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ELECTRIC CHARGES
7 YEARS
PAPER
124
143
SETS

AND FIELDS
INTRODUCTION
On a clear evening, Maya (science
student) and her friend Aarav were flying
RIDDLES
a kite. Suddenly, the string gave them a 1. I come in two types, positive and negative, and
tiny shock. Surprised, Maya asked, “How I’m always conserved. Who am I?
can such invisible forces travel through air 2. I bind or repel charges with a force proportional
and even shock us?” to their product and inversely to the square of
Aarav grinned: “That’s the beauty of distance. What law am I?
electric charges and fields nature’s way 3. I exist everywhere around a charge, yet you
of reminding us that unseen forces are can’t see me. Place a test charge near me, and I
always at work!” reveal myself. What am I?
4. I never intersect, and I always emerge from
positive charges and end on negative ones.
Who am I?

ELECTROSTATICS
The branch of physics which deals with properties
of charges at rest is called electrostatics.

ELECTRIC CHARGE
Charge is scalar physical quantity associated with
matter due to which it produces and experiences
electrical and magnetic effects. The excess or
deficiency of electrons in a body gives it a net
charge. A negatively charged body has excess
of electrons while a positively charged body has
deficiency of electrons.

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Properties of Electric Charge There are three types of materials in nature:
1. Charges interact with each other i.e., they exert force on each (i) Conductor: Conductors are the material in which
other. Like point charges repel each other while unlike point the outer most electrons are very loosely bound to
charges attract each other. the nucleus, so they are free to move (flow). So in a
conductor, there are large number of free electrons.
2. Charge is of two kinds: Positive and negative.
Example: Metals like Cu, Ag, Fe, Al.
3. Total charge of an isolated system is conserved
(Conservation of charge). (ii) Insulator or Dielectric or Non-conductor: Non-
conductors are the materials in which outer most electrons
4. Charge is quantised: Charge is an integral multiple of
are very tightly bound to the nucleus, so that they cannot
electronic charge i.e., Q = Ne, where e = 1.6 × 10–19 C and N
move (flow). Hence in a non-conductor there are no free
is an integer.
[Link]: plastic, rubber, wood etc.
5. Charge can be transferred: Charge can be transferred from
(iii) Semiconductor: Semiconductors are the materials which
one body to another. This occurs due to transfer of electrons
from one body to another. One of the common example of have free electrons but very few in number.
transfer of charge is charging by friction. Now lets see how the charging is done by conduction.
e– In this method, we take a charged conductor ‘A’ and an
+ – uncharged conductor ‘B’. When both are connected, some
Rubbing + Transfer –
A B – charge will flow from the charged body to the uncharged
+
+ – body. If both the conductors are identical and kept at large
Neutral
  Neutral distance and connected to each other, then charge will be
divided equally in both the conductors otherwise they will
Frictional Electricity: When two bodies are rubbed with
flow till their electric potential becomes same. Its detailed
each other, they are found to attract each other. This is so
study will be done later.
because, on rubbing, transfer of electrons takes place from
one body to another. One of them acquires a positive charge + ++ ++++
+ + ++ + ++ +
++ + +
and other acquires a negative charge. +
A B
6. Charge is invariant: Charge of a particle is independent of Charged Uncharged
++ ++
its speed. body body ++ ++ ++
+
7. Charge cannot exist without mass, while mass can exist A B
without charge. e.g., neutron, neutrino, antineutrino all are
neutral particles having mass.
Charging by Friction
When two bodies are rubbed together, electrons are transferred
SI Unit: coulomb (C)
from one body to the other. This makes one body positively
[1 coulomb = 1 ampere × 1 second]
charged while the other negatively charged, e.g., when a glass
C.G.S. unit: stat coulomb or franklin rod is rubbed with silk the rod becomes positively charged
1 coulomb = 3 × 109 stat coulomb while the silk becomes negatively charged. Clouds are also
1 charged by friction. Charging by friction is in accordance with
1 coulomb = 3 × 109 esu of charge = emu of charge
[esu = electrostatic unit] 10 conservation of charge. The positive and negative charges appear
simultaneously in equal amounts due to transfer of electrons
[emu = electromagnetic unit]
from one body to the other.
1 esu of charge = 1 franklin
Charging by friction is based on difference in work function (f)
Practical Units: 1amp × hr = 3600 coulomb and
of the bodies that are being rubbed. We cannot charge two bodies
1 faraday = 96500 coulomb (charge on 1 mole of electrons) by rubbing that are made up of same material.

METHODS OF CHARGING Charging by Induction

If a charged body is brought near a neutral body, the charged
Charging by Conduction
body will attract opposite charge and repel similar charges
Charging by conduction refers to the technique of charging an present in the neutral body. One side of the neutral body becomes
uncharged body by bringing it in contact with some other charged positively charged while the other side becomes negative.
material.
Important Points
After conduction both the bodies acquire same type of charge if
one of the bodies involved is uncharged. However, if both bodies ™ Inducing body neither gains nor loses charge.

are charged then final type of charge on both bodies will be of that ™ The nature of induced charge is always opposite to that of
whose magnitude is larger. inducing charge.

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™ Induced charge can be lesser or equal to inducing Step 4: Now disconnect the connecting wire. Conductor
charge (but never greater) and its maximum value is becomes negatively charged.
 1
q′ = −q 1 −  [only when electric field is uniform]
 K
q = the inducing charge

GOLD LEAF ELECTROSCOPE

K = the dielectric constant of the material of the uncharged body
™ For metals, K = ∞, so q′ = –q
Gold leaf electroscope is a device which is used to detect the
A body can be charged by induction in the following two ways:
charge on a body.
Method-I A gold-leaf electroscope is defined as a type of electroscope
Step 1: Take an isolated neutral conductor. that consists of two gold leaves and is used for detecting the
electrical charge of the body and for the classification of its
polarity.

Step 2: Bring a charged rod near it. Due to the charged rod, Construction of Gold Leaf Electroscope
charges will induce on the conductor. A gold leaf electroscope consists of a brass rod with a brass
–– + disk at the top, and at the bottom, there are two thin gold leaves
–– +++
++ ++ + +
++ ++ + + ––– + in the form of foils. In order to keep the rod in place, the rod
––– +
–––+++ travels through the insulator. The charges move from the disc to
Step 3: Connect another neutral conductor with it. Due to the leaves through the rod. At the lower portion of the jar, a thin
attraction of the rod, some free electrons will move from the aluminium foil is connected. The aluminium foil is grounded
right conductor to the left conductor and due to deficiency of with the help of a copper wire so that the leaves are protected
electrons positive charges will appear on right conductor. On the from external electrical disruptions.
left conductor, there will be excess of electrons due to transfer
from right conductor. Brass disc

Insulator
plug

Step 4: Now disconnect the connecting wire and remove the Glass bottle
Brass rod
rod. One body becomes negatively charged while second body
Gold leaf
becomes positively charged.
Metal foil

Earth
   
Method-II Applications of Gold Leaf Electroscope
Step 1: Take an isolated neutral conductor. The following are the applications of gold leaf electroscope:
™ Detection of charge.
™ Identification of the nature of the charge.
™ Identification of the body as a conductor or an insulator
Step 2: Bring a charged rod near it. Due to the charged rod,
charges will induce on the conductor. Detection of Charge
–– +
–– +++ For the detection of charge, the object that needs to be tested is
++ ++ + +
++ ++ + + ––– +
––– + touched with the metal cap. If the leaves diverge, the body is
–––+++
said to be charged, and if there is no change in the leaves of the
Step 3: Connect the conductor to the earth (this process is electroscope, then the body is uncharged.
called grounding or earthing). Due to attraction of the rod, some
free electrons will move from earth to the conductor, so in the Identification of the Nature of the Charge
conductor there will be excess of electrons due to transfer from To identify the nature of the charge, let’s consider an example.
the earth, so net charge on conductor will be negative. A positively charged body is brought near the metal cap. Then
–– + an unknown body is brought near the metal cap. If the leaves
+ –– +++
– electron
+
+ ++ +
+ –
–– + transfer
diverge further, we can conclude that the unknown body has a
+
+ + + –
–– ++ +
+ ––+ positive charge. If the leaves come closer to each other, then the
charge of the unknown body is negative.
Electric Charges and Fields 3
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Identification of Body as a Conductor or an Insulator The dielectric constants of different mediums
To identify if a body is a conductor or an insulator, two gold leaf Medium Vacuum Air Water Mica
electroscopes are taken. One gold leaf electroscope is charged so εr 1 1.00059 80 6
that the leaves will diverge. Then the other gold leaf electroscope
is connected to the first one through the body. If the leaves of the Teflon Glass PVC Metal
other electroscope diverge, then the body is a conductor, and if 2 5-10 4.5 ∞
there is no change in the leaves, the body is an insulator.
COULOMB’S LAW IN VECTOR FORM
COULOMB’S LAW 
A charge q1 is placed at A whose position vector is r1 .
Coulomb's law states that the force of attraction or repulsion 
Another charge q2 is placed at B whose position vector is r2 ,
between two stationary point charges is directly proportional to   
the product of charges and inversely proportional to the square of such that AB =| r2 − r1 | = r .
distance between them. This force acts along the line joining the
The magnitude of force is given by
point charges.
k q1 q2
If q1 and q2 are charges F=
4πε0 r 2
r = the distance between them
Force on q2 due to q1, in vector form, is given by
F = the force acting between them
 1 q1q2 
1 q q F21 = AB , where  AB is a unit vector along line
Then F ∝ q1 q2 & F ∝ 2 ∴ F ∝ 1 2 4πε0 r 2
r r2
joining A and B, pointing from A to B.
1 q1q2
F =  
4π ∈0 r 2   1  q1q2 ( r2 − r1 )  1  q1q2  
 3 ⋅ ( r2 − r1 )
q1 q2 = ⇒ F21  =
 2   
r  4πε0  r r2 − r1  4πε0  r

1 y q1 AB q2
= 9 × 109 Nm²/C²  
4πε0 F B F2 1
 12 A

[in electrostatic unit (esu) constant of proportionality = 1] r1 r2
ε0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C²/Nm² = permittivity of free space or vacuum
x

EFFECT OF MEDIUM
Similarly force on q1 due to q2 is given by,
 
  1  q1q2 ( r1 − r2 )  1  q1q2  
The dielectric constant of a medium is the ratio of the electrostatic = F12   2 =     3 ⋅ ( r1 − r2 )
force between two charges separated by a given distance in  4πε0  r r1 − r2  4πε0  r
vacuum to electrostatic force between same two charges separated  
Note that F12 = − F21 . Both forces are action reaction pair.
by same distance in that medium.

Fvacuum =
1 q1q2
and Fmedium =
1 q1q2
PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION
4πε0 r 2 4πε0ε r r 2
Consider a system of n stationary charges q1, q2, q3, ... qn in
F 1 1 vacuum. What is the force on q1 due to q2, q3 ... qn? Coulomb’s law
⇒ medium = =
Fvacuum ε r K is not enough to answer this question. Force on any charge due to a
number of other charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that
εr or K = dielectric constant or relative permittivity or specific charge due to the other charges taken
inductive capacity of medium. one at a time. The individual forces F1n q2
Permittivity: Permittivity is a measure of the ability of the are unaffected due to the presence of q1
F
medium surrounding electric charges to allow electric lines of other charges. This is termed as the 13 q3
force to pass through it. It determines the forces between the ‘principle of superposition’. (Note F12
charges. that the principle of superposition
is independent of Coulomb’s law qn
Relative Permittivity: The relative permittivity or the dielectric and all of electrostatics is basically
constant (εr or K) of a medium is defined as the ratio of the a consequence of Coulomb’s law and superposition principle
permittivity ε of the medium to the permittivity ε0 of free space together). Now, the force on q1 can be found out by calculating
  
ε separately the forces F12 , F13 ……..F1n exerted by q2, q3 ......qn,
i.e., εr or K =
ε0 respectively on q1 and then adding these forces vectorially.
   
Dimensions of permittivity: [M–1 L–3 T4 A2] So,= F1 F 12 + F13 +……+ F 1n

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 q1  q2 rˆ12 q3 rˆ13 qn rˆ1n  Ex-4 Five styrofoam balls A, B, C, D and E are used in an
=∴ F1  2 + 2 +……. + 2 
4πε0  r12 r13 r1n  experiment. Several experiments are performed on the balls and
  the following observations are made:
q1 n
qi rˆ1i    r1 − ri
=
4πε0
∑ 2
where r1i =
r1 − ri and rˆ1i =  
| r1 − ri |
(i) Ball A repels C and attracts B.
(ii) Ball D attracts B and has no effect on E.
i = 2 r1i
(iii) A negatively charged rod attracts both A and E. For
Ex-1 Two equal point charges (10–3 C) are placed 1 cm your information, an electrically neutral styrofoam
apart in medium of dielectric constant K = 5. ball is very sensitive to charge induction and gets
attracted considerably, if placed nearby a charged
(a) Find the interaction force between the point charges.
body. What are the charges, if any, on each ball?
(b) Net force on any of the charge.
Sol. From (i), as A repels C, so both A and C must be charged
Sol. (a) Interaction force between point charges similarly. Either both are +ve or both are –ve. As A also attracts
( )
2
1 q1q2 10−3 B, so charge on B should be opposite of A or B may be uncharged.
F = =
9 × 10 9
=
9 × 107 N From (ii), as D has no effect on E, so both D and E should be
4π ∈0 r 2
( )
2
10−2 uncharged and as B attracts uncharged D, so B must be charged
and D must be uncharged. From (iii), a –vely charged rod attracts
(b) Net force on any one charge
the charged ball A, so A must be +ve and from (i) C must also be
( )
−3 2
+ve and B must be –ve.
1 q1q2 9 × 109 10
F=' = = 18 × 106 N
Ex-5
4π ∈0 K r 2
( ) A point charge qA = + 100 mC is placed at point A
2
5 10−2
(1, 0, 2) m and another point charge qB = + 200 mC is placed at
Ex-2 Two small balls each of mass m and charge q are point B (4, 4, 2) m. Find:
suspended through two light insulating strings of length l from a (i) Magnitude of electrostatic interaction force acting
point. Find the expression for angle q made by any of the string between them.
 
with vertical when under static equilibrium. (ii) FA (force on A due to B) and FB (force on B due to A) in
O vector form.
Sol. F
qB = + 200µC

B(4, 4, 2)
q q
qA = + 100 µC
m m F A(1, 0, 2)
Sol. Angle of any string with vertical is q as shown.
(i) Value of F:
o
=
 kq A qB
F =
(9 ×10 )(100 ×10 )( 200 ×=
9
10 )
−6 −6

7.2 N
 r2 
2
 ( 4 − 1)2 + ( 4 − 0 )2 + ( 2 − 2 ) 
T T  
Fe Fe
  (9 ×10 )(100 ×10 )( 200 ×10 ) ×
9 −6 −6
mg mg (ii) FB kq
= = A qB
 3 rBA ( ) 3

For equilibrium in horizontal direction rBA
 ( 4 − 1)2 + ( 4 − 0 )2 + ( 2 − 2 ) 
 
1 q2
= = T sin θ  3 ˆj  N
Fe 4
( 4 − 1) iˆ + ( 4 − 0 ) ˆj + ( 2 −=
2 ) kˆ  7.2  iˆ +
… (i)
4π ∈0 ( 2l sin θ )2
5 5 
For equilibrium in vertical direction   3 4 
T cos θ = mg … (ii) Similarly, FA = 7.2  − iˆ − ˆj  N
Dividing (i) by (ii)
 5 5 

Fe Ex-6 Two particles N

tan θ =
mg having mass m and charge
q each are to be placed on a F q N q F
Ex-3 For the following system to be in equilibrium, what rough horizontal surface with
should be the value of charge Q? coefficient of static friction m. r
mg
Q What can be the minimum
q a a q separation between them so
Kq 2 K |Q|q that they remain stationary? Strategy: The separation will be
⇒ q
Sol. = Q=– minimum when electrostatic force of repulsion is just balanced
(2a ) 2 a2 4
by limiting force of friction.

