01-12-2025

6901CMD30334125MN016 MD

PHYSICS

1) The phase difference between the instantaneous displacement and acceleration of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 0.5 π
(3) π
(4) 0.707π

2) Starting from the mean position, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 2s. After
what time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy for the first time?

(1) 1/12 sec

(2) 1/6 sec
(3) 1/4 sec
(4) 1/3 sec

3) A particle is executing SHM with time period T. Starting from mean position, time taken by it to

complete oscillations, is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) Which of the following motions is not simple harmonic ?

(1) Vertical oscillations of a spring

(2) Motion of a simple pendulum
(3) Motion of planet around the sun
(4) Oscillation of liquid in a U-tube

5) Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion :-
Where k,k0,k1 and a are all positive constants

(1) Acceleration = kx
2
(2) Acceleration = –k0x+k1x
(3) Acceleration = –k(x + a)
(4) Acceleration = k(x + a)

6) A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude A and has maximum velocity V0. Its speed at
displacement equal to A/2 will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3) V0
(4) V0/4

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect for an object executing S.H.M :

(1) The value of acceleration is maximum at the extreme points

(2) The velocity at the mean position is zero
(3) The total work done for completing one oscillation is zero
(4) The energy changes from one form to another

8) The variation of acceleration (a) and displacement (x) of the particle executing SHM is indicated
by the following curve :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the mean
position are V1 and V2 respectively. Its time period is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The displacement from mean position of a particle moving in a straight line is given by:
. In this t is in second and y is in meters. Match the item in the column II (all
units are in SI system) with corresponding items from the column I.

Column – I Column – II
(A) Initial velocity (t = 0) (p)
(B) Maximum acceleration (q)
(C) Maximum velocity (r)
(D) Initial acceleration (t = 0) (s)
(1) A → s, B → r, C → p, D → q
(2) A → r, B → p, C → q, D → s
(3) A → p, B → q, C → s, D → r
(4) A → q, B → p, C → s, D → r

11) A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is
T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium
position is :

(1) T/2
(2) T/4
(3) T/8
(4) T/12

12) The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is + 25 x = 0. The time period of the
particle will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
where X = displacement at time t
= frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation 'a' with 't' ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The plot of velocity (v) versus displacement (x) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

shown in figure. The time period of oscillation of particle is :-

(1)

(2) π s
(3) 2π s
(4) 3π s

15)

A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is β and maximum
velocity is α. Then, its time period of vibration will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) The period of a particle is 8s. At t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio of distance covered by
the particle in first second and second will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A particle is executes simple harmonic motion given by x = 5 sin . The velocity of the
particle when its displacement is 3 units is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 20 units
(4) 16 units

18)

With help of displacement (x), velocity (v) equation . For SHM, determine time period

(1) 3.14 sec

(2) 1.07 sec
(3) 6.28 sec
(4) 4.21 sec

19) Average velocity of a particle performing SHM in one time period is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle is subjected to two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that its x
and y coordinates are given by
The path of the particle will be :

(1) An ellipse
(2) A straight line
(3) A parabola
(4) A circle

21) A point mass oscillates along the x-axis according to the law x = x0 cos (ωt – π/4). If the
acceleration of the particle is written as a = A cos (ωt + δ), then:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The
frequency of oscillation is:

(1) 25 Hz
(2) 50 Hz
(3) 12.25 Hz
(4) 33.3 Hz

23) A particle executes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of
acceleration is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM (in
second–1) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If x vs t curve of a particle is shown in diagram, then its amax will be : -

(1) 20π2/sec2

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation . At time t = 1.5 s, its
displacement, speed and acceleration respectively is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the kinetic energy K is given by : K = K
cos2ωt. The maximum value of potential energy is :-

(1) K0
(2) zero
(3) K0/2
(4) K0/4

27) The x - t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The

acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)
A particle of mass m performs SHM along a straight line with frequency f and amplitude A: -

(1) The average kinetic energy of the particle is zero

(2) The average potential energy is 2mp2f2A2
(3) The frequency of oscillation of kinetic energy is 2f
(4) Velocity function leads acceleration in phase by π/2

29) The total energy of a vibrating particle in SHM is E. If its amplitude and time period are doubled,
its total energy will be :

(1) 16E
(2) 8E
(3) 4E
(4) E

30) For a particle performing SHM :

(1) The kinetic energy is never equal to the potential energy

(2) the kinetic energy is always equal to the potential energy
(3) The average kinetic energy in one time period is equal to the average potential in this period
The average kinetic energy in any time interval is equal to average potential energy in that
(4)
interval

31) Frequency of variation of kinetic energy of a simple harmonic motion of frequency n is :-

(1) 2n
(2) n

(3)

(4) 3n

32) Acceleration A and time period T of a body in S.H.M. is given by a curve shown below. Then
corresponding graph, between kinetic energy (K.E.) and time t is correctly represented by

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) A body of mass 1kg is executing simple harmonic motion. Its displacement y(cm) at t seconds is
given by y =6 sin(100t + π/4). Its maximum kinetic energy is

(1) 6 J
(2) 18 J
(3) 24 J
(4) 36 J

34) The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring
constant :

(1) 1 × 102 N/m

(2) 150 N/m
(3) 0.667 × 102 N/m
(4) 3 × 102 N/m

35) A particle of mass 0.10 kg executes SHM with an amplitude 0.05 m and frequency 20 vib/s. Its
energy of oscillation is:

(1) 2 J
(2) 4 J
(3) 1 J
(4) zero

36) Two particles P and Q describe S.H.M. of same amplitude a, same frequency f along the same
straight line. The maximum distance between the two particles is . The phase difference
between the particle is :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude a. The magnitude of average

velocity of the particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance from the extreme
position is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The displacement equation of a particle is x = 3 sin2t + 4cos2t. The amplitude and maximum
velocity will be respectively :-

