11-04-2026

6001CKC20217625018RT KC

PHYSICS

1) The volume of a cylindrical bar is to be determined. Its length and cross-sectional radius are
found to have 1 % and 3/2 % error respectively. The maximum percentage error in the calculated
volume is:

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 5%

2) A train runs at a velocity +15 m/s relative to earth. A passenger in the train throws a stone with a
speed of 15 m/s in a direction opposite to the movement of train. The velocity of stone, relative to
earth is:

(1) zero
(2) 15 m/s
(3) -15 m/s
(4) 30 m/s

3) A block of mass m moving with a velocity v, strikes horizontally, the free end of a spring of force
constant k, so as to compress it, whose other end is fixed to a rigid support. If F be the maximum
force offered by the spring on the block, then F is proportional to:

(1)
(2)
(3) v
(4) All of these

4) A cube of mass 'm' rests on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction ( ) is large
enough to impede any kind of sliding, before it topples. The minimum value of horizontal force F
required to topple it is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Depends on

5) A block rests on a rough inclined plane (with coefficient of friction ) with 30° angle of
inclination. If the frictional force is 20 N, then the mass of the block (in kg) is: (take g = 10ms-2)

(1) 3.2
(2) 4.0
(3) 8.0
(4) Depends on

6) A force F acts on a particle at rest at time t=0. If its kinetic energy varies as the square of time t,
then F is proportional to:

(1)

(2)

(3) t
0
(4) t

7) A force acts at a point on the origin. The magnitude of torque about point (1,0) due
to is:

(1)
(2) 5
(3)
(4) 10

8) A uniform wire having linear mass density is given the shape of a circular coil of radius R.
Moment of inertia of this ring about any of its diameter is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A 10 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water, wherein water rises to 4 cm height. If the entire
set up is installed in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in the tube is:

(1) zero
(2) 4 cm
(3) 10 cm without any overflow of water
(4) 10 cm with water overflowing.
10) In an adiabatic process . Then for the gas is:

(1) 4/3
(2) 2
(3) 5/3
(4) 3/2

11) Two identical coherent sound waves A and B reach a point in the same phase, producing a
resultant sound wave C. The loudness of C is n dB higher than that of B. the value of n is about:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

12) The rms speed of gas molecules is c, whose average number of degrees of freedom per molecule
is 6. The speed of sound in the gas is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A particle undergoes SHM with amplitude A along X-axis, represented by Its
maximum speed will be:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two identical conducting spheres carrying different charges attract each other. They are then
brought into contact and then taken to their original positions. They repel each other, with a force of
same magnitude as that of the initial attractive force. The ratio between the initial charges on the
spheres is:

(1) only
(2) only
(3) or
(4) None of these
15) Each of 27 identical drops of a conducting liquid is charged up to a potential of V0. The potential
on the surface, if they coalesce to form a bigger spherical drop is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance C has charges on different surfaces of its two
plates as shown in figure. The potential difference between the capacitor plate is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) For a uniform electric field , find the electric potential at x=x0, if that at x=0 is zero:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A 10 metre long wire has a resistance of per meter. It is bent to a circular shape. If A and B
are two points on the ring, between which the resistance is , then the length of minor arc AB is:

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

19) A long solenoid has 20 turns per centimeter winding. The current necessary to produce a
magnetic field of 20 mT on its axis inside it is:

(1) 8.0 A
(2) 4.0 A
(3) 2.0 A
(4) 1.0 A

20) A galvanometer with coil resistance of , yields full scale deflection corresponding to a
current of 10 mA. The resistance to be connected in a manner, with the coil, to convert, it into an
ammeter to measure current upto 1.0A is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The correct relation for magnetic permeability of a medium is:(symbols have usual meaning)

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

22) If Tc = Curie temperature for a ferro-magnetic substance, then correct dependence of its
magnetic susceptibility on temperature T, above Tc is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A glass convex lens is dipped completely in a liquid of refractive index . Then its focal
length will:

(1) become zero

(2) remain unchanged
(3) become infinite
(4) None of these

24) Light is incident on a transparent plate at an angle of incidence 60º. If reflected and refracted
rays are mutually perpendicular, then refractive index of the substance of plate is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) A convex lens is in contact kept coaxially with a concave lens. The ratio of their respective
powers is 2/3, and focal length of the combination is 30 cm. Their individual focal lengths are:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) A light ray passes through an equilateral prism placed in the position of minimum angle of

deviation. If the angle of emergence is of the prism angle, then the angle of deviation is:

(1) 30º
(2) 40º
(3) 45º
(4) 50º

27) A 10W sodium vapour lamp converts 90% of the energy consumed into light. If sodium light has
a wavelength 590 nm and , find the rate of photon emission by the lamp per
second:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) A certain photometal has a threshold frequency of f0. Electrons are ejected with a maximum
velocity of , when light of frequency 2f0 is incident it. The corresponding velocity for
incident light of 5f0 frequency is: (in )

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) A parallel 60 W power beam incident normally on a plane surface gets 40% absorbed and
remaining reflected by the latter. The force exerted by the beam on the surface is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of kinetic energy K is , the wavelength of the particle, if
its kinetic energy becomes is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) In an LR circuit current at t = 0 is 20 A. After 2s it reduces to 18 A. The time constant of the

circuit is: (in second)

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

32) Figure shows a square loop of side 0.5 m and resistance 10Ω. The magnetic field has a
magnitude B = 1.0 T. The work done in pulling the loop out of the field slowly and uniformly in 2.0 S
is:

(1) 3.125 × 10-3 J

(2) 6.25 × 10-4 J
(3) 1.25 × 10-2 J
(4) 5.0 × 10-4 J

33) A plastic hemisphere has a radius of curvature of 8 cm and an index of refraction of 1.6. On the
axis halfway between the plane surface and the spherical one (4 cm from each) is a small object O.
The distance between the two images when viewed along the axis from the two sides of the
hemisphere is approximately:

(1) 1.0 cm
(2) 1.5 cm
(3) 3.75 cm
(4) 2.5 cm

34) Magnetic moment due to the motion of the electron in nth energy state of hydrogen atom is
proportional to:

(1) n
0
(2) n
(3) n5
(4) n3

35) The equation represents

(1) -decay
(2) -decay
(3) fusion
(4) fission

36) The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photosensitive surface
for three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb, and fc be the frequencies for

the curves a, b and c respectively:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) A projectile is launched at an angle with the horizontal with a velocity . After 10 s, its
inclination with horizontal is . The value of will be: (g=10 ms-2).