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µmg ( N =
Sol. F = mg ) CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
1/2
1 q  1 q 
2 2 1. One quantum of charge is equal to:
⇒
=µmg ⇒ r = 
4πε0 r 2
 4πε0 µmg  (a) 1.6 × 10–17 C (b) 1.6 × 10–19 C
–10
(c) 1.6 × 10 C (d) 4.8 × 10–10 C
Ex-7 Three equal point charges of charge +q each are
moving along a circle of radius R and a point charge –2q is also 2. Which one of the following statement regarding
placed at the center of circle (as shown in figure). If charges electrostatics is wrong?
are revolving with constant and same speed in the circle then (a) Charge is quantized.
calculate speed of charges. (b) Charge is conserved.
+q (c) There is an electric field near an isolated charge at
v
rest.
R (d) A stationary charge produces both electric and
magnetic fields.
–2q
R v 3. When the distance between two charged particles is
R
+q +q
halved, the force between them becomes
(a) One fourth (b) One half
v (c) Double (d) Four times
mv 2 4. A positively charged body ‘A’ attracts a body ‘B’ then
Sol. F2 − 2 F1cos30° =
R charge on body ‘B’ may be

⇒
K ( q )( 2q )
−
(
2 Kq 2 ) cos30° = mv 2 (a) Positive (b) Negative
2 2 (c) Zero (d) Can’t say
R ( 3R ) R
F1 F1
5. Two bodies are charged by rubbing one against the
other During the process, one becomes positively
30° 30°
charged while the other becomes negatively charged.
+q
Then mass of each body
kq 2  1 
=
⇒v 2− (a) Remains unchanged
Rm  
F2
3R R 3R 3 (b) Increases marginally
–2q (c) Total mass changes slightly
R
R (d) Changes slightly but the total mass remains
+q +q unchanged
3R
6. There are two charges +10μC having mass 10 mg and
+5μC having mass 5 mg. The ratio of their accelerations
Ex-8 Five point charges, each of value q are placed on under coulomb’s force acting between them is
five vertices of a regular hexagon of side L except at A. What (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
is the magnitude of the force on a point charge of value – q (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
coulomb placed at the center of the hexagon? 7. +2C and +6C two charges are repelling each other with
Sol. If there had been a sixth charge + q at the remaining vertex of a force of 12 N. If each charge is given –2C of charge,
hexagon, force due to all the six charges on –q at O would have then the value of force will be:
been zero (as the forces due to individual charges will balance
 (a) 4N (Attractive) (b) 4N (Repulsive)
each other), i.e., FO = 0 L
(c) 8N (Repulsive) (d) Zero
 E D
Now if f is the force due to sixth 8. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen
 q
q
charge and F due to remaining five atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force
charges, then
    q O   1 
F+ f = 0 i.e., F = − f F q C F on the electron is  where K = :
–q  4πε0 
or,
  q e1 e1 
1 q×q 1 q2 (a) − K rˆ (b) K r
F= =
f = A B r 3
r3
4πε0 L2 4πε0 L2
 e2  e1
1 q2 (c) − K 3 r (d) K rˆ
F= along OD r r2
4πε0 L2

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9. Two equal point charges each of 3μC are separated Ex-9 Two equal positive point charges 'Q' are placed
by a certain distance in metres. If they are located at at points A(a, 0) and B(–a, 0). Another test charge q0 is also
( ) ( )
iˆ + ˆj + kˆ and 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 3kˆ , then the electrostatic placed at O(0, 0). Show that the equilibrium at 'O' is
(i) stable for displacement along X-axis.
force between them is:
(a) 9 × 103 N (b) 9 × 10–3 N (ii) unstable for displacement along Y-axis.
–3
(c) 3 × 10 N (d) 9 × 10–2 N     KQq
(i) Initially FAO + FBO = 0 ⇒ FAO =FBO = 2 0
10. Two charges placed in air repel each other by a force a
of 10–4 N. When oil is introduced between the charges,
When charge is slightly shifted towards + x axis by a
the force on the charge becomes 2.5 × 10–5 N. The
dielectric constant of oil is: small distance x, then
(a) 2.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0 y
11. Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular
hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its centre q0
Q Q
O, force on it will be – x
A FBO O FAO B
A B
–q 3q

 
–2q FAO < FBO
F –2q C
Therefore the particle will move towards origin
(its original position) hence the equilibrium is stable.
q 2q y
E D
(a) zero (b) along OF
(c) along OC (d) None of these Q FBO q0 Q
12. Charge q2 of mass m revolves around a stationary A O
x
FAO B x
charge q1 in a circular orbit of radius r. The orbital
periodic time of q2 would be:

 4π2 mr 3 
1/2
 kq q 
1/2 (ii) When charge is shifted along y axis
(a)   (b)  21 2 3  2Fcos
 kq1q2   4π mr  F F
 
 4π2 mr 4 1/2  4π2 mr 2 1/2
Fsin Fsin
(c)   (d)   q0
 kq1q2   kq1q2 
Q Q
A B
13. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using
separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5) show After resolving components net force will be along y axis so
repulsion. Therefore ball 1 must be
the particle will not return to its original position, so it is unstable
(a) Positively charged (b) Negatively charged
equilibrium. Finally the charge will move to infinity.
(c) Neutral (d) Made of metal
In above example if q0 is negative point charge then prove
that the equilibrium at 'O' is
ELECTROSTATIC EQUILIBRIUM
(i) stable for displacement in Y-direction.
The point where the resultant force becomes zero is called
equilibrium position. (ii) unstable for displacement in X-direction.
1. Stable Equilibrium: If charge is initially in equilibrium 3. Neutral Equilibrium: If charge is displaced by a small
position and is displaced by a small distance and the charge distance and it is still in equilibrium condition then it is
tries to return back to the same equilibrium position then this called neutral equilibrium.
equilibrium is called stable equilibrium.
Ex-10 Two point charges of charge q1 and q2 (both of
2. Unstable Equilibrium: If charge is displaced by a small
distance from its equilibrium position and the charge has no same sign) and each of mass m are placed such that gravitational
tendency to return to the same equilibrium position instead it attraction between them balances the electrostatic repulsion.
goes away from the equilibrium position then this equilibrium Are they in stable equilibrium? If not then what is the nature
is called unstable equilibrium. of equilibrium?
Electric Charges and Fields 7
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Hence, the electric field at point P due to the system of N charges is
Kq1q2 Gm 2    
Sol. In given example: =
r2 r2 E = E1 + E2 + ... + EN
We can see that irrespective of distance between them 1  q1 q2 qN   1 N qi
=
charges will remain in equilibrium. If now distance is 
4πε0  r12P
ˆ
r1 P +
r22P
ˆ
r2 P + ... + 2
ˆ
rNP  or E = ∑ rˆiP
4πε0 i =1 riP2
rNP 
increased or decreased then there is no effect on their
    
equilibrium. Therefore it is a neutral equilibrium. E E1  E2  E3  E4

ELECTRIC FIELD
A region around a charged particle within which a force would

be exerted on other charged particle is said to have an electric E3   
E1  E2  E3
field. An electric field is a vector quantity and can be visualized 
as arrows going towards or away from charges.  E2
E4
 
E1  E2
Electric Field due to Point Charge
 
To determine the direction of an electric field, consider a point q1 r1P E1
P

charge q as a source charge. This charge creates an electric field r4P

at all points in space surrounding it. A test charge q0 is placed r2P  q4
at point P, a distance r from the source charge, as in figure (a). q2 r3P

We imagine using the test charge to determine the direction of the

electric force and therefore that of the electric field. However, the q3
electric field does not depend on the existence of the test charge, it In terms of position vectors, we can write
is produced solely by the source charge. According to Coulomb’s  
 1 N qi r − ri
qq0=
law, the force exerted by q on the test charge is Fe = k 2 rˆ
E ∑   ⋅  
4πε0 i =1 r − ri r − ri
r
where r̂ is a unit vector directed from q toward q0. This force in Electric Field Due to Continuous Charge
figure (a) is directed away from the source charge q. The electric
  Distribution
field at P, the position of the test charge, is defined by E = F / q,
Consider the following charged object of irregular shape as
 q
we find that at P, the electric field created by q is, E = k 2 rˆ shown in figure. The entire charged object is divided into a large
r number of charge elements Dq1, Dq2, Dq3 ..... Dqn, and each charge
When the source charge q is positive as in figure (b) (it shows element Dq is taken as a point charge.
the situation with the test charge removed) the source charge sets
up an electric field at point P, directed away from q. When q is q3 E2
q1 r3p r3p p
negative, as in figure (c), the force on the test charge is toward E1
r1p
r1p
the source charge, so the electric field at P is directed toward the E3
r2p
q2
source charge, as in figure (d). r 2p

q0 F E q0
+ F + E
P The electric field at a point P due to a charged object is
P P P approximately given by the sum of the fields at P due to all such
q q r q q r
r
+ + – r – charge elements.
(a) (b) (c) (d)  1  ∆q1 ∆q2 ∆qn  1 n ∆qi
E≈  2 rˆ1P + 2 rˆ2 P + ..... + 2 rˆnP  ≈ ∑ 2 rˆiP
Principle of Superposition
4πε0  r1P r2 P rnP  4πε0 i =1 riP

According to principle of superposition of electric fields, the To incorporate the continuous distribution of charge, we take the
limit Dq → 0 (= dq). In this limit, the summation in the equation
electric field at any point due to a group of charge is equal to
becomes an integration and takes the following form:
the vector sum of the electric fields produced by each charge
 1 dq
individually at that point, when all other charges are assumed to E= ∫
4πε0 r 2
rˆ
be absent.

8
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Linear charge density: It is the quantity of charge per unit length ™ The electrostatic field i.e., field produced by charge at rest is
with S.I unit C/m. Mathematically: conservative.
dq kq  kq  kq 
l= E = 2 E = 2 rˆ E= 3r
dl r r r
dl λ

dq  + –
Electric field due to linear charge distribution of total charge q is
given by:
 1  λdl 
E= ∫  r 2  rˆ
4πε0 line

r = position vector of point with respect to source charge
  
r = r point – r sourcecharge
Surface charge density: It is the quantity of charge per unit area
with S.I unit C/m2. Mathematically, the surface charge density:
ELECTRIC FIELD DUE TO A
dq
s=
dA UNIFORMLY CHARGED RING ON ITS
AXIS
dq Let us consider a uniformly charged ring as shown in figure. We
 dA wish to calculate electric field at a point on its axis.

z
Electric field due to surface charge distribution of total charge q + + 
is given by: P(x,0,0) dE p
+
R +  x
  σdA  O 
1 
E ( P) = ∫  r 2  rˆ
4πε0 surface + + dE p
+
Volume charge density: It is the quantity of charge per unit
volume with S.I unit C/m3. Mathematically, the volume charge
Consider an element on the ring, then electric field due to this
density:
element is given by
dq
r= dq  k .dQ
dV | dEP |= 2
x + R2
Electric field due to volume dV
From symmetry of charge distribution, it is clear that components
charge distribution of total  of electric field perpendicular to x-axis will cancel out.
charge q is given by:
 1  ρdV 
EP = ∫ dEP cos θ
E= ∫  r 2  rˆ
4πε0 volume k .dQ x kx
or EP = ∫ · = ∫ dQ
Important Points about Electric Field
(x 2
+R 2
) x +R
2 2
(x 2
+ R2 )
3/2

™ SI Unit: N/C or V/m or EP = kQx

(x )
3/2
™ Dimensions: [M L T–3 A–1] 2
+ R2
1 q
™ In free space electric field E0 = Note that electric field at the centre of the ring is zero.
4πε0 r 2
x = 0 ⇒ E0 = 0
1 q
In a medium of permittivity ε field E = For maximizing the electric
4πε r 2
field
E ε0 1 E0
So = = or E= [as ε = ε0 K] dEP R
E0 ε K K =0 ⇒x= ± –
dx 2
In presence of a dielectric, electric field decreases and The graphical variation of
1 electric field along x-axis is as
becomes times of its value in free space.
K shown below:
Electric Charges and Fields 9
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ADVANCED LEARNING
σ  
R
rdr x
or EP = 2πk σx ∫ = 1 − 
ELECTRIC FIELD AT THE CENTER + ε  
2 2 3/2
0 ( x r ) 2 0  x + R2
2

OF A UNIFORMLY CHARGED This result is easy to remember in following form
SEMICIRCULAR RING E=
σ
(1 − cos θ )
Let l = linear charge density. 2ε 0
+ + where q = semicone angle subtended by disc at point ‘P’.
+ +
x π
d Case: If R → ∞, then q →
+ dEx  2
+
y Disc becomes infinite sheet, i.e., an infinite sheet can be looked
dEy upon as disc of infinite radius.
dE
σ
The arc is a collection of large numbers of point charges. Einfinite sheet =
2ε0
Consider a part of ring as an element of length Rdθ which
subtends an angle dq at center of ring and it lies between  + uniformly charged
+ +
θ and θ + dθ + + + + + + infinite sheet
 + + + + ++
=dE dEx iˆ + dE y ˆj +
+ + ++ + P 
+ + + + + Ep
Also, + ++
+ + ++ + +
 kdq k λRd θ + ++ + +
dE = =
R 2 R2
 σ
Einfinite sheet = nˆ
Ex = ∫ dEx = 0 (due to symmetry) 2ε0
π π
kλ 2k λ λ where n̂ is a unit vector normal to the sheet pointing away
Ey = ∫ dE=y ∫ dE sin=
θ
R ∫0
sin θ. =
dθ =
R 2πε0 R from the sheet.
0

Electric field due an arc of radius R, charge density l and Electric Field Due to a Line of Charge at Axial
subtending an angle q at its centre is given by, Point
2k λ θ
E= sin   , along the angle bisector of q. In this case our problem is to find the electric field due to uniformly
R 2 charged rod of length L at a point P at distance r from one end of
the rod assuming that Q is the total positive charge on the rod as
ELECTRIC FIELD DUE TO UNIFORMLY shown below in the figure.
CHARGED DISC ON ITS AXIS Q (total charge on
the rod)
Let us consider a uniformly charged disc of radius ‘R’ and charge r P
density s as shown in figure. We wish to calculate electric field at + +
a point on its axis. L
y axis of the
z
rod
 ++
++ +
+ + + ++
+ + ++ +
+ ++ P(x,0,0) Let us is suppose the point P is at the origin. Our infinitesimal
+ R +
+ ++
++
+
 x
+
+ + O+ ++
+ +  charge element will be x distance away from the origin in this
+ ++ ++ +
+ dE p
++
+ ++ coordinate system and the length of this infinitesimal charge
element will be dx as shown in the figure. Charge dq on the
infinitesimal length element dx is
Let us consider an elementary ring of radius ‘r’ and thickness ‘dr’,
Q
then dq = dx
L
dQ = charge on elementary ring = (2pr) (dr) s = 2ps r dr
dx
dEP = Electric field due to elementary ring x
r
k .dQx + + dE
= P r
( x 2 + r 2 )3/2 L
  This dq can be regarded as a point charge, hence electric field dE
∴ EP = ∫ dEP
due to this element at point P is given by equation.