(1) 5, 10
(2) 3, 2
(3) 4, 2
(4) 3, 4

39) When the potential energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is one-fourth of its
maximum value during the oscillation, the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium position
in terms of its amplitude a is

(1) a/4
(2) a/3
(3) a/2
(4) 2a/3

40) A particle executes SHM on a line 8 cm long. Its K.E. and P.E. will be equal when its distance
from the mean position is:

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3)
(4)

41) The ratio of K.E. of the particle at mean position to the point when distance is half of amplitude
will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) The acceleration of a particle in SHM at 5 cm from its mean position is 80 cm/sec2. The value of
angular frequency in radian/sec will be :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 10
(4) 14

43) Two particles are oscillating along two closed parallel straight lines side by side, with the same
frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite direction at position then
phase difference is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 135°
(4) 150°

44) The equations of the displacement of two particles making SHM are represented by
and respectively. The phase difference of the velocities of the two
particles will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Which of the following is constant during SHM :

(1) Velocity
(2) Acceleration
(3) Total energy
(4) Phase

CHEMISTRY

1) Incorrect statement is :

(1) Homolytic bond fission shows equal distribution of electrons

(2) Heterolytic bond fission generate carbocation as an intermediate
(3) Homolytic bond fission generate carbanion as an intermediate
(4) Heterolytic bond fission shows unequal distribution of electrons

2) Which of the following set of both groups show +I as well as +M effect when attach with benzene
ring ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Total number of delocalised electrons for following compounds "A" and "B" are respectively :-

(1) 6 and 6
(2) 8 and 6
(3) 6 and 4
(4) 3 and 3

4) Which of following is/are correct :-

(1) –T > –D > –H (+I order)

(2) –F > –OH > –NH2 (–I order)
(3) –CH3 < RCH2 – < R2CH – < R3C – (+I order)
(4) All of these

5) In each of the following pairs of ions, which ion is more stable?

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)
(i) (ii)

(1) a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-ii

(2) a-ii, b-ii, c-ii, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-i, c-i, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-i

6) Which of following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Inductive effect of –H and CH3 will be different

(2) Inductive effect of groups are distance dependent
(3) Inductive effects operates through π bonds
(4) I-effect is a permanent effect

7) In which of the following compound, ℓp. doesn't participate in resonance ? (a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

8) The most stable canonical structure among the given structure is

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) All are equally stable

9) Which of the following is most stable carbanion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which is most basic among the following

(1) CH3 - CH2 - NH2

(2)

(3) O2N - CH2 - CH2 - NH2

(4) Cl - CH2 - CH2 - NH2

11) Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) Resonating structures are real structures and explain all properties of a molecule
(2) Inductive effect increases as number of intervening bonds increases
(3) Heterolysis of Ethyl chloride forms
(4) Resonating structures contribute to the real structures in proportion to their stability.

12) Which of the following can behave as electrophile?

(1) NH3
(2) H2O

(3)
(4) R - OH

13) Which of the following compound is most acidic?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Inductive effect involves :-

(1) Delocalisation of σ–electrons

(2) Partial displacement of σ–electrons
(3) Delocalisation of π–electron
(4) Partial displacement of π–electrons

15) Which of the following carbocation is more stable than sec-butyl carbocation ?
(a) t–Butyl carbocation
(b) Benzyl carbocation
(c) n–Butyl carbocation
(d) n–propyl carbocation

(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

16) CORRECT order of stability of carbanion :-

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) III > IV > II > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) I > III > IV > II

17) What is correct method of heterolytic fission in CH3 – Br :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Resonance effect involves delocalisation of along a conjugated system.

(2)
Stability of anion is
Stability of cation is

(3)

(4)
Resonance is not possible in

19) Statement-I : Carboxylic acid is more acidic than phenol.

Statement-II : Carboxylate ion is more stabilised than phenoxide ion.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I and II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not correct explanation of
(4)
Statement I

20) Statement-I : Electron donating groups decrease the acidity of carboxylic acid.
Statement-II : Electron donating groups stabilise the conjugate base of corresponding carboxylic
acid.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I and II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not correct explanation of
(4)
Statement I

21) Assertion (A): –OCH3 shows greater +M effect than –OH.

Reason (R): Inductive effect of –CH3 makes –OCH3 greater +M effect than –OH.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22) Which of the following is correct for carbonium ion ?

(a) It has sp2 hybridisation
(b) It has tendency to donate electron pair
(c) It has planar geometry
(d) It acts as Nucleophile

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c
(4) All of these
23) Which one is the most stable free radical ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Assertion : Allyl free radical is more stable than simple alkyl free radical.
Reason : The allyl free radical is stabilized by resonance.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

25) Assertion : The carbocation is less stable than .

Reason : In case of , the strongly electron withdrawing –CF3 group intensifies the +ve

charge but in case of , the lone pairs of electrons on each of the three F-atoms overlap with the
empty p-orbital of the carbocation carbon atom, thereby dispersing the +ve charge.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion

26) Assertion : Picric acid is more acidic than Phenol.

Reason : In Picric acid COOH group is Present but in phenol OH group is Present.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

27) Correct order of acidic strength ?

a) HCOOH
b) CH3COOH
c) CH3 - CH2 - COOH

(1) a > b > c

(2) c > b > a
(3) b > a > c
(4) b > c > a

28) Which of the following contains only three pair of electrons.

(1) Carbanion
(2) Carbocation
(3) Carbon free radical
(4) None

29) Correct order of acidic strength is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above.

30) Most stable carbanion is–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) After heterolytic fission, ions are formed

(2) Carbocations are diamagnetic in nature
(3) Carbanions have incomplete octet
(4) Carbocations have incomplete octet

32) Which of the following group connected to benzene ring has (+M) effect ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of following is lowest pKa value ?