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) A body of mass is taken from earth surface to the height h equal to twice the radius of earth (Re),
the increase in potential energy will be: (g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth).

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) A satellite of 103 kg mass is revolving in circular orbit of radius 2R. If energy is supplied
to the satellite, it would revolve in a new circular orbit of radius (use , R = radius of
earth).

(1) 2.5R
(2) 3R
(3) 4R
(4) 6R

40) Three charged concentric nonconducting shells are given as shown in figure. The electrostatic
potential at point A is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is filled with four dielectrics of dielectric constants
arranged as shown in the figure. The effective dielectric constant K will be:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A capacitor, C1 = is charged to a potential difference of using a 5 V battery. The

battery is removed and another capacitor, is inserted in place of the battery. When the
switch 'S' is closed, the charge flows between the capacitors for some time until equilibrium
condition is reached. What are the charges (q1 and q2) on the capacitors C1 and C2 when equilibrium

condition is reached.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A resistance is shown in the figure. Its value and tolerance are given respectively by:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44) A galvanometer of resistance when connected in series with measures a voltage of

up to 10 V. The value of resistance required to convert the galvanometer into ammeter to read up to
10A is . The value of x is:

(1) 2
(2) 800
(3) 20
(4) 200

45) An electron gun is placed inside a long solenoid of radius R on its axis. The solenoid has
n turns/length and carries a current I. The electron gun shoots an electron along the radius of the
solenoid with speed v. If the electron does not hit the surface of the solenoid, maximum possible
value of v is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

46) Two conducting circular loops A and B are placed in the same plane with their centers
coinciding. The mutual inductance between them is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

47) An ideal resistance R, ideal inductance L, ideal capacitance C and AC voltmeters V1, V2, V3 and V4

are connected to an AC source as shown. At resonance,

(1) reading in V3 = reading in V1

(2) reading in V1 = reading in V2
(3) reading in V2 = reading in V4
(4) reading in V2 = reading in V3

48) An infinitely long wire has uniform linear charge density . The net flux through a
Gaussian cube of side length , if the wire passes through any two corners of the cube that are
maximally displaced from each other, would be , where x is: [Neglect any edge effects and

use ]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

49) Two point charges 4q and -q are fixed on the x-axis at x = -d/2 and x = d/2, respectively. If the
third point charge ‘q’ is taken from the origin to x = d along the semicircle as shown in the figure,
the energy of the charge will:

(1)
Increase by

(2)
Increase by

(3)
Decrease by

(4)
Decrease by

50) Two identical electric point dipoles have dipole moments and and are held on
the x-axis at distance 'a' from each other. When released, they move along the x-axis with the
direction of their dipole moments remaining unchanged. If the mass of each dipole is 'm', their speed
when they are infinitely far apart is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

51) A wire of length 2L is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii r and
2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the two wires
forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q, then ratio p : q is:

(1) 3 : 5
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 2

52) A string is clamped at both ends and it is vibrating in its 4th harmonic. The equation of the
stationary wave is . The length of the string is: (All quantities are in
SI units.)

(1) 20 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 80 m

53) The length of metallic wire is when tension in it is T1. It is l2 when the tension is T2. The
original length of the wire will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54) Two protons are kept at a separation of 10 nm. Let Fn and Fe be the nuclear force and the
electromagnetic force between them

(1) Fn = Fe
(2) Fn >> Fe
(3) Fn << Fe
(4) Fn and Fe differ only slightly

55) A solid cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a

cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of a material of thermal conductivity
K2. The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures. Then there
is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is in steady state. The effective
thermal conductivity of the system is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56) 1 gram of ice is mixed with 1 gram of steam. Assuming no loss of energy ,at thermal equilibrium,
the temperature of the mixture is

(1) 0ºC
(2) 100ºC
(3) 50ºC
(4) 55ºC

57) Mass numbers of the elements A, B, C and D are 30, 60, 90 and 120 respectively. Their binding
energy per nucleon are 5 MeV, 8.5 MeV, 8 MeV and 7 MeV respectively. Then, in which of the
following reactions energy is released?
(1)
(2)
(3)

(1) only in (1)

(2) in (2), (3)
(3) in (1), (3)
(4) in (1), (2) and (3)

58) If and are the permittivity and permeability of free space and and are the
corresponding quantities for a medium, then refractive index of the medium is

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) Insufficient information

59) In the figure shown, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.2 V, the voltage difference between A
and B is
(1) 1.3V
(2) 2.2 V
(3) 0
(4) 0.5 V

60) The reverse break down voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in the given circuit. The current

Iz through the Zener diode is:

(1) 10 mA
(2) 7 mA
(3) 17 mA
(4) 15 mA

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following can given immediate turbidity on treatment with Lucas Reagent.

