

Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 685

Question: A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This s a way of
implementing

A. Temporal data

B. Master Data

C. Reference Data

D. Event data

E. Star schema data

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 686

Question: Which is the most accurate definition of the term data life cycle?

A. It represents the path along which data moves from its point of origin to its point of usage,
storage, and disposal

B. It represents managing the risks associated with data

C. It represents the data used to manage and use data

D. It represents a range of perspectives on how to approach Data Management

E. It represents the theory of data being cross-functional

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 2.5.9

DMBOK Page: WARNING: This answer is wrong. It is the definition of Data Lineage, not
Lifecycle. This is the required answer in the CDMP exam !!!
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 687

Question: XML provides a language for representing both structured and unstructured data
and information

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 334

Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 688

Question: Database performance depends upon two independent facets. These are

A. Availability and speed

B. Number of users and number of tables

C. Hardware and network

D. Choice of DBMS and programming language

E. Distance to data center and network bandwidth

Correct: A

DMBOK Section: 2.2.4

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 689

Question: What is the technique for log-based change of data capturing?

A. The source system populates specific data elements in the target system
B. Source Database Management system create data activity logs which are monitored and
applied on the target database
C. The source system processes add to a simple list of changed objects and identifiers on data
update

D. The source system processes copy data that has changed into separate objects as part of the
source data update

E. Compare the current state of the source systems to a previous copy

Correct: B

DMBOK Section: [Link]

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 691

Question: Implementing a Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA) will often use

A. A data lake

B. ETL Servers

C. An enterprise service bus

D. Data Visualization tools

E. A Data Modeling tool

Correct: C

DMBOK Section: 3.3

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 692

Question: A project scope includes the collection, exchange, and reporting of data from
multiple systems. Conceptual, logical and physical data models are maintained. How many
models of each type can be expected?
A. More physical data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data model

B. More logical data models than physical data models, and more logical data models than
conceptual data models

C. More conceptual data models than logical data models, and more logical data models that
physical data models

D. The same number of each of the model types

E. Only 1 conceptual data model, 1 logical data model, and 1 physical data model

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 693

Question: Top-down and Bottom-up data analysis and profiling are best done in concert
because

A. It gets everyone involved

B. It gives something for the architects to do while the profiles get on with the work

C. It allows the profilers to show the business the true state of the data

D. Data Quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured

E. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 694

Question: Since data technology is rapidly becoming more diverse, one should consider which
of the following when acquiring a new type of technology

A. The problem for which technology means to solve and the solution stack for which you have
already installed

B. The current data retention policy

C. The performance levels of the currently installed data technology

D. The number of users that are connected to the current solution

E. The number of servers that are currently in use

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 695

Question: Why would an organization choose to purchase Reference Data?

A. To summarize basic information about their enterprise data

B. To set up data compliance and governance processes

C. To enhance data quality and to facilitate analysis across the organization

D. To define how data will be captured and tracked

E. To document transactional data systems

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 393

Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 696

Question: Users continue to use a shared drive instead of a new Document Management
System

A. A failure to back up the shared drive

B. Concern about the ability to version documents

C. Concurrent updates to the document are handled better by the shared drive

D. The document management system is too expensive

E. Onerous classification requirements when adding documents

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 697

Question: A ______ is used for detailing collaboration principles, escalation, and dispute
resolution process between Master Data Management and its data suppliers

A. Warranty

B. Business requirements document

C. Operational level agreement

D. Metadata catalog

E. Operations run book

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 698

Question: What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council
(DGC)?

A. DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions

B. Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler

C. Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer

D. Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer

E. Any executive can chair the DGC

Correct: C

DMBOK Section: 1.3.5

DMBOK Page: 76
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 699

Question: Master Data Management

A. Controls the definition of business entities

B. Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the mappings
between common data in a central location

C. Is synonymous with Reference Data Management

D. Is time-consuming with questionable impact on Data Quality

E. Ensures coded values are always used

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 700

Question: Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?

A. Setting Data Quality Improvement priorities

B. Establishing communications and feedback mechanisms

C. Data Profiling and Analysis

D. Producing certification and compliance policies

E. Development and maintaining Data Quality

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 701

Question: What is the definition of a surrogate key?

A. A unique alphanumeric sequence is attached to each record in a dataset

B. A key that links records in a dataset to other data tables

C. A set of data records that are independent of any other data

D. A unique identifier attached to each record, which may be used as a primary key

E. A document that identifies how data is linked to business rules

Correct: D

DMBOK Section: [Link].2.1

DMBOK Page: 134

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 702

Question: According to the DMBoK, which of these is NOT a valid dimension of Data Quality?

A. Relevance

B. Timeliness

C. Currency

D. Completeness

E. Reasonableness

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 703

Question: What is the purpose of a data lineage tool?

A. List of potential data integration opportunities

B. Formal Data Quality Assessment of a dataset

C. Description of a dataset's phase within the data lifecycle

D. Tracking Historical changes to a dataset

E. Collection of all the metadata related to a dataset

Correct: D

DMBOK Section: [Link]

DMBOK Page: 471

Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 704

Question: A sandbox is a type of database environment used for

A. User Acceptance Testing

B. Low-budget projects

C. Production backups

D. Remote users

E. Proofs of concept and to test hypotheses

Correct: E

DMBOK Section: [Link].3

DMBOK Page: 184

Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 705

Question: What process describes controlling versions of the organization's datasets?

A. Data Quality

B. Master Data

C. Reference Data

D. data modeling

E. Metadata

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 423

Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 706

Question: Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?

A. Data rules constrain how data relates to other data

B. Action rules are difficult to define in a data model

C. Data rules cannot be shown on a data model

D. Action rules are instructions on what to do when data elements contain certain values

E. All business rules must be identified prior to the start of the Data Modeling process

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Governance

Question Number: 707

Question: Who is responsible for communicating and promoting awareness of the value of
Data Governance in the organization?

A. Central Communications and Corporate Awareness

B. Data stewards

C. The Chief Executive Officer

D. Senior Management Executive Forum

E. Everyone in the Data Management community.

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 708

Question: A dataset comprised of customer credit reports purchased from a third-party
vendor would be an example of

A. Transactional Data

B. Protected Data

C. Reference Data

D. Master Data

E. Metadata

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 356

Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 709

Question: HTTPS indicates that the website is

A. Equipped with a security layer

B. Equipped with a content management system

C. Equipped with third party cookies

D. Equipped with an underlying database

E. Equipped with a foreign language translated

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 710

Question: A database whose index is updated with a crawler program is an example of

A. Database transaction technology called BASE

B. Database transaction technology called ACID

C. Database technology called TRIP

D. Database technology called SQL

E. Database technology called NoSQL

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 711

Question: Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of Data Quality improvement tools?

A. Data profiling

B. Parsing

C. Data Modeling

D. Transformation

E. Standardization

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 712

Question: What is the difference between a Data Security Policy and an information
technology security policy?

A. There is no difference

B. Information technology security policies are defined by external standards

C. The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security

D. Data Security policies are more granular in nature and take a data-centric approach

E.

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 713

Question: Which technique is used to provide access to a combination of individual data
stores, regardless of structure?

A. Data Federation

B. Complex Event Processing

C. Cloud-based integration

D. Enterprise service bus

E. Enterprise Application Integration

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 714

Question: Which of the following business rules should NOT appear on a logical data model?

A. Each Person can work for zero to many Companies

B. Customer Last Name requires a non-unique index to improve retrieval performance

C. Each Company must employ one or many Persons

D. Each Order can contain one or many Order Lines

E. Each Policy must belong to one Policy Owner

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 715

Question: Enterprise Data architecture defines standard terms for things that are necessary to
run the organization, These things are called

A. Artefacts

B. Entities

C. Taxonomies

D. Metadata

E. Relationships

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 716

Question: Which of these is the best definition of an Ontology?

A. A set of concepts and categories in a subject area or domain that shows their properties and
relationships between them

B. An index of terms to enable rapid retrieval and explanation

C. The classification of something

D. A mythical creature from ancient Greece

E. The theory and science of collating structure of living things

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Handling Ethics

Question Number: 717

Question: Which of the following is not included in the opinion of the European Data
Protection Supervisor (EDPS) on data ethics?

A. Right to request removal of personal data

B. Accountable controllers who determine personal information processing

C. Privacy-conscious engineering and design of data processing products and services

D. Future-oriented regulation of data processing and respect for the rights to privacy and to
data protection

E. Empowered individuals

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
DMBOK Page: 52
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 718

Question: True or False: All organizations have master data even if it is not labeled master
data

A. TRUE

B. False.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 719

Question: The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalisation) is to

A. optimise overall database performance across both data access and data update requests

B. fully utilise all the indexes

C. avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once

D. ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables

E. make it easier for developers to join tables

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 720

Question: What is the name of the legislation that protects educational records in the United
States?

A. SOX

B. BASEL II

C. EPA

D. GDPR

E. FERPA

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 721

Question: Which one of the following is NOT a part of the Strategic Alignment Model?

A. Business Strategy

B. Stakeholder Management

C. IT Strategy

D. Information Systems

E. Organization and Process

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 36
Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 722

Question: According to Henry Morris of IDC, Analytical Applications provide business with a
pre-built solution to optimize a functional area or industry vertical

A. TRUE

B. False.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 723

Question: A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which of
these

A. Roles and responsibilities for Data Quality

B. A business case for data improvement

C. An enterprise data model

D. Detailed technical specifications for data transfer

E. A breakdown of the costs of Data Quality improvement

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 724

Question: An enterprise organization chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting
line. This is an example of a

A. compound taxonomy

B. flat taxonomy

C. hierarchical taxonomy

D. hybrid taxonomy

E. ecological taxonomy

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 725

Question: The 'x' in the information engineering subtype discriminator symbol means

A. Exhaustive

B. Inclusion

C. Expanded

D. Exclusive

E. Exchange

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 726

Question: The biggest challenge to implementing Master Data Management will be

A. The inability to get the DBAs to provide their table structures

B. Defining requirements for master data within an organization

C. Indexes and foreign keys

D. Complex queries

E. The disparity between sources

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 727

Question: The DMBoK identifies which of the following as common stages in the lifecycle of
the information asset

A. Plan, Obtain, Store/Share, Maintain, Apply, Dispose

B. Get, Store, Fix, Use, Purge

C. Acquire, Integrate, Apply, Share, Dump

D. Plan, Specify, Enable, Create and Acquire, Maintain & Use, Archive & Retrieve, Purge

E. Build/Buy, Mix/Merge, Apply, Delete

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 728

Question: Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:

A. Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data

B. Person data, location data, and product data

C. Fine data, coarse data, and rough data

D. Historical data, current data, and future dated data

E. Data element value, data instance or record, and data set

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

Question Number: 729

Question: Which is the best definition of a Data Warehouse?

A. Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery of Business Intelligence

B. An explanation of how data is linked to physical products in a warehouse

C. A data system based on incremental updates from Operational Systems

D. A data system in which data is stored in normal form

E. Any data store that can be accessed by business users and data analysts

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 384

Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 730

Question: The process of translating plain text into complex codes to hide privileged
information is

A. encryption

B. encapsulation

C. exaggeration

D. elimination

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 731

Question: What statement is most accurate about master data metadata?

A. Can either be related to technical or business perspective of content, but not both

B. Secures the content

C. Provides the who, what, and where context about master data content

D. Does little to improve fit0for-purpose choices on when and where to apply the data

E. Includes a sample of content

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 732

Question: What is NOT an example of an external outgoing data interchange?

A. Outgoing formatted dataset

B. Outgoing data extract

C. Response to external request

D. Purchased prebuilt data

E. Outgoing content or document

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 733

Question: When the DMBOK calls Data Quality Management a program, not a project, it means

A. Data Quality is more tightly scoped and planned than ordinary projects

B. Data Quality practices can stop at the end of the project

C. Data Quality managers can be paid more that project managers

D. Data quality management is really expensive

E. Data Quality has both project and maintenance work along with communications and
training

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 734

Question: What is one of the benefits of Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)?

A. Enables application independence and the ability to replace systems with significant
changes to interfacing systems

B. Provides an optimized user experience for the data consumer

C. Is the fastest way to develop a new interface

D. Provides oversight and control to the integration development lifecycle

E. Allows access to the underlying data structures

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 735

Question: Taxonomy refers to

A. Any classification or controlled vocabulary

B. Classification of organizational resources

C. Arrangement of controlled vocabulary

D. Constrained set of organizational vocabulary

E. Categorization of controlled phrases

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 312

Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 736

Question: True or False: Causes of poor Database Management include memory allocation
errors, poor SQL coding, and database volatility

A. TRUE

B. False.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 737

Question: A type of Master data architecture

A. Hybrid

B. Registry

C. Virtualised

D. Repository

E. All of the above

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 738

Question: Data Architecture compliance rate measures

A. How fast the database can retrieve data

B. How closely projects comply with an established Data Architecture

C. How complete an attribute list is in an entity

D. How closely projects are meeting their timelines

E. How closely projects comply with the development lifecycle

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 739

Question: Creation and maintenance of metadata should include

A. Identifying and classifying sensitive data assets, locating sensitive data throughout the
enterprise, and determining how each asset needs to be protected

B. Summarizing and optimizing last and promoting transparency and self-service

C. Holding process owners accountable for the quality, setting and enforcing audit standards,
quality monitoring and creating feedback mechanism for consumers

D. Identifying rich data sources, aligning information and analysis, and presenting the findings
and data insights

E. The impact on people, potential for misuse, and the economic value of data

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 740

Question: What is a hash?

A. An algorithm that converts encoded values into data (or vise versa)
B. A public key that is freely available and used to encode data along with a receiver's private
key

C. A clearing house for encrypted data

D. A method for masking sensitive data

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 227

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 741

Question: Whose responsibility should it be to identify and report occurrences of defects in
information and data?

A. The information quality team

B. any employee

C. The IT department

D. Regulatory compliance officers

E. Customers

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 742

Question: Which of the following is true of a recursive relationship?

A. It is unary

B. It is also referred to as self-referencing

C. It involves only one entity

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 131

Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 743

Question: The addition of workflow to a Content Management System (CMS) will do which of
the following

A. Enforce the controlled review and approval of database designs

B. Allow the approval of system access requests

C. Restructure an enterprise glossary

D. Enable the controlled review and approval of dcouments

E. Implement a data warehouse landing zone

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 744

Question: The stakeholder requirements for privacy and confidentiality are goals found in

A. Data Security

B. Data Architecture

C. Data Quality

D. Metadata Management

E. Document and Content Management

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 745

Question: What is manual directed Data Quality correction?

A. The automation of all data cleanse and correction routines

B. The use of automated cleanse and correction tools with results manually checked before
committing outputs

C. The use of spreadsheets to manually inspect and correct data

D. Teams of data creators supervised by data subject matter experts

E. Using a Data Quality improvement manual to guide data cleanse and correction activities

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 746

Question: Ontology asks ___ while metaphysics ask ____

A. What/How

B. Why/How

C. How/Why

D. How/What

E. What/Who

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 747

Question: Which of the following should staff do to guarantee optimum database performance
of database operations?

A. Reduce the number of rows in the tables

B. Discuss the amount of time a user can wait on a screen

C. Discuss performance requirements with the data architects

D. Decide what type of storage will be acquired

E. Revoke the access rights of heavy users

Correct: C

DMBOK Section: No reference. Strange question

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 748

Question: What is the purpose of ISO 8000?

A. Enable the exchange of complex information in an application-neutral form

B. Create, collect, store, maintain, transfer, process, and present metadata

C. Promote timely and cost-effective data integration

D. Report on potential data security risk

E. Ensure that data can only be used or read using a specific licensed software application

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 435

Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 749

Question: Which of the following statements regarding a value domain is FALSE?

A. A value domain is a set of allowed values for a given code set

B. Value domains are defined by external standard organizations

C. More than one set of reference data value domains may refer to the same conceptual domain

D. Conforming value domains across the organization facilitates Data Quality

E.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 750

Question: Which one of these is a key process in defining Data Quality business rules?

A. De-duplicating data records

B. Producing Data Management policies

C. Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does

D. Matching data from different data sources

E. Producing Data Quality reports and dashboards

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 751

Question: Which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Quality?

A. Develop a governed approach to make data fit for purpose

B. Define standards, requirements, and specifications for Data Quality Controls

C. Implement process to measure, monitor, and report on Data Quality

D. Advocate for opportunities to improve the quality of data

E. The delivery of a Data Quality Strategy and framework

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 452

Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 752

Question: The ability of a photo app to share images with various social media applications, is
an example of

A. Interoperability

B. Integration

C. Replication

D. Metadata

E. Rendering

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 753

Question: Reference data _____

A. Is also known as external data

B. Usually has more attributes than master data

C. Is more difficult to govern than master data

D. Usually has fewer attributes than master data

E. Is free

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 754

Question: A bank applies the business rule that each Customer may own one or many
Accounts and each Account must be owned by one or many Customers. Which relationship
type would be most appropriate

A. many-to-many

B. one-to-many

C. many-to-one

D. one-to-one

E. recursive

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Architecture

Question Number: 755

Question: The ability of an organization to respond to changes in product configuration is
easier due to generalization in the ____?

A. Data Architecture

B. Business Architecture

C. Data Warehousing

D. Data Quality

E. Technical Architecture

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 756

Question: Examples of data model components

A. Files, Folders, Links

B. CPU, GPU, RAM, ROM

C. Monitor, Keyboard, Mouse, Disk

D. Iteration, Decision, Input, Output

E. Keys, Relationships, Attributes, Entities, Facts

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 757

Question: Which of these is a valid definition of master data?

A. Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail

B. Data that is only held in one data source

C. Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath

D. Data that rarely, if ever, changes

E. Data about business entities that provide context for business transactions

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 758

Question: What process directly involves assessing the impact of proposed changes to existing
data product entries?

A. Data Governance

B. Metadata

C. Master data

D. Reference Data

E. Data Architecture

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 427

Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 759

Question: A dataset comprised of county-level statistics provided by the national government
would be an example of

A. Reference Data

B. Master Data

C. Historical Data

D. Metadata

E. Transactional Data

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 354

Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 760

Question: What is essential to the successful integration of data?

A. Understanding data content and structure

B. Understanding the organizations business objectives

C. Performing Data Discovery

D. Collecting Business rules

E. Designing user presentation

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 761

Question: Mapping requirements and rules for moving data from source to target enables

A. Load

B. Extract

C. Transformation

D. Analysis

E. Backups

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 275

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 762

Question: What is the definition of a root cause of a problem?

A. The part of the problem that is invisible to the naked eye

B. A factor, that if eliminated, removes the problem itself

C. A multi-factor influencer

D. An incomplete requirement's statement

E. The most obvious aspect of the problem

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 763

Question: A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from
usage logs. The security mechanism being used is an

A. Access

B. Audit

C. Authorization

D. Authentication

E. Entitlement

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 764

Question: Which of the following is a goal of data discovery?

A. Understanding the organization's business objectives

B. Assessing the quality of data

C. Having well-defined interaction between self-contained software modules

D. Identifying potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort

E. Making data available in the format and timeframe needed by data consumers, both human
and system

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 765

Question: In the Data Management Practices Hierarchy, advanced data practices include the
following except:

A. Analytics

B. Mining

C. Big Data

D. Warehousing

E. Data Quality

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 25
Knowledge Area: Reference & Master Data

Question Number: 766

Question: Reference Data Management includes defining relationships within and across
domain value lists

A. TRUE

B. False.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Management

Question Number: 767

Question: According to the DAMA DMBoK, what parts of the Data Lifecycle are integral parts of
the SDLC

A. Plan, Specify, Enable

B. Plan, Create & Acquire, Purge

C. Specify, Maintain & Use, Purge

D. Enable, Maintain & Use, Archive & Retrieve

E. Specify, Enable, Create & Acquire

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 768

Question: Three common interaction models for data integration are

A. point to point, hub and spoke, publish and subscribe

B. Point to point, wheel and spoke, public and share

C. point to point, harvest and seed, publish and subscribe

D. straight copy, curved copy, rondabout copy

E. record and pass, copy and send, read and write

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 769

Question: What is an alternate key?