(1) Cl–CH2–CO2H

(2)

(3) Cl3C–CO2H
(4) CH3–CO2H

34)

The correct order of stability of given carbanions will be :-

(1) I > II > III
(2) I > III > II
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > I > III

35) In which of the following compound Homolytic fission occur easily ?

(1) H3 C–Cl
(2) H3 C–CH=O
(3) H–O–O–H
(4) H2 N–CH3

36) Which of the following is incorrect for a carbanions ?

(1) It can act as Nucleophile

(2) Carbanions has 4 pair of electrons
(3) Carbanions are diamagnetic in nature
(4) Carbanions can act as lewis acid

37) Which of the following is ambident nucleophile?

(1)
Θ
(2) NH2
(3) CH3 – OH
(4) CNΘ

38)

Which is an electrophile ?

(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) SO3
(4) All of these

39) Arrange the following radical in their decreasing order of stability :-

(1) a > c > b
(2) b > a > c
(3) a > b > c
(4) c > a > b

40) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : has more s-character than .

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

41) Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II) and phenol (III). In these the order of decreasing
acidic character will be :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) I > II > III

42) Which one of the following resonating structures of 1–methoxy–1,3–butadiene is least stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which resonating structure of vinyl chloride is least stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All have equal stability

44) Which of the following show +I effect :-

(1) -OH
(2) -CH3
(3) -OCH3
(4) -Cl

45) The stabilization due to resonance is maximum in

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

1) One of the oldest viable seed discovered during the archeological excavation at king Herod's
palace near the dead sea is :-

(1) Phoenix dactylifera

(2) Lupine
(3) Lupinus arcticus
(4) Orobanche

2) Endosperm may persist in the mature seed of :-

(1) Castor, Orchid, Maize

(2) Maize, Rice, Bean
(3) Castor, Cotton, Orchid
(4) Castor, Maize, Rice

3) The proteinaceous layer formed in maize grain is called _____ :-

(1) Scutellum
(2) Aleurone layer
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Coleorrhiza

4) When a diploid male plant is crossed with a hexaploid female plant. The ploidy of embryo cell in
resulting seed would be :-

(1) 4n
(2) 5n
(3) 2n
(4) 3n

5) Match the Column A & B.

Column-A Column-B

(A) Albuminous seeds (i) Black pepper, beet

(B) Non-albuminous seeds (ii) Wheat, maize

(C) Perispermic seeds (iii) Pea, groundnut

(D) Tiny, many seeds (iv) Orobanche, striga

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

6) Micropyle in seed facilitates the entry of :

(1) Oxygen and water

(2) Pollen tube
(3) Pollen tube and male gametes
(4) Pollen tube, male gametes and vegetative nucleus

7)

Select the correct match pairs from the following :

(a) Scutellum Cotyledon in grass family

(b) Perisperm Residual, persistant nucellus

(c) Lupinus articus 1000 years of seed dormancy

(d) Phoenix dactylifera 200 years of seed dormancy

(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
8) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A) :- Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason (R) :- The cells of endosperm are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the
nutrition of the developing embryo.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

9) How many times meiosis and mitosis required for production of embryo sac respectively?

(1) 1, 3
(2) 1,2
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 4

10) Given below is the diagrammatic view of fertilized embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled [A],

[B], [C] and [D] and select the right option about them.

Part [A] Part [B] Part [C] Part [D]

1 Egg cell Central Cell PEN Egg apparatus

2 Egg cell PEC PEN Egg apparatus

Degenerating antipodal
3 Zygote PEN PEC
cells

Degenerating antipodal
4 Zygote PEC PEN
cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Function of filiform apparatus is

(1) Nourishes egg cell
(2) Guides pollen tube to reach synergids
(3) Protects egg cell
(4) Forms functional megaspore

12) All the events from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tube enters the ________ are together
referred as pollen pistil interaction

(1) Ovary
(2) Embryo sac
(3) Ovule
(4) Egg

13) Which of the following is correct order of events of embryo development in dicot plants ?

(1) Zygote → proembryo → heart shape embryo →globular embryo → mature embryo
(2) Zygote → proembryo → globular embryo →heart shape embryo → mature embryo
(3) Zygote → globular embryo → heart shape embryo → proembryo → mature embryo
(4) Zygote → heart shape embryo → proembryo →globular embryo → mature embryo

14) Entry of polen tube in embryo sac occurs through:

(1) Chalaza
(2) Funiculum
(3) Integument
(4) Synergid

15) Assertion : Pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle.

Reason : Egg present at Micropylar end, guides pollen tube towards it.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

16) Assertion : If female parent produce unisexual flower, there is no need of Emasculation
Reason : In unisexual flower there is no chance for self pollination

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

17) Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed
germinates.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

18) Double fertilization means :-

(1) Fusion of male gamete and ovum

(2) Fusion of two polar bodies
(3) A male gamete fused with egg and second male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
(4) All of the above

19) In embryo of grass, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of scutellum is:-

(1) Hypocotyl
(2) Radicle
(3) Epicotyl
(4) Coleoptile

20) With respect to this diagram select the correct option related to it.

(1) A- is diploid and covered by coleoptile.

(2) B- is a thin structure without reserve food.
(3) C- Forms shoot.
(4) D- is diploid from where primary root arises.
21) Statement I : Initial development stages of embryo in monocot and dicot is same.
Statement II : Embryo is formed at the micropylar region in Embryo sac.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

22) Among them how many statements are correct.

I. Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to
colonise in other areas.
II. Castor seeds has two cotyledon and endosperm.
III. As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry (10-15 per
cent moisture by mass).
IV. Coleoptile is hollow foliar structure enclose leaf primordia in monocot seeds.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

23) Match the column I and II.