(1)

(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH

(4)
2) End products of the following sequence of reactions are :-

(1)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(2)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(3)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

(4)
yellow ppt. of CHI3,

3)

Fat soluble vitamins are :

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B12
E. Vitamin K
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C & D Only

(2) A & B Only
(3) B & C Only
(4) C & E Only

4)

LiAlH4 converts acetic acid into-

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Methane
(3) Ethyl alcohol
(4) Methyl alcohol

5) The dry distillation of calcium formate gives

(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) HCHO
(4) HCOOH
6) Which of the following compound do not gives isocyanide test?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

Acetaldehyde cannot give :

(1) Iodoform test

(2) Lucas test
(3) Benedict test
(4) Tollens test

8) In the above chemical reaction, intermediate "X" and

reagent/condition "A" are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) —→
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which one of the following is least stable resonating structure ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If law of conservation of mass is to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of H2SO4
will produce 7.3 g of HCl and BaSO4 equal to :-

(1) 11.65 g
(2) 23.3 g
(3) 25.5 g
(4) 30.6 g

12) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
atom

(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

13) Consider the given diagram for 1 mole of an ideal gas x and answer the following question :-
 The process AB represents

(1) Isobaric change

(2) Isothermal change
(3) Adiabatic change
(4) Isochoric change

14) Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl is 182 kJ. Bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are 430
and 242 kJ mol–1 respectively. The bond energy for HCl is :-

(1) 245 kJ mol–1

(2) 427 kJ mol–1
(3) 336 kJ mol–1
(4) 154 kJ mol–1

15)

Which of the following solutions has the maximum pH value ?

(1) 0.2 M HNO3

(2) 0.2 M HCl
(3) 0.2 M CH3COOH
(4) 0.2 M CH3COONa

16) A salt MX has Ksp = 4 × 10–10. What value of Ksp must another salt MX3 have if the molar solubility
of the two salts is to be identical ?

(1) 3.2 × 10–10

(2) 1.024 × 10–19
(3) 1.78 × 10–5
(4) 4.32 × 10–18

17) Which of the following aqueous solutions has maximum osmotic pressure ?

(1) Na2SO4
(2) BaCl2
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) C12H22O11

18) The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and C6H5NO2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C
respectively. Which will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature:

(1) C6H6
(2) CH3OH
(3) C6H5NH2
(4) C6H5NO2

19) A substance (initial concentration = a) reacts according to zero order kinetics. The time taken
for the completion of reaction is nearly :-

(1) a/k
(2) a/2k
(3) k/a
(4) 2k/a

20)

Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction A + B → C :-

Initial rate
Exp. [A] [B]
(mol L–[Link]–1)

1 0.1 0.1 7.5×10–3

2 0.3 0.2 9.0×10–2

3 0.3 0.4 3.6×10–1

4 0.4 0.1 3.0×10–2

(1) Rate = k[A]2 B
(2) Rate = k[A][B]2
(3) Rate = k[A][B]3
(4) Rate = k[A][B]

21) The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character
is Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. What will happened if copper spoon is used to stirred a solution of
aluminium nitrate ?

(1) The spoon gets coated with aluminium

(2) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed
(3) No reaction occurs
(4) The solution starts turning blue

22) If the half cell reaction has a large negative reduction potential, it follows that

(1) A is readily reduced

(2) A is readily oxidised
(3) A– is readily reduced
(4) A– is readily oxidised

23) In which of the following pairs, the ionisation energy of the first species is less than that of the
second :-

(1) O–, O2–

(2) S, P
(3) N, P
(4) Be+, Be

24) Based on the following reaction which one oxide is more stable :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

25) In a ABxLy (sp3 d-hybridisation of A) have ''T'' shape geometry. What will be the geometry of
molecule if A from AByLx type molecule ?
(B = Bond, L = Lone pair)

(1) ''T'' shape

(2) Sea-saw
(3) T.B.P.
(4) Linear

26) The common features of the species and NO– are :

(1) bond order three and isoelectronic.

(2) bond order two and isoelectronic.
(3) bond order three but not isoelectronic.
(4) bond order two but not isoelectronic.

27) Least soluble alkali metal carbonate is :-

(1) Li2CO3
(2) Na2CO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) Rb2CO3

28) An aqueous solution of a salt MX3 at certain temperature has a van't Hoff factor of 3.4. The
degree of dissociation for this solution of the salt is :
(1) 0.50
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.67
(4) 0.33

29) Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is

(1) Diamond
(2) Graphite
(3) Fullerenes
(4) Coal

30) Which of the following are Lewis acids ?

(1) AlCl3 and SiCl4

(2) PH3 and SiCl4
(3) BCl3 and AlCl3
(4) PH3 and BCl3

31) The correct order of catenation is :

(1) C > Si > Ge ≈ Sn

(2) C > Sn > Si ≈ Ge
(3) Ge > Sn > Si > C
(4) Si > Sn > C > Ge

32) When electricity is passed through a solution of AlCl3 13.5 g of Al is deposited. The number of
faradays must be:

(1) 1.0
(2) 1.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 2

33) The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) 9 g of Al will react, with (Al = 27)

2Al + O2 Al2O3
(1) 6g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

35) Which of the following equations respresents standard heat of formation of CH4 ?