A. A key is a relational database that is unique for each record and used as the primary
identifier for that record

B. A sequentially generated unique number is attached with each record

C. A candidate key not selected to be the primary key

D. A key in a relational database that links records to other tables

E. Another term for a surrogate key

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Integration & Interoperability

Question Number: 770

Question: Which is the best use case to use point-to-point interfaces?

A. To track changes made to a dataset over time

B. To create historical snapshots of data

C. To lower the complexity of integrating a large number of applications together

D. To encourage reuse of integration artifacts

E. Integrating two systems with data only needed by those systems

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 771

Question: Which of the following is the best example of the Data Quality dimension of
consistency?

A. The source data for the end of month report arrived one week late

B. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse

C. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out

D. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries

E. The phone numbers in the customer fle do not adhere to the standard format

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 457

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 772

Question: What is the purpose of referential integrity?

A. Rules that ensure data completeness

B. Rules that ensure data validity

C. Rules that ensure data accuracy

D. Rules that ensure data is fit for organizational needs

E. Rules that ensure data accessibility

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 468

Knowledge Area: Data Quality

Question Number: 773

Question: The sequence for the Shewhart - Deming improvement cycle in DMBoK is

A. Design, Build, Test, Deploy

B. Plan, Document, Implement, Audit

C. Plan, do, check, act

D. Vision, Creation, Evaluation, Optimization

E. Plan, Act, Design, Comply

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 774

Question: An employee may work for one other employee and may manage one or more
employees. There is an indeterminate number of levels in this management hierarchy. What
type of relationship would work best?

A. recursive

B. one-to-one

C. subtyping

D. identifying

E. non-identifying

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Big Data and Data Science

Question Number: 775

Question: Sentiment analysis of call centre voice files is performed by text analysis and stored
in a relational database. Which of the following is true?

A. The voice files are structured data and the sentiment analysis is unstructured data

B. They are both unstructured data

C. The voice files are unstructured data and the sentiment analysis is structured data

D. They are both structured data

E. Structured and unstructured data are the same things

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 776

Question: The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent to an
authentication app is called

A. 3-factor

B. 2-factor

C. biometric authentication

D. proactive authentication

E.

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Modeling and Design

Question Number: 777

Question: The most common term for "entity" in the physical level of a model is

A. Index

B. Primary Key

C. Table

D. Diagram

E. Database

Correct: C

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Storage and Operations

Question Number: 778

Question: In computer programming, data types can be divided into two categories. What are
they?

A. Value types and reference types

B. Coded types and value types

C. Technical types and reference types

D. Structured types and reference types

E. Metadata types and reference types

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Document and Content Management

Question Number: 779

Question: Which is the best example of a Taxonomy?

A. Customer status codes

B. Customer master records

C. ISO3166

D. Well completion codes

E. The Dewey Decimal System for libraries

Correct: E

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Data Security

Question Number: 780

Question: Information security begins by classifying an organization's data in order to

A. Identify which subject area the data belongs to

B. Identify which systems need better supporting

C. Ientiy which departments need more data

D. Identify which data needs protection

E. Identify the metadata classification values

Correct: D

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area: Metadata

Question Number: 781

Question: Which international initiative established a Metadata Standard?

A. BASEL I

B. BASEL II

C. BASEL III

D. BASEL IV

E. BASEL V

Correct: B

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page: 87
Knowledge Area:

Question Number:
Question: ID numbers on the Employee table need to be checked that they have the right
number of digits. What DQ Dimension is this?

A. Consistency

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:

Knowledge Area:

Question Number:
Question: You need to change the structure of a database table. Which metadata would you
consult to identify the impact of this change?

A. Data Lineage

B.
C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Question Number:

Question: Which Data Warehousing thought leader uses a normalised, relational data model to
store data?

A. Bill Inmon

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

Knowledge Area:

Question Number:

Question: What type of analysis does business intelligence support?

A. Operations Analysis and Q&A

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

Question Number:

Question: Service or product descriptions will form part of what type of Master Data?

A. Product

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:
Question Number:

Question: what is the most basic level of Normalisation?

A. 1NF

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A
Knowledge Area:

Question Number:

Question: What is the basic goal of Normalisation?

A. To keep each data element in only one place

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Knowledge Area:

Question Number:
Question: Regulatory complance is often the initial reason for implementing data governance.
What is data governance's role when faced with data-related regulations?

A. Guides the implementation of adequate controls to monitor and document compliance.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:

Knowledge Area:

Question Number:

Question: Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?

A. Installing a new application package

B.

C.
D.

E.

Correct: A

DMBOK Section:

DMBOK Page:
Question: What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge
and information about systems?
A. Unstructured Meta-Data
B. Process Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Technical Operational Meta-Data
E. Data Stewardship Meta-Data

The Answer : D

Question: Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is

A. a strong release management process
B. the assurance to include velocity, variety and veracity measurement
C. a strong incident management process.
D. a strong capacity management process.
E. an agile development team

Correct: A

Question: In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:

A. An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines.
B. either an Inmon or Kimball approach.
C. any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes.
D. data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas.
E. all the data in the enterprise.

Correct: C

Question: A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes
from Operational systems is called

A. ELT
B. CDC
C. EII
D. ETL
E. SOA

Correct: B
Question: Which of the following is not a good example of BI?
A. Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body
B. Strategic Analytics for Business Decisions
C. Decision Support Systems
D. Supporting Risk Management Decision Reporting

Correct: A

Question : Non value-added information is often not removed because

A. Data is an asset. It is likely to be recognized as valuable in the future

B. It should not be removed. All data is value-added
C. Legislation is unclear on what should be kept
D. We might need the information at a later stage
E. The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so there
is no cost driver, and it takes more effort to dispose than to keep

Correct: E

Question: Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document and record
management?
A. "Spreadsheets, company library books, sales transactions"
B. "Relational databases, database logs, paper documents"
C. "Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and procedures,
contracts and financial documents"
D. "Data from tracking devices, building sensor data"
E. "Local drives of laptops, transcripts of phone calls"

Correct: C

Question: A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient
retrieval and use of:
A. data and information in unstructured formats.
B. data and information in relational formats.
C. data and information in structured formats.
D. "data, but not information in unstructured formats."
E. "information, but not data in unstructured formats."

Correct: A
Question: Documents and records should be classified based on the __________ level of
confidentiality for information found in the record

A. Highest
B. Overall
C. General
D. Average

Correct: A

Question: A document management system is an application used to track and store electronic
documents and electronic images of paper documents which provides the following
capabilities:
A. Local disk storage and indexing of documents
B. "Wiki, collaboration, online editing"
C. Scanning and transcoding of documents
D. "Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval "
E. "Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of
documents"

Correct: D

Question : What Organization Structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
A. PMO
B. IT Leadership Team
C. Data Governance Office
D. Data Governance Steering Committee
E. Data Quality Board

Correct: D
Question: When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted, Data
Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying the data and information components
for compliance. What do you see as their most important role in any regulatory compliance
project?
A. Take no part in any project at all, declaring it an audit and risk project
B. "Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a standard
set of regulatory compliance questions (How, Why, When, etc)"
C. Create a DG in-house project with a team of data stewards to create a standard response
D. Provide access to any possible data set to the compliance team and allow them to mine
the data for non-compliance
E. Work in isolation and mine the data and information for compliance and non-
compliance issues

Correct: B

Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance??

A. DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets
B. DG is a continuous process of data improvement
C. IT is a key stakeholder in DG
D. A DG initiative should always be led by the IT department
E. There are different organization models for DG

Correct: D

According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Steering Committee (DGSC) is the highest
authority organization for data governance in an organization. Who should typically chair this
group?

A. The chair should rotate across the Data Owners

B. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
C. Chief Data Steward (Business) / Chief Data Officer
D. The Chief Data Architect
E. Any Executive / C-level participant in the DGC

Correct: C
Question: A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned in
a data warehouse structure to provide transactional systems with a combination of historical
and near real time data to meet customer needs. This is a definition of:
A. Active Data Warehousing
B. Operational Data Store
C. On Line Transactional Processing System
D. On Line Analytical Processing Cube
E. Behavioural Decision Support Systems
Correct: A

Question: Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert
because:

A. It gets everyone involved.

B. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work
C. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured.
D. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data
E. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data

Correct: D

Question: Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle that drives
the data quality improvement lifecycle:
A. Act
B. Plan
C. Investigate
D. Check
E. Do
Correct: C

Question: What is Manual Directed Data Quality Correction?

 A. The use of automated cleanse & correction tools with results manually checked before
committing outputs
B. The automation of all data cleanse and correction routines
C. Teams of data correctors supervised by data subject matter experts
D. Using a data quality improvement manual to guide data cleanse and correction activities
E. The use of spreadsheets to manually inspect and correct data
Correct: A

Question: Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?

A. Developing & maintaining data quality

B. Setting data quality improvement priorities
C. Data profiling & analysis
D. Establishing communications & feedback mechanisms
E. Producing certification & compliance policies
Correct: C

Question: Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of
'consistency':
A. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries
B. The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late
C. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out
D. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
E. The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format.
Correct: D

Question: A CRUD matrix helps organisations map responsibilities for data changes in the
business process work flow. CRUD stands for
A. Create, Read, Update, Delete
B. Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy
C. Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate
D. Create, React, Utilise, Delegate
E. Create, Review, Use, Destroy

Question: Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic
goals should a Data Security Management system address?
A. None of these
 B. Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS
C. Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and
Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
D. Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing
E. Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA
Answer: C

Question: Definition of Data Security Policies should be . .

A. A collaborative effort between Business and IT
B. Conducted by external consultants
C. Determined by external Regulators
D. Based on defined standards and templates
E. Reviewed by external Regulators

Answer: A

Question: Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?

A. The planning, implementation, and testing of security technologies, authentication
mechanisms, and other controls to prevent access to information
B. The implementation and execution of checkpoints, checklists, controls, and technical
mechanisms to govern the access to information in an enterprise
C. The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to
provide proper authentication, authorization, access, and auditing of data and
information assets
D. The definition of controls, technical standards, frameworks, and audit trail capabilities
to identify who has or has had access to information
E. None of these

Answer: C

Question: Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management

include
A. All of these
B. The Internal Audit and Risk committees of the organization
C. Media analysts, Internal Risk Management, Suppliers, or Regulators
D. External Standards organizations, Regulators, or the Media
E. Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners
Answer: E

Question: Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model

A. Primary key
 B. Alternate key
C. Foreign key
D. Local key
E. Surrogate key

Answer: D

Question: All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except:
A. A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated
with many instances of the other entity, and vice versa.
B. A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child
entity
C. A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent
entities.
D. A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child
entities.
E. A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same
entity.

Answer: C

Question: In the conceptual data model an instantiation of a particular business entity is

described as:
A. Entity occurrence
B. Rule
C. Dataset
D. Row
E. Record

Answer: A

Question: In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures
A. Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure
B. Measures are found in Fact tables
C. Measures should be numeric and additive
D. Measures can always be added across all dimensions
E. Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure
Question: What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
A. Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can
participate in a relationship between two entities and cardinality rules ensure valid
values
B. Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a
relationship between two entities and referential integrity rules ensure valid values
C. Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities and
cardinality rules quantify the common attributes across entities
D. There is no difference. Cardinality rules and Referential integrity rules are synonyms.

Answer: B

Question: common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is:
A. It will consolidate the process of securing third party code sets
B. It will improve data quality and facilitate analysis across the organization
C. It can be a one-time-only project
D. It fosters the creative use of data
E. Managing codes and descriptions requires little effort and low cost

Answer : B

Question: Reference data

A. Have limited value
B. Have obvious definitions
C. Are used to categorize and classify other data
D. Are always supplied by outside vendors
E. When incorrect has a greater impact than errors in Master & Transaction data

Answer: C

Which of these is a valid definition of Master Data?

A. Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail
B. Data about the business entities that provide context for business transactions
C. Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath
D. Data that rarely, if ever, changes
E. Data that is only held in one data source

Answer: B

Question: Reference Data

 A. Is more difficult to Govern than Master Data
B. Is free
C. Is also known as External data
D. Usually has more attributes than Master Data
E. Usually has fewer attributes than Master Data

Answer: E

Question: Master data differs from Reference data in the following way:
A. Master data is stipulated and controlled by Data Governance where Reference data is
not
B. Master data do not require business definitions
C. Master data does not require a data steward
D. Master data should be held to a higher data quality standard than Reference data
E. Unlike Reference data, Master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values

Answer: E

Question 2

Master Data Management:

Is synonymous with Reference Data Management

Ensures coded values are always used

Controls the definition of business entities

Is time-consuming with questionable impact on data quality

Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the

mappings between common data in a central location

Question 3 0 / 1 point

What is a common motivation for Reference & Master Data Management?

The need to improve data quality and data integrity across multiple data
sources

Business Intelligence & Data Warehousing

Regulatory acts such as BCBS239, GDPR and SOX

The need to consolidate all data into one physical database

 The need to build a Data Dictionary of all core data entities & attributes

Question 4 0 / 1 point

Which one of the following statements is true?

Managing reference data requires the same activities and techniques as does
managing master data.

Business data stewards maintain lists of valid data values for master data
instances.

Reference Data Management involves identifying the "best" or "golden"

record for each domain.

Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting or merging an

instance of a business entity.

Master Data Management involves identifying and maintaining approved

coded values

Question 7 0 / 1 point

Metadata repository processes will not include:

Controlling versions of data product will be required to manage the

required single published master copy in conjunction with the variants
potentially established as work in progress.

Assessing impact where change to existing data product entries are

proposed e.g. the impact of change on related data on other systems.

All of these

"Managing change to data products (e.g. Data Dictionary or Business Data

Glossary) entries e.g. new data term to be defined, new data requirement,
new database tables added, new system included into the technical
landscape."

"Selecting Data Management Library software, search, and storage

technologies"

Question 16 0 / 1 point

One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:

operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain

historical data.
 operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available
during business hours.

operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on

business strategies.

operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain

current data.

operational systems focus on data quality; data warehouses focus on data

security.

Question 18 0 / 1 point

Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The DMBoK
knowledge area that practices these techniques is:

Data Architecture

Data Storage and Operations

Reference and Master Data

Document & Content Management

Metadata Management

Question 25 0 / 1 point

Dimension tables

Have many columns but few rows

Are the same as Facts

Contain measures

Have few columns but many rows

Do not contain hierarchies

Question 31 0 / 1 point

A CRUD matrix helps organisations map responsibilities for data changes in the business
process work flow. CRUD stands for

Create, Review, Use, Destroy

Create, Read, Update, Delete

 Create, React, Utilise, Delegate

Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy

Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate

Question 32 0 / 1 point

What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information Security policy?

The Data Governance Council should draft early versions of the Data Security Policy

The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security
Policy

The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security

The Data Governance Council should define the Data Security Policy

The Data Governance Council should implement the Data Security Policy
Data Quality Dimensions:

1- Uniqueness measures the degree to which the records in a dataset are not duplicated.

Ex: All records must have a unique CustomerID and CustomerName.

2- Validity measures the degree to which the values in a data element are valid.

Ex: > CustomerBirthDate value must be a date in the past.

> CustomerAccountType value must be either Loan or Deposit

> LatestAccountOpenDate value must be a date in the past.

3- Completeness measures the degree to which all expected records in a dataset are present. At a data element level,
completeness is the degree to which all records have data populated when expected. {not missing}

Ex: All records must have a value populated in the CustomerName field.
4- Timeliness is the degree to which a dataset is available when expected and depends on service level agreements being
set up between technical and business resources.

Ex: All records in the customer dataset must be loaded by the 9:00 am.
5- Consistency is a data quality dimension that measures the degree to which data is the same across all instances of the
data. Consistency can be measured by setting a threshold for how much difference there can be between two datasets.

Ex: The count of records loaded today must be within +/- 5% of the count of records loaded yesterday.

6- Accuracy measures the degree to which data is correct and represents the truth.
Ex: All records in the Customer Table must have accurate Customer Name, Customer Birthdate, and Customer Address
fields when compared to the Tax Form.
 7- Reasonability: Reasonability asks whether a data pattern meets expectations. For example, whether a distribution of
sales across a geographic area makes sense based on what is known about the customers in that area
e.g., sales from the previous quarter

Question 1 0 / 1 point

Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on the value of Data Governance in the organization?

The Data Governance Council

Data Champions

Everyone in the Data Management Community

Data Owners & Stewards

The Data Governance Office

Question: Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of Data Quality improvement tools?

A. Data profiling

B. Parsing
C. Data Modeling

D. Transformation

E. Standardization

Correct: C
 3- What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
A A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their organization's data assets
B Analyzing Data Quality
C The manager responsible for writing policies and standards that define the Data Management program for an organization
D Identifying data problems and issues
E The data analyst who is the subject matter expert (SME) on a set of reference data.
The Correct A

2 - A document management system is an application used to track and store electronic documents and electronic images of paper documents which
provides the following capabilities:
A Scanning and transcoding of documents
B Local disk storage and indexing of documents
C Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
D Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of documents
E Wiki, collaboration, online editing.
The Correct C
5 - Documents and records should be classified based on the _______ level of confidentiality for information found in the record.
A Average
B Overall
C Highest
D General.
E Consensus
The Correct C
13- In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance activity Define the Data Governance Framework is in which Lifecycle
stage?
A Specify
B Enable
C Create and acquire
D Plan
E Maintain and use.
The Correct D

Question: Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?

A. DG is a continuous process of data improvement

B. IT is a key stakeholder in DG

C. A DG initiative should always be led by the IT Department

D. There are different organization models for DG

E. DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets.

Correct: C

Question 8

"When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should one consider doing?"
 Write a report and discuss with management the required budget

"Have the contracts in place to acquire new hardware in case of technical problems, define policies"

"Make sure that the data is retained sufficiently long, check that critical data is encrypted, check access
rights"

"Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery time and
acceptable amount of disruption, the criticality of the documents"

"Determine the risk, probability and impact, check document backup frequency"

Question 9 0 / 1 point

"In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for:"

Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles

Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes

G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles

Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles

Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices

Question 10 0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?

Capture records and content.

Manage retention and disposal.

Manage versions and control.

Create a content strategy.

Audit documents and records.

Question 11 0 / 1 point

Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert because:

It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data.

It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data.

Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured.

It gets everyone involved.

It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work.

Question 12 0 / 1 point
A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which of these?

A Business Case for data improvement

An enterprise data model

A breakdown of the costs of data quality improvement

Respective roles & responsibilities for data quality

Detailed technical specifications for data transfer

Question 14

A data quality program should limit its scope to:

the data most critical to the enterprise and its customers.

the highest profile program with the best benefits.

the data that changes most often.

all the data stored in the enterprise.

 the data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer.

Question 15: data quality Dimension is

a) A measure feature or characteristic of data 0/1

point

Question 16

A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes from Operational systems is called

EII

ELT

SOA

ETL

CDC

Question 17 0 / 1 point

In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:

either an Inmon or Kimball approach.

 any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes.

data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas.

all the data in the enterprise.

An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines.

Question 18 0 / 1 point

Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?

ODS

OLAP

EDI

EIEIO

OLTP

Question 19 0 / 1 point

Which approach is considered most effective when supporting multi-dimensional business report requests?

EDI
 BI

OLAP

OLTP

ODS

Question 20 0 / 1 point

You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an exploratory fashion when you do not necessarily
have a specific question to ask. What kind of data tool would you use to identify patterns of data using various algorithms?