Column - I Column - II

(A) Outer integuments (P) Testa

(B) Inner integuments (Q) Fruit

(C) Ovary (R) Tegman

(D) Ovules (S) Pericarp

(E) Ovary wall (T) Seed

(1) A - R, B - P, C - Q, D - T, E - S
(2) A - Q, B - R, C - P, D - T, E - S
(3) A - P, B - R, C - Q, D - T, E - S
(4) A - Q, B - T, C - P, D - R, E - S

24) Which of the following statements are correct for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering
plant?
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)
25) During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses
with

(1) synergids cell

(2) central cell
(3) antipodal cell
(4) nucellar cell

26) Statement-1 :- In a typical angiosperm mature female gametophyte is 7-celled & 8-nucleated.
Statement-2:- Free nuclear development of endosperm is most common in angiosperms.

(1) Both statement 1 & 2 are false

(2) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(3) Statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true
(4) Both statement 1 & 2 are true

27) What would be the number of chromosomes of nucellus cells of plant with 60 chromosome in
endosperm cells ?

(1) 60
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 80

28) The oldest & viable seed, excavated from arctic tundra is of :-

(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana

(2) Lupinus arcticus
(3) Phoenix dactylifera
(4) Calotropis

29) Select correct statement-

(1) Endosperm development precedes embryosac development

(2) Endosperm development precedes embryo development
(3) Embryo development precedes endosperm development
(4) More than one option is correct

30) Identify the correct labels.

 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Heartshaped
(1) Globular embryo Suspensor Cotyledon
embryo

Heart-shaped
(2) Globular embryo Cotyledon Suspensor
embryo

Heart-shaped
(3) Globular embryo Cotyledon Suspensor
embryo

Heart-shaped
(4) Globular embryo Suspensor Cotyledon
embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Read the following statements-

(i) Seed is final product of sexual reproduction in plant.
(ii) Seed is fertilized ovule.
(iii) Seed is formed inside fruit.
(iv) Seed consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) and Embryonal axis.
How many of the statements is incorrect?

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

32) (i) In dicot embryo, root tip is covered by root cap.

(ii) In dicot embryo, scutellum is situated towards one side of embryonal axis.
(iii) Cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl in dicots embryo.
(iv) In dicot embryo, epicotyl terminates with stem tip.
How many of the above statements is incorrect?

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

33) Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is

(1) Chalazogamy
(2) Mesogamy
(3) Porogamy
(4) Pseudogamy

34) Statement – I : Seed is the basis of our agriculture.

Statement – II : Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seed.

(1) Only statement – I is correct.

(2) Only statement – II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

35) How many gametes and nuclei are involved in the double fertilization process ?

(1) 3 gametes, 4 Nuclei

(2) 3 gametes, 5 Nuclei
(3) 4 gametes, 4 Nuclei
(4) 2 gametes, 3 Nuclei

36) . Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and

d. Correctly identify.

a b c d

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Radicle Coleorrhiza

(2) Coleorrhiza Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile

(3) Scutellum Coleorrhiza Radicle Coleoptile

(4) Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorrhiza

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Exalbuminous seeds are of

(1) Wheat, pea, groundnut

(2) Castor, pea, groundnut
(3) Pea, groundnut, beans
(4) Wheat, castor, rice

38) Ploidy of female plant is 8x, one of its fertilized ovule contain Endosperm of 16x, then calculate
ploidy of male plant ?

(1) 4x
(2) 8x
(3) 12x
(4) 16x

39) Double fertilization is the unique feature of .......

(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Pteridophyta
(4) Angiosperms

40) Which of the following is true?

(1) Endosperm in angiosperm is a diploid structure and form before fertilisation

(2) Triple fusion leads to the formation of a triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN)
(3) Epiblast is a part of dicot embryo
(4) Cotyledon of pea family is called scutellum

41) Read the below given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A : When the seed gets mature its water content reduces to 10-15% by mass.
Statement B : A large number of seeds can remain alive for several years.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

42) Triple fusion involves the fusion of

(1) Two male gametes and one egg cell

(2) Two egg cell and one male gamete
(3) Two male gametes and secondary nucleus
(4) One male gamete and secondary nucleus

43) In monocotyledons root cap and radical are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called as

(1) Scutellum
(2) Epicotyl
(3) Hypocotyl
(4) Coleorrhiza

44) The ability of pistil to recognise, accept or reject the pollen and its growth is due to
(1) Chemical component interaction
(2) Secretion of resin from exine
(3) Compatibility of pollen to accept the stigma
(4) All of these

45) Water of coconut is :

(1) Free Nuclear endosperm

(2) Cellular endosperm
(3) Degenerated endosperm
(4) Haploid endosperm

ZOOLOGY

1) The body cavity is the cavity present between the body wall and the gut wall. In some animals, the
body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(1) Acoelomates
(2) Pseudocoelomates
(3) Coelomates
(4) Haemocoelomates

2) Limbless amphibian among the following is :-

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Rana
(3) Bufo
(4) Hyla

3) Birds and mammals share one of the following characteristics as a common feature.

(1) Glandular skin

(2) Pneumatic bones
(3) Viviparity
(4) Warm-blooded

4) .......... migrates from ocean to fresh water for spawning.

(1) Echinus
(2) Cyclostomes
(3) Rana
(4) Hippocampus

5) Which of the following animal(s) is/are shown external fertilization and tympanum represent ear :-
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) (A), (B) and (D)

(2) Only (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) Only (D)

6) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of the sectional view of an animal. Identify the parts

labelled as A, B and C and select the correct option about them :-

Part A Part B Part C

1 Endoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm

2 Mesoderm Endoderm Ectoderm

3 Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm

4 Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoderm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Assertion : Alimentary canal is complete in roundworms.

Reason : A complete digestive system involves two openings mouth and anus.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

8) Statement-I : The most distinctive features of Echinoderms is the presence of the water canal
system.
Statement-II : A specialised excretory system is present in Echinoderms.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

9) In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched, where as the remaining three are correct?