(1) C(diamond) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g)

(2) C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g)
(3) C(diamond) + 4H(g) → CH4 (g)
(4) C(graphite) + 4H(g) → CH4 (g)

36) Radius of La3+(z = 57) is 1.06 Å. Which of following given values is closest to radius of Lu3+(z =
71)

(1) 1.40 Å
(2) 1.06 Å
(3) 0.85 Å
(4) 1.60 Å

37) A gas 'D' turns acidified potassium dichromate solution from orange to green. The gas 'D' is:

(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) NH3
(4) N2

38) Which of the following ions is the strongest oxidizing agent? (Atomic Number of Ce = 58, Eu =
63, Tb = 65, Lu = 71)

(1) Eu2+
(2) Tb4+
(3) Lu3+
(4) Ce3+

39) Mn2(CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to the presence of :

(1) Mn – Mn bond
(2) Mn – C bond
(3) Mn – O bond
(4) C – O bond

40) Which of the following electronic transition explains the colour in hexaaqua complex of Ti3+?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) The complex which is used as anti cancer agent :

(1) mer - [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

(2) cis [PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis K2[PtCl2Br2]
(4) Na2CoCl4

42) Spin only magnetic moment of an octahedral complex of Fe2+ in the presence of a strong field
ligand in BM is :

(1) 4.89
(2) 2.82
(3) 0
(4) 3.46

43) Strongest hydrogen bond is shown by:

(1) Water
(2) Ammonia
(3) Hydrogen fluoride
(4) Hydrogen sulphide

44) The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction
are 30.5 and 45.4 kJ/mol respectively. The reaction is :-

(1) Exothermic
(2) Endothermic
(3) Neither exothermic nor endothermic
(4) Independent of temperature

45) In which of the following more acidic compounds:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

46) Which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) CH2 = CH–Cl

(2) CH3–CH=CBr2

(3)

(4)

47) Which of the following group show both-I and +R/+M effects?

(1) –CHO

(2)

(3) –CH3
(4) –NO2

48) The eclipsed and staggered conformation of ethane is due to

(1) Free rotation about C–C single bond

(2) Restricted rotation about C–C single bond
(3) Absence of rotation about C–C bond
(4) None of the above

49) In the given compounds

(A)

(B)

(C)
The order of rate of reaction is :-

(1) rA > rB > rC

(2) rA > rC > rB
(3) rC > rB > rA
(4) rB > rA > rC

50)
Which of the following solvents is most suitable for this reaction ?

(1) H2O
(2) EtOH
(3) Et2O
(4) None of these

51) Arrange the following three alkyl chlorides in decreasing order towards SN1 reactivity ?

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > C > A
(3) B > A > C
(4) C > B > A

52) Correct electronic configuration of Cr in its valence shell is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53) In which alkyl halide, SN2 mechanism is favoured maximum?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

54) An ideal solution was found to have a vapour pressure of 80 torr when the mole fraction of a non-
volatile solute was 0.2. What would be the vapour pressure of the pure solvent at the same
temperature?

(1) 64 torr
(2) 80 torr
(3) 100 torr
(4) 400 torr

55) Which of the following compounds gives yellow precipitate with I2 and alkali

(1) CH3OH
(2) CH3CH2CH2—OH
(3) C2H5OC2H5
(4) CH3CH2OH

56) Match the following

Column - A Column - B

A Heat P In isothermal reversible process

B Q In vacuum

C R Path function

D W=0 S In adiabatic process

(1) A - P, B - S, C - R, D - Q
(2) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q
(3) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R
(4) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D - R

57) Following reaction :

(CH3)3C–Br + H2O → (CH3)3C–OH + HBr is an example of-

(1) Elimination reaction

(2) Free radical substitution
(3) Nucleophilic substitution
(4) Electrophilic substitution

58) Arrange the given alcohols in the increasing order of their rate of acid-catalyzed esterification
with acetic acid.
(1) A < B < C
(2) C < B < A
(3) B < C < A
(4) C < A < B

59) Propanal and pentan -3-one are ozonolysis product of–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60) Structure of the sugar moiety present in DNA.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

MATHEMATICS

1) If

there then x equals

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

2) If is continuous at x = 3, then

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

3) If then is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4)

4) If then at x = 1

(1) f is not continuous

(2) f is continuous but not differentiable
(3) f is differentiable
(4) the derivative is 1

5) If then find ; where x ∈ (0, π)

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

6) Find if x = sin (log t), y = log (sin t) , t > 0

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The solution of differential equation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The degree of the differential equation

 is

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3

9) The integrating factor of the differential equation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If then k =

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) If , then the inverse of the matrix A3 is

(1) A
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) -A

12) If A is a 3×3 matrix such that then |A| is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Evaluate:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If , are represented by the sides and of a regular hexagon ABCDEF, then vector
represented by FA will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16)

Let the vectors and such that and , the is a unit vector, if the angle
between and is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The length of the perpendicular drawn from the point (3, –1, 11) to the line is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) The projections of a vector on the three coordinate axis are 6, –3, 2 respectively. The direction
cosines of the vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 6, –3, 2

(4)

19) If a line in the space makes angle with coordinate axes, then

(1) –1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

20) The ratio of the coefficient of x15 to the term independent of x in is:

(1) 12 : 32
(2) 1 : 32
(3) 32 : 12
(4) 32 : 1

21) The coefficient of xn in the expansion of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) The value of is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) –2

23) If z = 1 + i, then the multiplicative inverse of z2 is

(1) 2i
(2) 1–i

(3)

(4)

24) if are two different complex numbers with is equal to

(1)

(2) 0
(3) –1
(4) 1

25) The square of the radius of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 4 = 0 is –

(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 20
(4) 30

26) The equation of the circle passing through (0, 0) and the points where the straight line 3x + 4y =
12 meets the co-ordinate axes, is –

(1) x2 + y2 + 4x – 3y = 0
(2) x2 + y2 – 4x – 3y = 0
(3) x2 + y2 + 4x + 3y = 0
(4) x2 + y2 – 4x + 3y = 0

27) If y = x + c is passes through one end point of major axis of the ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 then
possible value of c is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2

28) If the parabola x2 = 4ay passes through the point (2, 1), then the length of the latus rectum is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 1
29) The sum of the squares of the eccentricities of the conic and is

(1) 2

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) The eccentric angle of the point lying on is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The number simplifies as

(1) 212
(2) 216
(3) 224
(4) 248

32) The value of

(1) log5
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2 log5

33) where [.] denotes greatest integer function

(1) 0
(2) 1/2
(3) – 1/2
(4) Does not exist

34)