10
To Discover more
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θ
Q kλ 2 kλ
r −θ∫
  dx ⇒ En = =
cos θd θ (sin θ2 + sin θ1 ) ...(i)
dE =
dq
⇒ dE L
= r
4πε0 x 4πε0 x 2
1
2
kλ
and this field is generated at our point of interest P in radially dE|| = − sin θd θ
r
outward direction as shown in the figure. The net electric field θ
kλ 2 kλ
strength at point P can be given by integrating this expression over ⇒ E|| = − ∫
r −θ
=
sin θd θ
r
(cos θ2 − cos θ1 ) ...(ii)
the whole length of the rod. 1

E = ∫ dE Enet = En2 + E||2

It must be noted that electric field at point P due to all the charge 1. For infinitely long line charge: In above eq. (i) & (ii) if we
elements of the rod are in the same direction. put q1 = q2 = 90º we can get required result.
r+L 1 Q 2k λ λ
=
E ∫=
dE ∫
r 4πε0 Lx 2
dx
Enet = En =
r
=
2πε0 r

Q r+L 1 +
4πε0 L ∫r x 2
E= +
+
+
r+L +
Q  1 + 1
=E − E
4πε0 L  x  r
+ E
+ r E r
+
+
Q 1 1  +
=E −
4πε0 L  r r + L 
+ r
+
+
This is our required expression. 
2. For semi-infinite line charge 

ELECTRIC FIELD DUE TO A UNIFORM θ1 = 90º and θ2 = 0º so

LINE CHARGE DISTRIBUTION AT ANY kλ kλ

En = , E|| =
r
POINT PERPENDICULAR TO IT
r
En
2k λ r
Electric field due to a finite straight wire carrying uniform linear \ E= En2 + E||2 =
r E||
charge at a perpendicular distance r from the wire:
MOTION OF A CHARGED PARTICLE
dq = dx
dx
rsec
Parallel to IN A UNIFORM ELECTRIC FIELD
 the line
x A charged body of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is initially at rest in
2
 P
Normal to
a uniform electric field of intensity E. The force acting on it is
A r 
1 dE
the line given by F = Eq.
™ The direction of F is in the direction of field if ‘q’ is +ve and
opposite to the field if ‘q’ is –ve.
™ The body travels in a straight line path with uniform
F Eq
Consider electric field dE from a small element at a distance x acceleration, =
a =
from point A m m
kdq k λdx At an instant of time t,
dE = 2 = 2
r sec θ r sec 2 θ
2  Eq 
Its final velocity, v =u + at =  t (Q u = 0)
x = rtanq  m 
dx 1 2 1  Eq  2
= rsec2q E|| Displacement s =+
ut at =  t (Q u = 0)
dθ 2 2 m 
⇒ dx = rsec qdq 2 2
En Momentum, P = mv = (Eq)t
kλ r 1
⇒ dE = dθ Kinetic energy,
r
kλ 1 2 1  E 2q2  2
cos θd θ =
K .E = mv  t
dEn =
r 2 2  m 

Electric Charges and Fields 11

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™ When a charged particle enters perpendicularly into a uniform Sol. (d) Case I: When oil drop is in equilibrium
electric field of intensity E with a velocity u then it describes Negative plate
parabolic path as shown in the figure. F = qE
E q mg
Positive plate mg = qE

Case II: when the polarity of the plates are reversed
u
Positive plate
F = qE
E q mg

Negative plate

mg + qE = ma
™ Along the horizontal direction, acceleration is zero and hence 2mg = ma [⸪ qE = mg]
x = ut. 2 × 10 = a [\ a = 20m/s2]
Along the vertical direction,
Ex-13 A cube of edge a metres carries a point charge q
Force Eq
=
acceleration = (here gravitational force is not at each corner. Calculate the resultant force on any one of the
mass m
considered) charges.
Thus, vertical displacement, Sol. Let us take one corner of C P Z
1  Eq  2 cube as origin O(0, 0, 0) and the E A Y
y=  t
2 m  opposite corner as P(a, a, a). We X
B
will calculate the electric field at F
2
1  qE   x   qE  2
=y =     x P due to the other seven charges O D
2  m  u   2mu 2  at corners. Expressing the field of a point charge in vector form
™ At any instant of time t, horizontal component of velocity,  q 
E= r
vx = u 4πε0 r 3
™ Vertical component of velocity is
(i) Field at P due to A, B, C
 Eq     
v y= at=  t = E1
q
 AP + BP + CP 
 m  3  
4πε0 a
 E 2 q 2t 2 q  
∴v = v = v x2 + v y2 = u2 + = 3 
a j + ak + ai 
2 4 πε a 
m 0
(ii) Field at P due to D, E, F
Ex-11 An electron having mass m and charge q is
Note that DP = EP = FP = a 2
accelerated from rest in a uniform electric field E. The velocity
 q   
acquired by it as it travels a distance l is = E2  DP + EP + FP 
3  
(a)
2Eq
(b)
2E
(c)
2Em
(d) Eq
4πε0 a 2 ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
m m q 2m q
=  a j + ak + ai + a j + ai + ak 
Sol. (a) Given =u 0,= a
qE
,= s 
4πε0 2 2a 3  ( ) 
m
Q v= q i + j + k 
2
u + 2as
2
=
4πε0 2a 2  

2 qE  2 qE 
\ v 2 = 0 + ⇒v= (iii) Field at P due to O
m m
Ex-12 An oil drop having a mass 4.8 × 10–10g and OP = a 3

 q 
charge of 30 ×10–18C is at rest between two charged horizontal E3 = OP
( )
3
plates separated by a distance of 1cm. If now polarity of the 4πε0 a 3

plates is reversed, instantaneous acceleration of the drop is  q  ai + a j + ak 
(g = 10 m/s2) =E3
(a) 10m/s2 (b) 15m/s2 (c) 25m/s2 (d) 20m/s2
4 πε 0 3 3a 3 
( 
)
12 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS
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 q Sol.
=E3 i + j + k  Fe

4 πε 0 3 3a 2 
( 
) + + + + + + + + + + + +
+

Electric force acting on the particle, Fe = q0E

Resultant Field at P
   
E = E1 + E2 + E3  σ 
Fe = (q0 )   downward
 2ε 0 
=
(
 q i + j + k 
1+
1
+
1 )
E q0 σ
4πε0 a 2   Fe
2 3 3 So, acceleration of the particle: =
a = (uniform)
  m 2ε 0 m
\ F = qE
This acceleration will act like ‘g’ (acceleration due to gravity)
outward along OP. So, the particle will perform projectile motion.
Ex-14 Four charges Q, q, Q and q 2u sin θ 2u sin θ
are kept at the four corners of a square =
(i) T =
g  q0 σ 
as shown in the figure. What is the  
relation between Q and q so thatthe net  2ε 0 m 
force on charge q is zero?
u 2 sin 2 θ u 2 sin 2 θ
Sol. Let us make the force on upper =
(ii) H =
2g  qσ 
right corner ‘q’ equal to zero. Here 2 0 
both the ‘q’ will have same sign  2ε 0 m 
(either positive or negative), so
u 2 sin 2θ u 2 sin 2θ
they will repel each other, say by =
(iii) R =
force F1. To balance F1, Q must g  q0 σ 
 
apply attractive force on q, say  2ε 0 m 
F2. That also means Q and q will
have opposite signs. Resultant of Ex-16 A block having
Sheet
both these F2 will be 2F2 (By Pythagoras’ theorem) and it will mass m and charge Q is resting on (–)
exactly be opposite to F1. a frictionless plane at a distance d
or, F1 = 2F2 from fixed large non-conducting m

From Coulomb’s law infinite sheet of uniform charge

d
density –σ as shown in Figure.
q2 Qq
F1 =
and F2 = Assuming that collision of the
4πε0 ( 2d ) 2
4πε0 d 2
block with the sheet is perfectly elastic, find the time period of
 F1 = 2 F2
oscillatory motion of the block. Is it SHM?
q 2Q Sol. The situation is shown in figure. Electric force produced by
∴ =
( )
2

d 2 d2 sheet will accelerate the block towards the sheet producing an
acceleration. Acceleration will be uniform because electric field
q
∴Q = E due to the sheet is uniform.
2 2
F QE
But as we said Q and q have opposite sign so, a = = , where E = σ / 2ε0
m m
q = −2 2Q.
As initially the block is at rest and acceleration is constant, from
second equation of motion, time taken by the block to reach the
Ex-15 An infinitely large plate of surface charge density
wall
+σ is lying in horizontal xy-plane. A particle having charge –q0
and mass m is projected from the plate with velocity u making 1 2 2d 2md 4md ε0
=d =
at i.e., t = =
an angle θ with sheet. Find: 2 a QE Qσ

Sheet
–q0 R (–)
E

(i) The time taken by the particle to return to the plate. m QE

(ii) Maximum height achieved by the particle.
(iii) At what distance will it strike the plate? (Neglect d
mg
gravitational force on the particle)

Electric Charges and Fields 13

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As collision with the wall is perfectly elastic, the block will Sol. q1 = 90° and q2 = 360° – 37° So
rebound with same speed and as now its motion is opposite to the 
acceleration, it will come to rest after travelling same distance d
in same time t. After stopping, it will again be accelerated towards
the wall and so the block will execute oscillatory motion with
‘span’ d and time period
2md 4md ε0
T= 2=
t 2 = 2 
QE Qσ
However, as the restoring force F = QE is constant and not 
proportional to displacement x, the motion is not simple harmonic.

Ex-17 Positive charge Q is distributed uniformly over a
kλ kλ
circular ring of radius a. A point particle having a mass m and =
En [sin θ1 + sin θ2=
]; E|| [cos θ2 − cos θ1 ]
r r
a negative charge –q, is placed on its axis at a distance y from
k λ  3  2k λ k λ  4  4k λ
the center. Find the force on the particle. E = 1− = = −0 =
Assuming y << a, find the time period of r  5  5r r  5  5r
oscillation of the particle if it is released –q Ex-19 Three large conducting parallel sheets are placed
from there. (Neglect gravity) Fe
y at a finite distance from each other as shown in figure. Find
Sol. When the negative charge is shifted out electric field intensity at points A, B, C & D.
at a distance y from the center of the ring Q –2Q 3Q
along its axis then force acting on the
point charge due to the ring: A B C D
y
FE = qE (towards center)
  x
= q 
KQy
 2 3/ 2 
(
 a + y
2
) 
Sol. For point A:
Q –2Q 3Q
If a >> y then a2 + y2 ≈ a2
E–2Q
1 Qqy
∴ FE = (Towards center)
4πε0 a 3 EQ E3Q A

Since, restoring force FE ∝ y, therefore motion of charged particle

will be S.H.M. Time period of SHM
1/2     Q ˆ 3Q ˆ 2Q ˆ Q ˆ
m m 16π3ε0 ma 3  Enet =+
EQ E3Q + E−2Q =
− i− i+ i=
− i
T=
2π =
2π =
  2 Aε0 2 Aε0 2 Aε0 Aε0
k  Qq   Qq 
 
3 
For point B:
 4 πε 0 a  Q –2Q 3Q

Ex-18 Figure shows a long wire having uniform charge E–2Q

E3Q B
density λ as shown in figure. Calculate electric field intensity EQ

at point P.


    3Q ˆ 2Q ˆ Q ˆ
Enet =
E3Q + E−2Q + EQ =
− i+ i+ i=
0
2 Aε0 2 Aε0 2 Aε0
 For point C:
Q –2Q 3Q

E3Q EQ
E–2Q C

37°
P
r

14 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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    Q ˆ 3Q ˆ 2Q ˆ 2Q ˆ
Enet =+
EQ E3Q + E−2Q =
+ i− i− i=
− i 20. Two charges 4q and q are placed 30 cm apart. At what
2 Aε0 2 Aε0 2 Aε0 Aε0
point the value of electric field will be zero?
For point D: (a) 10 cm away from q and between the charges
Q –2Q 3Q (b) 20 cm away from q and between the charges
(c) 10 cm away from q and outside the line joining
EQ E3Q the charges
E–2Q D (d) 10 cm away from 4q and outside the line joining
the charges
21. Two mutually perpendicular infinite wires along x-axis
and y-axis carry charge densities λ1 and λ2. The electric
1 λ2
    line of force at P is along the line y = x. Find
Enet =+
EQ E3Q + E−2Q =
+
Q ˆ 3Q ˆ 2Q ˆ
i+ i−
Q
i = iˆ 3 λ1
2 Aε0 2 Aε0 2 Aε0 Aε0
E
y
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING λ1 P
14. A proton of mass ‘m’ charge ‘e’ is released from rest O x
in a uniform electric field of strength ‘E’. The time λ2
taken by it to travel a distance ‘d’ in the field is

(a) 2dE (b) 2dm (c) 2me (d) 2Ee 1

1
me Ee dE dm (a) 1 (b) (c) 3 (d)
3 3
15. A particle having mass m and charge q is thrown with
a speed u against a uniform electric field E. How much 22. The charge per unit length of the four quadrants of
distance will it travel before coming to rest? the ring is 2λ, –2λ, λ and –λ respectively. The electric
field at the center is
(a) mu2/2qE (b) 3mu2/qE
Y
(c) mqE/2u2 (d) mu/qE – +
–2λ – – +
16. A charged particle of mass 3 × 10–3 kg and charge + 2λ
– +
6 × 10–6 C enters in an electric field of 7 V/m. Then its – +
kinetic energy after 1m is X
+ R
–
(a) 10–4 J (b) 19 × 10–2 J + –
+ –
(c) 1.05 × 10–3 J (d) 4.2 × 10–5 J + –
λ + – –λ
17. Four equal but like charges are placed at four corners
of a square. The electric field intensity at the center −λ ˆ λ ˆ
(a) i (b) j
of the square due to any one charge is E, then the 2πε0 R 2πε0 R
resultant electric field intensity at center of square
will be 2λ ˆ
(c) i (d) None of these
(a) Zero (b) 4E (c) E (d) 1/2E 4πε0 R
18. A charge of 4 ×10–9C is distributed uniformly over 23. Two semicircular rings lying in
same plane, of uniform linear 
the circumference of a conducting ring of radius
0.3 m. Calculate the field intensity at a point on the charge density λ have radius r
axis of the ring at 0.4m from its center and also at and 2r. They are joined using  
2r r
the center? two straight uniformly charged
(a) 112N/C, 2N/C (b) 112N/C, 3N/C wires of linear charge density λ

(c) 115.2N/C, Zero (d) 113.2N/C, Zero and length r as shown in figure.
19. A point charge 50 µC is located in the XY plane at Find the magnitude of electric
 field at common center of semi circular rings.
the point of position vector r=
0 2i + 3 j . What is the
ˆ ˆ
λ λ
 (a) (b)
2πε0 r
electric field at the point of position vector r= 8iˆ − 5 ˆj 4πε0 r
(a) 1200 V/m (b) 0.04 V/m λ 2λ
(c) (d)
(c) 900 V/m (d) 4500 V/m πε0 r πε0 r

Electric Charges and Fields 15

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24. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a 28. Two metal spheres of the same mass are suspended
uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius R will be: from a common point by a light insulating string. The
1 q 1 2q length of each string is same. The spheres are given
(a) (b) electrical charges + Q on one, and 3Q on the other.
4πε0 3 3R 2 4πε0 3R 2 Which of the following diagrams below best show the
1 2q 1 3q resulting position of the spheres?
(c) (d)
4πε0 3 3R 2 4πε0 2 3R 2
 (a) (b)
25. The direction (θ) of E at point P due to the uniformly
charged finite rod will be

Ey E y
(c) (d)
d  x
+ 90° P Ex
+ 29. A bead of mass m and charge +q is constrained to move
+ freely on vertical y axis. A charge +Q is fixed at the
+ 30° origin. The bead is at rest at (0, a). Now it is displaced
+ slightly so that it executes SHM. Its time period is
(a) At 30° from x-axis (b) At 45° from x-axis 2a a
(c) At 60° from x-axis (d) None of these (a) 2π (b) 2π
g g
26. A charged water drop of radius r is in equilibrium in
an electric field. If charge on it is equal to charge on a a
an electron, then intensity of electric field will be: (c) 2π (d) π
2g g
(density of water = ρ, assume gravity)

8πr 3ρg πr 3ρg

(a)
3e
(b)
3e
ELECTRIC FIELD LINES
The idea of lines of force was introduced by Michael Faraday.
6πr 3ρg 4πr 3ρg A line of force is an imaginary curve, the tangent to which at a
(c) (d)
15e 3e point gives the direction of electric field intensity at that point and
the number of lines of force per unit area normal to the surface
27. Two identical point charges are placed at a separation surrounding that point gives the magnitude of electric field
of L. P is a point on the line joining the charges, at a intensity at that point.
distance x from any one charge. The field at P is E. E
is plotted against x for values of x from close to zero Properties of Field Lines
to slightly less than L. Which of the following best ™ Electric lines of force usually start or diverge out from
represents the resulting curve? positive charge and end or converge on negative charge.
E

(a) + –
x
O L
E
™ The number of lines originating or terminating on a charge is
(b) proportional to the magnitude of charge.
™ Lines of force never cross each other because if they cross
x
O L then electric field intensity at that point will have two
directions which is not possible.
E
™ In electrostatics the electric lines of force can never be
L x closed loops, as a line can never start and end on the same
(c) O
charge. If a line of force is a closed curve, work done round a
closed path will not be zero and electric field will not remain
conservative.
E
™ Lines of force have tendency to contract longitudinally like a
L x stretched elastic string producing attraction between opposite
(d) O charges and repel each other laterally resulting in, repulsion
between similar charges and ‘edge-effect’ (curving of lines of
force near the edges of a charged conductor).