Meta-Data Data Lineage View

Data Mining

ETL Jobs

Data Quality Profiler

Data Visualisation Application

Question 22 0 / 1 point

What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
 Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between two
entities and cardinality rules ensure valid values.

Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between two entities and
referential integrity rules ensure valid values.

Referential integrity rules only appear on a relational data model and cardinality rules only appear on a dimensional data
model.

Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities and cardinality rules quantify the
common attributes across entities.

There is no difference. Cardinality rules and Referential integrity rules are synonyms.

9- In a non-identifying relationship
A The primary key of the child entity is concatenated
B The foreign key of the parent entity migrates to the child entity
C The primary key of the parent entity becomes part of the primary key of the child entity
D The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity
E The primary key of the child entity is removed.
The Correct D

0 / 1 point
Question 24

In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures

 Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure

Measures are found in Fact tables

Measures can always be added across all dimensions

Measures should be numeric and additive

Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure

Question 25 0 / 1 point

All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except:

A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated with many instances of
the other entity, and vice versa.

A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities.

A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child entity.

A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same entity.

A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child entities.

Question 26 0 / 1 point

Plant Equipment is an example of

 None of these

Reference Data

Master Data

Transaction Data

Inverted Data

Question 27 0 / 1 point

According to the DMBoK, the system that contains the best version of the Master Data is the

Consuming system

Golden record

Spoke

Source system

System of record

Question 28 0 / 1 point
Which of these is a valid definition of Master Data?
 Data about the business entities that provide context for business transactions

Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath

Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail

Data that rarely, if ever, changes

Data that is only held in one data source

Question 29 0 / 1 point

Which of these is a valid definition of Reference Data?

Data that provides metadata about other data entities

Data that is fixed and never changes

Data that has a common and widely understood data definition

Data that is widely accessed and referenced across an organisation

Data used to classify or categorize other data

Question 30 0 / 1 point

Reference data
 Are always supplied by outside vendors

When incorrect has a greater impact than errors in Master & Transaction data

Have limited value

Are used to categorize and classify other data

Have obvious definitions

Question 31 0 / 1 point

When outsourcing information management functions, organisations can ..

Transfer accountability but not control

Reduce cost of compliance and improve turnaround

Transfer control but not accountability

Align strategy and control privacy

Improve controls while reducing costs

Question 32 0 / 1 point

Definition of Data Security Policies should be . . .

 Conducted by external consultants

A collaborative effort between Business and IT

Reviewed by external Regulators

Based on defined standards and templates

Determined by external Regulators

Question 33 0 / 1 point

Which of the following define the data security touch points in an organisation?

Business rules and process workflow

Internal Audit

Legislation

Risk Assessment

Industry standards

Question 34 0 / 1 point
Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic goals should a Data Security Management
system address?

Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS

 Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality needs of all
stakeholders

Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA

None of these

Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing

Question 35 0 / 1 point

Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?

The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the right way, and that all
inappropriate access and update is restricted

The procedures defined are benchmarked, supported by technology, framework based, and peer reviewed

The policies are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and technology aligned

None of these

The defined procedures are tightly defined, with rigid and effective enforcement sanctions, and alignment
with technology capabilities

Question 36 0 / 1 point

Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?

Descriptive Meta-Data
 Business Meta-Data

Administrative Meta-Data

Preservation Meta-Data

Structural Meta-Data

Question 37 0 / 1 point

The number of artefacts that must be searched in the Metadata repository for all Business change projects are

"Conceptual, Logical and Physical models must be examined"

The Business Data Glossary & Systems Inventory must be consulted

The Business Data Glossary & Data Dictionary must be examined

There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly recommended that the library is
examined

Conceptual data models and the Business Data Glossary must be examined

Question 38 0 / 1 point

Which of these statements are true of a Metadata repository?

It is always a hybrid architecture.

Data models are components of a Metadata repository.

 None of the these

It is always centralised.

It is always decentralised.

Done

10- Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations,

many of which regulate how data and information are used and managed. Part of the

Data Governance function is to:

A Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations
B Monitor and ensure that organizations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
C This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this
D Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the Data Governance Council on an information-only basis
E This is about data. Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with risk and audit reporting to Data
Governance.
The Correct B

Dama Practice Questions

Question 1
Which of these is NOT a standard motivation for Data Governance?
A. Pre-emptive governance
B. Reactive governance
C. Devolved governance
D. Proactive governance
E. Decentralised Governance

Question 2
Every enterprise is subject to many governmental and industry regulations, many of which regulate how data and information is used and
managed. Part of the Data Governance Function is to:
A. Perform ad-hoc audits of possible regulations to report to the DG Council on an information only basis
B. This is a risk and audit responsibility; Data Governance plays no role in this
C. Monitor and ensure that organisations meet any regulatory compliance requirements
D. Enforce enterprise-wide mandatory compliance to regulations
E. This is about data; Data Governance is accountable for the whole process, with Risk and Audit reporting to DG

Question 3
In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance Activity 'Define the Data Governance Framework' is considered in which
Lifecycle stage?
A. Enable
B. Plan
C. Specify
D. Maintain and Use
E. Create and Acquire

Question 4
How do data management professionals maintain commitment of key stakeholders to the data management initiative?
A. Weekly email reports showing metrics on data management progress/ lack thereof
B. It is not necessary, as the stakeholders signed up at the beginning of the program
C. Rely on the stakeholder group to be self-sustaining
D. Continuous communication education and promotion of the importance and value of of data and information assets
E. Find and deliver benefits to the stakeholders early in the initiative

Question 5
Which of these are NOT true of Data Governance?
A. There are different organization models for DG
B. DG is a continuous process of data improvement
C. IT is a key stakeholder in DG
D. DG is the exercise of authority and control over the management of data assets
E. A DG initiative should always be led by the IT department

Question 6
Documents and records should be classified based on the _______ level of confidentiality for information found in the record.
A. Overall
B. General
C. Average
D. Highest

Question 7
Which of these describes activities in the document/record management lifecycle?
A. Acquisition, editing, storage, printing, backup, disposal
B. Identification, management of policies, classification, retention, storage, retrieval and circulation, preservation and disposal
C. Storage, disposal, managing access
D. Acquisition, classification, storage, purging
E. Encryption, backup, disposal, extraction

Question 8
A document management system is an application used to track and store electronic documents and electronic images of paper documents
which provides the following capabilities:
A. Wiki, collaboration, online editing
B. Securing forwarding of documents to colleagues, never having to dispose of documents
C. Storage, versioning, security, meta-data management, indexing and retrieval
 D. Scanning and transcoding of documents
E. Local disk storage and indexing of documents

Question 9
A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient retrieval and use of:
A. Data and information in relational formats
B. Data and information in unstructured formats
C. Data and information in structured formats
D. Information, but not data in unstructured formats
E. Data, but not information in unstructured formats

Question 10
Non value-added information is often not removed because:
A. It should not be removed. All data is value-added
B. Data is an asset. It is likely to be recognized as valuable in the future
C. The policies are unclear of what is defined as non-value-added, storage is cheap so there is no cost driver, and it takes more effort to
dispose than to keep
D. We might need the information at a later stage
E. Legislation is unclear on what should be kept

Question 11
All of the following are TRUE statements on relationship types except:
A. A recursive relationship relates instances of an entity to other instances of the same entity
B. A one-to-one relationship says that a parent entity may have one and only one child entity
C. A one-to-many relationship says that a parent entity may have one or more child entities
D. A many-to-many relationship says that an instance of each entity may be associated with many instances of the other entity, and vice
versa
E. A one-to-many relationship says that a child entity may have one or more parent entities

Question 12
What are relationship labels?
A. The nullability setting on a foreign key
 B. A foreign key that has been role-named
C. The verb phrases describing the business rules in each direction between two entities
D. A non-identifying relationship
E. A relationship without cardinality

Question 13
In Dimensional data models, which of these is NOT true regarding Measures?
A. Measures can always be added across all dimensions
B. Care must be taken if a measure is a snapshot figure
C. Measures should be numeric and additive
D. Just because a value is numerical does not mean it is a measure
E. Measures are found in Fact tables

Question 14
Dimension tables:
A. Have many columns but few rows
B. Are the same as Facts
C. Have few columns but many rows
D. Contain measures
E. Do not contain hierarchies

Question 15
Identify who has primary responsibility for data capture and usage design within programs.
A. Suppliers, Consumers
B. Data Architects, Data Analysts,Database Administrators
C. DM Executive, BI Analysts, Data Security Administrator
D. Software Architects, Developers
E. Business Data Stewards, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)

Question 16
Which of the following is NOT usually a feature of data quality improvement tools?
A. Parsing
 B. Standardization
C. Data profiling
D. Data modelling
E. Transformation

Question 17
Which of these is a key process in defining data quality business rules?
A. Separating data that does not meet business needs from data that does
B. Producing data quality reports & dashboards
C. De-duplicating data records
D. Matching data from different data sources
E. Producing data management policies

Question 18
Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert because:
A. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work
B. It gets everyone involved
C. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured
D. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data
E. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data

Question 19
Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:
A. Fine data, coarse data, and rough data
B. Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
C. Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data
D. Person data, location data, and product data
E. Historical data, current data and future dated data

Question 20
The Data Quality Management cycle has four stages. Three are Plan, Monitor and Act. What is the fourth stage?
A. Manage
 B. Reiterate
C. Deploy
D. Prepare
E. Improve

Question 21
What is the role of the Data Governance Council in defining an Information Security policy?
A. The Data Governance Council should implement the Data Security Policy
B. The Data Governance Council should review and approve the high-level Data Security Policy
C. The Data Governance Council should draft early versions of the Data Security Policy
D. The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
E. The Data Governance Council should define the Data Security Policy

Question 22
Stakeholders whose concerns must be addressed in data security management include:
A. Media analysts, Internal Risk Management, Suppliers, or Regulators
B. The Internal Audit and Risk committees of the organisation
C. External Standards organisations, Regulators, or the Media
D. All of these
E. Clients, Patients, Citizens, Suppliers, or Business Partners

Question 23
How does Data Security contribute to competitive advantage?
A. Data Security makes it harder for your competitors to find out about who you do business with
B. Data Security helps to protect proprietary information and intellectual property, as well as customer and partner information
C. Governments do not allow organisations to trade if they do not manage Data Security
D. Data Security makes your competitors invest more effort into trying to find out your trade secrets
E. Data security stops organisations going out of business due to an information leak

Question 24
Which of these are increasingly driving legislation for information security and data privacy?
A. A desire for economic protectionism
 B. An objective of making life more challenging for information management professionals
C. A recognition of Ethical issues in information management
D. A resistance to open data and transparency
E. GDPR

Question 25
Definition of Data Security Policies should be:
A. Conducted by external consultants
B. Reviewed by external Regulators
C. Based on defined standards and templates
D. Determined by external Regulators
E. A collaborative effort between Business and IT

Question 26
In its broadest context, the data warehouse includes:
A. Data stores and extracts that can be transformed into star schemas
B. Either an Inmon or Kimball approach
C. Any data stores or extracts used to support the delivery for BI purposes
D. All the data in the enterprise
E. An integrated data store, ETL logic, and extensive data cleansing routines

Question 27
One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:
A. Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historical data
B. Operational systems focus on business processes; data warehouses focus on business strategies
C. Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available during business hours
D. Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain current data
E. Operational systems focus on data quality; data warehouses focus on data security

Question 28
A comparatively new architectural approach is where volatile data is provisioned in a data warehouse structure to provide transactional
systems with a combination of historical and near real time data to meet customer needs. This is a definition of:
 A. Active Data Warehousing
B. On Line Analytical Processing Cube
C. On Line Transactional Processing System
D. Behavioural Decision Support Systems
E. Operational Data Store

Question 29
Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is:
A. A strong capacity management process
B. An agile development team
C. The assurance to include velocity, variety and veracity measurement
D. A strong release management process
E. A strong incident management process

Question 30
A data lineage tool enables a user to:
A. Enables rapid development of dashboard reporting
B. Visualize how the data gets to the data lake
C. Track the data from source system to a target database; understanding its transformations
D. Line up the data to support sophisticated glossary management
E. Track the historical changes to a data value

Question 31
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Master Data Management involves identifying and maintaining approved coded values
B. Business data stewards maintain lists of valid data values for master data instances
C. Reference Data Management involves identifying the 'best' or 'golden' record for each domain
D. Master Data Management requires techniques for splitting or merging an instance of a business entity
E. Managing reference data requires the same activities and techniques as does managing master data

Question 32
What is a common motivation for Reference and Master Data Management?
 A. The need to build a Data Dictionary of all core data entities & attributes
B. Regulatory acts such as BCBS239, GDPR and SOX
C. The need to improve data quality and data integrity across multiple data sources
D. The need to consolidate all data into one physical database
E. Business Intelligence and Data Warehousing

Question 33
A common driver for initiating a Reference Data Management program is:
A. It can be a one-time-only project
B. It fosters the creative use of data
C. It will improve data quality and facilitate analysis across the organization
D. It will consolidate the process of securing third party code sets
E. Managing codes and descriptions requires little effort and low cost

Question 34
Master data differs from Reference data in the following way:
A. Master data is stipulated and controlled by Data Governance where Reference data is not
B. Unlike Reference data, Master data is not usually limited to predefined domain values
C. Master data should be held to a higher data quality standard than Reference data
D. Master data does not require a data steward
E. Master data does not require business definitions

Question 35
Plant Equipment is an example of:
A. Reference Data
B. None of these
C. Transaction Data
D. Inverted Data
E. Master Data

Question 36
What would you not expect to find in the MetaData repository?
 A. Data Dictionary
B. Data Models
C. Data Lineage diagrams and models
D. Data Requirements
E. Data storage devices

Question 37
The role of the Physical data model in the Metadata repository is:
A. How many master data records are stored in our MDM system
B. Which version of COTS software (E.g. SAP) is implemented
C. To describe how and where our data is stored in our systems applications or packages
D. When the duplicated records were merged
E. What the business definition of data concepts is

Question 38
Metadata repository processes will not include:
A. Managing change to data products (e.g. Data Dictionary or Business Data Glossary) entries e.g. new data term to be defined, new data
requirement, new database tables added, new system included into the technical landscape
B. Selecting Data Management Library software, search, and storage technologies
C. Assessing impact where change to existing data product entries are proposed e.g. the impact of change on related data on other systems
D. Controlling versions of data product will be required to manage the required single published master copy in conjunction with the variants
potentially established as work in progress
E. All of these

Question 39
Which of the following is a Meta-Data scheme focused specifically on documents?
A. Descriptive Meta-Data
B. Administrative Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Preservation Meta-Data
E. Structural Meta-Data
Question 40
To which of the following initiatives was the establishment of an industry Meta-Data Standard essential?
A. Internet Protocols
B. JSON
C. EDI
D. BASEL II/ SOX
E. Proprietary XML

Question 41
According to the DAMA DMBoK, the Data Governance Council (DGC) is the highest authority organization for data governance in an
organization. Who should typically chair this Council?
A. The Chief Data Architect
B. The chair should rotate across the Data Owners
C. Any Executive / C-level participant in the DGC
D. Chief Data Steward (Business) / Chief Data Officer
E. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Question 42
What are the primary responsibilities of a data steward?
A. Analyzing data quality
B. Identifying data problems and issues
C. The data analyst who is the subject matter expert (SME) on a set of reference data
D. A business role appointed to take responsibility for the quality and use of their organization's data assets
E. The manager responsible for writing policies and standards that define the data management program for an organization

Question 43
Which of these does NOT characterize an effective data steward?
A. Is a recognized subject matter expert in the data subject area / business domain that he or she is responsible for
B. Is a highly experienced technical expert in a variety of data management disciplines & tools
C. He / she works collaboratively across the organization with data stakeholders and others identifying data problems and issues
D. He / She is an effective communicator
 E. He / She works in association with the Data Owner to protect and enhance the data assets under his or her control

Question 44
Who is most responsible for communicating and promoting awareness on the value of Data Governance in the organization?
A. Data Owners and Stewards
B. The Data Governance Council
C. Everyone in the Data Management Community
D. Data Champions
E. The Data Governance Office

Question 45
An umbrella term for any classification or controlled vocabulary is:
A. English
B. Dictionary
C. Metadata
D. Data model
E. Taxonomy

Question 46
Which of these statements has the most meaningful relationship label?
A. An order is connected with order lines
B. An order is related to order lines
C. An order line contains orders
D. An order is composed of order lines
E. An order is associated with order lines

Question 47
In the conceptual data model an instantiation of a particular business entity is described as:
A. Rule
B. Record
C. Entity occurrence
D. Row
 E. Dataset

Question 48
Which of these is NOT a type of key found in a data model?
A. Local key
B. Foreign key
C. Primary key
D. Alternate key
E. Surrogate key

Question 49
A data quality program should limit its scope to:
A. The data that changes most often
B. The data most critical to the enterprise and its customers
C. The highest profile program with the best benefits
D. All the data stored in the enterprise
E. The data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer

Question 50
Apart from security requirements internal to the organisation, what other strategic goals should a Data Security Management system
address?
A. Regulatory requirements for privacy and confidentiality AND Privacy and Confidentiality needs of all stakeholders
B. None of these
C. Compliance with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS
D. Ensuring the organisation doesn't engage in SPAM marketing
E. Compliance with ISO27001 and HIPPA

Question 51
A RACI matrix is a useful tool to support the ______ in an outsourced arrangement.
A. Segregation of duties
B. Alignment of Business goals
C. Service level Agreement
 D. Transfer of access controls
E. Attributing Costs

Question 52
Which of these are characteristics of an effective data security policy?
A. The policies are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and technology aligned
B. The defined procedures are tightly defined, with rigid and effective enforcement sanctions, and alignment with technology capabilities
C. The procedures defined are benchmarked, supported by technology, framework based, and peer reviewed
D. None of these
E. The defined procedures ensure that the right people can use and update data in the right way, and that all inappropriate access and
update is restricted

Question 53
When performing an evaluation of analytic applications, which of the following questions is least relevant to identify the level of effort
needed?
A. The Standard source systems for which ETL is supplied
B. How much do the canned processes in the tool match our business
C. Number of source systems we need to integrate into the tool
D. Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc.
E. How much of the tool infrastructure meets our organisational infrastructure

Question 54
Slice, Dice, Roll-up and Pivot are terms used in what kind of data processing?
A. OLTP
B. EIEIO
C. EDI
D. OLAP
E. ODS

Question 55
You need to discover possible relationships or to show data patterns in an exploratory fashion when you do not necessarily have a specific
question to ask. What kind of data tool would you use to identify patterns of data using various algorithms?
 A. ETL Jobs
B. Data Mining
C. Meta-Data Data Lineage View
D. Data Quality Profiler
E. Data Visualisation Application

Question 56
Reference Data:
A. Usually has more attributes than Master Data
B. Is more difficult to Govern than Master Data
C. Usually has fewer attributes than Master Data
D. Is free
E. Is also known as External data

Question 57
Which of the following is NOT a primary Master Data Management area of focus?
A. Generating a golden record/best version of the truth
B. Producing read only versions of key data items
C. Producing clear data definitions for Master Data
D. Providing access to golden data records
E. Identifying duplicate records

Question 58
We do not expect to consult the MetaData repository when:
A. Investigating a data issue
B. None of the these
C. Assessing the impact of change
D. Updating the operating system that the Master Data management toolset is running on
E. Undertaking a data quality assessment

Question 59
The role of the Conceptual data model in the Metadata repository is:
 A. None of these
B. To determine the primary, alternate and foreign keys of entities
C. To summarize the key data subject areas for a business area at a high level of abstraction to enable the major data concepts to be
understood
D. All of these
E. To agree the cardinality and optionality of relationships between all entities