Genus Two
Phylum
Name Characters
Pore
(1) Sycon (a) Porifera
bearing
Canal
(b)
system
Jointed
(2) Periplaneta (a) Arthropoda
appendages
Chitinous
(b)
exoskeleton
Body
(3) Pila (a) Mollusca
segmented
Mouth with
(b)
Radula
Spiny
(4) Asterias (a) Echinodermata
skinned
Adult are
(b) radially
symmetrical
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Which of the following character is correctly matched with its general character ?

(1) Cyclostomata : Cranium and vertebral column are bony

(2) Chondrichthyes : Gill slits without operculum
(3) Amphibia : They shed their scales as their skin casting
(4) Mammalia : Long bones hollow with air cavities

11) Identify the following diagrams and select the correct option w.r.t their number of germ layers

(a) (b)

(1) Triploblastic, Diploblastic

(2) Triploblastic, Triploblastic
(3) Diploblastic, Triploblastic
(4) Diploblastic, Diploblastic

12) Assertion (A) :– Mammals found in polar ice caps, deserts, forests, grasslands and dark caves.
Reason (R) :– The limbs of mammals are adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing,
swimming etc.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Given figure of animal belongs to which Phylum

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

14)

Identify A, B, C, D in the flow chart :-

(1) A-Cranium, B-Limb, C-Heart, D-Lungs

(2) A-Limbs, B-Fins, C-Jaws, D-Head
(3) A-Cranium, B-Jaws, C-Fins, D-Limbs
(4) A-Cranium, B-Circular mouth, C-Lungs, D-Gills.

15) In which one of the following the genus name, its two character and its Class/Phylum are
correctly matched?

Genus Two Class/

name characters Phylum
(a) Body segmented
(1) Ascaris Arthropoda
(b) Males and females distinct
 (a) A tympanum represents ear
(2) Toad Reptilia
(b) Fertilization is external
(a) Skin possesses hair
(3) Equus Mammalia
(b) Viviparous
(a) Cnidoblasts
(4) Obelia Coelenterata
(b) Organ level of organization
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following statements (A - E) are correct ?

A. The pelvic fins of male shark bear claspers
B. In Obelia, polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually
C. In birds forelimbs are modified into wings
D. In reptiles body is covered with dry and cornified skin
E. Beak is found in birds

(1) A, B, C and E
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) D, E only
(4) A, B, C, D and E

17) Identify the organism given below and its division along with its character :-

(1) Petromyzon, division Agnatha, endoparasite on fishes

(2) Lamprey, division Agnatha, ectoparasite on fishes
(3) Hag fish, division Agnatha, ectoparasite on fishes
(4) Myxine, division Agnatha, scavenger

18)

Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Phylum (P) Agnatha

(B) Subphylum (Q) Osteichthyes

(C) Division (R) Pisces

(D) Super class (S) Chordata

(E) Class (T) Vertebrata

 A B C D E

(1) S T P Q R

(2) S T Q R P

(3) S T P R Q

(4) S R Q P T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19)

Which one of the following animal is correctly matched with its Phylum (or) Class ?

(1) Macaca – Mammalia

(2) Devilfish – Chordata
(3) Icthyophis – Reptilia
(4) Bufo – Cyclostomata

20) The name of phylum is derived from certain features of animals. Select that how many of these
are correct :- (a) Cnidaria – Cnidoblasts/cnidocytes
(b) Roundworms – Dorso-ventrally flattened body
(c) Flatworms – Circular cross section
(d) Annelida – Body surface is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21)

Match the column I with column II and choose correct option :

Column-I Column-II

A Porifera i Canal System

B Aschelminthes ii Soft body

C Annelida iii Muscular pharynx

D Arthropoda iv Jointed Appendages

E Mollusc v Metamerism
(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - v, D - iv, E - i
(2) A - ii, B - v, C - iii, D - iv, E - i
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - v, D - iv, E - ii
(4) A - i, B - v, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii

22) Which of the following animal do not show cellular level of organisation ?

(1) Sycon
(2) Euspongia
(3) Spongilla
(4) Ctenoplana

23) Which one of the following group is correctly matched with their feature ?

Animals Feature

(1) Tape worm, Round worm, Earth worm Tube Within tube

(2) Starfish, Silverfish, Devil fish Eucoelom

(3) Whale, Rattus, Trygon Gills for respiration

(4) Tree lizard, Wall lizard, Crocodile 3-Chambered heart

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24)

Match the column-I with column-II & select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Filarial worm i Wucherera

B Sea mouse ii Antedon

C Sea hare iii Aphrodite

D Sea lily iv Aplysia

(1) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
(2) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i

25) In which of the following group, All animals are dioecious ?

(1) Starfish, Sepia, Locusta

(2) Ascaris, Nereis, Earthworm
(3) Tapeworm, Octopus, Aurelia
(4) Taenia, Sea anemone, Ancylostoma
26) Fill in the blanks :-
(A) In birds, air sacs connected to ...1... supplement respiration.
(B) The class name Reptilia refers to their creeping or ...2... mode of locomotion.
(C) In amphibians, the eyes ...3... eyelids.
(D) Mammals are ...4... with few exceptions and development is ...5....

(1) 1 – lungs, 2 – crawling, 3 – do not have, 4 – oviparous, 5 – indirect.

(2) 1 – pneumatic bones, 2 – swimming, 3 – do not have, 4 – oviparous, 5 – direct.
(3) 1 – lungs, 2 – crawling, 3 – have, 4 – viviparous, 5 – indirect.
(4) 1 – lungs, 2 – crawling, 3 – have, 4 – viviparous, 5 – direct.