16 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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n̂
S

+ +
+ –
E

attraction repulsion The electric flux over a curved surface over which electric field
electric lines of force for a dipole electric lines of force for a system may vary in direction and magnitude can be computed by dividing
of two positive charges
the surface into large number of very small area elements. Let nˆi
+ be the unit vector perpendicular to such an area element and DSi
E be its area. The flux of the electric field through such an area
E
element is

=
∆φ Ei . nˆi ∆Si
i
The total flux through the surface area is found by adding flux
(Electric field due to an infinite sheet of charge. The field is uniform) through each area element. In the limit, when number of area
™ If in a region of space, there is no electric field there will be no elements approaches infinity and area of each element approaches
lines of force. This is why inside a conductor or at a neutral point, zero, the sum becomes an integral.
where resultant intensity is zero, there are no lines of force. n  
™ The number of lines of force per unit normal area at a point φ lim ∑=
= Ei . nˆi ∆ Si ∫ E . nˆ dS
n →∞
i =1
represents magnitude of electric field intensity. The crowded
lines represent strong field while distant lines show a weak field. Sometimes we are interested in finding out the flux through a
closed surface. The unit vector n̂ in such a case is defined to be
™ The tangent to the line of force at a point in an electric field
directed outward from each point. Note that when an electric line
gives the direction of electric field. It gives direction of 
comes out of the closed surface, then E . nˆ is positive and if it
force and hence acceleration which a positive charge will 
experience there (and not the direction of motion). A positive enters the surface E . nˆ is negative.
point charge free to move may or may not follow the line of The net flux through a closed surface is written as

force. It will follow the line of force if it is a straight line
(as direction of velocity and acceleration will be same) and
=
φnet ∫ E=
. nˆ dS ∫ En dS .

will not follow the line if it is curved as the direction of Please note that f is proportional to the net number of lines of
motion will be different from that of acceleration. forces going out of the surface, i.e., number of lines going out of
the surface minus the number of lines going into the surface.
3D Model Important Points about Electric Flux
™ It is a scalar physical quantity.
Scan this QR code to understand Electric Field ™ SI Units: volt × m
lines re-arrangement between two opposite
Dimensions: [ML3T–3A–1]
charges through 3D model. To learn more 
download the Physics Wallah App. 
ds

E
ds 
E

ds

º º
 
E
P P P

ELECTRIC FLUX d  Eds cos (dmax  Eds (dmin  0

The mathematical quantity related to number of lines passing ™ It will be maximum when cos q is max = 1, i.e.,
through a surface is called the electric flux f. The electric flux
q = 0°, i.e., electric field is normal to the area with (dfE)max = EdS
through a surface which is perpendicular to a uniform electric
field E is defined as the product of electric field E and surface ™ It will be minimum when cosq is min = 0, i.e., q = 90°,
area S: f = ES i.e., field is parallel to the area with (dfE)min = 0
Since the electric field is proportional to density of lines of ™ For a closed body outward flux is taken as positive while
force, the electric flux is proportional to number of lines of force inward flux is taken as negative.
passing through the surface area: f ∝ N.
If the surface area is not perpendicular to the electric field, then GAUSS’S LAW
the electric flux is given by If a closed surface encloses a positive charge the net flux is positive,

= φ E= ˆ
. nS E cos= θ S En S and if it encloses a negative charge the net flux is negative. A
where n̂ is a unit vector perpendicular to the surface and En charge residing outside the closed surface cannot contribute to the
is the component of electric field perpendicular to the surface net flux because every line of force that enters the surface at one
(normal component). point leaves the surface at some other point.

Electric Charges and Fields 17

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Consider a closed spherical surface of radius r with a point As the charge q is symmetrical to the upper half and lower
charge q at the center. The electric field at the surface due to this half hemispheres, so half-half flux will emit from both the
q surfaces.
charge is normal to the surface and its magnitude will be .
4πεo r 2
Therefore, the flux through the surface is
q = q ×= Flux cutting q Flux cutting q
= φ ∫ Eˆ = 4πr 2 q
4πε r 2 ∫
.nˆ d S dS
4πε r 2 ε0 lower half surface = upper half surface =
0 0 20 20
Notice that the radius of the spherical surface cancels out,
for while the surface area goes up as r2 the field goes down as ™Let us assume a charge Q is placed at a distance a/2 above the
center of a horizontal square surface of Q
1/r2, and so the product is constant. In terms of electric lines of
edge a as shown in figure. Then the flux
force, this makes sense since the same number of lines of force
of the electric field through the square a/2
pass through any spherical surface centered at the point charge a
surface can be calculated as follows:
irrespective of its size. In fact it didn’t have to be a spherical
We can consider imaginary faces of a cube a
surface - any surface whatever its shape, size would have the such that the charge lies at the center of the
same number of lines of force passing through it. Thus, the flux cube. Due to symmetry we can say that flux through the given area
through any closed surface enclosing the charge is q/e0. (which is one face of cube).
Now suppose we have number of point charges spread over a Q
region. From the superposition principle, the field at a point is f=
6ε0
 n 
given by E = ∑ Ei
i =1 CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
The flux through any surface due to all of the charges enclosed by 30. Consider the charge configuration and spherical
the surface will be Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
 n  n q
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical
= ∫ E.nˆ dS ∑ = ∫ Ei .nˆ dS ∑
i
=i 1 =i 1 ε 0 surface field will be due to
On the other hand, a charge residing outside the surface would q2
contribute nothing to the net flux because every line of force that +q1
enters the surface at one point leaves the surface at another point.
It follows then that for any closed surface. –q2
 qenclosed
∫ =
= φnet E .nˆ dS
ε0 (a) q2
surface
(b) only the positive charge
where qenclosed is the total charge enclosed inside the surface. This
important result is called Gauss’s Law and can be stated as follows: (c) all the charges
(d) +q1 and –q1
For a system of charges, the net flux through any closed surface
‘S’ is equal to 1/e0 times the net charge inside the surface. 31. Which among the following is false about electric field
lines?
FLUX THROUGH OPEN SURFACES (a) They are continuous
(b) They attract each other
USING GAUSS’S THEOREM (c) They remain parallel in a uniform electric field
™ Consider a point charge +q is placed at the center of curvature (d) They diverge from positive charge
of a hemisphere. Then flux through the hemispherical surface 32. Statement-1: When a charge is placed at rest in an
can be calculated as follows: electric field its path will always be along electric line
Let us put an upper half hemisphere. of force.
q Statement-2: The force on the charge is along the
Now flux passing through the entire sphere =
ε0 tangent drawn on electric field line.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and
Statement-2 is correct explanation for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and
Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
+q
Statement-1.
(c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

18 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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33. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge 39. What can be the nature of charges q1 and q2?
σ in the upper half and negative surface charge –σ in the
lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder
will look like figure given in:
(figure are schematic and not drawn to scale)
(a) q1 is positive, q2 is negative
++ ++
(a) + + (b) q1 is negative, q2 is negative
–– –
– ––
(c) q1 is negative, q2 is positive
(d) q1 is positive, q2 is positive
–– – –

APPLICATIONS OF GAUSS‘S LAW

– –
(b) + +
++++

Gauss's law can be used to calculate the electric field E when

there is a high degree of symmetry due to which the direction of
++ ++
 
(c) + + E is known at every point and magnitude of E is constant over
–– –
– –– some simple surface. In such situation, Gauss’s law provides the
easiest ways of calculating the electric fields.
There are three kinds of symmetries where Gauss’s law can be
++ ++
+ + used to find the electric field:
(d) –– –
– ––
1. Spherical Symmetry: When due to symmetry, electric
field is same at a
34. Which of electric field can be responsible for the proton’s distance ‘r’ from
trajectory as shown below? a fixed point and
is directed away Gaussian Surface
+ from that point or
Parabolic towards it. Choose
trajectory gaussian surface
to be a spherical
surface concentric
with that point.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Cylindrical Symmetry: When, by symmetry, electric field
is same at all points at a perpendicular distance r from an
infinite line and electric field is directed away (or towards)
35. An electric field is given by (6iˆ + 5 ˆj + 3kˆ)N / C . The from the line. Choose gaussian surface as a cylinder coaxial
with the line.
electric flux through a surface area 30iˆ m2 lying in YZ- E
plane (in SI unit) is:
(a) 90 (b) 150 (c) 180 (d) 60
36. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
surface respectively is φ1 and φ2 the electric charge inside E Gaussian Surface
the surface will be
(a) (φ1 + φ2)ε0 (b) (φ2 – φ1)ε0 3. Planar Symmetry: When due to symmetry, electric field
(c) (φ1 + φ2)/ε0 (d) (φ2 – φ1)/ε0 is same at all points at a distance ‘d’ from an infinite plane
and electric field is directed away (or towards) from the
37. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface
of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward plane.
electric flux will Here, one can choose the gaussian surface to be a pill box-
(a) Be doubled (b) Increase four times shaped cylinder of length ‘2d’.
(c) Be reduced to half (d) Remain the same E
38. The figure shows some of the electric field lines
corresponding to an electric field. The figure suggests
d

(a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC

(c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
E
Electric Charges and Fields 19
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SPHERICAL SYMMETRY
Derivation of electric field intensity due to a point q,R
charge by Gauss's Law + +
+
+ +
Let us consider, a source point charge particle of +q coulomb
+ +
is placed at point O in space. Let us take a point P in the + r
surrounding of the source point charge particle. To find the + +
 +
electric field intensity E at point P, draw a spherical gaussian + +
surface which passes through the point P. After that take a very

small area dA around the point P. If the distance between the

source charge particle and small area dA is r then electric flux  
 qin q ⇒ E(4pr2) = qin ⇒ Eout =
q
passing through the small area dA will be ∫ E .ds =φ net = =
∈0 ∈0 ε0 4πεο r 2
 
d φ E = E ⋅ dA Electric field inside a sphere: Let us choose a spherical
dfE = EdAcosq Gaussian surface inside the shell. Applying Gauss’s theorem for
 this surface
E

P dA
q,R
r + +
+
+ r +
O + +
Gaussian Surface +
+ +
Point charge particle + + +

 
From the figure, E and dA are parallel to each other, i.e., the
qin
angle will be 0°. So the above equation can be written as fnet = = 0 ⇒ E (4pr2) = 0 ⇒ Ein = 0
ε0
dfE = EdAcos0°
dfE = EdA
The electric flux passing through the entire Gaussian surface can
be found by closed integration of the above equation. E

φE =∫ EdA
φE =E ∫ dA
r<R r=R r>R
(
φ E = E 4πr 2 ) { ∫ dA = 4πr } 2
r
q
According to Gauss's Law, φ E = . Then above equation can Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged Solid Sphere
ε0 Electric field outside the solid sphere: Direction of electric
be written as
field is radially outwards, so we will choose a spherical Gaussian
( )
q 1 q
= E 4πr 2 E= surface. Applying Gauss's theorem
ε0 4πε0 r 2
The above expression is the electric field intensity due to a point
Q,R
source charge particle.
++ +
+ + +
Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged + + +
Spherical Shell or Hollow Sphere + +

Electric field outside the Sphere: Since, electric field due

to a shell will be radially outwards. So lets choose a spherical
→ → qin Q Q Q
Gaussian surface. Applying Gauss’s theorem for this spherical
Gaussian surface,
∫ E . dS = fnet = εο
=
εο
⇒ E(4pr2) =
εο
⇒ Eout =
4πεο r 2

20
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  
Electric field inside the solid sphere: For this choose a spherical ρr  −ρr1 
Gaussian surface inside the solid sphere. Applying Gauss’s = E1 = , E2 , (where r1 = position vector of P w.r.t. C)
3ε0 3ε0
theorem for this surface 
    ρ   ρa ρa
⇒ Net field, E= E1 + E2 ⇒ E= ( r − r1 )= = aˆ (OC= a )
3ε0 3ε0 3ε0
+ Q,R +
++ ++ + NOTE: Since the field at point P does not depend on the
++ r
+
+ + + + +
+ + position of point P in the cavity, we conclude that the field
+ + + +
+ + + inside cavity is uniform.
+ + + + +
+ + +
+ + + ++

CYLINDRICAL SYMMETRY
+ +
+ + + ++
++ + +
+ + + ++ + +
+ + +
Electric Field due to Uniformly Charged Infinite Wire

+
4 Q
× πr 3 +
4 3 3 +
→ → πR surface(1)
q Qr 3
∫ E . dS =
φnet =in =3 = 3 ++
εο εο εο R cylindrical
+ gaussian
surface
Qr 3 
⇒ E(4pr2) =
εο R 3  +
r

Qr ρr kQ + surface(3)
E = ⇒ Ein =
 r=
4πεο R R3
3εo 3 +

(where r = volume charge density of the sphere) + surface(2)

+
E = (Qr)/(40R 3) 
E 1 Q
E= Electric field due to infinite wire is radial so we will choose
40 R2 cylindrical Gaussian surface as shown in figure.
E = Q/(40r2) net

0 R r
1 =0 2 =0 3 0

ADVANCED LEARNING q λl
φnet =φ3 = in =
∈0 ∈0
Electric Field inside a cavity within a Uniformly
λ
Charged solid sphere ds E ( 2πrl ) =
⇒ E∫=
εο
In a uniform sphere of charge (charge density r), a small cavity is
λ
created. The center of cavity is at a distance a from the center of ⇒ E= = 2k λ
2πεο r r
sphere. Center of sphere is taken as origin and the unit vector is
taken along the line joining the center of cavity and origin.
 ADVANCED LEARNING
Consider any point P inside cavity. The position vector of P is r .
The field at P can be assumed to be a superposition of field due Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged

( )
to a uniform sphere of charge E1 and field due to a negatively

Infinitely Long Hollow Cylinder

charged sphere of the size of cavity E2 . ( ) R
+ r

+ + +
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +  
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +
+ + +

Electric Charges and Fields 21

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(i) E outside the cylinder: Let us choose a cylindrical ρr
qin ρ× πr 2 
gaussian surface.
E × 2prl = = ⇒ Ein =
εο εο 2ε 0
qin σ2πR σ2πRl
fnet = = ⇒ Eout × 2πrl = E
εο εο ∈0
σR
⇒ E =
r ε0
Einr 1
(ii) E inside the cylinder: Let us choose a cylindrical Eout 
gaussian surface inside the tube. r
q
fnet = in = 0 r
εο r=R
So, Ein = 0
E PLANAR SYMMETRY
Electric field due to a Uniformly Charged Infinite, Thin, Non-
1 conducting Sheet: To find the electric field strength at a point P
Eout 
r in front of the charged sheet we consider a cylindrical Gaussian
Ein = 0
surface as shown in figure of face area S. If we apply Gauss's law
r
r=R for this surface, we have
Electric Field due to a Uniformly Charged Infinitely → → qencl → → → → → → σS
Long Solid Cylinder ∫ E . dS = ∈0
or ∫ E . dS + ∫ E . dS + ∫ E . dS =
∈0
I II III
(i) E at outside point: Let us choose a cylindrical gaussian
[As here qencl = sS]
surface.