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) If the standard deviation of 3, 8, 6, 10, 12, 9, 11, 10, 12, 7 is 2.71, then the standard deviation of
30, 80, 60, 100, 120, 90, 110, 100, 120, 70 is

(1) 2.71
(2) 27.1
(3)
(4)

36) There are 8 batsmen and 7 bowlers among 15 players. The probability of selecting of 6
batsmen and 5 bowlers in a team is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

37) If A and B are two events such that and , then what
is equal to?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Bag I contains 3 white and 3 red balls and bag Il contains 5 white and 4 red balls. A bag is taken
at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the ball drawn is white, then find the probability that it was
drawn from bag II.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) A bag contains 3 white and 6 black balls while another bag contains 6 white and 3 black balls. A
bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn. Find the probability that the ball drawn is of black
colour.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) How many sitting arrangement in a line can be made by 5 boys, 6 girls such that no two girls are
sit together :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) The number of words that can be formed from all the letters of word 'NINETEEN' in which no
two E occur together is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) If the number of 5-element subsets of the set A = {a1, a2, ..... a20} of 20 distinct elements is k
times the number of 5-element subsets containing a4 then k is :

(1) 10/3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 20/7

43) , then all the values of n are given by:

(1) 28
(2) 3, 6
(3) 3
(4) 6

44) If f(x) = , then f(x) + f(1 – x) is equal to:

(1) 0
(2) – 1
(3) 1
(4) 4

45)

If A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0}, B = {2, 4}, C = {4, 5} then A × (B ∩ C) is

(1) {(2, 4), (3, 4)}

(2) {(4, 2), (4, 3)}
(3) {(2, 4), (3, 4), (4, 4)}
(4) {(2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5)}

46) The distance between the parallel lines is

(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)

(4) 3

47) If the lines and are concurrent, then k =

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

48) If the point (x, y) be equidistant from the points(a + b, b – a) and (a – b, a + b), then:

(1) ax + by = 0
(2) ax – by = 0
(3) bx + ay = 0
(4) bx – ay = 0

49)

Let and be three points. The equation of the bisector of the

angle PQR is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

50) If Tn denotes the nth term of the sequence 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, .., then T50 is

(1) 492 - 1
(2) 492
(3) 502 + 1
(4) 492 + 2

51) The 10th common term between series 3 + 7 + 11 + ... and 1 + 6 + 11 + ... is

(1) 191
(2) 190
(3) 192
(4) 194

52) The sum is ___.

(1) 1540
(2) 1450
(3) 1054
(4) 1045

53) 2 sin2x + 3 sin x – 2 = 0 and x belongs to 2nd quadrant. Then tan x + cot x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54) α ∈ [0, 1] and . m and M are minimum and maximum

values of f(x). Then 2m + 5M is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

55) cos2 18° sin2 36° =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56) cos 12° cos 48° cos 72° =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

57) Which of the following is correct?

(1) cos1° > cos1c

(2) cos1° < cos1c
(3) cos1° = cos1c

(4)

58) For which interval the given function is decreasing

(1)
(2) (–2, –1)
(3)
(4)

59) The value of the function at its local maxima is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0

(4)
60) Find the area bounded by the curve x-axis and the ordinates and x = 1.

(1)
[Link]

(2)
[Link]

(3)
[Link]

(4)
[Link]
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 1 1 3 2 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 4
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 2

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 4 4 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 3 2
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 4 4 4 1
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Velocity of train rel. to earth

Velocity of stone, rel to earth
Velocity of stone, relative to train

3) From law of conservation of energy,

If xm = max compression in spring, then

Maximum force

4)

In the critical situation (when the cube is about to topple, the normal reaction offered by the
horizontal surface passes through the extreme right edge of the cube, vertically up.
Now, clockwise moment of F (about bottom right edge) anti clockwise moments due to
wt=mg (about the bottom right edge)

5) Here frictional force

6) Given

7) Magnitude of torque is
8)

9) In a freely falling elevator, the effective gravity

No downward pull exists. So the water rises to the total available height of tube. At the top,
the water meniscus adjusts its curvature, so that water does not overflow.

10)

11) Here

12)

13)

14)

Let q1 and q2 both be +ve, then

But (given) one is +ve and the other negative (Let q1 = -ve and q2 = +ve)
15) also,

16) Voltage between the capacitor plates

17)

18) Let the resistances between A and B be R and (10-R) ( in parallel)

Length of minor arc is 4m.

19)

20)
S Should be in parallel with G

21)

22)

23)
24)

25) Let f1 and f2 be the focal lengths of convex and concave lens respectively. effective focal
length is positive, So power of convex lens > power of concave

and
From (i) &(ii)

26)

27) Energy of photon

Light energy produced per second = 9 W

No. of photons emitted per second

28)

29) Momentum of incident light carried per second

Momentum of reflected light carried per second
force on surface = change in momentum per second

30) de-Broglie wavelength ( ) of the particle in terms of kinetic energy K is given as

where, m is the mass of the particle and h is constant.

Let at wavelength , kinetic energy of particle becomes

 [from Eq.(i)]

31)

32) 3.125 × 10-3 J

33)

d1 (from left surface) =2.5 cm

d2 (from right surface)

distance between them

=2.5 cm

34) n

35) fusion

36)

41)

42)

54)

10nm<<1 fm (range of nuclear force)

CHEMISTRY
 61) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH given resonance stabilized CH2 = CH – carbocation therefore
undergoes SN1 mechanism and faster.

62)

63) Vit D, E, K. A are fat soluble vitamins.

64)
(except R-NH2)

65) Question Explanation:

Identify the organic product obtained through the dry distillation of calcium formate.

Concept:

This is based on preparation of carbonyls by dry distillation of calcium salts.