27)

Choose the correct match among given options :-

Hemichordata Urochordata Echinodermata

(1) Nonchordata Nonchordata Chordata
(2) Marine Marine Fresh water
(3) Saccoglossus Salpa Ophiura
Indirect Direct Direct
(4)
development development development
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Chondrichthyes is characterised by :-

(1) Ventral mouth

(2) Placoid scales
(3) Ventral mouth and ctenoid scales
(4) Both (1) and (2)

29) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II
(A) Tree lizard (i) Hemidactyles
(B) Turtle (ii) Neophron
(C) Wall lizard (iii) Calotes
(D) Tree frog (iv) Chelone
(E) Garden lizard (v) Chameleon
(F) Vulture (vi) Hyla
(1) A - v; B - iii; C - i; D - vi; E - iv; F - ii
(2) A - vi; B - iv; C - i; D - v; E - ii; F - iii
(3) A - v; B - iv; C - i; D - vi; E - iii; F - ii
(4) A - iv; B - vi; C - v; D - iii; E - ii; F - i

30) Carefully observe the examples of following animals :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
Which one of the above animal is example of Asymmetrical symmetry and primitive multicellular
organisation.

(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) A

31) Match column-I and column-II and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II
(A) Body with pores (i) Balanoglossus
(B) External shell (ii) Pristis
(C) Worm like (iii) Pila
(D) Gill slits with fins (iv) Spongilla
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

32)

Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples?

(1) Porifera – Sycon, Spongilla, Sepia

(2) Coelenterata – Pennatula, Gorgonia, Hydra
(3) Ctenophora – Ctenoplana, Pleurobrachia, Obelia
(4) Arthropoda – Apis, Pila, Anopheles

33) Which one of the following is correctly match ?

Mostly internal
(1) Chondrichthyes fertilization and
direct development
 External
(2) Hemichordata fertilization, direct
development
External
(3) Aschelminthes fertilization, direct
development
External
(4) Amphibia fertilization, and
direct development
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) In non-chordates, if heart present it is on which side of body ?

(1) Ventral
(2) Dorsal
(3) Anterior
(4) Posterior

35) Match the column-I, II and III and select the correct option ?

A B C D

(1) iv, p iii, q ii, r i, s

(2) iii, r iv, p i, q ii, s

 (3) iii, s iv, p i, q ii, r

(4) iii, q ii, p i, r iv, s

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Choanocyte is present in ___A___ and it line __B__ select the option,
which correctly fills A and B :-

(1) A- Spongilla, B- Bodywall

(2) A - Ctenoplana, B - Spongocoel
(3) A - Sycon, B - Spongocoel
(4) A-Hydra, B-Gastrovascular cavity

37) Consider following features:

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca

(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(3) Arthropoda , Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

38) Excretory organ of Balanoglossus is :-

(1) Protonephridia
(2) Nephridia
(3) Solenocytes
(4) Proboscis gland

39) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II
A. Operculum i Mollusca
B. Comb plates ii Echinodermata
C. Parapodia iii Osteichthyes
D. Radula iv Ctenophora
E. Tube feet v Annelida
(1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - v, E - ii
(2) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i
(3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i, E - v
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii
40) Assertion (A) :- Hemichordates are placed as separate phylum under non-chordates.
Reason (R) :- They have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord, which was
found to be not notochord.

(1) A & R both correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R both correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

41) All of the following examples are correctly matched with their common name except :-

Column A Column B

(1) Aptenodytes Penguin

(2) Pteropus Flying fox

(3) Ornithorhynchus Platypus

(4) Balaenoptera Amphioxus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Statement A : Body of Mollusca is covered by a calcareous shell with a distinct head, proboscis
and visceral hump.
Statement B : Mollusca is the second largest animal phylum, which includes animals that are either
terrestrial (or) aquatic and possess an organ level of organisation.
Read the above statements and choose the correct option -

(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

(2) Both the statements are correct.
(3) Both the statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement B is correct but statement A is incorrect.

43) Choose the correct option :-

Option Phylum Symmetry Body cavity type

(1) Porifera Asymmetrical Pseudocoelomate

(2) Cnidaria Bilateral Coelomates

(3) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Acoelomate

(4) Hemichordata Radial Coelomates

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Statement I : Tunicates is one of the Sub Phylum of non-chordates. Statement II : Lancelet is
an example of tunicates.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct

45)

Read the following statements

(A) Poriferans are commonly called 'sponges'
(B) Ctenophores are commonly called 'sea walnuts'
(C) Cyclostomes are commonly called 'jawless fishes'

(D) Aschelminthes are commonly called 'flat worms'

(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) B, C and D are correct
(3) C and D are incorrect
(4) all are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 4 1 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

⇒ = 3h

2) A body oscillates simple harmonically with a time period of 2s

ω=
The velocity of a body is given by :
u = aω cos ωt (a = amplitude)
Kinetic energy of a body is,

KE =
Total energy of a body is,

E=
As per question :

KE =

or cos2 ωt =

or cos ωt =

or ωt =

∴ t=

3)

Question Explanation :
Find the time taken by a particle executing simple harmonic motion (SHM) to complete a
specific fraction of oscillations, starting from the mean position.

Concept :
This question is based on Time Period in SHM.

Formula :
x(t) = Asin (ωt)

Solution :

For

ωt =

t=

Total time =

Hence,
Option (3) is correct

4) The motion of a planet around the sun is a periodic motion but not a simple harmonic
motion. All other given motions are the examples of simple harmonic motion.

5) For SHM Force ∝ – (Displacement from mean position)

6)

V0 = Aω

V=

V=

7)

Velocity at mean position is maximum

8)

a = –ω2x

9) Problem Explanation:
Find the time period of a particle in SHM given its velocities at two different distances from
the mean position.
Concept:
This question is based on In SHM, velocity varies with displacement. Using velocity-
displacement relation, angular frequency is found and time period is calculated.
Formula:
T=2π/w
Calculation:
From two positions:

Subtracting:

Answer: Option 1 is correct.