Question 60
We would expect to consult the Metadata Library when:
A. Implementing a Data Quality tool
B. Selecting a Data Storage device
C. Assessing the impact of change
D. Formulating a Goverance policy
E. Accessing the internet
Question 61
What Organization Structure should set the overall direction for Data Governance?
A. Data Governance Office
B. PMO
C. Data Governance Council
D. Data Quality Board
E. IT Leadership Team

Question 62
The needs of data protection require us to ensure that:
A. Data is encrypted at all times
B. Data is processed only in ways compatible with the intended and communicated use it was collected for, and respects the consent of the
data subject
C. Data can always be freely used in the company as it is a company asset
D. Data is frequently backed up so that it can be recovered in all cases
E. Data is secured with a password

Question 63
Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?
A. Documents and records are the same thing
B. Documents are written and records are audio
C. Documents are a sub-set of records
D. Documents and records are not related
E. Records are a sub-set of documents

Question 64
Components of logical data models include:
A. Attributes
B. Keys
C. All of the above
D. Relationships
E. Entities
Question 65
Which of the following statements about business rules is FALSE?
A. All business rules must be identified prior to the start of the data modelling process
B. Action rules are instructions on what to do when data elements contain certain values
C. Data rules constrain how data relates to other data
D. Data rules cannot be shown on a data model
E. Action rules are difficult to define in a data model

Question 66
Complete the following statement. A business rule:
A. Measures a business process
B. Identifies an entity instance
C. Defines an entity
D. Only exists at the level of the physical data model
E. Defines constraints on what can and cannot be done

Question 67
A Data Quality dimension is:
A. A measurable feature or characteristic of data
B. One aspect of data quality used extensively in data governance
C. The value of a particular piece of data
D. A valid value in a list
E. A core concept in dimensional modelling

Question 68
Which of these is NOT a typical activity in Data Quality Management?
A. Identifying data problems and issues
B. Analysing data quality
C. Defining business requirements and business rules
D. Creating inspection and monitoring processes
E. Enterprise Data Modelling
Question 69
When outsourcing information management functions, organisations can:
A. Align strategy and control privacy
B. Reduce cost of compliance and improve turnaround
C. Transfer control but not accountability
D. Transfer accountability but not control
E. Improve controls while reducing costs

Question 70
A CRUD matrix helps organisations map responsibilities for data changes in the business process work flow. CRUD stands for
A. Create, Read, Update, Delete
B. Cost, Revenue, Uplift, Depreciate
C. Create, Review, Use, Destroy
D. Confidential, Restricted, Unclassified, Destroy
E. Create, React, Utilise, Delegate

Question 71
Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The DMBoK knowledge area that practices these techniques is:
A. Document & Content Management
B. Reference and Master Data
C. Data Architecture
D. Data Storage and Operations
E. Metadata Management

Question 72
A Data Integration approach that updates a Data Warehouse with small changes from Operational systems is called:
A. SOA
B. ELT
C. EII
D. CDC
E. ETL
Question 73
According to the DMBoK, the system that contains the best version of the Master Data is the:
A. Consuming system
B. System of record
C. Golden record
D. Source system
E. Spoke

Question 74
Reference data:
A. Is always supplied by outside vendors
B. Is used to categorize and classify other data
C. Has obvious definitions
D. When incorrect has a greater impact than errors in Master and Transaction data
E. Has limited value

Question 78
The MetaData repository enables us to establish multiple perspectives of data. These are:
A. Structured and unstructured
B. Business and Technical Perspective
C. Internal and External
D. 3rd normal form and un normalised
E. Dimensional and non dimensional perspective

Question 79
A business perspective product in the MetaData repository is:
A. ETL flow
B. Physical Data Model
C. Data Dictionary
D. Systems Inventory
 E. Data Glossary

Question 80
The library of information about our data (our metadata) is built so that:
A. All of these
B. We can have a shared formalized view of requirements (e.g. what data quality we need)
C. We can better understand it
D. We can better manage it
E. We can be consistent in our use of terminology

Question 81
What is the difference between an Industry and a Consensus Meta-Data Standard?
A. Industry Standards refer to internationally approved global standards such as ISO whereas consensus standards refer to those agreed to
within an organisation
B. The terms are used interchangeably to describe the same concept
C. Consensus standards are formed by an international panel of experts whereas industry standards are dictated by a panel of vendors
D. Consensus standards are formed by government legislation whereas industry standards evolve from best practice
E. Industry standards are determined by regulators within a given global region and consensus standards are agreed on the Data
Governance Council within an organization
Question 82
When new governmental and industry regulations are formulated and enacted, Data Governance plays a key role in the process of identifying
the data and information components for compliance. What do you see as their most important role in any regulatory compliance project?
A. Provide access to any possible data set to the compliance team and allow them to mine the data for non-compliance
B. Take no part in any project at all, declaring it an audit and risk project
C. Create a DG 'in-house' project with a team of data stewards to create a standard response
D. Work in isolation and mine the data and information for compliance and non-compliance issues
E. Working with business and technical leadership to find the best answers to a standard set of regulatory compliance questions (How,
Why, When, etc)

Question 83
When defining your business continuity plan, which of the following should one consider doing?
A. Make sure that the data is retained sufficiently long, check that critical data is encrypted, check access rights
B. Write a report and discuss with management the required budget
C. Have the contracts in place to acquire new hardware in case of technical problems, define policies
D. Consider written policies and procedures, impact mitigating measures, required recovery time and acceptable amount of disruption, the
criticality of the documents
E. Determine the risk, probability and impact, check document backup frequency

Question 84
In a non-identifying relationship:
A. The primary key of the parent entity becomes a foreign key in the child entity
B. The primary key of the parent entity becomes part of the primary key of the child entity
C. The primary key of the child entity is removed
D. The primary key of the child entity is concatenated
E. The foreign key of the parent entity migrates to the child entity

Question 85
A Data Quality Service Level Agreement (SLA) would normally include which of these?
A. Respective roles & responsibilities for data quality
B. A breakdown of the costs of data quality improvement
C. Detailed technical specifications for data transfer
D. An enterprise data model
E. A Business Case for data improvement

Question 86
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle that drives the data quality improvement lifecycle?
A. Check
B. Do
C. Plan
D. Act
E. Investigate

Question 87
Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of 'consistency'?
A. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out
B. The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late
C. The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format
D. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
E. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries

Question 88
Which of the following is not a good example of BI?
A. Strategic Analytics for Business Decisions
B. Supporting Risk Management Decision Reporting
C. Statutory reporting to a Regulatory Body
D. Decision Support Systems

Question 89
A strong argument for pursuing a Reference Data and/or Master Data management initiative is:
A. By centralizing the management of Reference and Master data, the organization can conform critical data needed for analysis
B. It will not require a lot of time
C. Job security for the data people
D. They are essential functions in the data management framework
 E. It will not require a lot of effort

Question 90
Which of these is a valid definition of Reference Data?
A. Data that is fixed and never changes
B. Data that has a common and widely understood data definition
C. Data that is widely accessed and referenced across an organisation
D. Data that provides metadata about other data entities
E. Data used to classify or categorize other data
Question 91
Master Data Management:
A. Allows applications to define business entities as needed and manages the mappings between common data in a central location
B. Is synonymous with Reference Data Management
C. Is time-consuming with questionable impact on data quality
D. Ensures coded values are always used
E. Controls the definition of business entities

Question 92
Which of these is a valid definition of Master Data?
A. Data that rarely, if ever, changes
B. Data that if missing or incorrect will cause transactions and processes to fail
C. Data that is only held in one data source
D. Data that other data sits hierarchically beneath
E. Data about the business entities that provide context for business transactions

Question 93
These are examples of which type of Meta-Data: Data Stores and Data Involved, Government/ Regulatory Bodies; Roles and Responsibilities;
Process Dependencies and Decomposition?
A. Operational Meta-Data
B. Data Stewardship Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Process Meta-Data
 E. Technical Meta-Data

Question 94
Which of these statements are true about Metadata?
A. The repository is always a hybrid architecture
B. The repository is always a centralized architecture
C. Data models are components of a Metadata repository
D. A Metadata repository and a Glossary are synonyms
E. The repository is always a decentralized architecture

Question 95
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?
A. Audit documents and records
B. Create a content strategy
C. Manage retention and disposal
D. Capture records and content
E. Manage versions and control

Question 96
In a recursive relationship:
A. The relationship could be mandatory at either end
B. The foreign key must have a role name to avoid attribute duplication
C. All of the above
D. The relationship could be an identifying relationship
E. None of these, recursive relationships are not allowed in Data Models

Question 97
What is Manual Directed Data Quality Correction?
A. The use of automated cleanse and correction tools with results manually checked before committing outputs
B. Teams of data correctors supervised by data subject matter experts
C. Using a data quality improvement manual to guide data cleanse and correction activities
D. The use of spreadsheets to manually inspect and correct data
E. The automation of all data cleanse and correction routines

Question 98
Which of these statements is true?
A. Data Quality Management is usually a one-off project
B. Data Quality Management only addresses structured data
C. Data Quality Management is a continuous process
D. Data Quality Management is a synonym for Data Governance
E. Data Quality Management is the application of technology to data problems

Question 99
Which of these statements best defines Data Security Management?
A. The implementation and execution of checkpoints, checklists, controls, and technical mechanisms to govern the access to information in an
enterprise
B. None of these
C. The definition of controls, technical standards, frameworks, and audit trail capabilities to identify who has or has had access to information
D. The planning, implementation, and testing of security technologies, authentication mechanisms, and other controls to prevent access to
information
E. The planning, development, and execution of security policies and procedures to provide proper authentication, authorization, access, and
auditing of data and information assets

Question 100
One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:
A. Completing the data architecture on time for the first release
B. Having a data quality rule applicable to all source systems
C. Modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model
D. Maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation
E. Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements

Question 101
Which of the following statements regarding a value domain is FALSE?
A. A value domain is a set of allowed values for a given code set
B. Conforming value domains across the organization facilitates data quality
C. A value domain provides a set of permissible values by which a data element can be implemented
D. More than one set of reference data value domains may refer to the same conceptual domain
E. Value domains are defined by external standard organizations

Question 102
The number of artifacts that must be searched in the Metadata repository for all Business change projects are:
A. The Business Data Glossary and Systems Inventory must be consulted
B. Conceptual data models and the Business Data Glossary must be examined
C. Conceptual, Logical and Physical models must be examined
D. There is no mandatory number of artefacts to be searched but it is highly recommended that the library is examined
E. The Business Data Glossary and Data Dictionary must be examined

Question 103
Data Governance touch points throughout the project lifecycle are facilitated by this organization.
A. The Master Data Office
B. The Data Stewards Office
C. The Data Governance Steering Committee
D. The Project Management Office
E. The Data Governance Office

Question 104
In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for:
A. Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices
B. Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles
C. Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes
D. Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles
E. G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles

Question 105
What type of Meta-Data provides developers and administrators with knowledge and information about systems?
A. Technical Operational Meta-Data
 B. Unstructured Meta-Data
C. Business Meta-Data
D. Process Meta-Data
E. Data Stewardship Meta-Data

Question 106
A type of Master data architecture is:
F. Registry
G. Hybrid
H. Repository
I. All of the above
J. Virtualised

Question 107
Which of the following are primary deliverables of proper document and record management?
F. Relational databases, database logs, paper documents
G. Data from tracking devices, building sensor data
H. Spreadsheets, company library books, sales transactions
I. Managed records in many media formats, e-discovery records, policies and procedures, contracts and financial documents
J. Local drives of laptops, transcripts of phone calls

Question 108
The highest level of these data model types is the:
A. Conceptual model
B. Dimensional model
C. Database model
D. Physical model
E. Logical model

Question 109
Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?
A. Developing & maintaining data quality
B. Establishing communications & feedback mechanisms
C. Setting data quality improvement priorities
D. Data profiling & analysis
E. Producing certification & compliance policies

Question 110
Which approach is considered most effective when supporting multi-dimensional business report requests?
A. EDI
B. ODS
C. OLTP
D. OLAP
E. BI

Question 111
What is the technique for log-based change of data capturing?

A. The source system processes copy data that has changed into separate objects as part of source data update
B. Compare the current state of the source system to a previous copy
C. The source system populates specific data elements in the target system
D. The source system processes add to a simple list of changed objects and identifiers on data update
E. Source Database Management System create data activity logs which are monitored and applied on the target database

Question 112
Which definition is most accurate for Data Storage and Operations Management?

A. Identifying the data needs of the enterprise (regardless of structure) and designing and maintaining the master blueprints to meet those
needs
B. The design, implementation, and support of stored data to maximize its value
 C. Managing shared data to meet organizational goals, reduce risks associated with data redundancy, ensure higher quality, and reduce the
costs of data integration
D. The process of discovering, analyzing, and scoping data requirements, and then representing and communicating these data
requirements in a precise form called the data model

Question 113
"The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch installed" is a metric of which knowledge area?

A. Data Quality
B. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
C. Data Storage and Operations
D. Metadata Management
E. Data Security

Question 114
For countries, is there an internationally recognized set of codes to use?

A. Yes, the standards set are the codes used by your country's postal service
B. Yes, ISO 3166 is the internationally standardized set of codes used by most organizations

C. No, organizations should develop their own set of codes to use because the data is used internally
D. No, you should use whatever your organization wants to use
E. No, there is no internationally recognized set of codes because each country wants to develop their own
Question 115
What is one of the benefits of Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA)?

A. Provides oversight and control to the integration development lifecycle

B. Enables application independence and the ability to replace systems without significant changes to interfacing systems
 C. Allows access to the underlying data structures
D. Is the fastest way to develop a new interface
E. Provides an optimized user experience for the data consumer
Question 116
In data security, which of the following is not one of the four "A's":

A. Audit
B. Available
C. Authentication
D. Access
Question 117
What is the benefit of using role groups to implement Data Security policies?

A. It reduces the amount of effort to assign access rights to users if they inherit rights from their group
B. It simplifies revoking individual permissions from an individual user
C. It allows for iterative reporting of user access
D. It allows users to by typecast by the administrator
Question 118

______________is the ability for multiple systems to communicate through data that does not require processing on either side.

A. Data Interoperability
B. Document and Content Management
C. Data Integration
D. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
E. Data Governance
Question 119
The stakeholder requirements for privacy and confidentiality are goals found in?
 A. Data Architecture
B. Data Quality
C. Document and Content Management
D. Data Security
E. Metadata Management

Question 120
A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data to be exchanged, is commonly referred to as a?
A. Data Model
B. Data Quality Assessment
C. Data Sharing Agreement
D. Project Charter
Question 121
Is the data model important in establishing Master Data Management?

A. Yes, Master Data Management needs consistent logical definitions

B. No, within a given source, data representing the same entity can be different
C. No, not if the organization has complex systems with multiple ways of capturing data
D. Only if Master Data Management needs to know the processing steps for all data
E. No, not if the data model is physically instantiated in multiple platforms
Question 122
Which of the following is NOT an approach to data valuation?
A. Enterprise Data Modeling
B. What the data could be sold for
C. Cost of replacing data if it were lost
D. Cost of obtaining and storing data
E. Expected revenue from innovative uses of data
Question 123
A best practice for BI monitoring and tuning is to define and display which set of customer-facing satisfaction metrics?
A. All of the above
B. Number of users per day/week/month
C. Average query response time
D. Regular survey of DW-BIM customers satisfaction
E. Usage statistics and patterns
Question 124
In the relational data model, what is the best synonym for a "relation"?
A. Tuple
B. Relationship
C. Row
D. Table
E. Association
Question 125
Why is Data Management so important for organizations today?

A. B. New product developments

A. The increase in data volumes
B. All of the above
C. All but D
D. To have a competitive advantage
B. Tighter regulations across many industries
Question 126
What is the difference between a Data Security policy and an information technology security policy?

C. There is no difference
D. Information technology security policies are defined by external standards
E. Data Security policies are more granular in nature and take a data-centric approach
 F. The Data Governance Council should have no role in Data Security
Question 127
As part of the reference Data Stewardship process, it is helpful to capture basic data about each reference data set. Which answer
best describes which data should be captured?

A. Steward name, originating organization, expected frequency of updates, and processes using the reference data
B. Metrics to quantify reference data's value to the organization
C. Maturity models that access the organization's readiness to accept Data Governance
D. Enterprise Architecture, programming logic, workflows, and ETL relating to any reference data
E. The names of everyone who is a business or technical user of the reference data
Question 128
Examples of data model components are?
A. CPU, GPU, RAM, ROM
B. Iteration, Decision, Input, Output
C. Monitor, Keyboard, Mouse, Disk
D. Files, Folders, Links
E. Keys, Relationships, Attributes, Entities, Facts
Question 129
The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for?
A. Data Integration and Interoperability
B. Document and Content Management
C. Data Storage and Operations
D. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
E. All of the above
Question 130
Which of the following is NOT an activity that would enable business acceptance and user satisfaction?
A. Understanding the data and defining the operations team’s responsiveness to identified issues
B. Furnishing an end-to-end verifiable data lineage
C. Ensuring perceptions of the quality of the data in the BI system are managed
 D. Defining different types of reporting tools to be used for future business needs
E. Promoting scheduled meetings with user representatives
Question 131
The highest level of data model types is the?
A. Conceptual model
B. Logical model
C. Database model
D. Physical model
E. Dimensional model
Question 132
To answer questions like “What does this report mean?” or “What does this metric mean?”, the data warehouse/BI team should
focus on?
A. End-to-end metadata
B. Predictive and prescriptive analytics
C. Data lineage
D. Conceptual data model
E. Data Quality applications
Question 133
The implementation and administration of Data Security policies is primarily the responsibility of _____________?
A. Security administrators
B. All staff
C. Knowledge workers
D. The CIO
Question 134
Which Normal Form typically has this normalization rule? “Use the minimal amount of attributes in a key.”
A. None of the above
B. Second NF
C. Third NF
D. All of the above
 E. First NF

Question 135
Data Security policies should be developed and communicated to ensure that __________?
A. Standards and templates can be reused from other organizations
B. External consultants can be used effectively in implementation
C. It is easier to comply than not to comply
D. External regulatory reviews and audits can be conducted efficiently
E. Data that is not requested, orchestrated, or technology supported
Question 136
A Content Distribution Network supporting a multi-national website is likely to use?
A. A replication solution
B. An archiving solution
C. A database backup and restore solution
D. A records disposal solution
E. An extract, transform, and load solution
Question 137
The ability to re-establish service after an interruption and correct errors caused by unforeseen events or component failures is
called?
A. Manageability
B. All of the above
C. Recoverability
D. Reliability
E. Serviceability
Question 138
In the data lifecycle, the DMBoK recommends minimizing ROT data. ROT stands for?
A. Data that is Redundant, Obsolete, Trivial
B. Data that is not Requested, Orchestrated, Technology supported
C. Data that is not Realistic, Ordered, Timely
 D. Data is Routine, Obsolete, Tiny
E. Data that is not Relational, Operational, Timely
Question 139
Reference and master data include the reconciliation and maintenance of core critical shared data in order to?*
A. Make it easier to store data for the programmers and users
B. All of the above
C. Discourage changes to the codes and values
D. Enable consistent use across the systems of the most timely and relevant version of essential data
E. Save space in the databases and keep only the most recent data
F. Inspect all data that is in production and get the business areas to certify that the data is correct
Question 140
Database performance depends upon two independent facets. These are?
A. Choice of DBMS and programming language
B. Distance to data center and network bandwidth
C. Availability and speed
D. Number of users and number of tables
E. Hardware and network
Question 141
The most common term for "entity" in the physical level of a model is?
A. Index
B. Database
C. Primary key
D. Table
E. Diagram
Question 142
What kind of interface is in place when systems are tightly coupled?