Solution:

Heating calcium formate causes thermal decomposition, resulting in the formation of

formaldehyde and the precipitation of calcium carbonate. This is a standard laboratory method
for preparing simple aldehydes from carboxylic acid salts.

Final Answer: Option (3)

66) Sec. amino do not give iso-cyanide test

67) Sol. / Explanation

⇒ Lucas Reagent is Hu + Anhy. ZnCl2. It is used to distinguish 1°/ 2° and 3° Alcohol. Hence
Acetaldehyde do not give Lucas Test.

Conclusion
Hence, option (2) is correct
68)

69)

Question Explanation: Nucleophilic substitution reaction of aryl-alkyl ethers with HI.

Concept: Ether Cleavage with HI.
Solution:
Protonation occurs at the ether oxygen.
Cleavage of the O-Ar bond is difficult due to resonance/partial double bond character.
The O-CH2Ph bond is cleaved because it can form a stable benzylic carbocation (SN1) or is
sterically accessible (SN2).
Iodide attacks the benzylic carbon, and phenol is released.
Ph-O-CH2Ph + HI → Ph-OH + PhCH2I.
Final Answer: 2

70)

71)

total mass of reactants

= total mass of products

72)

73)

Question Explanation

The question asks to identify the type of thermodynamic process represented by the path AB in
the given Volume (V) vs. Temperature (T) diagram for 1 mole of an ideal gas.

Concept

This question is based on Definitions of Thermodynamic Processes based on V-T diagrams.

Reasoning
 A. Isochoric change: Volume is constant. In a V-T diagram,

In the given diagram, the V-axis is vertical and the T-axis is horizontal. The process AB is a
horizontal line, meaning the volume (V) is constant throughout this process (V = 10 L). A
process that occurs at constant volume is called an isochoric process.

Final Answer

The process AB represents an Isochoric change.

Option (4)

74)

ΔH = Σ(BE)R – Σ(BE)P
∴ – 182 = 430 + 242 – 2 BE(HCl)
or 2BE(HCl) = 854
and BE(HCl) = 427 kJ mol–1

75)

Explain the question: Identify the solution with the highest pH (least acidic or most basic)
among the given options.

Concept: Acidity/basicity of strong acids, weak acids, and salt hydrolysis.

Solution:
The pH of a solution decreases with increasing acidity.

A. 0.2 M HNO3 and 0.2 M HCl : Both are strong monoprotic acids that dissociate completely in
water, resulting in high [H+] and very low pH values (≈ 0.7).
B. 0.2 M CH3COOH : This is a weak acid that only partially dissociates. Its [H+] is lower than
that of strong acids, so its pH is higher (around 23) but still less than 7 .
C. 0.2 M CH3COONa : This is a salt derived from a weak acid (CH3COOH) and a strong base
(NaOH). In aqueous solution, the acetate ion undergoes anionic hydrolysis (CH3COO– + H2O ⇌
CH3COOH + OH–), releasing hydroxide ions. This makes the solution basic, with a pH greater
than 7. Since this is the only basic solution, it has the maximum pH value.

Final Answer: Option (4)

76)

Explain the question : Find Ksp or MX3

Concept : This question is based on solubility product

Solution:

s s

Ksp = s2 ⇒ S =
 s = (4 × 10–10)1/2 = 2 × 10–5

s 3s
4
Ksp = 27s
= 27(2 × 10–5)4 = 27 × 16 × 10–20 = 432 × 10–20 = 4.32 × 10–18
Final answer : 4

77)

Question Explanation: Find solution has maximum osmotic pressure.

Concept: This question is based on osmotic pressure.

Solution:
Osmotic pressure (π) is a colligative property given by the formula π = iCRT, where i is the
Van't Hoff factor, C is the molar concentration, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature.
Assuming equimolar concentrations for all solutions, the osmotic pressure is directly
proportional to the Van't Hoff factor (i).

A. Na2SO4 → 2Na+ + SO42– : i = 3

B. BaCl2 → Ba2+ + 2Cl– : i = 3
C. Al2(SO4)3 → 2Al3+ + 3SO42– : i = 5
D. C12H22O11 (Sucrose) : non-electrolyte, i = 1

Since Al2(SO4)3 has the highest Van't Hoff factor (i = 5), it will exhibit the maximum osmotic
pressure.

Final Answer : Option (3)

78) Vapour pressure ∝

79)

tcompletion = 2 × t1/2
(∵ Rate is constt. in zero order)

tcompletion = 2 ×

80) let Rate law is,

Rate = k[A]x [B]y
From Exp. 1 & Exp. 4.

⇒x=1
From Exp. 2 & Exp. 3
 ⇒y=2

81)
SRP : Cu > Al
↓
Show reduction but Cu is already in lowest oxidation state so no reaction take place.

82) Since has large negative value, the tendency of A to be reduced to A– is very small. In
other words tendency of A– to be oxidized to A is very large.

83) I.E. = O– > O2–

I.E. = S < P (due to half filled)
I.E. = N > P
I.E. = Be+ > Be

84)

1. Question Explanation
We are given two reactions involving the decomposition of two oxides, MO and MO2. We need
to determine which oxide is more stable based on their equilibrium constants.
2. Given Data

A. Reaction 1: 2MO(g) ⇌ M2(g) + O2(g); K1 = 1 x 10–10

B. Reaction 2: 2MO2(g) ⇌ M2(g) + 2O2(g); K2 = 4 x 106

3. Concept

A. Equilibrium Constant (K): A higher value of K indicates that the reaction favors the
formation of products at equilibrium. In this case, a higher K suggests that the oxide is less
stable and more likely to decompose.

4. Mathematical Calculation
Not applicable for this qualitative analysis.
5. Final Answer
Based on the given equilibrium constants, MO is more stable then MO2.