10)

11) ∵ x = a sin ωt

∴ = a sin ωt ⇒ ωt =

⇒ = ⇒t=

12) + 25 x = 0

ω2 = ⇒ω= ⇒T= s

13)

14)

From given figure

Aω = 0.4
ω=

15)

For S.H.M.
Maximum acceleration = ω2A = β
Maximum velocity = ωA = α

16) x = Asinωt

If t = 1 second then x =

or
but in two second it will reach to extreme position, so distance travelled in next second

ratio of distance

17) x = 5 sin (4t – π/6)

x = A sin (ωt + ϕ)
Comparing (i) and (ii)
A=5,ω=4
v=ω
= = 16 units

18)

Explain : find the time period of a particle undergoing SHM, given its displacement (x) and
velocity (v) equation.
Concept : The relationship between velocity and displacement in SHM can be used to
determine the angular frequency, which is then used to find the time period.

Formula :
T = 2π​ (where T is the time period and ω is the angular frequency)

Calculation :
A2 = 25 ⇒ A = 5 m
(ωA)2 = 100 ⇒ ωA = 10 m/s
ω (5) = 10
ω = 2 rad/s
T = π = 3.14 sec.
Ans. (1)

19)

Concept :
Average velocity in SHM

Formula Used :

Calculation :

• The particle starts at a point, moves to the maximum displacement, returns, and repeats in
one complete period T.

Since it returns to the same position after T, the net displacement = 0.

Thus,

20) ....(i)

....(ii)

Ellipse.

21) a = –ω2x

a = –ω2x0

a = ω2x0

0
a = ω2x
so A = x0ω2

δ=

22)

23) A = 2cm ⇒ x = 1cm =

⇒ ⇒ α = ω2 · 1

24) According to x vs t graph

A = 20 cm, & T = 2 sec

⇒ ω = π rad/sec

amax = ω2A = (π)2 m/sec2

25)

26) Kmax. = K0 = total energy. As total energy remains conserved in SHM, hence when U is
maximum in SHM, K = 0, i.e., E is also equal to Umax., i.e., Umax. = E = K0.

27)

at t = 2 s x = 1
Time period T = 8

28)

U = 2 – 20 x + 5x2

F=–
At equilibrium position ; F = 0
20 – 10x = 0 Þ x = 2
Since particle is released at x = – 3, therefore amplitude of particle is 5
It will oscillate about x = 2 with an amplitude of 5.
∴ maximum value of x will be 7

29) 2. Concept:
The total energy E of a particle in S.H.M. is given by:

Where:
E is the total energy,
A is the amplitude,
k is the spring constant.
The time period T is related to the spring constant k by:

Doubling the time period will reduce the spring constant by a factor of 4, since T ∝
3. Calculation:
Doubling the amplitude increases the energy by a factor of 4.
Doubling the time period decreases the spring constant by a factor of 4, which reduces the
energy by a factor of 4.
Thus, the effects cancel each other out, and the total energy remains unchanged.
Correct Answer:
The total energy will remain E.

30)

31) Frequency of variation of kinetic energy = 2n

32) In S.H.M. when acceleration is negative maximum or positive maximum, the velocity is
zero so kinetic energy is also zero. Similarly for zero acceleration, velocity is maximum so
kinetic energy is also maximum.

33) So a = 6 cm, ω = 100 rad/sec

34) Total potential energy = 0.04 J

Resting potential energy = 0.01 J
Maximum kinetic energy = (0.04 – 0.01) = 0.03 J

0.03 = mω2a2 = ka2

0.03 = × k ×
k = 0.06 × 2500 N/m = 150 N/m

35)
= 2π2 (20)2 (0.1) (0.05)2 = 2J (approximately)

36)

x1 = a sin(ωt + ϕ1)
x2 = a sin(ωt + ϕ2)
⇒

To maximize

37)

The magnitude of displacement in the given time interval =

Time taken by the particle to cover a distance starting from rest =

Hence the magnitude of average velocity over given time interval is

38) x = 3 sin 2t + 4 cos 2t. From given equation

a1 = 3, a2 = 4, and ϕ =

∴ a= =5
⇒ vmax = aω = 5 × 2 = 10

39)

40)

Length of SHM line 2A = 8 cm

A = 4 cm
K.E = P.E

41)

At mean position x = 0
Velocity
 At half of amplitude

42) a = w2y
80 = w2 x 5
w2 = 16
w=4

43) Particle moving in opposite direction then

at position = Δϕ2 = 135°,

ϕ1 = 45°
Δϕ = 135 – 45 = 90°

44)

45) Conceptual

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about incorrect statement is :

Concept :
This Question is based on homolytic and heterolytic bond fission

Solution :
Homolytic bond fission in generate free radical.

Final Answer :
Option (3)
47) Question Explanation :
Question is asking about +I as well as +M effect

Concept :
This question is based on
+M :- πσ l.p. ; πσ ⊖ .
+I :- All anion and alkyl group show.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (4)

48) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about total number of de-localised electron in compounds A and B.

Concept :
This question is based on resonance.

Solution:

Final Answer :
Option (2)

49) Question Explanation :

Question asking about correct order

Concept :
This question is based on +I, –I order

Solution :
(1) correct (+I order) (2) correct (– I order ) (3) correct (+I order) (4) correct (+I order)

Final Answer :
Option (4)

50) Question Explanation: Identifying the more stable ion.

Concept: Stability of ions
Solution: The stability of an ion is enhanced by resonance. The ion with resonance
stabilization is more stable.

51)

Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrect statement.

Concept: Inductive effect
Solution: The statement that the inductive effect of H and CH3​ will be different is
incorrect. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 1

52)

Question Explanation: Identifying where the lone pair does not participate in resonance.
Concept: Resonance
Solution: The lone pair on the nitrogen atom in the compound in option A, a pyrrole
derivative, is involved in resonance. The lone pair on the nitrogen atom in the compound in
option C, an aniline derivative, is also involved in resonance. The lone pair on the nitrogen
atom in the compound in option D, a pyridine derivative, is not involved in resonance.