A. A legacy interface
 B. A batch interface
C. A user interface
D. An independent interface
E. A synchronous interface
Question 143
Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of ways. Which of the following approaches is NOT
a recognized way of doing this?
A. Publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
B. Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive stakeholders
C. Creating a series of “elevator pitches” for the appropriate audience
D. Maintaining an intranet website
E. Promoting participation in a DM forum or community
Question 144
In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance activity "Define the Data Governance Framework" is in which
Lifecycle stage?
A. Create and acquire
B. Plan
C. Maintain and use
D. Enable
E. Specify
Question 145
In the PRISM acronym for database design principles, the letter ‘S’ stands for?
A. Soundness
B. Security
C. Solidity
D. Safety
E. None of the above
Question 146
Data Storage and Operations Management has different deliverables, such as?
 A. Processes for implementation and changes to databases
B. Mechanisms for ensuring availability, integrity, and recoverability of data
C. All of the above
D. Mechanisms for detecting and reporting errors
E. Production database environments
Question 147
What is accurate when discussing many-to-many relationships?
A. There is often hidden business meaning in this relationship
B. While many-to-many relationships are OK in a Conceptual Data Model, they should be “resolved” in a logical data model
C. All of the above
D. All but A
E. There are usually additional attributes discovered in the intersection entity
Question 148
An effective Data Security Strategy needs to consider ____________ as well as technical security?
A. Functional (timing, structures)
B. Physical (devices, hard copy)
C. Conceptual (metadata, Business Glossary)
D. Operational (function, flexibility)
Question 149
According to the DMBOK, which of the following are included as Data Management goals?
A. Data Management goals should be driven by technical capability and available capabilities
B. Data Quality goals must be aligned with ISO27001
C. Big Data goals need to change to reflect reality
D. Data Management goals must focus first on legislation
E. We should ensure that data can be used effectively to add value to the enterprise
Question 150
Which of the following activities are performed by data operations staff?
A. Manage the tape libraries
B. Clean data that is of bad quality
 C. Tune the file systems
D. Grant access to tables and rewrite SQL statements
E. Implement and control database environments, plan for data retention, keep track of database licenses, monitor and tune
database performance
Question 151
_____________ allow all values that are between a minimum and maximum value. For example, Order Delivery Date must be
between Today’s Date and three months in the future.
A. Range domains
B. List domains
C. None of the above
D. Format domains
E. Veracity domains
Question 152
Which of the following is NOT a Data Modeling style?
A. CRUD
B. IDEF1X
C. CHEN
D. ORM
E. UML
Question 153
A reason to produce a data model is?
A. C. To set context for enterprise projects
B. All of the above
C. All but C
A. To capture business requirements
D. To avoid the late discovery of missed requirements
B. To create a bridge between business and IT
Question 154
which of the following is NOT a goal of Data Management?
 C. Capturing, storing, protecting, and ensuring the integrity of data assets
D. Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation, or use of data and information
E. Ensuring the quality of data and information
F. Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
G. Understanding the process needs of the enterprise
Question 155
When discussing transforming a logical data model to a physical data model, the breaking apart of a table or file horizontally or
vertically is what?
A. Solidity
B. Substitution
C. Denormalization
D. Indexing
E. Partitioning
Question 156
The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent to an authentication app is called:
A. proactive authentication.
B. biometric authentication.
C. 2-factor authentication.
D. 3-factor authentication.
Question 157
What technique will identify the system of record for the data?
A. Data discovery
B. Analysis of lineage
C. Definition of Data Integration and Lifecycle requirements
D. Collection of business rules
E. Data profiling
Question 158
According to the DMBoK2, which items are NOT a consideration in a data valuation?
 A. Impact to the organization if data were missing
B. How much we can be ransomed for by a malware attack
C. What the data could be sold for
D. Cost of obtaining and storing data
E. Benefits of higher quality data
Question 159
Master and reference data are forms of?
A. Data Quality
B. Data Architecture
C. Data Integration
D. Data Mapping
E. Data Security
Question 160
What is the difference between cardinality rules and data integrity rules?
A. Cardinality rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between two entities, and
referential integrity rules ensure valid values
B. There is no difference. Cardinality rules and referential integrity rules are synonyms
C. Referential integrity rules define the quantity of each entity instance that can participate in a relationship between two
entities, and cardinality rules ensure valid values
D. Referential integrity rules only appear on a relational data model, and cardinality rules only appear on a dimensional data
model
E. Referential integrity rules quantify the relationships between two or more entities, and cardinality rules quantify the
common attributes across entities
Question 161
The data operations team assures that data is recoverable by which of the following methods?
A. Maintaining a test, development, and production environment
B. Defining and executing the data recovery plan
C. Making sure the disks are checked regularly for write errors
D. Analyzing database error logs
 E. Guaranteeing the applications take proper exports of the data
Question 162
Which of the following should staff do to guarantee optimum database performance of data operations?
A. Discuss performance requirements with the data architects
B. Revoke the access rights of heavy users
C. Discuss the amount of time a user can wait on a screen
D. Decide what type of storage will be acquired
E. Reduce the number of rows in the tables
Question 163
The stated goals of Data Security Management are?
A. All of the above
B. Understand and comply with all relevant regulations and policies for privacy, protection, and confidentiality
C. Ensure that the privacy and confidentiality needs of all stakeholders are enforced and audited
A. Enable appropriate, and prevent inappropriate, access to enterprise data assets
D. All but C
Question 164
Data is an organizational asset. What international standard is concerned with asset management?
E. ANSI 859
F. ISO 27001
G. ISO 25000
H. ISO 8000
I. ISO 55000/55001
Question 165
The main part of a data vault that houses and integrates data from various source systems is referred to as?

A. Metrics mart
B. Raw data vault
C. Information mart
D. Business data vault
 E. Persisted staging area
Question 166
OLAP, conceptually illustrates as a?
A. Hierarchical structure
B. Multi-columnar structure
C. Relational table
D. Recursive structure
E. Cube
Question 167
Implementing a Services-Oriented Architecture (SOA) will often use?
A. An enterprise services bus
B. A Data Modeling tool
C. A data lake
D. ETL servers
E. Data Visualization tools
Question 168
What is the goal of collecting and documenting business rules?
A. To identify potential sources of data for the Data Integration effort
B. To reuse existing Data Integration solutions
C. To identify the requirements for the Data Quality
D. To direct when to manually trigger events and alerts
E. To design user-experience
Question 169
What type of key identifies an entity/table for the system, may be “natural” or “surrogate,” and can also be composite?
A. Primary
B. None of the Above.
C. Inverted
D. Alternate
E. Foreign
Question 170
The DAMA Wheel contains?
A. Maturity model dimensions
B. Data Strategy initiatives
C. Data Management processes
D. Knowledge areas
E. Data Management deliverables
Question 171
Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as?
A. Capacity, availability, cache performance, and user statistics
B. Create, read, normalization, and user access
C. Create, read, update, and delete
D. Capacity, design, normalization, and user access
E. Capacity, availability, backup instances, and Data Quality
Question 172
Data Modeling is?
A. All of the above
B. The planning, implementation, and control activities for the lifecycle management of data and information found in any form
or medium
C. The exercise of authority, control, and shared decision-making (planning, monitoring, and enforcement) over the
management of data assets
D. None of the above
E. The process of discovering, analyzing, and scoping data requirements, and then representing and communicating these data
requirements in a precise form called the data model. This process is iterative and may include a conceptual, logical, and
physical model
Question 173
When discussing the Data Quality Management Cycle, what part of the cycle typically deals with: acting to resolve any identified
issues to improve Data Quality and better meet business expectations?
A. Do/Deploy
 B. Act
C. Plan
D. Check
E. Proceed
Question 174
What is true with regard to the information presented in the DMBoK?
B. It’s not just about technology
A. All the above
B. Many environmental elements cross all of the disciplines
C. Organization and culture play an important part
D. All but A are correct
A. Data Management exists within a vacuum
Question 175
According to the DMBoK, the system that contains the “best version” of the master data is the?
B. Consuming system
C. Source system
D. Spoke
E. Golden record
F. System of record
Question 176
Which of the following is NOT true of a super-type or sub-type entity relationship?
A. A sub-type inherits all attributes and relationships of the super-type
B. The subtype relationships should have a discriminator attribute
C. Sub-type entities must be mutually exclusive
D. Attributes and relationships shared by all sub-types are modeled with the super-type
E. Attributes and relationships shared by some, but not all, sub-types are modeled with the sub-types
Question 177
Ontology is the study of?
A. Existence
 B. Knowledge
C. Reality
D. Being and existence
E. Beginning
Question 178
Which of these is NOT an expected role of a Data Quality Oversight Board?
A. Developing and maintaining Data Quality
B. Producing certification and compliance policies
C. Setting Data Quality improvement priorities
D. Data profiling and analysis
E. Establishing communications and feedback mechanisms
Question 179
Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of ways. Which of the following approaches is NOT
a recognized way of doing this?
A. Creating a series of “elevator pitches” for the appropriate audience
B. Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive stakeholders
C. Promoting participation in a DM forum or community
D. Maintaining an intranet website
E. Publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
Question 180
A sandbox is a type of database environment used for?
A. Remote users
B. Proofs of concept and to test hypotheses
C. Production backups
D. User acceptance testing
E. Low-budget projects
Question 181
Components of logical data models include:
A. Entities
 B. Attributes
C. All of the above
D. Relationships
E. Keys
Question 182
HTTPS indicates that the website is?
A. Equipped with third party cookies
B. Equipped with a security layer
C. Equipped with a foreign language translator
D. Equipped with an underlying database
E. Equipped with a content management system

Question 1
The DMBoK 'Environmental Factors hexagon' shows the relationship between:

1. Inputs, activities and deliverables

2. DMBoK knowledge areas
3. People, software and tools
4. Business, application and technology architecture
5. People, process and technology

Question 2
Knowledge area activities are classified into four categories. They are:
 1. Preparation, Detailing, Creating and Deployment
2. Planning, Detailing, Control and Organizing
3. Procurement, Detailing, Control and Organizing
4. Planning, Development, Control and Operations
5. Procurement, Development, Control and Operations

Question 3
The DAMA Wheel contains:

1. Data strategy initiatives

2. Maturity model dimensions
3. Data management deliverables
4. Knowledge areas
5. Data management processes

Question 4
The 'Data Management Body of Knowledge' is produced by:

1. The Data Management Authority

2. The Project Management Institute
3. The Data Practitioner Association
4. The Data Management Association
5. The Data Analysis Association
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a goal of data management?

1. Ensuring the quality of data and information

2. Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation or use of data and information
3. Capturing, storing, protecting and ensuring the integrity of data assets
4. Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
5. Understanding the process needs of the enterprise

Question 6
Data and information are:

1. Representations of truth
2. Intertwined and dependent on each other
3. Used only in the context of business intelligence
4. Completely separate things
5. Pillars of the modern organisational Parthenon

Question 7
A document that describes how data will be made more accessible over 3-5 years is called:

1. A data management strategy

2. Data quality metrics
3. A data collection standard
4. An analytics strategy
 5. A data warehouse design

Question 8
Information governance and data governance should be:

1. Managed as integrated functions, with information governance reporting to data governance

2. Managed by the Chief Information Officer
3. Managed as a single function
4. Managed as separate functions
5. Managed as integrated functions, with data governance reporting to information governance

Question 9
Data governance represents:

1. A federated government style of data management

2. A joint effort in defining the data quality rules and profiling the data
3. An inherent separation of duty between oversight and execution
4. An organisation structure with a number of key roles
5. An initiative that addresses the financial accuracy of the balance sheet

Question 10
What area do you not consider when developing a 'data governance operating model'?

1. The availability of industry data models

2. Cultural factors - such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change
 3. The business model - decentralized versus centralized
4. Impact of regulation
5. The value of data to the organisation

Question 11
The primary role of a data steward is:

1. To perform program code reviews

2. To interfere in IT projects
3. To manage data assets on behalf of others and in the best interests of the organisation
4. To encourage certification in data management best practices across the organisation
5. To manage the data quality business unit

Question 12
The goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage data as an asset. To achieve this, the DG programs
must be:

1. Fixed to achieve a successful outcome in a defined time period

2. Represented by finance during the process for acquiring and disposing of the data asset
3. Able to assign a dollar value to a data asset in order to determine the appropriate cost-to-investment ratio for
budgeting purposes
4. Sustainable, to be created as an ongoing practice with leadership, sponsorship and ownership
5. Able to register the data asset with the financial controller to ensure it is managed like all other assets
Question 13
The steps followed in managing data issues include:

1. Standardisation, Allocation, Assignment, and Correction

2. Standardisation, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion
3. Read, Guess, Code, Release
4. Standardisation, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion
5. Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion

Question 14
Data Stewards are most likely to be responsible for:

1. Data Integration and Interoperability

2. Data Modelling and Data Security
3. Data Governance and Data Quality
4. Content and Document Management
5. Data Storage and Operations

Question 15
Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first month. The reason for this
might be:

1. The automatic deletion of all issues in the database

2. There are no data issues in the enterprise
3. The denial of overtime requests
4. Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system
 5. Lack of credibility in the data governance process to effect changes

Question 16
The advantage of a decentralized data governance model over a centralized model is:

1. The common metadata repository configurations

2. The cheaper execution of data governance operations
3. An increased level of ownership from local decision making groups
4. Having a common approach to resolving data governance issues
5. The easier implementation of industry data models

Question 17
An enterprise data model would be composed of:

1. Enterprise models, data models and compositional models

2. Logical models, physical models and infrastructure models
3. Conceptual models, logical models and physical models
4. Conceptual models, subject area models and logical models
5. Conceptual models, star schema models and interface models

Question 18
Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture influences the scope boundaries of
projects?

1. Ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented

2. Enforcing data architecture standards
3. Ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place
4. Providing enterprise data requirement for projects
5. Performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organisational strategy

Question 19
Data flows can be represented by:

1. Two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and data consumers
2. Two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and business processes
3. Two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data facts and data dimensions
4. Two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and data quality
5. Two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and business processes

Question 20
The necessity of representing organisational data at different levels of abstraction is:
1. Because most database administrators need specifications to build databases with appropriate response times
2. Because most organisations have more data than individual people can comprehend, understand and make
decisions about
3. Because most Chief Data Officers do not have the technical background to be held accountable for complex data
diagrams
4. Because most organisations need to accommodate to the different points of view of information architecture and
data architecture
5. Because most architects want to deploy a complete suite of drawings for project deliverables
Question 21
The ability of an organization to respond to changes in product configuration is easier due to generalization in the:

1. Data warehousing
2. Business architecture
3. Data quality
4. Technical architecture
5. Data architecture

Question 22
A data architecture team is best described as:

1. A group of strong database administrators

2. A well-managed project of architectural development
3. A strategic planning and compliance team
4. An operational data provisioning group
5. The authors of reference data

Question 23
The repeated implementation of different CRM technologies with different data structures is mostly a failure of:

1. Data quality
2. Data warehousing
3. Data modelling
4. Data architecture
 5. Data security

Question 24
Over a decade an organisation has rationalised implementation of party concepts from 48 systems to 3. This is a result of
good:

1. Data quality and data governance

2. Data architecture and data governance
3. System rationalization and metadata management
4. Data architecture and data warehousing
5. Data operations and system rationalization

Question 25
A lineage data tool provides:

1. A clean line between columns in the same entity

2. A temporal distortion of data values across systems
3. Ancestral origin of data DNA
4. Scope for reporting requirements
5. The capture and maintenance of source structures for each attribute on the data model

Question 26
Which of the following is not a type of data that is commonly modelled?

1. Business Event information

 2. Detail transaction information
3. Category information
4. Historical information
5. Resource information

Question 27
A data model that consists of a single fact table linked to important concepts of the business is a:

1. Transition State Model

2. Process Model
3. Relational Model
4. Machine Learning Model
5. Dimensional Model

Question 28
A data model:

1. Must exist in a data modelling tool

2. Documents a concise definition of data structures and relationships
3. Governs the implementation of the 'order to pay' business process lifecycle
4. Records recent user access to enable the assessment of security anomalies
5. Documents how data is passed between systems

Question 29
A relationship that allows an address to be used by multiple people, and each person can have multiple addresses, can
be resolved:

1. By changing the role names of the foreign keys on Person and Address to ensure referential integrity
2. With an associative entity called Person Address Usage and two, 'one to many' relationships
3. By changing the primary keys on Person and Address to ensure referential integrity
4. With an additional relationship describing the address usage
5. With a partnership entity called Person Address Usage and two, 'one to many' relationships

Question 30
Each person has zero or more addresses, and each address must be allocated to 1 person. This is an example of:

1. A 'many to many' relationship

2. A 'one to many' relationship
3. An indirect foreign key
4. A 'zero to many' relationship
5. A 'one to one' relationship

Question 31
A project scope includes the collection, exchange and reporting of data from multiple systems. Conceptual, logical and
physical data models are maintained. How many models of each type can be expected?

1. The same number of each of the model types

2. More physical data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than conceptual data models
3. More conceptual data models than logical data models, and more logical data models than physical data models
4. More logical data models than physical data models, and more logical data models than conceptual data models
5. Only 1 conceptual data model, 1 logical data model and 1 physical data model
Question 32
During the intial scoping of a project, a data model can be used to:

1. Determine the security requirements for accessing the data

2. Identify detailed impact on all the tables in a database that must be changed
3. Provide a clear definition of affected and non-affected data entities
4. Determine the impact of business processes and customer lifecycles
5. Plan the structure of the metadata repository

Question 33
The goals of data storage and operations are:

1. Managing user experience, ensuring data access and managing data lifecycles
2. Managing accessibility, ensuring authorized access and managing performance
3. Managing user experience, ensuring consistency and managing glossaries
4. Managing availability, ensuring consistency and managing glossaries
5. Managing availability, ensuring integrity and managing performance

Question 34
Production DBAs would not normally take responsibility for:

1. Executing other database maintenance activities, such as archiving

2. Ensuring performance and reliability of the database
3. Implementing backup and recovery mechanisms
 4. Implementing mechanisms for clustering and failover of the database
5. The fitness of purpose for data in the database

Question 35
The acronym ACID stands for:

1. Available, completeness, isolation and dangerous

2. Atomicity, consistency, isolation and durability
3. Actual, created, identified and deleted
4. Atomicity, completeness, independence and durability
5. Available, corrupt, isolation and durable

Question 36
Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:

1. Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics

2. Create, read, update, delete
3. Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality
4. Capacity, design, normalization, user access
5. Create, read, normalization, user access

Question 37
The best way to validate that a database backup is working, is to:

1. Periodically recover from the backup file

 2. Appoint a special DBA in charge of backups
3. Check the size of the backup file
4. Check for the automatic email notification of backup success
5. Check the backup logs every day

Question 38
A database that is growing at 100% per annum compound will be:

1. 6 times its original size at the end of year

2. Half its original size at the end of year 2
3. 3 times its original size at the end of year 2
4. 4 times its original size at the end of year 2
5. 2 times its original size at the end of year 5

Question 39
A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This is a way of implementing:

1. Master data
2. Temporal data
3. Reference data
4. Event data
5. Star schema data

Question 40
Periodic archiving of transaction data from a production CRM system is critical for:
 1. Providing alternate sources for reporting systems
2. Enabling the distribution of transaction data across the enterprise
3. The maintenance of database performance
4. Managing deleted customer records
5. Training junior DBAs

Question 41
In data security, which of the following is not one of the four A's:

1. Agile
2. Access
3. Authorization
4. Audit
5. Authentication

Question 42
HTTPS:// indicates that the website is:

1. Equipped with a foreign language translator

2. Equipped with a content management system
3. Equipped with 3rd party cookies
4. Equipped with a security layer
5. Equipped with an underlying database
Question 43
The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch installed is a metric of which knowledge
area?

1. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

2. Metadata Management
3. Data Storage and Operations
4. Data Quality
5. Data Security

Question 44
Primary drivers of data security activities are:

1. Data protection and flexible database design

2. Risk control and content management
3. Data quality and intellectual property protection
4. Risk reduction and business growth
5. Glossary management and risk reduction

Question 45
The requirement to enter a username, a password and then a code sent to an authentication app is called:
 1. Biometric authentication
2. 3-factor authentication
3. Mobile authentication
4. Proactive authentication
5. 2-factor authentication

Question 46
A denial of service attack is typically accomplished by:

1. Corrupting the user name and passwords

2. A stop-work action by the workforce
3. Emailing virus laden attachments
4. Interrupting the mains electricity supply
5. Flooding the target machine with superfluous requests

Question 47
A DMZ is bordered by 2 firewalls. These are between the DMZ and the:

1. Internet and internal systems

2. Korean peninsula
3. Internet and extranet
4. Internet and intranet
5. Internet, for added security

Question 48
Compound authorization groups provide a means to:

1. Encrypt sensitive transmissions of data

2. Obfuscate a user's actual access to a system
3. Effectively prepare for data security audits
4. Precisely configure an individual's access to a system
5. Distract the data security officer

Question 49
In data integration, the goal of data discovery is to:

1. Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant
2. Identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality
3. Assign data glossary terms and canonical models
4. Assign data glossary terms and data formats
5. Identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality

Question 50
The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for:

1. Data Storage and Operations

2. Document and Content Management
3. Data Security
4. Data Integration and Interoperability
5. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
Question 51
Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches results in a difference in:

1. Source of truth
2. Lethargy
3. Timestamping
4. Data quality
5. Latency

Question 52
Mapping requirements and rules for moving data from source to target enables:

1. Extract
2. Analysis
3. Backups
4. Transformation
5. Load

Question 53
Implementing a services-oriented architecture will often use:
 1. Data visualization tools
2. ETL servers
3. An enterprise services bus
4. A data modeling tool
5. A data lake

Question 54
The ability of a photo app to share its images with various social media applications, is an example of:

1. Metadata
2. Replication
3. Rendering
4. Interoperability
5. Integration

Question 55
The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom of:

1. Multiple application coding languages

2. Multiple data warehouses
3. Multiple integration technologies
4. Multiple metadata tags
5. Multiple data owners
Question 56
Misclassification of transactions through integration is often caused by inconsistent:

1. Reference data
2. Data quality
3. Master data
4. Business intelligence
5. Content management

Question 57
A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient retrieval and use of:

1. Information, but not data in unstructured formats

2. Data and information in relational formats
3. Data and information in unstructured formats
4. Data and information in structured formats
5. Data, but not information in unstructured formats

Question 58
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?

1. Manage versions and control

2. Capture records and content
3. Audit documents and records
4. Create a content strategy
5. Manage retention and disposal
Question 59
In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for:

1. Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles

2. G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles
3. Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes
4. Generally Acceptable Recordkeeping Principles
5. Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices

Question 60
Which of the following is a reason why organisations do not dispose of non-value-adding information?

1. The metadata repository can not be updated

2. The information is never out of date
3. Data modelling the content is hard to reproduce
4. Storage is cheap and easily expanded
5. The organisation's data quality benchmark diminishes

Question 61
The addition of workflow to a content management system will:
 1. Restructure an enterprise glossary
2. Enable the controlled review and approval of documents
3. Implement a data warehouse landing zone
4. Allow the approval of system access requests
5. Enforce the controlled review and approval of database designs

Question 62
An enterprise's organisation chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting line. This is an example of a:

1. Flat taxonomy
2. Ecological taxonomy
3. Hybrid taxonomy
4. Hierarchical taxonomy
5. Compound taxonomy

Question 63
Integrating data security with document and content management knowledge areas, guides the implementation of:

1. Appropriate access and authorization to structured data

2. Fitness for purpose metrics for unstructured data
3. Appropriate privacy controls on data marts
4. Appropriate access and authorization to unstructured data
5. Straight-through processing for NoSQL queries

Question 64
The metadata structure for a content management system can be represented with a:

1. Mind map
2. Authorization matrix
3. CRUD matrix
4. Process model
5. Data model

Question 65
An authoritative system where data is created/captured, and/or maintained through a defined set of rules and
expectations is called:

1. A System of Systems
2. A System of Record
3. A System of Reference
4. A System of Retirement
5. A System of Referential Integrity

Question 66
One of the first steps in a master data management program is to:

1. Secure funding for 20 years of operations

2. Decommission similar data collection systems
3. Build multiple data marts
 4. Review data security protocols
5. Evaluate and assess data sources

Question 67
When assessing tools to implement master data management solutions, functionality must include:

1. Backup and recovery utilities

2. Document and content management
3. Auto-normalization features
4. Sophisticated integration capability
5. Advanced analytics capabilities

Question 68
Master data is data about:

1. Data values stored and displayed in uppercase

2. Authority to grant access to data across an organisation
3. Business transactions, e.g. financial transactions, enquiries and service call interactions
4. Business entities, e.g. products, customers, assets and locations
5. Database structures and response time performance targets

Question 69
When trying to integrate a large number of systems, the integration complexities can be reduced by:
 1. The use of SQL
2. The use of a common data model
3. Clear business specification and priorities
4. Using data quality measures and targets.
5. Tackling the largest systems first

Question 70
Initiatives focused on building a 'single view of customer' mainly rely on which DMBOK knowledge area?

1. Reference and Master Data

2. Data Security
3. Data Storage and Operations
4. Data Architecture
5. Metadata Management

Question 71

All the systems in the enterprise, apart from a website, are showing updated pricing information. This may be due to:

1. The slowly changing dimension has both from and to dates

2. The pricing information is not updated in the reference data repository
3. The reference data strategy has not been approved by the executive
4. The website software not integrating with the reference data repository
5. The website software is not using standard XML schemas
Question 72
The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

1. Transaction data inconsistencies

2. Deadlocks in the database
3. Reference data inconsistencies
4. Master data inconsistencies
5. Duplicate data

Question 73
Critical to the incremental development of the data warehouse is:

1. A strong capacity management process

2. A agile development team
3. The assurance to include velocity, variety and veracity measurement
4. A strong release management process
5. A strong incident management process

Question 74
One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:

1. Modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model

2. Having a data quality rule applicable to all source systems
3. Maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation
4. Completing the data architecture on time for the first release
5. Determining valid links or equivalences between data elements
Question 75
Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The DMBoK knowledge area that practices
these techniques is:

1. Data Architecture
2. Data Storage and Operations
3. Document & Content Management
4. Metadata Management
5. Reference and Master Data

Question 76
The business case for enterprise warehousing is:

1. To increase data redundancy, align information glossaries, and enable an enterprise to exploit machine learning
techniques
2. To align data systems, improve source system management, and to enable an enterprise exploit machine learning
techniques
3. To reduce data overload, improve information governance, and enable an enterprise to use its data to make better
decisions
4. To reduce data redundancy, improve information consistency, and enable an enterprise to use its data to make
better decisions
5. To increase data distribution, improve information generation, and enable an enterprise to use its data to increase
revenue
Question 77
The key concepts of the data vault are:

1. Hubs, links and planets

2. Facts, links and satellites
3. Hubs, links and satellites
4. Keys, locks and combinations
5. Facts, dimensions and time

Question 78
A data warehouse deployment with multiple ETL, storage and querying tools often suffers due to the lack of:

1. Integration of the dictionaries to achieve common understanding

2. Common data types in the source datasets
3. Quality data modelers
4. Conflict between software vendors
5. Disk space on the big data platform

Question 79
In a data warehouse, where the classification lists for organisation type are inconsistent in different source systems, there
is an indication that there is a lack of focus on:

1. Data Modelling
2. Master Data
3. Data Storage
4. Reference data
5. Metadata Management
Question 80
De-identifying sensitive data in a data warehouse enables:

1. A focus on re-identifying records with 3rd party datasets

2. A bypass in the need to assess data quality
3. Certainty of complete datasets for interrogation
4. A reduced complexity in the data models
5. Increased utilization without compromising data privacy

Question 81

Metadata is often categorized into 3 types, they are:

1. Operational, reporting and analytical

2. Business, technical and strategic
3. Technical, infrastructure and instance
4. Business, technical and operational
5. Business, strategic and meta-metadata

Question 82
Data provenance and data lineage are examples of:

1. Technical metadata
2. Strategic metadata
 3. Business metadata
4. Industry metadata
5. Operational metadata

Question 83
By setting, enforcing and auditing metadata standards, organisations hope to:

1. Provide activities for the data governance office

2. Ease of understanding data dictionaries
3. Simplify integration and enable use
4. Standardize business rules in operational processes
5. Ensure the appropriate classification or meta-metadata

Question 84
The ISO Metadata Registry Standard that provides a framework for defining a metadata registry is:

1. ISO MD 1
2. ISO / IEC 11179
3. ISO 4-20-99
4. ISO 9001
5. ISO 4590

Question 85
One of a business data steward's key responsibilities is to:
 1. Manage metadata
2. Manage business process implementation
3. Manage the calendar of the business data owner
4. Manage the availability of the business intelligence solution
5. Manage data storage and operations

Question 86
A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

1. Establishing data quality metrics

2. Different data element names and formats
3. Conflicting application requirements from data owners
4. Identifying source databases
5. Choosing which content management software to use

Question 87
The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:

1. Software ignoring privacy tags on the data.

2. Stored procedures being called directly
3. Inappropriate use of photocopier toner
4. Cloud-based databases
5. Ineffective implementation of data architecture

Question 88
A report displaying birth date contains possible, but incorrect values. What is a possible explanation?

1. Birth date is populated from a single source system, where the date field is an offset value of 1601
2. Birth date is populated from a single source system, which does not contain birth date
3. Birth date is populated from two source systems, both of which record the birth date in the birth date field
4. Birth date is populated from a single source system, which contains missing values
5. Birth date is populated from two source systems, one of which stores marriage date in the birth date field

Question 89
Data quality measurements can be taken at three levels of granularity. They are:

1. Departmental data, regional data, and enterprise data

2. Person data, location data, and product data
3. Fine data, coarse data, and rough data
4. Data element value, data instance or record, and data set
5. Historical data, current data and future dated data

Question 90
A Data Quality dimension is:

1. A valid value in a list

2. The value of a particular piece of data
3. A core concept in dimensional modeling
4. One aspect of data quality used extensively in data governance
5. A measurable feature or characteristic of data
Question 91
A data quality program should limit its scope to:

1. The data most critical to the enterprise and its customers

2. All the data stored in the enterprise
3. The data that changes most often
4. The highest profile program with the best benefits
5. The data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer

Question 92
Which of the following is NOT required to effectively track data quality incidents?

1. An operational workflow that ensures effective resolution

2. An effective service level agreement with defined rewards and penalties
3. A standard vocabulary for classifying data quality issues
4. An assignment process to appropriate individuals and teams
5. A well defined system of escalation based on the impact, duration, or urgency of an issue

Question 93
'Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert because:

1. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data

 2. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data
3. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work
4. It gets everyone involved
5. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured

Question 94
Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of 'consistency'?

1. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out

2. The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format
3. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse
4. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries
5. The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late

Question 95
A data quality report assesses the coding of deposit transactions. The following variations in the coding are apparent:
DEP, Dep, dep, dEp. Which DMBoK knowledge area has been ignored?

1. Data Storage and Operations

2. Reference and Master Data
3. Data Governance
4. Data Quality
5. Metadata Management

Question 96
A pensioner who was sent a $100,000,000 electricity bill was a victim of poor data quality checks in which dimension?

1. Timeliness
2. Heuristics
3. Precision
4. Accuracy
5. Reasonableness

Question 97
Big data management requires:

1. Big ideas with big budgets

2. No discipline at all
3. More discipline than relational data management
4. Less discipline than relational data management
5. A certification in data science

Question 98
Big data is often defined by three characteristics. They are:

1. Expansive, Engaged and Enormous

2. Volume, Variety and Velocity
3. Direction, Depth and Details
4. Size, Speed and Sensitivity
5. Complexity, Compliance and Completeness
Question 99
An organisation that parses its call centre audio files to assess the emotional state of its callers is using:

1. Overly invasive monitoring analysis

2. Voice recognition techniques
3. Reactive analytics
4. Predictive analytics
5. Sentiment analysis

Question 100
In data handling ethics, 'social licence' refers to the alignment between:

1. Public perception and published fact

2. Social and political decision matrices
3. Stakeholder expectations and the organisation
4. Stakeholder demands and technology deliverables
5. Society's needs and their right to access data

Question 1
The 'Data Management Body of Knowledge' is produced by:

1. The Project Management Institute

2. The Data Practitioner Association
3. The Data Analysis Association
 4. The Data Management Authority
5. The Data Management Association

Question 2
Which of the following is NOT an approach to data valuation?

1. Enterprise data modelling.

2. What the data could be sold for.
3. Cost of obtaining and storing data.
4. Expected revenue from innovative uses of data.
5. Cost of replacing data if it were lost.

Question 3
Data management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver control, protect
and enhance:

1. enterprise management capabilities.

2. the value of information assets.
3. the value of data assets.
4. the value of data and information assets.
5. data and information assets.

Question 4
The DAMA Wheel contains:

1. knowledge areas
2. data strategy initiatives
3. data management processes
4. data management deliverables
5. maturity model dimensions
Question 5
Data and information are:

1. completely separate things.

2. representations of truth.
3. used only in the context of business intelligence.
4. intertwined and dependent on each other.
5. pillars of the modern organisational Parthenon.

Question 6
The 'DMBOK Environmental Factors hexigon' shows the relationship between:

1. people, process and technology.

2. people, software and tools.
3. DMBOK knowledge areas.
4. inputs, activities and deliverables.
5. business, application and technology architecture.

Question 7
In the common enterprise architecture model coded BIAT, the 'I' stands for:

1. Instance
2. Interoperability
3. Identification
4. Integration
5. Information
Question 8
Information is created and used by:

1. processes
2. computers
3. users
4. technology
5. applications

Question 9
The Data Governance Steering Committee is best described as:

1. the representatives of data use on project steering committees.

2. the primary and highest authority responsible for the oversight and support of data governance activities.
3. the local or divisional council, working under auspices of the CDO.
4. a burden to the agile delivery in a modern enterprise.
5. the community of interest, focused on specific subject areas or projects.

Question 10
What area do you not consider when developing a 'data governance operating model'?

1. The value of data to the organisation.

2. Cultural factors - such as acceptance of discipline and adaptability to change.
3. The business model - decentralised versus centralised.
4. The availability of industry data models.
5. Impact of regulation.

Question 11
The primary role of a data steward is:
 1. to encourage certification in data management best practices across the organisation.
2. to manage data assets on behalf of others and in the best interests of the organisation.
3. to manage the data quality business unit.
4. to interfere in IT projects.
5. to perform program code reviews.

Question 12
The purpose of data governance is to ensure that:

1. data can be reported on by the business line.

2. data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices.
3. data will be understood by all stakeholders.
4. data is backed up every night.
5. data is available for other systems to use.

Question 13
An effective Data Governance communication program should include the following:

1. Regular newsletters.
2. A custom training program.
3. Events that encourage informal networking.
4. All answers.
5. A Data Governance Portal.

Question 14
The steps followed in managing data issues include:

1. Standardisation, Allocation, Assignment, and Correction

2. Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion
3. Read, Guess, Code, Release
4. Standardisation, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion
 5. Standardization, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion

Question 15
The advantage of a decentralised data governance model over a centralised model is:

1. an increased level of ownership from local decision making groups.

2. the cheaper execution of data governance operations.
3. the common metadata repository configurations.
4. the easier implementation of industry data models.
5. having a common approach to resolving data governance issues.

Question 16
Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first month. The reason for this might be:
1. Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system.
2. The denial of overtime requests.
3. Lack of credibility in the data governance process to affect changes.
4. The automatic deletion of all issues in the database.
5. There are no data issues in the enterprise.

Question 17
Data flows can be represented by:

1. two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and data consumers.
2. two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and data quality.
3. two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data facts and data dimensions.
4. two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data entities and business processes.
5. two dimensional matrices showing the relationships between data users and business processes.

Question 18
When a project specification is reviewed by the enterprise data architect, which of the following is not a consideration:
 1. whether entities and definitions need to be generalised or improved to handle future trends.
2. whether entities on individual screens and reports align with the database.
3. whether to reuse existing, or develop new data delivery architectures.
4. what entities in the requirements should be included back into the overall enterprise data architecture.
5. whether enterprise-wide entities conform to agreed standards.

Question 19
"According to the ISO/IEC 42010:2007 Software and Systems Engineering - Architecture Description, which of the following
describes the definition of architecture:"

1. the fundamental responsibility for delivering the best systems at the lowest cost.
2. the fundamental rules for ensuring the information captured in the architected solution is enforcing data quality and
completeness.
3. the fundamental view of how the system should be built and how it will be maintained.
4. "the fundamental organisation of a system, and the principles governing its design and evolution."
5. the fundamental collection of all artefacts that describes a system and how they work together.

Question 20
Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture influences the scope boundaries of projects:

1. providing enterprise data requirement for projects.

2. enforcing data architecture standards.
3. ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented.
4. ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place.
5. performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organisational strategy.

Question 21
The implementation of data architecture exposes the transformation of data as it moves across the landscape. A common name for this
concept is:
 1. data discovery.
2. data interfacing.
3. data modelling.
4. "extract, transformation and load."
5. data lineage.

Question 22
A data architecture team is best described as:

1. a group of strong database administrators.

2. an operational data provisioning group.
3. the authors of reference data.
4. a strategic planning and compliance team.
5. a well-managed project of architectural development.

Question 23
A data architect is best deployed:

1. to manage the delivery of all the data aspects of a program.

2. after the project completes to identify weaknesses and lessons learned.
3. to build the database solution.
4. during the early stages of a project to define and shape a strategic solution.
5. by project managers to sign off all data deliverables.

Question 24
The data architect needs to propagate data across the landscape in real time. This requires the leveraging of the following DMBoK
knowledge areas:

1. "data architecture, data modelling and design, and data security."

2. "data architecture, integration and interoperability, data storage and operations."
3. "data architecture, data governance and metadata management."
 4. "data architecture, data quality and content, and document management."
5. "data architecture, metadata management and data security."

Question 25
A lineage data tool provides:

1. a temporal distortion of data values across systems.

2. ancestoral origin of data DNA.
3. a clean line between columns in the same entity.
4. the capture and maintenance of source structures for each attribute on the data model.
5. scope for reporting requirements.

Question 26
In data modelling practice, entities are linked by:

1. cardinality
2. indexes
3. triggers
4. processes
5. relationships

Question 27
The deliverables for a data modelling process does not have to include:

1. lineage describing where the data came from.

2. definitions for entities, attributes and relationships.
3. one or more diagrams.
4. issues and outstanding questions.
5. the steps in the business process that use the data.

Question 28
The implementation of a 'Super Type - Sub Type' structure can use the following 2 options:

1. Subtype Absorption and Supertype Partition

2. Super-Subtype Merge and Super-Subtype Split
3. Supertype Rollover and Subtype Rollunder
4. Super-Subtype Split and Super-Subtype Merge
5. Supertype Absorption and Subtype Partition

Question 29
In a data model, domains can be used for:

1. reducing the amount of coding required in the database.

2. separating concepts into business ideas.
3. consolidation of data into subject areas.
4. consistency and standarisation of data values.
5. public viewing of the data model.

Question 30
Each person has zero or more addresses, and each address must be allocated to 1 person. This is an example of:

1. a 'one to one' relationship

2. a 'zero to many' relationship
3. an indirect foreign key
4. a 'one to many' relationship
5. a 'many to many' relationship

Question 31
During the intial scoping of a project, a data model can be used to:

1. determine the impact of business processes and customer lifecycles.