 C/m
+
R +
+
+ r + area S
+
+
II +
E + E
+ P
 + x
l I + III
+
+
+
+
+
+

→ →

In this case ∫ E . dS = 0
II
Applying Gauss’s theorem As the lateral surface of cylinder is parallel to the direction of
q ρ× πR 2  ρR 2
E × 2prl = in =   ⇒ Eout = electric field strength, no flux is coming out from the lateral
εο εο 2r ε 0 surface, hence we have
(ii) E at inside point: Let us choose a cylindrical gaussian
σS σS
surface inside the solid cylinder. ∫ EdS + ∫ EdS = or 2 ES =
Applying gauss’s theorem I III
∈0 ∈0

[As electric field is uniform on both sides]
r σ
or E =
2 ∈0
Variation of E with r   Variation of E with s

l E E

O r
  O 


22
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ADVANCED LEARNING 2µC − 3µC + 4µC −6
= 3 × 10 Nm2/C
Qin
Sol. f = =
Electric Field Due to an Infinite Thick Non- ε0 ε0 ε0
Conducting Sheet
Ex-21 If a point charge q is placed at the center of a
+++++++++
+++++++++ cube then find out flux through any one surface of cube.
+++++++++
+++++++++ r q
+++++++++ Sol. Flux through 6 surfaces =
+ + + + ++ + + + + r
A3 r ε0
 + + + + ++ + + + + A  A1
2 + + + + + + +
+ + +P+ ++ + + + +
+ + + + ++ + + + + Er + + + + + + + Er Since all the surfaces are symmetrical
+ ++++++ 1
+ + + + ++ + + + + 2
1 q
+ + + + ++ + + + + x so, flux through one surface =
+ + + + ++ + + + + 6 ∈0
d
Ex-22 The electric field in a region is given by
For x < d (inside the sheet)
Consider a Gaussian pill box of cross-sectional area A and length  3 ˆ 4 ˆ
=E E0 i + E0 j with E0 = 2.0 × 103 N/C. Find the flux of
2x with length x from the plane passing through middle of the 5 5
sheet. this field through a rectangular surface of area 0.2 m2 parallel
Electric charge enclosed, qenc. = r.A(2x)
Total flux through the Gaussian pill box; to the Y – Z plane.
       
  3
∫ E ⋅ dA= ∫ E1 ⋅ dA + ∫ E2 ⋅ dA + ∫ E3 ⋅ dA 4 
Sol. φ= E ⋅ S =  E0 iˆ + E0 ĵ  ⋅ 0.2iˆ = 240
N-m 2
( )
s A1 A2 A3 5 5  C
qenc. ρA ( 2 x )
= E1 A1 + E2 A2 + 0 ⇒ = 2 Ex A Ex-23 Find the electric flux due to a point charge ‘Q’
ε0 ε0
through the circular region of radius R if the charge is placed
ρx
So, Ex = on the axis at a distance x as shown in figure.
ε0
For x > d (out side the sheet)
Consider a gaussian surface as shown in figure. R
Electric charge enclosed qenc = rAd +Q 
Total flux through gaussian surface 
x

Sol. We can divide the circular region into small rings.


dr E
 dS
+Q r
        
∫ E ⋅ dA = ∫ E1 ⋅ dA1 + ∫ E2 ⋅ dA2 + ∫ E3 ⋅ dA3 x
A1 A2 A3
qenc
= E1 A1 + E2 A2
ε0 Let us take a ring of radius r and width dr. Flux through this small
ρd element dφ = E ds cos θ
Ex =
2ε0 r =R kQ  
x
∴ φnet = ∫ Edscosθ = ∫ r =0 ( 2πrdr )  
Ex-20 Find out flux through the given Gaussian surface. (x 2
+r 2
) 2 
 x +r 
2

Q  x  Q
q5=2C = 1 − = [1 − cos β]
q4=–6C q1=2C 2ε0  x 2 + R 2  2ε0
q2=–3C
q3=4C
q6=3C Ex-24 Consider a point charge q = 1mC placed at a
corner of a cube of side 10 cm. Determine the electric flux
Gaussian surface through each face of the cube.
Electric Charges and Fields 23
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Sol. Here we will use the symmetry of the situation, which involves π/ 2
(
R sin θ 2πσR 2 cos θ )
the faces joining at the corner at which the charge resides. ⇒ E= ∫ dE= ∫ 4πε0 R 3
dθ

E
0

π/ 2
σ
π/ 2
σ sin 2 θ σ
=
2ε0
∫
0
sin θ=
cos θdθ
2ε 0 2 0
=
4ε0
q +

Ex-26 A system consists of a ball of radius R carrying a

spherically symmetric charge and the surrounding space is filled
with a charge of volume density r = a/r where a is a constant,
r is the distance from the center of ball. Find the ball’s charge
(a) A charge q is placed at the corner of a cube for which the magnitude of the electric field is independent of r
outside the ball. How high is this strength?
Sol. Let us consider a spherical surface of radius r(r > R) concentric
F
q with the ball and apply Gauss’s Law.
F
  q
F
∫ E .dA = ε0
Let Q = Total charge on the ball
(b) By surrounding the charge with a series of cubes such that r
the charge is at the center of a larger cube, we have created a ( )
ε0 E 4πr 2 = Q + ∫ ρ 4πx 2 dx

symmetric arrangement. R
r
The total flux is
q
ε0
. So that the flux through each of the sides of ε0 E 4πr
( 2
)= Q + 4π ∫
a 2
x
x dx
R

the large cube is

q
and one quarter of that
q
goes through ( )
ε0 E 4πr 2 = Q + 2πa r 2 − R 2
( ) R
6ε0 24ε0 O
each of the far sides of the small cube (because the faces of small  Q − 2πaR  1 2πa 2
=⇒E 
 2+
cube which touch the charge have electric field parallel to them).  4πε0  r 4πε0 r
Numerical evaluation gives For E to be independent of r,
−3
q 1× 10 C Q = 2paR2

φ= = = 5 × 106 Nm 2 /C
(
24ε0 24 8.85 × 10−12 C2 / Nm 2 ) E=
a
2ε0
Ex-25 Find by direct integration the electric field at the
center of a hemispherical surface of charge having uniform CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
surface density s. 40. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has
Sol. charge density r. The electric field at a distance r from
the center of sphere (r < R) will be
ρR ρr ρr 3ρR
Rd  (a) (b) (c) (d)
3ε0 ε0 3ε0 ε0
B
 d A 41. The given figure gives electric lines of force due to
R
two charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the two
O
charges?
Consider a ring-shaped element on the surface of the
hemisphere at an angle q as shown.
AB = the radius of the ring = R sin q
Distance of center of ring B from O = R cos q q1 q2
Charge on the element = dq = s (area)
dq = s (2pR sin q) Rdq
Field at O due to this infinitesimal element = dE (a) Both are negative
( dq )( R cos θ ) (b) Both are positive
dE =
4πε0 ( R sin 2 θ + R 2 cos 2 θ ) (c) q1 is positive but q2 is negative
2 3/ 2

(d) q1 is negative but q2 is positive
(using the result for the field at axis of a ring)

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42. If electric field is uniform, then the electric lines of 48. The bob of a simple pendulum has a mass of 2 g and
forces are a charge of 5μC. It is at rest in a uniform horizontal
(a) Divergent (b) Convergent electric field of intensity 2000 Vm–1. At equilibrium,
(c) Circular (d) Parallel the angle that the pendulum makes with the vertical
43. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly is (take g = 10 m/s2)
charged. The magnitude of the electric field due to the (a) tan–1 (0.2) (b) tan–1 (0.5)
sphere at a distance r from its center.
(c) tan–1 (2.0) (d) tan–1 (5.0)
(a) Increases as r increases, for r ≤ R
49. A long string with a charge of λ per unit length passes
(b) Decreases as r increases, for 0 < r < ∞.
through an imaginary cube of edge a. The maximum
(c) Decreases as r increases, for R < r < ∞. flux of the electric field through the cube will be
(d) Is discontinuous at r = R
(a) λa / ε0 (b) 2λa / ε0
44. The total flux of the electric field through the six faces
of a certain cube is +φE where φE is a positive constant. (c) 6λa 2 / ε0 (d) 3λa / ε0
Which of the following statements is not necessarily 50. Expression for an electric field is given by
true?  V
(a) More electric field lines exit the cube than enter E = 4000 x 2iˆ . The electric flux through the
the cube m
(b) The cube encloses a net positive charge cube of side 20 cm when placed in electric field (as
(c) The net charge enclosed by the cube is + ε0φE shown in the figure) V cm is:
y
(d) The flux of the electric field through one face of
1
the cube is + φ E 20 cm
6 (0,0,0)
45. Charge is symmetrically placed inside the cylinder x
and flux through the flat (circular) face is φ. Find the 20 cm
flux through curved surface. z 20 cm
(a) 250 (b) 640 (c) 400 (d) 500
q 51. Find the flux through the sphere at time t = t0
φ φ
Curved λ
v
q0 q ++++++
(a) −φ (b) 0 − 2φ v
2ε0 ε0
4q0 1q0 t=0
(c) −φ (d) − 2φ
3ε0 3ε0 λvt0 3λvt0 3λvt0 vt0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. A charge is placed just in front of the infinite disc. ε0 ε0 2ε 0 2ε0
Find the flux through the disc.
52. A point charge q is located at the point (0, 0, –a).
Infinite Consider a hemispherical surface of radius ‘a’ with
q
Disc its centre at the origin and z ≥ 0. The modulus of the
electric flux through the hemispherical surface is

5q0 q0 q0 4q0 (a) q / ∈0 (b) q / 2 2 ∈0 ( )

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3ε0 ε0 2ε0 5ε0  1   1 
(c)  1 −  q / ∈0 (d)  1 −  q / ( 2 ∈0 )
 2iˆ + 6 ˆj + 8kˆ  2  2
47. An electric field, E = passes through 
6 53. A uniform electric field E exists between the plates
the surface of 4 m 2 area having unit vector of a charged condenser. A charged particle enters the
 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ  
nˆ =  space between the plates and perpendicular to E . The
  .The electric flux for that surface
 6  path of the particle between the plates is a:
in V m is: (a) Hyperbola (b) Parabola
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 2 (c) Circle (d) Straight line

Electric Charges and Fields 25

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54. 1 µC charge is uniformly distributed on a spherical kq kq

shell given by equation x2 + y2 + z2 = 25. What will be –q +q (r + a) 2 P (r – a) 2
intensity of electric field at a point (1, 1, 2)? O
(–a, 0) (a, 0)
y r
2a

Here we wish to find the electric field at point P having

x coordinates (r, 0) (where r >> 2a). Due to positive charge
of dipole electric field at P is in outward direction and due
to negative charge it is in inward direction.
kq kq 4kqar
(a) 5 N/C (b) 45 N/C Enet at P = – 2 =
(r – a) 2
(r + a) (r – a 2 )2
2

5 3 As P = 2aq
(c) N/C (d) Zero
2 2kpr
∴ Enet at P = 2
55. A cube of side l is placed in a uniform field E, where (r – a 2 )2
As r >> 2a
E = E iˆ . The net electric flux through the cube is:
∴we can neglect a w.r.t. r
(a) Zero (b) l2 E (c) 4l2E (d) 6l2 E
56. A point charge Q is kept at a point (0, 0, a/2) as shown E at P = 2kp
net
r3
in the figure. As we can observe that for axial point direction of field is
Find the electrostatic flux through surface OABO. in direction of dipole moment
z  2kp
∴ Vectorially, E =
r3
Charge +Q (0,0,a/2) 2. At an equatorial point: Again we consider the dipole
placed along the x-axis and we wish to find electric field
at point P which is situated equatorially at a distance
0, a / 2 , 0 r (where r >> 2a) from origin.
O y
B Vertical component of the electric field vectors cancel out
(a / 2 ,0,0) each other.
kq
A Enet at P = 2E cos θ [where E = 2 ]
x r + a2
Q 2kq a  a 
(a) Q (b)
Enet at P = . cos θ = 
6ε0 12ε0 r +a
2 2
r 2 + a2  r 2 + a 2 
kq
Q Q (r 2 + a 2)
(c) (d)
24ε0 48ε0

Enet P
kq
Electric Dipole a system of two equal and opposite charges
(r 2 + a 2)
separated by a small distance is called electric dipole, shown in
figure. Every dipole has a characteristic property called dipole r
moment. It is defined as the product of magnitude of either
charge and the separation between the charges. It is given as –q  q
  O
p = qd (–a, 0) (a, 0)
2kqa kp
d E=net = = ( As p 2aq )
 (r + a )
2 2 3/2
(r + a 2 )3/ 2
2
p
–q +q As we have already stated that r > > 2a
kp
Dipole moment is a vector quantity and its direction is given ∴ Enet at P = 3
from negative pole to positive pole. r
We can observe that the direction of dipole moment and
ELECTRIC FIELD DUE TO A DIPOLE electric field due to dipole at P are in opposite direction.
→
→ –k p
1. At an axial point: Figure shows an electric dipole placed ∴ Vectorially E =
on x-axis at origin r3

26
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ADVANCED LEARNING or vectorially we can write the torque on dipole as
  
τ= p × E
ELECTRIC FIELD AT A GENERAL
POINT DUE TO A DIPOLE
™Angular SHM of Dipole: When a dipole is suspended in a
uniform electric field, it will align itself parallel to the field.
Figure shows an electric dipole placed on x-axis at origin and we Now if it is given a small angular displacement q about its
wish to find out the electric field at point A with coordinates (r, q). equilibrium, the (restoring) couple will be
We can resolve the dipole moment into two perpendicular τ = – pE sin q
components such that the point A lies at axial point for one or τ = – pE q [as sin q ≈ q, for small q]
component and at the equitorial point for the other. Thus,
d 2θ
2 2 or I =
− pE θ
 2kp cos θ   kp sin θ  kp dt 2
 +  = 3 1 + 3cos θ
2
Enet = 
 r3   r3  r
or d θ =
2
pE
− θ
kp sin θ dt 2
I
r3
or d θ = −ω2 θ
2
And tan a =
2kp cos θ
dt 2
r3
pE
net where ω2 =
I
This is standard equation of angular simple harmonic
2π
A motion with time-period T = . So the dipole will execute
ω
OA angular SHM with time-period
I
T = 2π
pE