53) Question Explanation: Identifying the most stable canonical structure.

Concept: Resonance stability
Solution: The stability of a canonical structure is determined by the octet rule, charge
separation, and electronegativity of charged atoms. The structure with no charge separation
and all atoms having a complete octet is the most stable.

54)

Explaining the Question: Most stable carbanion is

Concept: Stability of carbanion

Solution:

I order = –F > – CI > – Br > –I

Stability of C– = 2 > 4 > 3 > 1
Final Answer: Option_2

55)
Due to +I effect

56)

Conceptual

57)

Question Explanation: Identifying an electrophile.

Concept: Electrophile
Solution: An electrophile is an electron-deficient species. Boron trifluoride (BH3​) has an
incomplete octet and is electron-deficient, making it a strong electrophile. Calculation:
N/A Final Answer: 3

58)

Question explanation: Identify which of the given compounds (butanoic acid and its fluoro
isomers) is the most acidic.

Concept: Acidic Strength by Inductive Effect.

Answer Explaination:

ACIDIC STRENGTH is enhanced by electron-withdrawing groups via the Inductive Effect (-I).
Fluorine (F) has a strong -I effect. This effect weakens rapidly with increasing distance from
the acidic group (-COOH).

Fluorine increases the acidity of butanoic acid by its electron-withdrawing inductive effect (-I),
stabilizing the carboxylate anion. The closer the fluorine atom is to the -COOH group, the
stronger the effect. In 2-fluorobutanoic acid, F is at C-2 (closest), providing the maximum
stabilization and thus the highest acidity.

Final Answer: 1 (2-Fluorobutanoic acid) is the most acidic compound.

59)

Partial displacement of σ–electrons

60) Question Explanation: Identifying the more stable carbocation.

Concept: Stability of carbocations
Solution: The stability of a carbocation is enhanced by resonance. The tertiary butyl
carbocation and the benzyl carbocation are both more stable than the secondary butyl
carbocation.

61) –OCH3 shows +M, –I at O and P positions.

–OCH3 supports carbanion stabality when placed at meta as it show only –I.

62) Explaining the Question :- Hterolytic fission in CH3–Br

Concept:- Heterolytic fission

Solution :-
Final Answer :- Option (2)

63)
Resonance is possible.

64)

Carboxylic acid more acidic then phenol due to carboxylic acid have equivalent resonance
structure.

65)

Electron withdrawing increase the acidic strength of carboxylic acid.

66) Question Explanation: Evaluating statements about the mesomeric effect.

Concept: Mesomeric Effect (+M effect)
Solution: Both the assertion and the reason are true. The methyl group is a weak electron-
donating group, so it increases the electron density on the oxygen atom, making it a stronger
electron-donating group. The reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. Calculation:
N/A Final Answer: 1

67)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which statements are true about the carbonium
ion, specifically about its hybridization, electron pair donation tendency, geometry, and
whether it acts as a nucleophile.

Underlying Concept: A carbonium ion (more accurately called a carbenium ion) is a

positively charged carbon species with three substituents and one empty orbital. This ion is
electron-deficient, meaning it has fewer electrons than needed for a neutral state. The
hybridization of the carbon atom affects its geometry and reactivity. Typically, a carbenium ion
is sp² hybridized, leading to a planar structure with an empty p-orbital perpendicular to the
plane. These properties impact whether it donates electron pairs or acts as a nucleophile.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that positively charged carbons with three substituents and an
empty orbital are usually sp² hybridized and planar, since the empty p-orbital is
perpendicular to the plane formed by the substituents.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse carbonium ion as donating electron pairs or
acting as nucleophiles, but it is electrophilic and electron-deficient.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting the carbonium ion donates electron
pairs or acts as a nucleophile are incorrect because the positively charged carbon lacks
electron density to donate and instead tends to accept electrons. The ion is planar due to sp²
hybridization, so any answer excluding planar geometry is also incorrect.

68)

Reasonance and 3o-Radical

69)

Allyl free radical in stabilised by resonance

Stable by resonance
Whereas alkyl tree radical is stabilised by +I & +H effect

70) more stable than

+M effect -I effect

71)
Picric acid.

72)

Acidic nature inversly proportional to +I group.

73)

Carbocation has only 3 pair of electrons.

74) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about correct order of acidic strength is :

Concept :
This question is based on Acidic strength

Solution :

(1)

(2)

(3)

Final Answer :
Option (3)

75) Question Explanation: Identifying the most stable carbanion.

Concept: Stability of carbanions
Solution: The stability of a carbanion is enhanced by resonance. The carbanion with the most
extensive resonance stabilization is the most stable. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 4

76) Question Explanation: Identifying the incorrect statement.

Concept: Bond fission and intermediates
Solution: The statement that carbanions have an incomplete octet is incorrect. Carbanions
have a complete octet.

77)
Explaining the Question :- Given group has +M effect

Concept:- +M effect

Solution :-
Final Answer :- Option (3)

78) Explaining the Question :- Lowest pka value

Concept:- Acidic strength ∝ ∝ stability conjugated

base

Solution :-
Ka = (3) > (2) > (1) > (4)
pKa = (4) > (1) > (2) > (3)
Final Answer :- Option (3)

79)

Due to electronegativity

80)
 Question Explanation: Identifying where homolytic fission occurs easily.
Concept: Homolytic fission
Solution: Homolytic fission occurs easily in peroxides. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 3

81)

Carbanion is lewis base

82)

CN-1 is ambident nucleophile

83)

All are behave like electrophile

84)

More Resonance more stable.

85)
%S EN Stability

86)

Carboxylic acid > Phenol > Alcohol

87)

Less covalent bonds less stable.

88)

Less covalent bonds less stable

89)

Alkyl groups are +I groups.

90)

Stability of Benzene is more.

BOTANY
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16x = 8x + male
 8x = male
male = 16x

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