2. plan the structure of the metadata repository.
 3. identify detailed impact on all the tables in a database that must be changed.
4. determine the security requirements for accessing the data.
5. provide a clear definition of affected and non-affected data entities.

Question 32
Significant operational issues have been caused by the implementation of a data model that represents a Customer Agreement as a
ternierary relationship between the Enterprise, a Customer, and their Contact Person. Which of the following describes the likely
operational issue?

1. Every time the Customer Agreement was renewed, a new Contact Person record was required.
2. Every time the customer changes addresses the address for the contact person must change as well.
3. In the event of a merger between enterprises, the contact person addresses need to be updated.
4. Response time for retrieving the Customer Agreement degrades rapidly due to the lack of indexing.
5. Every time the contact person changes, the customer agreement needs to be re-established.

Question 33
The acroymn ACID stands for:

1. available, corrupt, isolation and durable.

2. available, completeness, isolation and dangerous.
3. actual, created, identified and deleted.
4. atomicity, consistency, isolation and durability.
5. atomicity, completeness, independence and durability.

Question 34
Production DBA's would not normally take responsibility for:

1. implementing mechanisms for clustering and failovers of the database.

2. the fitness of purpose for data in the database.
3. executing other database maintenance activities, such as archiving.
4. implementing backup and recovery mechanisms.
 5. ensuring performance and reliability of the database.

Question 35
Data replication is useful as it provides:

1. opportunities to secure sensitive data.

2. an alternative to backups.
3. the ability to spread the workload across multiple databases.
4. insights into customer retention.
5. enables different table structures to be built.

Question 36
A sandbox is a type of database environment used for:

1. low budget projects.

2. remote users.
3. proofs of concept and to test hypotheses.
4. production backups.
5. user acceptance testing.

Question 37
A database that is growing at 100% per annum compound will be:

1. 2 times its original size at the end of year 5.

2. 6 times its original size at the end of year.
3. 3 times its original size at the end of year 2.
4. 4 times its original size at the end of year 2.
5. half its original size at the end of year 2.

Question 38
When reviewing data access plans, sequential searching is slowing the database. One way to fix this is:
 1. reducing the number of database users.
2. creating new indexes.
3. adding more memory.
4. moving the database to the cloud.
5. converting it to an in-memory database.

Question 39
An application uses a single service account for all database access. One of the risks of this approach is:

1. the application freezes more often.

2. the ability to trace who made changes to the data.
3. the data becomes out of order.
4. it constrains the application from running parallel processes.
5. the database runs out of threads.

Question 40
A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This is a way of implementing:

1. event data.
2. master data.
3. temporal data.
4. star schema data.
5. reference data.

Question 41
The standard for a strong password is set by the:

1. data modelling standard.

2. data security standard.
3. data access standard.
 4. data naming standard.
5. identity management standard.

Question 42
The percentage of enterprise computers having the most recent security patch installed is a metric of which knowledge area?

1. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence

2. Data Quality
3. Data Storage and Operations
4. Metadata Management
5. Data Security

Question 43
The stakeholder requirements for privacy and confidentiality are goals found in:
1. metadata management.
2. data security.
3. document and content management.
4. data quality.
5. data architecture.

Question 44
Obfuscation of data is to:

1. collect data from obscure sources.

2. put it in different databases.
3. make it obscure or unclear.
4. use synonyms for the same term.
5. make the result clear.

Question 45
A security mechanism that searches for customer bank account details in outgoing emails is achieving the goal of:
 1. ensuring stakeholder requirements for response time and availability levels are met.
2. ensuring stakeholder requirements for service design and experience are met.
3. ensuring stakeholder requirements for concise definitions and usage are met.
4. ensuring stakeholder requirements for openness and transparency are met.
5. ensuring stakeholder requirements for confidentiality and privacy are met.

Question 46
A denial of service attack is typically accomplished by:

1. flooding the target machine with superfluous requests.

2. corrupting the user name and passwords.
3. a stop-work action by the workforce.
4. emailing virus laden attachments.
5. interrupting the mains electricity supply.

Question 47
Compound authorisation groups provide a means to:

1. obfuscate a user's actual access to a system.

2. distract the data security officer.
3. encrypt sensitive transmissions of data.
4. effectively prepare for data security audits.
5. precisely configure an individual's access to a system.

Question 48
A DMZ is bordered by 2 firewalls. These are between the DMZ and the:

1. internet; for added security.

2. internet and intranet.
3. Korean peninsula.
 4. internet and extranet.
5. internet and internal systems.

Question 49
Data that is used infrequently or not at all may be moved to an alternative data store. This is called:

1. auditing
2. authentication
3. archiving
4. replication
5. analysis

Question 50
Mapping requirements and rules for moving data from source to target enables:

1. extract
2. load
3. backups
4. transformation
5. analysis

Question 51
Integrating two data stores using batch or real-time synchronous approaches results in a difference in:

1. latency
2. data quality
3. source of truth
4. lethargy
5. timestamping

Question 52
In data integration, the goal of data discovery is to:

1. identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant.
2. identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality.
3. assign data glossary terms and data formats.
4. assign data glossary terms and canonical models.
5. identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality.

Question 53
Implementing a services-oriented architecture will often use:

1. a data lake.
2. an enterprise services bus.
3. ETL servers.
4. data visualisation tools.
5. a data modelling tool.

Question 54
The ability of a photo app to share its images with various social media applications, is an example of:

1. metadata
2. replication
3. rendering
4. integration
5. interoperability

Question 55
The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom of:

1. multiple integration technologies.

2. multiple data owners.
 3. multiple data warehouses.
4. multiple metadata tags.
5. multiple application coding languages.

Question 56
The implementation of a 'master data repository', which is integrated across the enterprise, is an example of which integration
approach?

1. Replication
2. Change Data Capture
3. Hub and Spoke
4. Publish and Subscribe
5. Point to Point

Question 57
An enterprise content management system (ECM) stores the following:

1. backups of the enterprise's data warehouse.

2. "documents and images, but not multi-media."
3. Kanban boards.
4. information to be displayed on websites and contained in documents.
5. code and test scripts for enterprise development environments.

Question 58
A goal of 'Document and Content Management' is to ensure effective and efficient retrieval and use of:

1. data and information in relational formats.

2. "data, but not information in unstructured formats."
3. data and information in unstructured formats.
4. "information, but not data in unstructured formats."
5. data and information in structured formats.
Question 59
Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management lifecycle'?

1. Manage retention and disposal.

2. Audit documents and records.
3. Manage versions and control.
4. Create a content strategy.
5. Capture records and content.

Question 60
"Planning, implementation and control activities for lifecycle management of data and information, found in any form or medium,
pertain to which knowledge area?"

1. Metadata Management
2. Document and Content Management
3. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
4. Data Integration and Interoperability
5. Data Storage and Operations

Question 61
Users continue to use a shared drive instead of a new document management system. This may be due to:

1. the document management system is too expensive.

2. a failure to backup the shared drive.
3. concern about the ability to version documents.
4. concurrent updates to the document are handled better by the shared drive.
5. onerous classification requirements when adding documents.

Question 62
"An enterprise's organisation chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting line. This is an example of a:"
 1. hierarchical taxonomy.
2. ecological taxonomy.
3. compound taxonomy.
4. flat taxonomy.
5. hybrid taxonomy.

Question 63
A search engine database is populated by a web crawler or spider software that usually processes as:

1. "continually repeating, always performing (CRAP)."

2. "basically available, soft state, eventually consistent (BASE)."
3. "atomic, consistent, isolated, durable (ACID)."
4. "linearly independent, near exact (LINE)."
5. "fundamentally available, consistently true (FACT)."

Question 64
"Integrating data security with document and content management knowledge areas, guides the implementation of:"

1. fitness for purpose metrics for unstructured data.

2. appropriate access and authorisation to unstructured data.
3. straight-through processing for NoSQL queries.
4. appropriate access and authorisation to structured data.
5. appropriate privacy controls on data marts.

Question 65
Reference data is used to:

1. describe backup strategies.

2. populate fact tables in a data mart.
3. categorise or classify data.
 4. enforce enterprise security standards.
5. dedupe customer records.

Question 66
A goal of reference and master data management is for data to ensure shared data is:

1. secure, auditable, complete and relevant

2. secure, auditable, publicly available and free.
3. complete, consistent, content and relevant.
4. continuous, consistent, current and private.
5. complete, consistent, current and authoritative.

Question 67
One of the first steps in a master data management program is to:

1. secure funding for 20 years of operations.

2. build multiple data marts.
3. decommission similar data collection systems.
4. review data security protocols.
5. evaluate and assess data sources.

Question 68
Data that is required across business processes, areas and systems is called:

1. Reference and Master Data.

2. Event Data.
3. Important Data.
4. A Data Mart.
5. Static Data.

Question 69
In order to gain endorsement to extend the use of reference and master data across the enterprise, a key supporting DMBOK
knowledge area is:

1. Data Storage and Operations.

2. Data Architecture.
3. Data Governance.
4. Document and Content Management.
5. Data Security.

Question 70
The loading of country codes into a CRM is a classic:

1. transaction data integration.

2. reference data integration.
3. master data integration.
4. analytics data integration.
5. fact data integration.

Question 71
The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

1. reference data inconsistencies.

2. duplicate data.
3. transaction data inconsistencies.
4. master data inconsistencies.
5. deadlocks in the database.

Question 72
Emergency contact phone number would be found in which master data management program?

1. Product
 2. Asset
3. Service
4. Location
5. Employee

Question 73
The business case for enterprise warehousing is:

1. to reduce data redundancy, improve information consistency, and enable an enterprise to use its data to make better decisions.
2. to increase data redundancy, align information glossaries, and enable an enterprise to exploit machine learning techniques.
3. to reduce data overload, improve information governance, and enable an enterprise to use its data to make better decisions.
4. to increase data distribution, improve information generation, and enable an enterprise to use its data to increase revenue.
5. to align data systems, improve source system management, and to enable an enterprise exploit machine learning techniques.

Question 74
Critical to the success of the data warehouse is the ability to explain the data. The DMBoK knowledge area that practices these
techniques is:

1. Metadata Management
2. Data Storage and Operations
3. Data Architecture
4. Document & Content Management
5. Reference and Master Data

Question 75
The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

1. reference data inconsistencies.

2. duplicate data.
3. transaction data inconsistencies.
4. master data inconsistencies.
 5. deadlocks in the database.

Question 76
One of the difficulties when integrating multiple source systems is:

1. determining valid links or equivalences between data elements.

2. maintaining documentation describing the data warehouse operation.
3. completing the data architecture on time for the first release.
4. modifying the source systems to align to the enterprise data model.
5. having a data quality rule applicable to all source systems.

Question 77
A data warehouse deployment with multiple ETL, storage and querying tools often suffers due to the lack of:

1. disk space on the big data platform.

2. integration of the dictionaries to achieve common understanding.
3. quality data modellers.
4. common data types in the source datasets.
5. conflict between software vendors.

Question 78
A key feature of the Bill Inmon's approach to data warehousing is:

1. its ability to operate on open source platforms.

2. a preference for supporting operational reporting.
3. a normalised relational model to store and manage data.
4. a tight management of data dimensions.
5. an exclusive focus on star schemas and cubes.

Question 79
De-identifying sensitive data in a data warehouse enables:
 1. a reduced complexity in the data models.
2. increased utilisation without compromising data privacy.
3. a bypass in the need to assess data quality.
4. a focus on re-identifying records with 3rd party datasets.
5. certainty of complete datasets for interrogation.

Question 80
In a data warehouse, where the classification lists for organisation type are inconsistent in different source systems, there is an
indication that there is a lack of focus on:

1. Data Modelling
2. Master Data
3. Metadata Management
4. Reference data
5. Data Storage

Question 81
Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides:

1. an estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data.

2. information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems.
3. scoping boundaries of the data dictionary.
4. effective project scope management.
5. insights into the temporal data quality.

Question 82
A goal of metadata management is to manage data related business terminology in order to:

1. ensure people understand data definition in BI systems.

2. ensure accurate data requirements are gathered for reporting.
 3. ensure people understand data content and can use data consistently.
4. successfully size the database.
5. ensure the business processes align to the data model.

Question 83
Metadata is often categorized into three types, they are:

1. business, technical and strategic

2. business, strategic and meta-metadata
3. operational, reporting and analytical
4. business, technical and operational
5. technical, infrastructure and instance

Question 84
The role of Metadata in Data Management is:

1. to help organisations understand its data, its systems and its workflows
2. to display appropriate data on screens and reports
3. to provide effective decision making
4. to group common data concepts
5. to build a big data solution

Question 85
Tagging a column as personally identifiable information is an example of:

1. Data dictionary
2. Metadata
3. Data Architecture
4. Data Quality
5. Data profiling
Question 86
One of a business data steward's key responsibilities is to:

1. manage data storage and operations

2. manage the calendar of the business data owner
3. manage metadata
4. manage business process implementation
5. manage the availability of the business intelligence solution

Question 87
A report displaying birth date contains possible but incorrect values. What is a possible explanation?

1. Birth date is populated from a single source system; which contains missing values.
2. Birth date is populated from two source systems; one of which stores marriage date in the birth date field.
3. Birth date is populated from two source systems; both of which record the birth date in the birth date field.
4. Birth date is populated from a single source system; which does not contain birth date.
5. Birth date is populated from a single source system; where the date field is an offset value of 1601.

Question 88
The search function associated with a document management store is failing to return known artefacts.

1. Group of answer choices

2. maintaining appropriate metadata on each document.
3. data privacy and confidentiality procedures.
4. effective data quality metrics.
5. business intelligence implementation.
6. maintaining public access to all documents in the document management store.

Question 89
A Data Quality dimension is:
 1. a valid value in a list.
2. a core concept in dimensional modelling.
3. the value of a particular piece of data.
4. a measurable feature or characteristic of data.
5. one aspect of data quality used extensively in data governance.

Question 90
Which of the following is NOT a preventative action for creating high quality data:

1. Train data producers.

2. Automated correction algorithms capable of detecting and correcting errors.
3. Institute formal data change control.
4. Implement data governance and stewardship.
5. Establish data entry controls.

Question 91
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the Shewhart / Deming Cycle that drives the data quality improvement lifecycle:

1. Investigate
2. Plan
3. Do
4. Check
5. Act

Question 92
A data quality program should limit its scope to:

1. the data that is of interest to the Chief Executive Officer.

2. all the data stored in the enterprise.
3. the data that changes most often.
4. the data most critical to the enterprise and its customers.
 5. the highest profile program with the best benefits.

Question 93
'Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert because:

1. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data.
2. It gets everyone involved.
3. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data.
4. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work.
5. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured.

Question 94
Which of the following is the best example of the data quality dimension of 'consistency':

1. The phone numbers in the customer file do not adhere to the standard format.
2. The revenue data in the dataset is always $100 out.
3. All the records in the CRM have been accounted for in the data warehouse.
4. The source data for the end of month report arrived 1 week late.
5. The customer file has 50% duplicated entries.

Question 95
A data quality report assesses the coding of deposit transactions. The following variations in the coding is apparent: DEP, Dep, dep,
dEp. Which DMBoK knowledge area has been ignored?

1. Metadata Management
2. Data Governance
3. Reference and Master Data
4. Data Storage and Operations
5. Data Quality

Question 96
Which of the following is the best example of a 'documented data quality rule':

1. Every transaction recorded must be processed by 12:05 am by authorised personnel who will validate balances and data
delivery to branches.
2. The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to reflect actual customer balances each morning.
3. The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to be ready by 12:05 am in order to feed the overnight batching window,
to ensure branches have access to actual customer balances.
4. Each transaction data file holding customer transactions must be kept confidential to the authorised users within the operations
team.
5. All transaction data in the core banking systems need to be processed at 12:05 am each day regardless of the business calendar
day and timezone.

Question 97
"The ethics of data handling centre on several core concepts. They are:"

1. "access to data, potential for misuse and storage cost."

2. "impact on people, potential for misuse and economic value."
3. "impact on people, potential for re-use and storage cost."
4. "privacy, security and authorisation."
5. "accurate business glossary, data quality and reference data."

Question 98
GDPR and PIPEDA are examples of:

1. global data modelling standards.

2. content management systems.
3. data protection regulations.
4. data program rules.
5. primary information parsing algorithms.

Question 99
An application that attempts to predict future outcomes through probability estimates is called:

1. just-in-time reporting
2. predictive analytics
3. dimensional analytics
4. descriptive analytics
5. reactive analytics

Question 100
"A machine learning algorithm that incorrectly classifies new data values may have a problem with population imbalances in:"

1. reference data management.

2. predictive analytics.
3. big data architecture.
4. model training data.
5. metadata management.

Question 1
has the same stage as the system delivery lifecycle.
 1. Hardware managment.
2. Is used primarily for data archiving.
3. Is only important in regulated industries
4. Exists beyond the system delivery lifecycle
5. Is not relevant in an agile environment.

Question 2
DQ-The data quality managment cycle has four stage. three are Plan,Monitor&Act. What is fourth stage?

1. Improve.
2. Prepare.
3. Reiterate.
4. Deploy.
5. Manage.

Question 3
DQ-Which of these is a key process in defining Producing data quality bussiness rules?

1. Matching data from different data sources.

2. Producing data quality reports & dashboards
3. De-duplicating data records
4. Producing data management policies

Question 4
DG-Communicating the value of Data Governance can be approached in a number of ways. which of the following approaches is
NOT a recognised way of doing this?

1. Providing only negative communications on ongoing data issues to key executive stakeholders
2. Maintainin intranet website
3. publishing a regular newsletter via hardcopy or email
 4. promote participation in a DM forum or community
5. creating a series of "elevator pitches" for the appropriate audience

Question 5
DG-When considering a Data Governance program, communication is a key element. There are many ways of managing this
communication, with one of the most effective being a data Managment intranet. Which of the following would you typically NOT
put onto such an communication vehicle?

1. Description of the DG organisation, it's key members and contact details.

2. executive messege regarding significant data managment issues.
3. The Data Stewards team profilies.
4. Raw data results of an investigiation into a possible data privacy breach.
5. Link to a "rais an issue" Log.

Question 6
MDM-the role of physical data model in the metadata repostiry is?

1. Which version of COST software (E.g. SAP) is implemented.

2. To descripe how and where our data is stored in our systems applications or packages.
3. What the bussiness diffinsions of data cocepts is
4. How many master data records are stored in our MDM system
5. When the duplicated records where merged.
Question 7
MDM-Upodating the Metadata repository is the recommended activity during project close out in SDLC.
TRUE
FALSE

Question 8
DG-Apart from the security requirment internal to the organization , what other strategic goal should a data sequrity Managment
system address?
 1. Complaince with ISO29100 and PCI-DSS.
2. Complaince with ISO27001 and HIPPA.
3. Regulatory requirments for privacy and confidentiality AND privacy and confidentiality needs of all steakholders.
4. Ensuring the organization dosent engaged in SPAM marketing.

Question 9
DG-When performing an evaluation of analytic applications,which of the following questions is least relavent to identify the level of
effort needed?

1. How much of tool infrastructure meets our organizational infrastructure.

2. The standard source system for which ETL is supplied.
3. NO. of source systems we need to integrate into the tool
4. How much the canned process in the tool match our business.
5. Annual costs such as license, maintenance, etc.
6.
Question 63
Integrating data security with document and content management knowledge areas, guides the implementation of:

1. Appropriate access and authorization to structured data

2. Fitness for purpose metrics for unstructured data
3. Appropriate privacy controls on data marts
4. Appropriate access and authorization to unstructured data
5. Straight-through processing for NoSQL queries

Question 64
The metadata structure for a content management system can be represented with a:

1. Mind map
2. Authorization matrix
3. CRUD matrix
 4. Process model
5. Data model

Question 69
When trying to integrate a large number of systems, the integration complexities can be reduced by:
1. The use of SQL
2. The use of a common data model
3. Clear business specification and priorities
4. Using data quality measures and targets.
5. Tackling the largest systems first

Question 70
Initiatives focused on building a 'single view of customer' mainly rely on which DMBOK knowledge area?