ADVANCED LEARNING
tan θ
tan a =
2 SHORT DIPOLE IN NON UNIFORM
 tan θ 
α =tan –1 
ELECTRIC FIELD
 
 2  If the dipole is placed along E , (shown in figure)

DIPOLE IN UNIFORM ELECTRIC FIELD

E(x)
dx
Figure shows a dipole of dipole moment p placed at an angle qE(x) –q +q (q) E(x + dx)
θ to the direction of electric field. Here the charges of dipole
experience forces qE in opposite direction as shown.
E E(x) E(x + dx)
+q
qE Then, net force on the dipole: Fnet = qE(x + dx) – qE(x)
E ( x + dx) − E ( x)
Fnet = q (dx); here (q(dx) = P)
dx
d  dsin
 dE 
\ Fnet = P  
 dx 
Electric dipole placed at distance r from a point charge.
qE
–q
Q p
Thus we can state that when a dipole is placed in a uniform electric r
field, net force on the dipole is zero. But as equal and opposite
forces act with a separation in their line of action, they produce Q
E=
a couple which tend to align the dipole along the direction of 4πε0 r 2
electric field. The torque due to this couple can be given as
t = Force × separation between lines of action of forces \F= P
dE
=
1
dr 4πε0
.PQ
d −2
dr
r = − ( )
1 2 PQ
.
4πε0 r 3
= qE × d sin q
Negative sign indicates that the force is in the direction of
= pE sin q decreasing r.
Electric Charges and Fields 27
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\ Force is attractive.
If the same dipole is placed at an angle q(q ≠ 0, 180°) then it will 59. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges
experience force as well as torque. each of magnitude 1 × 10–6 C separated by a distance
2 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of
 10 × 105N/C. The maximum torque on the dipole is
Q
r (a) 0.2 × 10–3 N-m (b) 1.0 × 10–3 N-m
(c) 2 × 10–2 N-m (d) 4 × 10–3 N-m
dE 2kP cos θQ PQ cos θ
F = Pcosq =
− = 60. 4 charges are placed each at a distance ‘a’ from origin.
dr r3 2πε0 r 3
The dipole moment of configuration is;
Ex-27 What is the dipole moment of the system shown y
3q
in figure?
–q
x
–2q –2q
a a
q
A
2q a –q (a) 2aqjˆ (b) 3aqjˆ
 (c) 2aq[i + j ]
ˆ ˆ (d) None of these
Sol. There are two dipoles of P = qa P 
60º 61. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed at
so =
Pnet =
3P 3qa  the origin along the x-axis. The angle made by electric
P field with x-axis at a point P, whose position vector
makes an angle θ with x-axis, is:
Ex-28 An electron and a proton are placed at distance 1
(where, tan = α tan θ )
of 1Å. What will be dipole moment of so formed dipole? 2
Sol. p = qd = 1.6 × 10–19 × 1 × 10–10 (a) α (b) θ
(c) θ + α (d) θ + 2α
= 1.6 × 10–29 coulomb metre
62. The electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance
Ex-29 The electric field due to a short dipole at a distance r from its centre in axial position is E. If the dipole is
r, on the axial line, from its mid point is the same as that of electric rotated through an angle of 90° about it perpendicular
field at a distance r1, on the equatorial line, from its mid-point. axis, the electric field at the same point will be
r (a) E (b) E/4
Determine the ratio . (c) E/2 (d) 2E
r1 63. A and B are two points on the axis and the perpendicular
1 2p 1 p bisector respectively of an electric dipole. A and B are
Sol. = far away from the dipole and
4πε0 r 3 4πε0 r13  at equal distance from
it. The field at A and B are E A and EB .
2 1 r3  
= or =2 (a) E A = EB
r 3 r13 r13  
(b) E A = 2 EB
r
or = 21/3  
r1 (c) E A = −2 EB
 1   
(d) EB = E A and EB is perpendicular to E A
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING 2
 64. An electric dipole is kept along the x-axis at the origin
57. The torque acting on a dipole of moment P in a O. A point P is at a distance of 20 cm from the origin
uniform electric field E is such that OP makes an angle π/3 with the x-axis. If
    the electric field at point P makes an angle θ with the
(a) P · E (b) P × E
  x-axis then the value of θ is
(c) Zero (d) E × P
(a) π/5 (b) 2π/3
58. If an electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field,  3  π  3
then it may experience (c) tan −1   (d) + tan −1  
(a) A force  2  3  2 
(b) A couple and move 65. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 8P are placed in
opposite direction on a line at a distance of 15 cm. The
(c) A couple and rotates electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles
(d) A force and moves whose distance from the dipole of moment P is;

28
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25 70. Electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is

(a) 5 cm (b) cm placed as shown. Which of the following statements
9
4 is correct?
(c) 10 cm (d) cm
13
66. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an
electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance of
Q from the dipole is r (much larger than the size of the –q p
+q
dipole), then electric field at Q is proportional to
(a) p–1 and r–2 (b) p and r–2
(c) p2 and r–3 (d) p and r–3
67. Three-point charges 2q, –q and –q are located (a) The dipole will not experience any force.
respectively at (0, a, a), (0, –a, a) and (0, 0, – a) as (b) The dipole will experience a force towards right.
shown. The dipole moment of this distribution is:- (c) The dipole will experience a force towards left.
(d) The dipole will experience a force upwards
71. Two charges of –4µC and +4µC are placed at the
points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2, –1, 5)m located in an

electric field E = 0.20iˆ V/cm. The magnitude of the

torque acting on the dipole is 8 α × 10−5 Nm, where

α = ______.
1 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
(a) 2qa in the y-z plane at tan −1   with z-axis
4 72. Two short dipoles of dipole moment p are placed at
3 two corners of a square as shown in the figure. What
(b) 13 qa in the y-z plane at tan −1   with z-axis
2 is the ratio of magnitudes of electric field at two points
(c) 5 qa in the x-y plane at tan–1(4) with y-axis O and A?
(d) 4qa in the x-y plane at tan–1(4) with y-axis
68. A dipole is placed at origin of coordinate system
as shown in figure, find the electric field at point
O
P(0, y).
y
P 0, y

x A P
P 45º
(a) 2 (b) 2 2
KP KP
(a) (– iˆ – 2 ˆj ) (b) (iˆ + 2 ˆj ) (c) 1 (d) 2
y3 2 y3
73. An uniform electric field exist in space as shown in
KP
(c)
3
(−iˆ − 2 ˆj ) (d) None of these figure. A dipole is placed horizontally. There may be
2y point in the space P, where electric field is zero. Then
69. A short dipole is placed along x-axis with centre at value of θ is
origin. The electric field at a point P, which is at a
 →
distance r from origin such that OP = r makes an
angle of 45º with x-axis, is directed along a direction r P
making –
θ
(a) tan–1(0.5) with x-axis – +
(b) π/4 + tan–1(0.5) with x-axis
(a) tan−1 2 (b) tan–1 3
(c) π/4 + tan–1(0.5) with y-axis
(d) tan–1(0.5) with y-axis (c) tan–1 2 (d) 45°

Electric Charges and Fields 29

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74. The electric field at point p due to an electric dipole is

1 6 P1 P2 1 3P1 P2
(a) (b)
E. The electric field at point R on equatorial line will 4π0 r 4 4π0 r 4
be E/x. The value of x:
1 6 P1 P2 1 3P1 P2
R (c) (d)
4π0 r 3 4π0 r 3
78. A dipole having dipole moment ‘p’ is place at the axis
2r Q of a charged ring having charge Q and radius R, at a
distance x from the centre as shown in figure. Find
r 
the force experienced by the dipole moment p = piˆ
–q O placed along the axis of the uniformly charged ring.
+q p
r Q y
→
75. A wheel having mass u has charges +q and –q on R P
x
diametrically opposite points. It remains in equilibrium x
on a rough inclined plane in the presence of uniform
vertical electrical field E =  
QP  R 2 − 3 x 2 
4π ∈0  2 
(a)
( )
+q 5/2
E R + x2 
 
–q
 
θ QP  R 2 − x 2 
4π0  2 
(b)
( )
5/2
R + x2 
(a) ug/q (b) ug/2q  
(c) ug tanθ/2q (d) None of these  
76. An electric dipole (dipole moment p) is placed at a QP  R 2 − 2 x 2 
4π0  2 
(c)
( )
5/2
radial distance r >> a (where a is dipole length) from R + x2 
 
an infinite line of charge having linear charge density
+λ. Dipole moment vector is aligned along radial  
QP  R 2 + x 2 
4π ∈0  2 
vector r force experienced by dipole is:- (d)
( )
5/2
R + x2 
λp λp  
(a) , attractive (b) , attractive
2πε0 r 2 2πε0 r 3 79. The electric dipole moment of system formed by point
charge –q and uniformly charged hemisphere as shown
λp λp in the figure is
(c) , repulsive (d) , repulsive
2πε0 r 2 2πε0 r 3 +
+
  +
77. Two dipole of dipole moments p1 and p2 are aligned -q +
+ +
along the x-axis and separated by a distance r as shown +
+ + +
in figure. Find the magnitude of force of interaction + +
+
between the dipoles. Uniformly charged
y nonconducting hemisphere
having total surface charge +q
→ →
P1 P2 qR qR qR
x (a) (b) qR (c) (d)
r 2 4 3

To Discover more

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Exercise-1 TOPICWISE Prarambh

COULOMB FORCE 8. Two charged particles having charge 2 × 10–8 C each are
joined by an insulating string of length 1m and the system
1. When 1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal is kept on a smooth horizontal table, what is the tension in
sphere, the net charge that appears on the sphere is
the string?
(a) 16 mC (b) –16 mC
(a) 3.6 × 10–6N (c) 3.4 × 10–6N
(c) 32 mC (d) –32 mC
(b) 4 × 10–7N (d) 3 × 10–4N
2. Number of electrons in one coulomb of charge will be
(1e = 1.6 × 10–19 C) 9. Point charges +4q, –q and +4q are kept on the X-axis at point
x = 0, x = a and x = 2a respectively.
(a) 5.46 × 1029 (b) 6.25 × 1018
(c) 1.6 × 10 19 (d) 9 × 1011 (a) Only –q is in stable equilibrium
3. The ratio of the forces between two small spheres with (b) All the charges are in stable equilibrium
constant charge in air to that in a medium of dielectric (c) All of the charges are in unstable equilibrium
constant K is (d) None of the charges is in equilibrium
(a) 1 : K (b) K : 1 (c) 1 : K2 (d) K2 : 1 10. Charges on two spheres are +10μC and –5μC respectively.
4. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, They experience a force F. If each of them is given an
as shown in the adjoining figure. The force on a charge kept additional charge +2μC then new force between them, if
at the center O is kept at the same distance, is
A B 18 F 25
(a) 18F (b) 25F (c) (d) F
+q +2q 25 18

(
11. Two charges each of 1µ C are at P 2i + 3 j + kˆ m and )
O ( )
Q i + j − kˆ m . Then the force acting on any one of them is

(a) 50N (b) 10N (c) 104 dyne (d) 100 dyne
–2q +q 12. A charged particle q1 is at position (2, – 1, 3). The electrostatic
D C force on another charged particle q2 at (0, 0, 0) is
(a) Zero (b) Along the diagonal AC q1 q2
(a) (2 iˆ − ˆj + 3 kˆ)
(c) Along the diagonal BD (d) Perpendicular to side AB 56 π ∈0
5. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q2 and they 1 q1 q2
(b) ( − 2 iˆ + ˆj − 3 kˆ)
are placed at a distance R from each other. The maximum
force of repulsion between them will occur, when
( )
4π∈0 14 3
q1 q2 ˆ
Q Q Q 2Q (c) ( j − 2 iˆ − 3 kˆ)
(a) Q2= , Q1= Q − (b) Q2= , Q1= Q − 56 π ∈0
R R 4 3
q1 q2
Q 3Q Q Q (d) (2 iˆ − ˆj + 3 kˆ)
(c)=
Q2 = , Q1 =
(d) Q1 = , Q2 56 14 π ∈0
4 4 2 2
13. Two point sized metal spheres of same mass are suspended from
6. Two charged spheres separated by a distance R exert a force
F on each other. If they are immersed in a liquid of dielectric a common point by two light insulating strings. The length of
constant 5, then what is the new force between them? each string is same. The spheres are given electric charges +q
F on one of them and +4q on the other. Which of the following
(a) F (b) F (c) 5F (d) diagrams best shows the resulting positions of spheres?
5 2
7. A charge q is placed at the center of the line joining two
equal charges Q. The system of the three charges will be in (a) (b)
equilibrium, if q is equal to
Q Q
(a) − (b) −
2 4
Q Q (c) (d)
(c) + (d) + +5q
4 2

Electric Charges and Fields 31

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ELECTRIC FIELD AND FIELD LINES 20. The figure shows some of the electric field lines
corresponding to an electric field. The figure suggests
q
14. Two point charges –q and are situated at the origin and
2
at the point (a, 0, 0) respectively. The point along the x-axis A B C
where the electric field vanishes is
a
(a) x = (b) x = 2 a
2 (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC
2a 2a (c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
(c) x = (d) x =
2 −1 2 +1 21. Four charges are placed on corners of a square as shown in
figure having side of 5 cm. If Q is one microcoulomb, then
15. The magnitude of force, exerted by a uniform electric field
electric field intensity at center will be
on an electron having mass me and a proton of mass mp,
Q –2Q
represented as Fe and Fp respectively, are related as
F m
(a) Fp = Fe (b) e = e
Fp m p

Fe m p F m2
(c) = (d) e = e2
Fp me Fp m p
16. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each –Q +2Q
corner. The electric field intensity at O will be
(a) 1.02 × 107 N/C upwards
+q
A (b) 2.04 × 107 N/C downwards
(c) 2.04 × 107 N/C upwards
(d) 1.02 × 107 N/C downwards
r 22. The given figure shows electric lines of force due to two
r r charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the two charges?
O
+q +q
B C q1 q2
1 q 1 q
(a) (b)
4πε0 r 2 4πε0 r
(a) q1 is positive but q2 is negative
1 3q (b) q1 is negative but q2 is positive
(c) Zero (d)
4πε0 r 2 (c) Both are negative
17. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that an (d) Both are positive
electron placed in it would experience an electrical force 23. Two point charges of 30 μC and 40 μC are placed 0.2 m
equal to its weight. Value of E is apart from each other. Where the electric field will be zero
mg e e2 on the line joining the charges from 30 μC charge?
(a) mge (b) (c) (d) g
e mg m2 20 3 20 3
(a) cm (b) cm
18. The distance between the two charges 25 mC and 36 mC is 2 +1 3+2
11 cm. At what point on the line joining the two, the electric (c) 20 3 cm (d) 10 cm
field intensity will be zero? 5
(a) At a distance of 5 cm from 25 mC 24. In which of the following cases the electric field at the centre
(b) At a distance of 5 cm from 36 mC is not zero?
(c) At a distance of 10 cm from 25 mC
(d) At a distance of 11 cm from 36 mC
(a) (b)
19. The electric field intensity required to keep a water drop of
radius 10–5 cm just suspended in air when charged with one
electronic charge is approximately
(g = 10 Newton/kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb)
(c) (d)
(a) 260 volt/cm (b) 260 Newton/coulomb
(c) 130 volt/cm (d) 130 Newton/coulomb

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25. Three charges –q, +q and –q are placed at the corners of an in the figure. The total electric flux passing through the
equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. The magnitude of resultant cylindrical surface is
electric force on a charge +q placed at the centroid O of the
+
triangle is
+
(a) 3q 2 (b) 5q 2 +
4πε0 a 2 4πε0 a 2

(c) q2 (d) 3q 2
2πε0 a 2 2πε0 a 2
1m
26. Two point charges Q and –3Q are placed some distance apart.