A. Reaction 1 has a significantly higher K value (1 x 10–10) compared to Reaction 2 (4 x 106). This
indicates that MO decomposes to M2 and O2 much more readily than MO2.

Therefore, MO2 is more stable.

85) ABxLy
(''T'' shape when x = 3, y = 2)
If AByLx ;
AB2L3 molecule will be linear.

86)
All have same number of electrons (i.e. 16) so isoelectronic.

87) All the alkali metals produce soluble carbonate except Li2CO3

88) i = 1 + α(n – 1)
3.4 = 1 + α( 4 – 1)

α=

89) Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is graphite.

90) BCl3 & AlCl3 both have vacant p-orbital & incomplete octet. So they act as Lewis acid.

91) The correct order of catenation –

C > Si > Ge ≈ Sn
⇒ Tetravalency and smaller size more will be catenation.

92) The reaction at cathode is

Al+3 + 3e– Al (n = 3)
Applying the equation

93)

94) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about correct option.

Concept:
This question is based on stoichiometric calculation.
Solution:

2 Al + O2 → Al2O3

mole

used = mole

Mass of O2 used = × 32 = 8 gram

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)

95) Explanation the Question:

We are asked which reaction represents the standard heat of formation of CH4.
Concept:
This question is based on Standard heat of formation (ΔHf°)
Solution:
Standard heat of formation (ΔHf°) is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of a compound forms
from its
elements in their standard states. Standard states: C = graphite, H = H2(g).
Formation reaction of CH4 from elements in standard states: C(graphite) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g)

96) Size → La3+ > Lu3+

97) SO2

98) Ans. Tb4+

99) Compounds having at least one bond between carbon and metal are known as
organometallic compounds.

100) Ti+3 configuration : 3d1

t2g : ground state of complex, eg : next higher state
∴ e- excites from t2g to eg

101) Cis - platin is used as anti - cancer agent which is cis [PtCl2(NH3)2]

102)

In presence of SFL Δ0 > P means pairing occurs therefore

For Fe+2 → 3d6

∴ No of unpaired e– (s) = 0
∴
[n = No of unpaired e–(s)]
In NiCl2 Ni+2 is having configuration 3d8
∴ Number of unpaired electron = 2
After formation of oxidised product
[Ni(CN)6]–2 Ni+4 is obtained
Ni+4 ⇒ 3d6 and CN– is strong field ligand
∴ number of unpaired electrons = 0
∴ The charge is 2 – 0 = 2

103)

H2S → NO H-bonding.

104) ΔH = Eaf – Eab

= 30.5 – 45.4
= –ve (Exothermic)

105)

106) Refers to notes.

107)

108)

Question Explanation:
Why do alkanes show different spatial arrangements?

Concept:
Conformational Isomerism because of free rotation about the bond axis.

Solution:

A. Alkanes contain only carbon–carbon single (σ) bonds.

B. A σ bond is formed by head-on overlap of orbitals, which allows free rotation about the
bond axis.

C. Rotation around the C—C single bond changes the relative positions of atoms or groups
in space.

D. These different spatial arrangements formed by rotation are called conformations.

E. Conformations interconvert without breaking any bonds.

Final Answer: Option (1)

109)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to compare the rates of elimination reactions with alcoholic KOH for three
substrates based on the stability of the products formed.

Concept: This question is based on E2 Reaction, Product Stability, Aromaticity.

Solution:

A. In elimination reactions, rate ∝ stability of the product formed.

B. (A) gives benzene, which is aromatic → highest stability → fastest rate.

C. (C) gives cyclohexene, which is non-aromatic → moderate stability.

D. (B) gives cyclobutadiene, which is anti-aromatic → least stable → slowest rate.

E. Stability order of products: Aromatic > Non-aromatic > Anti-aromatic.

F. Hence, reaction rate follows the same order.

 rA > r C > r B

Final Answer: Option (2)

110) Given reaction is SN2, so polar aprotic solvent like'Et2O' is most suitable.

111) Reactivity for SN1 reaction ∝ stability of carbocation

112) Question Explanation

Asked: To select correct electronic configuration of Cr atom in its valence shell
Concept
Electronic configuration
Solution
Cr (Z = 24) expected: [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s²
But actual: [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ (extra stability of half-filled d⁵).
Thus correct orbital diagram is

Final Answer→ Option 3

113)

SN2 i.e. Substitution nucleophilic bimolecular order of different alkyl halides is

SN1 i.e. Substitution nucleophilic unimolecular order of different alkyl halides is

114) = xsolute

115)

116) Explain Question: Match thermodynamic statements with correct descriptions.

Concept: Path function/Adiabatic and Isothermal
Solution:
A – R: Heat depends on the path of the process, so it is a path function.
B – S: In adiabatic process q = 0, so ΔU = w.
C – P: w = −nRT ln(V₂/V₁) is the work expression for isothermal reversible expansion.
D – Q: In vacuum (free expansion), external pressure = 0, so work done is zero.
Final answer: Option (2)
 117)

118)

Question Explanation:
Arrange alcohols in increasing order of their rate of acid-catalyzed esterification.

Concept:
This question is based on Esterification Mechanism & Steric Hindrance.

Solution:
In acid-catalyzed esterification, greater steric hindrance around the –OH group lowers the
reaction rate.
Primary alcohols react fastest, followed by secondary, while tertiary alcohols react slowest.

Order of reactivity: Primary > Secondary > Tertiary

So, increasing order: A < B < C

Final Answer: Option (1)

119)

120) NCERT-XII Pg.#427

MATHEMATICS

121)
122) L.H.L. at x = 3, ...(i)

R.H.L. at x = 3, ....(ii)
Value of function ...(iii)
For continuity at x = 3
Limit of function = value of function .