1. Reference and Master Data

2. Data Security
3. Data Storage and Operations
4. Data Architecture
5. Metadata Management

Question 71
All the systems in the enterprise, apart from a website, are showing updated pricing information. This may be due to:

1. The slowly changing dimension has both from and to dates

2. The pricing information is not updated in the reference data repository
3. The reference data strategy has not been approved by the executive
4. The website software not integrating with the reference data repository
5. The website software is not using standard XML schemas
Question 72
The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

1. Transaction data inconsistencies

2. Deadlocks in the database
3. Reference data inconsistencies
4. Master data inconsistencies
5. Duplicate data

Question 78
A data warehouse deployment with multiple ETL, storage and querying tools often suffers due to the lack of:

1. Integration of the dictionaries to achieve common understanding

2. Common data types in the source datasets
3. Quality data modelers
4. Conflict between software vendors
5. Disk space on the big data platform

Question 83
By setting, enforcing and auditing metadata standards, organisations hope to:

1. Provide activities for the data governance office

2. Ease of understanding data dictionaries
3. Simplify integration and enable use
4. Standardize business rules in operational processes
5. Ensure the appropriate classification or meta-metadata
Question 85
One of a business data steward's key responsibility is to:

1. Manage metadata
2. Manage business process implementation
3. Manage the calendar of the business data owner
4. Manage the availability of the business intelligence solution
5. Manage data storage and operations

Question 86
A complexity in documenting data lineage is

1. Establishing data quality metrics

2. Different data element names and formats
3. Conflicting application requirements from data owners
4. Identifying source databases
5. Choosing which content management software to use

Question 87
The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:

1. Software ignoring privacy tags on the data.

2. Stored procedures being called directly
3. Inappropriate use of photocopier toner
4. Cloud-based databases
5. Ineffective implementation of data architecture

Question 93
'Top down' and 'bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert because:

1. It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data

 2. It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data
3. It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with the work
4. It gets everyone involved
5. Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured

Question 96
A pensioner who was sent a $100,000,000 electricity bill was a victim of poor data quality checks in which dimension?

1. Timeliness
2. Heuristics
3. Precision
4. Accuracy
5. Reasonableness

Question 100
In data handling ethics, 'social license' refers to the alignment between:

1. Public perception and published fact

2. Social and political decision matrices
3. Stakeholder expectations and the organisation
4. Stakeholder demands and technology deliverables
5. Society's needs and their right to access data

Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a goal of data management?

1. Capturing, storing, protecting and ensuring the integrity of data assets

2. Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation or use of data and information
3. Ensuring the quality of data and information
4. Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
5. Understanding the process needs of the enterprise
Question 8
Information governance and data governance should be:

1. Managed as integrated functions, with data governance reporting to information governance

2. Managed as separate functions
3. Managed as integrated functions, with information governance reporting to data governance
4. Managed as a single function
5. Managed by the Chief Information Officer

Question 23
The repeated implementation of different CRM technologies with different data structures is mostly a failure of:

1. Data security
2. Data quality
3. Data warehousing
4. Data architecture
5. Data modelling

Question 98
A 'Data Swamp' is a data lake that has become:

1. Modeled, managed and muddy

2. Messy, unclean and inconsistent
3. A data asset that uses machine learning
4. Overly cataloged, holding information and data
5. Suitable for frogs, toads and salamanders
Question 97
A 'Data Lake' is an environment where a vast amount of data can be:

1. Digested, processed, deleted and visualized

2. Ingested, screened, obfuscated and purged
3. Updated, obfuscated, nullified and cleansed
4. Ingested, shared, assessed and analyzed
5. Purged, sorted, split and scanned

Question 96
Which DMBoK knowledge area is most likely responsible for a high percentage of returned mail?

1. Data Integration and Interoperability

2. Reference and Master Data
3. Data Quality
4. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
5. Metadata Management

Question 95
Which of the following is the best example of a 'documented data quality rule'?

1. Each transaction data file holding customer transactions must be kept confidential to the authorized users within
the operations team
 2. Every transaction recorded must be processed by 12:05 am by authorized personnel who will validate balances
and data delivery to branches
3. All transaction data in the core banking systems need to be processed at 12:05 am each day regardless of the
business calendar day and timezone
4. The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to reflect actual customer balances each morning
5. The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to be ready by 12:05 am in order to feed the overnight
batching window, to ensure branches have access to actual customer balances

Question 93
When a data quality team has more issues than they can manage, they should look to:

1. Establish a program of quick wins targeting easy fixes over a short time period
2. Hire more people
3. Delete any issue that is greater than 6 months old
4. Implement data validation rules on data entry systems
5. Initiate data quality improvement cycles, focusing on achieving incremental improvements

Question 92
Which of the following is NOT required to effectively track data quality incidents?

1. A well-defined system of escalation based on the impact, duration, or urgency of an issue

2. An effective service level agreement with defined rewards and penalties
3. An operational workflow that ensures effective resolution
4. An assignment process to appropriate individuals and teams
5. A standard vocabulary for classifying data quality issues
Question 89
Which of the following is NOT a preventative action for creating high quality data?

1. Establish data entry controls

2. Implement data governance and stewardship
3. Automated correction algorithms capable of detecting and correcting errors
4. Train data producers
5. Institute formal data change control

Question 86
A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

1. Establishing data quality metrics

2. Conflicting application requirements from data owners
3. Choosing which content management software to use
4. Different data element names and formats
5. Identifying source databases

Question 84
Where is the best place to find the following metadata: database table names, column names and indexes?

1. Security access authorisation

2. Detailed business processes
3. Enterprise data model
4. Logical data model
5. Database catalogue
Question 82
Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides:

1. Effective project scope management

2. Information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems
3. An estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data
4. Insights into the temporal data quality
5. Scoping boundaries of the data dictionary

Question 81
Well executed metadata management enables:

1. A consistent design for dimensional reporting

2. A consistent authorization framework
3. A consistent understanding of data resources
4. A consistent understanding of database design
5. A consistent approach to data modelling

Question 80
The uncontrolled duplication of dimensions in a Kimball data warehouse is best controlled by:

1. Establishing approval processes after user testing and before implementation

2. Adapting the data architecture techniques supporting an Inmon style
3. Increased reference data management in source systems
4. Replacing the data modelling team
 5. Establishing approval processes during requirements and design

Question 77
In order to speed up data warehouse development, the data vault approach focuses on the management of:

1. Current data over historical data

2. Each data element in the source systems
3. Surrogate keys from operational systems
4. Alignment of the data dictionaries
5. Unique identifiers of enterprise concepts

Question 73
During the implementation of a data warehouse, a roadmap is used to:

1. Articulate data quality checkpoints

2. Demonstrate progress towards the desired end state
3. Construct intricate security authorization
4. Articulate user requirements
5. Demonstrate alignment to the project plan

Question 70
When trying to integrate a large number of systems, the integration complexities can be reduced by:

1. The use of a common data model

2. Using data quality measures and targets.
3. Tackling the largest systems first
4. Clear business specification and priorities
 5. The use of SQL

Question 69
In order to gain endorsement to extend the use of reference and master data across the enterprise, a key supporting
DMBOK knowledge area is:

1. Document and Content Management

2. Data Architecture
3. Data Storage and Operations
4. Data Security
5. Data Governance

Question 68
Data that is required across business processes, areas and systems is called:

1. Reference and Master Data

2. Event Data
3. A Data Mart
4. Important Data
5. Static Data

Question 67
One of the first steps in a master data management program is to:

1. Secure funding for 20 years of operations

2. Review data security protocols
3. Decommission similar data collection systems
4. Evaluate and assess data sources
5. Build multiple data marts
Question 66
The process of identifying how different records may relate to a single entity is called:

1. Matching
2. Mangling
3. Meshing
4. Mirroring
5. Munging

Question 65
When assessing tools to implement master data management solutions, functionality must include:

1. Advanced analytics capabilities

2. Backup and recovery utilities
3. Document and content management
4. Sophisticated integration capability
5. Auto-normalization features

Question 64
A workforce is locked out of a building due to a threat to personnel. The BCP is stored in the DMS. Luckily:

1. The workforce are expendable

2. The metadata repository holds the BCP
3. The security policy includes such a scenario
4. The data warehouse catalog is fully operational
5. The document is printed and stored off site
Question 63
The metadata structure for a content management system can be represented with a:

1. Authorization matrix
2. CRUD matrix
3. Mind map
4. Data model
5. Process model

Question 62
Users continue to use a shared drive instead of a new document management system. This may be due to:

1. Concurrent updates to the document are handled better by the shared drive
2. Concern about the ability to version documents
3. The document management system is too expensive
4. Onerous classification requirements when adding documents
5. A failure to backup the shared drive

Question 61
Sentiment analysis of call centre voice files is performed by text analysis and stored in a relational database. Which of the
following is true?

1. They are both unstructured data

2. The voice files are unstructured data and the sentiment analysis is structured data
3. The voice files are structured data and the sentiment analysis is unstructured data
 4. They are both structured data
5. Structured and unstructured data are the same thing

Question 56
The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom of:

1. Multiple data warehouses

2. Multiple application coding languages
3. Multiple integration technologies
4. Multiple metadata tags
5. Multiple data owners

Question 55
If two data stores are able to be inconsistent during normal operations, then the integration approach is:

1. Synchronous
2. Uncontrolled
3. Streaming
4. Faulty
5. Asynchronous

Question 52
The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for:

1. Document and Content Management

 2. Data Integration and Interoperability
3. Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence
4. Data Security
5. Data Storage and Operations

Question 50
A document that stipulates the responsibilities and acceptable use of data to be exchanged is a:

1. Data sharing agreement

2. Data model
3. Project charter
4. Interface contract
5. Data quality assessment

Question 49
In data integration, the goal of data discovery is to:

1. Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant
2. Assign data glossary terms and data formats
3. Identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality
4. Assign data glossary terms and canonical models
5. Identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality

Question 48
Compound authorization groups provide a means to:

1. Precisely configure an individual's access to a system

2. Effectively prepare for data security audits
 3. Obfuscate a user's actual access to a system
4. Distract the data security officer
5. Encrypt sensitive transmissions of data

Question 45
A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from usage logs. The security mechanism
being used is an:

1. Authorisation
2. Authentication
3. Audit
4. Entitlement
5. Access

Question 42
A weakness or defect in a system that allows it to be successfully attacked and compromised is a:

1. Chasm
2. Vulnerability
3. Risk
4. Feature
 5. Threat

Question 41
Information security begins by classifying an organisation's data in order to:

1. Identify which systems need better reporting

2. Identify which data needs protection
3. Identify the metadata classification values
4. Identify which subject area the data belongs in
5. Identify which departments need more data

Question 40
Periodic archiving of transaction data from a production CRM system is critical for:

1. Training junior DBAs

2. Providing alternate sources for reporting systems
3. Enabling the distribution of transaction data across the enterprise
4. The maintenance of database performance
5. Managing deleted customer records

Question 39
An application uses a single service account for all database access. One of the risks of this approach is:

1. The ability to trace who made changes to the data

2. The database runs out of threads
 3. It constrains the application from running parallel processes
4. The data becomes out of order
5. The application freezes more often

Question 38
A database whose index is updated with a crawler program is an example of:

1. Database technology called TRIP

2. Database technology called BASE
3. Database technology called NoSQL
4. Database technology called ACID
5. Database technology called SQL

Question 36
Data replication is useful as it provides:

1. Opportunities to secure sensitive data

2. An alternative to backups
3. Insights into customer retention
4. Enables different table structures to be built
5. The ability to spread the workload across multiple databases

Question 35
Regulatory data retention requirements drive the need to keep data for set periods for:
 1. Alternate backup sources
2. Customer analytics
3. Legal obligations
4. Submitting datasets to regulators
5. Historical reporting

Question 34
Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:

1. Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics

2. Capacity, design, normalization, user access
3. Create, read, update, delete
4. Create, read, normalization, user access
5. Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality

Question 33
Production DBA's would not normally take responsibility for:

1. Implementing backup and recovery mechanisms

2. Implementing mechanisms for clustering and failover of the database
3. Executing other database maintenance activities, such as archiving
4. Ensuring performance and reliability of the database
5. The fitness of purpose for data in the database

Question 32
The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalisation) is to:

1. Avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once
2. Optimize overall database performance across both data access and data update requests
3. Fully utilize all the indexes
4. Make it easier for developers to join tables
5. Ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables

Question 31
Significant operational issues have been caused by the implementation of a data model that represents a Customer
Agreement as a ternary relationship between the Enterprise, a Customer, and their Contact Person. Which of the
following describes the likely operational issue?

1. Every time the Customer Agreement was renewed, a new Contact Person record was required
2. Response time for retrieving the Customer Agreement degrades rapidly due to the lack of indexing
3. Every time the customer changes addresses the address for the contact person must change as well
4. In the event of a merger between enterprises, the contact person addresses need to be updated
5. Every time the contact person changes, the customer agreement needs to be re-established

Question 30
In a data model, domains can be used for:

1. Consolidation of data into subject areas

2. Reducing the amount of coding required in the database
3. Separating concepts into business ideas
4. Consistency and standardization of data values
 5. Public viewing of the data model

Question 28
In data modelling practice, entities are linked by:

1. Relationships
2. Triggers
3. Cardinality
4. Processes
5. Indexes

Question 26
Data Models are critical to effective management of data, because they:

1. Control the list of values in dropdown lists in applications

2. Strategically prepare organisations to quickly evolve their products and services
3. Determine which style of data schema is used in a data warehouse
4. Define the rules and approval mechanisms to make changes to the data structures
5. Provide a common vocabulary around data

Question 25
A lineage data tool provides:
 1. A temporal distortion of data values across systems
2. A clean line between columns in the same entity
3. Scope for reporting requirements
4. Ancestral origin of data DNA
5. The capture and maintenance of source structures for each attribute on the data model

Over a decade an organization has rationalized implementation of party concepts from 48 systems to 3. This is a result of
good:

1. System rationalization and metadata management

2. Data quality and data governance
3. Data operations and system rationalization
4. Data architecture and data warehousing
5. Data architecture and data governance

Question 23
The repeated implementation of different CRM technologies with different data structures is mostly a failure of:

1. Data security
2. Data quality
3. Data warehousing
4. Data architecture
5. Data modelling

Question 22
The ability of an organisation to respond to changes in product configuration is easier due to generalisation in the:

1. Technical architecture
2. Business architecture
 3. Data architecture
4. Data warehousing
5. Data quality

Question 21
An annual enterprise data architecture report is comprised of a summary of enterprise data model updates, project
compliance and variances, and a measurement of:

1. Data landscape compliance

2. Data warehouse compliance
3. Database backup compliance
4. Reference and master data compliance
5. Data security compliance

Question 20
The key architecture domains include:

1. Business, data, application and technology architectures

2. Business, data, infrastructure and technology architectures
3. Business, strategy, application and technology architectures
4. Process, database, software and technology architectures
5. Zachmann, TOGAF, Cobit, and Heath architectures

Question 19
The goal of data architecture is to be:
 1. A bridge too far
2. A bridge between business analysis and data modelling
3. A bridge between technology strategy and database design
4. A bridge between business strategy and technology execution
5. A bridge between business execution and technology strategy

Question 1
Data and information are:

1. Representations of truth
2. Completely separate things
3. Pillars of the modern organisational Parthenon
4. Intertwined and dependent on each other
5. Used only in the context of business intelligence

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT an approach to data valuation?

1. Enterprise data modelling

2. What the data could be sold for
3. Cost of obtaining and storing data
4. Cost of replacing data if it were lost
5. Expected revenue from innovative uses of data
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a goal of data management?

1. Capturing, storing, protecting and ensuring the integrity of data assets

2. Preventing unauthorized access, manipulation or use of data and information
3. Ensuring the quality of data and information
4. Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data
5. Understanding the process needs of the enterprise

Question 4
Data management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver
control, protect and enhance:

1. The value of data assets

2. Data and information assets
3. The value of data and information assets
4. Enterprise management capabilities
5. The value of information assets

Question 5
The 'Data Management Body of Knowledge' is produced by:

1. The Data Analysis Association

2. The Data Management Association
3. The Data Practitioner Association
 4. The Project Management Institute
5. The Data Management Authority

Question 6
Knowledge area activities are classified into four categories. They are:

1. Procurement, Detailing, Control and Organizing

2. Preparation, Detailing, Creating and Deployment
3. Planning, Development, Control and Operations
4. Planning, Detailing, Control and Organizing
5. Procurement, Development, Control and Operations

Question 7
In the common enterprise architecture model coded BIAT, the 'I' stands for:

1. Interoperability
2. Identification
3. Integration
4. Information
5. Instance

Question 8
Information governance and data governance should be:

1. Managed as integrated functions, with data governance reporting to information governance

 2. Managed as separate functions
3. Managed as integrated functions, with information governance reporting to data governance
4. Managed as a single function
5. Managed by the Chief Information Officer

Question 9
A common driver for data governance is:

1. The appointment of a CDO

2. Irreconcilable figures in reports
3. Internal audits
4. Regulatory compliance
5. Outsourcing

Question 10
Common understanding of the core business concepts and terminology is the objective of which deliverable?

1. Data Dictionary
2. Data Warehouse Architecture
3. Business Glossary
4. Security Framework
5. Metadata Repositories
Question 11
The purpose of data governance is to ensure that:

1. Data can be reported on by the business line

2. Data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices
3. Data is available for other systems to use
4. Data will be understood by all stakeholders
5. Data is backed up every night

Question 12
The primary role of a data steward is:

1. To interfere in IT projects
2. To manage the data quality business unit
3. To manage data assets on behalf of others and in the best interests of the organisation
4. To encourage certification in data management best practices across the organisation
5. To perform program code reviews

Question 13
The steps followed in managing data issues include:

1. Standardisation, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion

2. Standardisation, Allocation, Assignment, and Correction
 3. Standardisation, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion
4. Read, Guess, Code, Release
5. Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion

Question 14
An effective Data Governance communication program should include the following:

1. All answers
2. A Data Governance Portal
3. A custom training programs
4. Regular newsletters
5. Events that encourage informal networking

Question 15
Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first month. The reason for this
might be:

1. The automatic deletion of all issues in the database

2. Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system
3. The denial of overtime requests
4. There are no data issues in the enterprise
5. Lack of credibility in the data governance process to effect changes

Question 16
The advantage of a decentralized data governance model over a centralized model is:
 1. The cheaper execution of data governance operations
2. Having a common approach to resolving data governance issues
3. An increased level of ownership from local decision-making groups
4. The easier implementation of industry data models
5. The common metadata repository configurations

Question 17
Which of the following activities is NOT a way that enterprise data architecture influences the scope boundaries of
projects?

1. Ensuring enterprise business processes are effectively documented

2. Ensuring sufficient data replication controls are in place
3. Performing design reviews to ensure support of long-term organisational strategy
4. Providing enterprise data requirement for projects
5. Enforcing data architecture standards

Question 18
According to the ISO/IEC 42010:2007 Software and Systems Engineering - Architecture Description, which of the
following describes the definition of architecture:

1. The fundamental organisation of a system, and the principles governing its design and evolution
2. The fundamental rules for ensuring the information captured in the architected solution is enforcing data quality and
completeness
3. The fundamental view of how the system should be built and how it will be maintained
4. The fundamental responsibility for delivering the best systems at the lowest cost
5. The fundamental collection of all artifacts that describes a system and how they work together