If the electric field at the location of Q is 3E , the electric
field at the location of –3Q is
   
(a) 3E (b) 2 E (c) − E (d) E +
27. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The + 50cm
electric field at the center O of the ring due to the charge on +
the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the center
due to the charge on the part ADCB of the ring is Q 100Q 10Q 100Q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
+Q ε0 ε0 (πε0 ) (πε0 )
32. q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points as shown
in the figure and S is a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R.
Which of the following is true according to the Gauss’s law?
S

(a) 3E along OK (b) 3E along KO q1 R

(c) E along OK (d) E along KO q4
28. A charge of 4 ×10–9C is distributed uniformly over the q2 q3
circumference of a conducting ring of radius 0.3 m. Calculate
the field intensity at a point on the axis of the ring at 0.4m
from its center and also at the center?
   q1 + q2 + q3
 
(a) 112N/C, 2N/C (b) 118N/C, 6N/C (a) ∫ ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA =
(c) 115.2N/C, Zero (d) 113.2N/C, Zero S
2ε 0

29. A circular wire of radius R carries a total charge Q distributed    (q1 + q2 + q3 )

 
(b) ∫ ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA =
uniformly over its circumference. A small length of the wire
S
ε0
subtending angle θ at the center is cut off. Find the electric
   (q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 )
 
field at the center due to the remaining portion. (c) ∫ ( E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 ).dA =
ε0
3Q Q θ S
(a) sin(θ) (b) sin  
4π ε 0 R 2
2
4π ε 0 R
2 2
2 (d) None of these

(c)
Q θ (d)
Q θ 33. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface
sin   sin  
4π2 ε 0 R 2 4 4π2 ε 0 R 2 8 respectively is f1 and f2, the electric charge inside the surface
will be
GAUSS’S LAW AND ITS (a) (f1 + f2) e0 (b) (f2 – f1) e0
(c) (f1 + f2) / e0 (d) (f2 – f1) / e0
APPLICATIONS
34. Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian
30. Electric field at a point varies with distance r from the
charge distribution as r0 for surface as shown in the figure. When calculating the flux of
(a) An electric dipole the electric field over the spherical surface the electric field
(b) A point charge will be due to
(c) A plane infinite sheet of charge
q2
(d) A line charge of infinite length
+q1
31. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long
straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge per cm of the wire –q1
is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm
and length 1 m symmetrically encloses the wire as shown

Electric Charges and Fields 33

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(a) q2 (b) Only the positive charges 42. Two parallel line charges +λ and –λ are placed at a separation
(c) All the charges (d) +q1 and –q1 of R in free space. The net electric field exactly mid way
between the two line charges is
35. An electric dipole is put in north-south direction in a sphere
filled with pure water. Which statement is correct? 2λ 5λ λ
(a) Zero (b) (c) (d)
(a) Electric flux is coming towards sphere πεo R πεo R 2πεo R
(b) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
(c) Electric flux entering into sphere and leaving the sphere ELECTRIC DIPOLE
are same 43. The electric field due to a dipole at a distance r on its axis is
(d) Water does not permit electric flux to enter into sphere (a) Directly proportional to r3
36. Two infinite plane parallel conducting sheets separated (b) Inversely proportional to r3
by a distance d have equal and opposite uniform charge (c) Directly proportional to r2
densities s. Electric field at a point between the sheets is
(d) Inversely proportional to r2
(a) Zero
σ 44. An electric dipole, kept at 60o with respect to a uniform
(b) electric field of 10 7 NC –1 experiences a torque of
ε0
12 × 10–20 N–m. What is the dipole moment of the dipole?
σ (a) 1.4 × 10–26 C–m (b) 8 × 10–27 C–m
(c)
2ε0
(c) 30 × 10–26 C–m (d) 1.3 × 10–27 C–m
(d) Depends upon the location of the point 45. An electric dipole is kept along the x-axis at the origin O. A
37. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of point P is at a distance of 20 cm from the origin such that
electric field E due to a uniformly charged hollow spherical OP makes an angle π/3 with the x-axis. If the electric field
conductor of radius R as a function of distance from the at point P makes an angle θ with the x-axis then the value
center of the sphere? of θ is
E E (a) π/5 (b) 2π/3
 3 π  3
(a) (b) (c) tan −1   (d) + tan −1  
 3
 2   2 
R r R r 46. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at points
(x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0,
E E
z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the
(c) (d) electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
(a) 2qa along the line joining points
R r R r (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
38. A conducting sphere of radius R = 20 cm is given a charge (b) qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
Q = 16 mC. What is the electric field at center? (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(a) 3.6 × 106 N/C (b) 1.8 × 106 N/C
(c) 2qa along +ve x direction
(c) Zero (d) 0.9 × 106 N/C
(d) 2qa along +ve y direction
39. At a point 20 cm from the center of a uniformly charged
dielectric sphere of radius 10 cm, the electric field is 47. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 45o with an electric
100 V/m. The electric field at 3 cm from the center of the field of intensity 107 NC–1. It experiences a torque equal to
sphere will be 15 × 102 N–m. What will be magnitude of charge on dipole
if it is 5cm long?
(a) 150 V/m (b) 125 V/m
(a) 1 mC (b) 2 mC (c) 5 mC (d) 4 mC
(c) 120 V/m (d) Zero
40. Electric flux emanating through a surface element
  MOTION OF CHARGED PARTICLE IN
ds = 5iˆ placed in an electric field E = 4iˆ + 4 ˆj + 4kˆ is
UNIFORM ELECTRIC FIELD
(a) 10 units (b) 20 units
48. There is an electric field E in x-direction. If the work done
(c) 4 units (d) 16 units
in moving a charge of 0.2 C through a distance of 2m along
41. A point charge +q is placed at one face of a cube of side l. a line making an angle of 600 with x-axis is 4J, the value of
The electric flux emerging from the cube is E is
6ql 2 q q
(a) (b) (c) Zero (d) (a) 2 3 N / C (b) 5 N/C
ε0 6l 2ε0 2ε0
(c) 4 N/C (d) 20 N/C

34
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49. A charged particle having mass m and charge q is released 51. The bob of a simple pendulum is hanging vertically down
from rest in a uniform electric field E. The kinetic energy from a fixed identical bob by means of a string of length ‘l’.
of the charged particle moving on a horizontal plane after If both bobs are charged with a charge ‘q’ each, time period
‘t’ seconds is of the pendulum is (ignore the radii of the bobs).
Eq 2 m 2 E 2t 2 E 2 q 2t 2 Eqm
(a) (b) (c) (d) l l
2t 2 3mq 2m t (a) 2π (b) 2π
 Kq 2   Kq 2 
50. A particle having charge q and mass m is projected with g + 2  g − 2 
  l m l m
velocity v= 2iˆ − 3 ˆj in a uniform electric field E = E0 ˆj. What

is the magnitude of change in momentum | ∆P | during any
l l
time interval t? (c) 2π (d) 2π
g  Kq 2 
qE0 t g − 2 
(a) 13 m (b) qE0t (c) (d) Zero
3m  lm 

Exercise-2 JEE MAIN LEVEL Prabal

1. Two small balls having equal positive charge Q (Coulomb) →

on each are suspended by two insulating strings of equal 5. The direction (θ) of E at point P due to the uniformly
length ‘L’ metre, from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole charged finite rod will be
setup is taken in a satellite into space where there is no 
Ey Ey
gravity (state of weightlessness). Then the angle (q) d
between the two strings is 
+ x
P Ex
(a) 0º (b) 90º + 90°
(c) 180º (d) 0º < q < 180º +
+ 30°
2. Two charges 4q and q are placed 30 cm apart. At what point
+
the value of electric field will be zero?
(a) 10 cm away from q and between the charges (a) At 30° from x-axis (b) At 45° from x-axis
(b) 20 cm away from q and between the charges (c) At 60° from x-axis (d) None of these
(c) 10 cm away from q and outside the line joining the 6. Two point charges a and b, whose magnitudes are same,
charges are positioned at a certain distance from each other with a
(d) 10 cm away from 4q and outside the line joining the at origin. Graph is drawn between electric field strength E
charges at points between a and b and distance x from a. E is taken
positive if it is along the line joining from a to b. From the
3. Two identical point charges are placed at a separation of L. graph, it can be decided that
P is a point on the line joining the charges, at a distance x
E
from any one charge. The field at P is E. E is plotted against
x for values of x from close to zero to slightly less than L.
Which of the following best represents the resulting curve?
E E x
a b

(a) (b) (a) a is positive, b is negative

x x (b) a and b both are positive
O L O L
(c) a and b both are negative
E E
(d) a is negative, b is positive

(c) L x (d) L x 7. If E = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3 kˆ then electric flux through a surface
O O of area 100 m2 lying in the xy plane is (in V-m)
(a) 100 (b) 141.4
(c) 173.2 (d) 200
4. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a
uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius R will be 8. A cone of radius (R) and length (L) is placed in a uniform
1 electrical field (E) parallel to the axis of the cone. The total
(a) 1 q (b) 2q flux for the total surface of the cone is given by
4πε0 3 3R 2 4πε0 3R 2
(a) 2pR2LE (b) pR2LE
1 2q 1 3q
(c) (d) 2πR 2 L
4πε0 3 3R 2 4πε0 2 3R 2 (c) (d) zero
E
Electric Charges and Fields 35
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*9. An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge *13. Find the force experienced by the semicircular rod charged
density s cuts through a spherical Gaussian surface of radius with a charge q, placed as shown in figure. Radius of the semi
R at a distance x from its center, as shown in the figure. The circular rod is R and the infinite line of charge with linear
electric flux f through the Gaussian surface is charge density l is passing through the centre of semicircular
rod and perpendicular to its plane.
+ 

+ +
R
x + +
+ +
+ + +
+

+
+

+ +
+ +
+
πR 2σ
(b) 2π ( R − x )σ
2 2 +
(a)
ε0 ε0
+
+
+
π ( R − x) 2 σ
(d) π ( R − x )σ
2 2
(c)
ε0 ε0 λq λq λq λq
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d)
2π2 ε 0 R π ε0 R 4π2 ε 0 R 4πε0 R
*10. Figure shows a charge Q placed at the center of open face
of a cylinder as shown in figure. A second charge q is 14. In a certain region electric dipole having dipole moment

placed at one of the positions A, B, C and D, out of which p = 2iˆ is placed at a point having coordinates (x, y) where

positions A and D are lying on a straight line parallel to external electric field = E 3 x 2 y 2 iˆ + 3 x 3 yjˆ V/m is also
open face of cylinder. In which position(s) of this second present. Find magnitude of force experienced by the dipole.
charge, the flux of the electric field through the cylinder (a) xy 36 x 2 + 81 y 2 (b) 2 xy 36 x 2 + 81 y 2
remains unchanged?
C B (c) xy 36 y 2 + 81x 2 (d) 2 xy 36 y 2 + 81x 2

*15. Two identical hemispherical bowls are placed inside an

external uniform electric field E as shown in the figure. Find
D A the ratio of electric flux entering both the bowls.
Q
E
(a) A and D (b) B
(c) C (d) B and C
11. Two similar conducting spherical shells having charges R
R
40 mC and –20mC are large distance apart. Now they are
touched and kept at the same distance. The ratio of the
initial to the final force between them is (i) (ii)
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 1
φ1 φ1
(a) =2 (b) =3
12. The charge per unit length of the four quadrants of the ring φ2 φ2
is 2l, –2l, l and –l respectively. The electric field at the
φ1 φ1
center is (c) =4 (d) =5
φ2 φ2
Y
+++ 16. A spherical shell of radius R = 8 cm is having Q = –16 e
–2 + 2
charge is uniformly distributed over its surface. A point
++

charge q = +2e is placed at its center. The electric field at

+

X
+ R point P at a distance r = 10 cm, is x × 10–6 NC–1. Find x.
+
+ (a) 5.0 (b) 4.0 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.0
 + –
+
+
+

17. Choose the correct option for the given case in which a
cylindrical gaussian surface has its axis along an infinite
−λ  λ  long linear charge, having linear charge density l.
(a) i (b) j
2πε0 R 2πε0 R

2λ  + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + ++ + + + + ++ +++++
(c) i (d) None of these
4πε0 R

36
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(i) Electric flux through the plane faces of cylinder is zero. 22. A simple pendulum has a length l, and has a bob of mass m. The
(ii) Electric flux through the curved surface of cylinder is bob is given a charge q coulomb. The pendulum is suspended
same at each point. in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E as shown in
(iii) Magnitude of electric field remains constant over the figure, then calculate the time period of oscillation when the
bob is slightly displace from its mean position is
plane surface of the cylinder.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
18. The surface charge density on Earth’s surface is found to
be 4.42 × 10–x Cm–2. It is noted that electric field near the
Earth’s surface is 500 V m–1, find x.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 13
q, m
19. Select the correct statement.
(a) Electric lines of forces never form a closed loop while,  
magnetic lines never form a closed loop    
(a) 2π (b) 2π  
(b) Electric lines of forces never form a closed loop while g  g + qE 
magnetic lines always form closed loop or extend to infinity  m 
(c) Electric lines of force also exist inside a conductor
  
(d) Gauss’s law says that the total flux of an electric field    2π
through an open surface is the net charge enclosed by (c) 2π   (d)  qE 
2

that surface  g − qE  g2 +  
 m   m 
*20. If two balls of given masses and charges are released, which
23. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of
of the following is incorrect arrangement in equilibrium?
electric field as a function of x along the axis of a uniformly
   
and positively charged ring of radius r and charge Q?

   E(x)
(a) (b) Q
+q 3 3ε0 πr 2
+q +2q
2m +q m (a) –r/2
m m r/2 x
 > 
  

(c) (d) +2q
+q +3q +q m
m m 2m (b)
*21. Two identical small balls each have a mass m and charge q.
When placed in a hemispherical bowl of radius R with
frictionless, nonconductive walls, the balls move, and at
equilibrium the line joining the balls is horizontal and the
(c)
distance between them is R (figure). Neglect any induced
charge on the hemispherical bowl. Then the charge on each
1
ball is: (here K = )
4π ∈0

R R (d)
m m
R

1/ 2 1/ 2
24. Two concentric rings, one of radius R and total charge +Q
 mg   mg 
(a) q = R   (b) q =  R  and the second of radius 2R and total charge − 8Q , lie in
K 3  K 3 x-y plane (i.e., z = 0 plane). The common center of rings
1/ 2 1/ 2 lies at origin and the common axis coincides with z-axis.
 3 mg   3 mg 
(c) q = R   (d) q =  R  The charge is uniformly distributed on both rings. At what
 K   K  distance from origin is the net electric field on z-axis zero?