123)

124) f is continuous but not differentiable

125) Let

126)
Differentiate w.r.t t. we get

Now,

127) We have,

or

Solution is given by

or
128) We have,

Degree of the differential equation = 6

129) The given differential equation is

130)

2k = 1

[Link]

131) We have,

Now,
and
132)

133)

134)

We have

Let

Put

Therefore,

135) Question Explanation: Determine the vector for a regular hexagon given two
adjacent side vectors.
Concept: Vector addition/subtraction and properties of a regular hexagon.
Solution:
Final Answer : option (3)

136) Question Explanation: Finding the angle between two vectors when their cross product
is a unit vector.

Concept: Cross Product and Unit Vector .

Solution:

Final Answer: option (2)

137) Explain question:

To find length of perpendiculars.

Concept:
Find Dr's & use dot product = 0.

Solution:

M(2r, 3r + 2, 4r + 3)
Dr's of PM < 2r – 3, 3r + 3, 4r – 8 >
2(2r – 3) + 3(3r + 3) + 4(4r – 8) = 0
29r – 29 = 0

r=1
M(2, 5, 7)
Distance PM =

Final answer: Option (4)

138) Explain Question:

Projections of vector's are given
Concept:
Projection = ℓ

Solution:
Projection of a vector ( ) on x–axis = ℓ
on y–axis = m
on z–axis = n
6 = 7ℓ,

⇒ℓ= similarly , m = , n=

Final Answer: Option (1)

139)

140)
= 15Cr 2r x30 – 3r
For coefficient of x15, 30 – 3r = 15 ⇒ 3r = 15 ⇒ r = 5.
∴ Coefficient of x15 = 15C5 25 .
For independent term, 30 – 3r = 0 ⇒ r = 10.
∴ Independent term = 15C10210.

∴ Reqd. ratio =

141) Coefficient of xn in = Coefficient of xn

in (l—x)n + coefficient of xn-1 in (1–x)n = Coefficient of xn

in

142) The given expression may be written as

143)

Multiplicative inverse

144)

145) s1 = 4 + 9 – 4 + 12 – 4 = 17

146) It is the circle passing through (0, 0) (4, 0) and (0, 3) in which (4, 0) and (0, 3) are ends of
diameter, hence the required circle is
(x – 4) (x – 0) + (y – 3) (y – 0) = 0

147) End points are (4, 0) and (–4, 0)

c=4

148) The given parabola passes through (2, 1)

So, length of latus rectum =4a=4(1)=4

149) The equation of ellipse be

Eccentricity

Equation of hyperbola is

Eccentricity,

Now,

150)
151)

152)

153)

Question Explanation: Evaluate the limit of the Fractional Part Function.

Concept: Limits of Greatest Integer Function.
Solution: The expression {x – [x]} is the fractional part of x. Since x = –1/2 is not an integer,
both the function and its limit are continuous and can be found by direct substitution.

Substitute
[–1/2] = –1(Greatest integer ≤ – 0.5)
Value = (–1/2) – (–1) = –1/2+1 = 1/2
Final Answer: 1/2

154)

Question Explanation: Evaluate the limit of the sum of cubes divided by n4 as n → ∞.

Concept: Sum of first n natural numbers and limits.
Solution: The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula

To find the limit, substitute this into the expression and simplify the powers of n.

Calculation: Sum of cubes:

Expression:

Final Answer:

155)

Standard deviation
If each term multiplied by 10, then

S.D.
[ If each term becomes 10 times, then mean also becomes 10 times]

S. D.
So, S.D. becomes 10 times if each term gets multiplied by 10.
156)

Total number of ways

Favourable ways

Probability

157)

Given P(not A) , P(not B)

P(A) = 1 – P(not A) = 1 – ,

P(B) = 1 – P(not B) = 1 ,

P(A/B) =

Also,

158)

159) Let E1, E2 and A be the events defined as follows

E1 = Bag 1 is selected ; E2 = Bag 2 is selected
A = Black ball is drawn

Now,
P(black ball is drawn)

160)

161) –N–I–N–T–N– (Gat method)

 =

162) No of 5 elements subsets

No of 5 elements subsets containing

163)
either n + 7 = 4n - 2
or n + 7 + 4n - 2 = 35
either 3n = 9 or 5n = 30
i.e., either n = 3 or n = 6.

164)

165)

A = {2, 3}, B = {2, 4}, C = {4, 5}

B ⋂ C = {4} ∴ A × (B ⋂ C) = {(2, 4), (3, 4)}

166)

167) Point of intersection of is (–2, 3)

Given lines are concurrent lies on

168) Let points P(x, y), A(a + b, b – a), B(a – b, a + b).

According to Question, PA = PB, i.e., PA2 = PB2

169)

Slope of PQ = 0

Slope of

.
Bisector of PQR is
.

170)

171) Explain Question:

Finding the 10th common term of given series.

Concept:
Arithmetic Series.

Solution:
S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + ............in A.P.
a1 = 3, d1 = 4
S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + ............in A.P.

common term of given series will also term A.P. with common difference LCM of d1 & So,
common term series will be,
LCM(4,5) = 20
11, 31, ......... in A.P
T10 = a + 9d = 11 + 9 × 20 = 191

Final Answer: option(1)

172)
Question Explanation: Calculating the sum of the first n natural numbers' sums.
Concept: Sum of Sums of First n Natural Numbers.
Solution:

Internal Sum:

Total Sum (S):

Applying Formulas: for n = 20.

Result:

= 1540
Final Answer: Option (1)

173) (2 sin x –1) (sin x + 2) = 0

174)

m = –1, M = 1
Ans = 3

175) Ans =
Ans =

Ans =

177)

By cosx graph
cos1° > cos1c

178)

179)
180)