Electric Charges and Fields 37

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*29. A spherical insulator of radius R is charged uniformly with a
charge Q throughout its volume and contains a point charge
Q
located at its center. Which of the following graphs
16
best represents qualitatively, the variation of electric field
intensity E with distance r from the center?
E E

R R R (a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2R
2 2 2 2
r r
R R
25. Two semicircular rings lying in same plane, of uniform linear E E
charge density l have radius r and 2r. They are joined using
two straight uniformly charged wires of linear charge density (c) (d)
l and length r as shown in figure. Find the magnitude of
electric field at common center of semi circular rings. R
r r


INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
 
2r r 30. An uncharged particle is thrown vertically upwards from
ground level with a speed of 5 5 m/s in a region of
 space having uniform electric field. As a result, it attains
λ a maximum height h. The particle is then given a positive
λ λ 2λ
(a) (b) (c) (d) charge +q and reaches the same maximum height h when
4πε0 r 2πε0 r πε0 r πε0 r thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 13 m/s. Finally,
26. If three infinite charged sheets of uniform surface charge the particle is given a negative charge –q. Ignoring air
densities s, 2s and –4s are placed as shown in figure, then resistance, determine the speed (in m/s) with which the
find out the sum of magnitudes of electric field intensities negatively charged particle must be thrown vertically
y upwards, so that it attains the same maximum height h.
at points A, B, C and D.
A *31. Two mutually perpendicular infinite wires along x-axis and
 x y-axis carry charge densities l1 and l2. The electric line of
B 1
2 force at P is along the line y = x . Find l2/l1.
C 3
–4
E
D
y
5σ 6σ 9σ 2σ 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ε0 ε0 ε0 ε0 P
O x
27. A solid sphere of radius R has a volume charge density 1

r = r0 r2 (where r0 is a constant and r is the distance from

center). At a distance x from its center for x < R, the electric *32. Figure shows the cross sections of two solid spheres with
field is directly proportional to uniformly distributed charge throughout their volumes. Each
(a) 1/x2 (b) 1/x (c) x3 (d) x2 has radius R. Point P lies on the line connecting the centers of
the spheres, at a radial distance R/2 from the center of sphere 1.
*28. The field on either side of an infinite sheet of charge of
If the net electric field at point P is zero and Q1 is 64 mC, what
density of s C/m2 is E = s/2ε0. Electric field in region II is
is Q2(in mC)?
xσ
given by then x is
ε0 R R
2 –2 –
P

1 2
 kN 
I II III IV 33. What is the electric field  in  due to a line charge
 C 
of linear charge density 2 2 µC kept on y-axis from
m
16
(a) 2.5 (b) 2 (c) 4.5 (d) 4 y = –3m to y = at (4,0,0)?
3

38 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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34. A sphere of radius 2m carries charge density proportional 37. Three point charges q1, q2, q3 are used to make charges
to the square of the distance from its center: r = 3r2C/m3. Q1 = q1 + q2, Q2 = q2 + q3, Q3 = q1 + q3. The electrostatic
At a distance of 1 m from the center, the magnitude of the forces between Q1 and q3 is FA = 2 units, between Q2 and
a V q1 is FB = – 4 units and between Q3 and q2 is FC = – 18
electric field is . Value of a + b is ____.
bε0 m units. In all the above cases, the separation between the
charges remains the same and negative force refers to
35. A sphere of radius R carries charge such that its volume charge attraction. Then the ratio of charges q1, q2 and q3 is a : b : c.
density is proportional to the square of the distance from its Find |a| + |b| + |c|.
center. What is the ratio of the magnitude of the electric field
at a distance 2R from the center to the magnitude of the electric 38. Three point charges are held on the corners of an equilateral
field at a distance of R/2 from the center? triangle as shown in the figure.
Take Q = 2µC and L = 3 cm. What is the magnitude
*36. Charge in the form of a plane sheet with density
of resultant force exerted on the charge +3Q in N.
s = 40 µC/m 2 is located at z = –0.5 m. A uniform line of
charge of density l = –6 µC/m lies along the y-axis. Net flux (Take 3 = 1.7 )
that crosses the surface of cube 2m on an edge, centered at y
−6 –2Q
the origin as shown, is _____ 10 N m 2 .
∈0 C
z
x
L L
2m
2m
y
2m L
Q 3Q

Exercise-3 BRIDGE Setu

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS 4. A hollow metallic sphere of inner radius a and outer radius b
is given a charge Q. A point charge q is placed at the center
1. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a of the sphere. The surface charge density on the inner surface
uniform electric field E. Due to air resistance, the particle of the sphere is:
−q Q−q Q q
experiences a drag force of magnitude Fdrag = −kv, where k (a) (b) (c) (d)
4πa 2 4πa 2 4πb 2 4πa 2
is a constant and v is the particle’s velocity.
5. A simple pendulum has a bob of mass m and charge q. It is
The terminal velocity of the particle will be: placed in a uniform horizontal electric field E. The angle the
qE k 2qE qEk string makes with the vertical in its equilibrium position is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
m −1  mg   qE 
k qE mk (a) tan   (b) tan −1  
 qE   mg 
2. A point charge q is placed at one corner of a cube of side
−1  qE   qE 
L. What is the electric flux through the face opposite to the (c) sin   (d) cos −1  
corner where the charge is placed?  mg   mg 
q q q q 6. A regular hexagon of side length a has charges +q at five of
(a) (b) (c) (d) its vertices. The magnitude of the electric field at the center
24 ∈0 8 ∈0 6 ∈0 12 ∈0
of the hexagon is:
*3. A thin spherical shell of radius R is uniformly charged with kq 5kq 3kq
surface charge density σ. It is cut into two hemispheres. The (a) Zero (b) 2 (c) (d)
a a2 a2

magnitude of the electrostatic force of repulsion between the 7. An electric field in a region is given by =E (3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) N/C.
two hemispheres is: The electric flux through a surface of area 10 m2 lying in
the x-z plane is:
σ2 πR 2 σ2 πR 2 σ2 R 2 2σ2 πR 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 30 Nm2/C (b) 40 Nm2/C
2ε 0 ε0 2ε0 ε0 (c) 50 Nm /C 2 (d) 70 Nm2/C

Electric Charges and Fields 39

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8. A charge Q is distributed uniformly in a sphere of radius R. (a) The charge −q is in stable equilibrium.
A particle of mass m and charge −q is performing uniform (b) If displaced slightly along the y-axis, the charge −q will
circular motion of radius r < R inside the sphere. The time undergo oscillations.
period of its revolution is:
(c) If displaced slightly along the x-axis, the charge −q will
(a) 2π 4π0 mR (b) 2π 4π0 mr
3 3 move away from the origin.
Qq Qq (d) For the charge +Q at point B to be in equilibrium, the
condition must be q = Q/4.
4π0 mR3 mr
(c) 2π (d) 2π 14. A particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest
qQr kQq at the origin in a region with a uniform electric field

9. A sphere of radius R has electric charge uniformly =E Exˆi + E y ˆj.
distributed in its entire volume. At a distance d, from the
centre inside the sphere, the electric field intensity is directly (a) The trajectory of the particle is a straight line.
proportional to (b) The kinetic energy of the particle at time t is

(a)
1
(b) 2
1
(c) d (d) d2 ( )
q 2 Ex2 + E y2 t 2
.
d d 2m
10. Two identical small conducting balls B1 and B2 are given (c) The work done by the electric field when the particle
–7 pC and + 4 pC charges respectively. They are brought in reaches position (x, y) is q(Exx + Eyy).
contact with a third identical ball B3 and then separated. If
the final charge on each ball is –2pC. the initial charge on (d) The velocity vector of the particle is always parallel to
B3 was its position vector.
(a) –2 pC (b) –3 pC (c) –5 pC (d) –15 pC *15. A sphere of radius R has a uniform charge density ρ. A
spherical cavity of radius a = R/2 is carved out. The center
11. The Coulomb force (F) versus (1/r2) graphs for two pairs of
of the cavity is at a distance d = R/2 from the center of the
point charges (q1 and q2) and (q2 and q3) are shown in figure.
original sphere.
The charge q2 is positive and has least magnitude. Then
F (a) The electric field inside the cavity is uniform.
(q1, q2) (b) The electric field inside the cavity is directed along the
+
line connecting the centers of the sphere and the cavity.
(c) The magnitude of the electric field inside the cavity is
0 1 ρR
.
r2 6ε 0
(d) The electric field at the center of the original sphere is
– (q2, q3)
zero.
(a) q1 > q2 > q3 (b) q1 > q3 > q2
*16. A closed surface S encloses a net charge Q. The electric
(c) q3 > q2 > q1 (d) q3 > q1 > q2
flux through the surface is Φ. If a second charge Q′ is
Directions: These questions consist of two statements each, printed placed outside the surface S, which of the following will be
as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While answering these questions, affected?
you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) The net electric flux through the surface S.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are True and the Reason
(R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). (b) The electric field at every point on the surface S.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are True but Reason (R) (c) The total charge enclosed by the surface S.
 
∫
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(d) The value of the integral E ⋅ dA over the surface S.
(c) Assertion (A) is True but the Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is True.
COMPREHENSION BASED
QUESTIONS
12. Assertion (A): Gauss’ theorem is applicable on any closed surface.
Reason (R): In order to find the value of electric field due
to a charge distribution, Gauss’ theorem should be applied Comprehension (Q. 17 to 18): We have two electric dipoles.
on a symmetrical closed surface. Each dipole consists of two equal and opposite point charges at
the end of an insulating rod of length d. The dipoles are placed
MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE along the x-axis at a large distance apart oriented as shown in
QUESTIONS figure.

– + –
13. Two point charges +Q are fixed at points A(−a, 0) and B(a, 0).
A third point charge −q (with q > 0) is placed at the origin. d
d +
Select the correct statement(s) regarding the charge −q.

40
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17. The dipole on the left (a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(VI)
(a) will feel a force upward and a torque trying to make it (b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
rotate clockwise (c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(b) will feel a force upward and a torque trying to make it
rotate counterclockwise (d) (A)-(II), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) will feel a force upward and no torque about its center
(d) will feel a force downward and a torque trying to make INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
it rotate clockwise
22. A point charge q is placed at one of the corners of a cube. The
18. The dipole on the right
ratio of the total electric flux passing through the surfaces of
(a) will feel a force downward and a torque trying to make
the cube to the electric flux passing through any one of the
it rotate clockwise
(b) will feel a force downward and a torque trying to make three faces that are diagonally opposite to the corner is __.
it rotate counterclockwise *23. A thin ring of radius R carries a uniform charge Q. The work
(c) will feel a force upward and no torque about its center done in moving a test charge q from the center of the ring
(d) will feel no force and a torque trying to make it rotate to a point on its axis at a distance of 3R from the center
counterclockwise
kQq
Comprehension (Q. 19 to 20): Positive and negative charges is given by W = − . Find the value of s.
NR
of equal magnitude lie along the symmetry axis of a cylinder.
The distance from the positive charge to the left-end cap of the *24. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has a volume
cylinder is the same as the distance from the negative charge to charge density ρ(r) = αr, where α is a constant and r is the
the right-end cap. distance from the center. The ratio of the magnitude of the
electric field at the surface (r = R) to the magnitude of the
+Q –Q electric field at a distance r = 2R from the center is.
25. An electric dipole of moment p = 5 × 10−6 C-m is placed
Right
end cap in a uniform electric field E = 2 × 103 N/C. The work done
by an external agent in rotating the dipole from its stable
19. What is the flux of the electric field through the closed
equilibrium position to the position of zero potential energy
cylinder?
is N × 10−3 J. Find the value of N.
(a) zero (b) +Q/e0 (c) +2Q/e0 (d) –Q/e0
26. A uniformly charged non-conducting solid sphere of radius
20. What is the sign of the flux through the right-end cap of the
R and charge Q is placed in a uniform external electric field
cylinder?
E0. The force experienced by the sphere is F = NQE0. Find
(a) Positive
the value of N.
(b) Negative
(c) There is no flux through the right-end cap. *27. An infinite non-conducting sheet with surface charge density
(d) zero σ has a circular hole of radius R. The electric field at a point
P on the axis of the hole, at a distance z = 3R from the
MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE center, is found to be 3
σ
. Find the value of N.
QUESTIONS N 0
28. A particle of mass m = 2.0 g and charge q = 1.0 μC is
21. Match the initial conditions of a charged particle in a uniform
 projected into a uniform electric field of magnitude
electric field E in Column-I with the resulting trajectory in
Column-II. E = 400 N/C. It travels a distance of 40 cm. If the change
in its kinetic energy is N × 10−5 J, find the value of N. The
Column-I Column-II angle between the initial velocity and the electric field is 60◦.
A. Particle released from rest
I. Straight line with 29. A particle of charge q = 1.0 μC moves through a uniform
constant velocity 
=
electric field E ( 200ˆi + 100 ˆj )N / C. The change in kinetic
B. Projected with initial II. Straight line with
 energy of the particle as it moves from the origin to the point
velocity parallel to E constant acceleration
(40, 20) cm is N × 10−5 J. Find the value of N.
C. Projected with initial III. Parabolic path
velocity perpendicular to 30. An electric dipole consists of two charges +q and −q
 separated by 2.0 mm. It is placed in a uniform electric field
E
of 2.5 × 105 N/C. The maximum torque experienced by the
D. Projected with initial IV. Circular path dipole is 5.0 × 10−3 N·m. Find the magnitude of the charge

velocity anti-parallel to E q in microcoulombs (μC).
Electric Charges and Fields 41
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31. Two small identical conducting spheres are charged with 36. An electron is projected with an initial velocity v0 = 3.0 × 106
+12.0 nC and −8.0 nC respectively. They are brought into m/s at an angle of 30o above the horizontal into a uniform

contact and then separated by a distance of 3.0 cm. Find electric field E = −100 ˆj N / C. Find the maximum vertical
the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them in displacement (height) of the electron in meters.
micronewtons (μN).
*37. Two small identical conducting spheres, each of mass
32. A charge of Q = 8.85 nC is uniformly distributed over the m = 10 g and charge q, are suspended from a common
volume of a solid non-conducting sphere of radius R = 2.0 point by insulating strings of length L = 1 m. They come to
cm. Find the total electric flux (in N·m2/C) passing through equilibrium at a separation of x = 6 cm. If g = 10 m/s2 and
a concentric spherical shell of radius r = 1.0 cm. k = 9 × 109 SI units, the charge q on each sphere is N × 10−15
C. Find the value of N.
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 38. A uniformly charged ring of radius R = 50 cm has a total
Answer should be upto two decimal places. charge Q = 2.0 nC. An electron is placed on the axis of
33. A thin insulating rod is bent into a semicircular arc of the ring at a distance x = 50 cm from the center and is
radius R = 5.0 cm. It carries a uniform linear charge density constrained to move along the axis. The magnitude of the
λ = 1.25 nC/m. Calculate the magnitude of the electric field initial acceleration of the electron is approximately N × 108
(in N/C) at the center of the arc. m/s2. Find the value of N. (Use e/me = 1.76 × 1011 C/kg).
34. A small sphere of mass m = 10.0 g and charge q = +50.0 *39. An infinite plane sheet of charge has a uniform surface
nC hangs from a string in a uniform horizontal electric field charge density σ = +17.7 × 10−8 C/m2. An electron is released
E = 2.0 × 105 N/C. The string makes an angle θ with from rest at a distance of 10 cm from the sheet. Find the
the vertical in equilibrium. Find the tension in the string square of speed of the electron (in 1015 m/s) when it strikes
(in Newtons). the sheet. (Use ϵ0 = 8.85 × 10−12 F/m and e/me = 1.76 × 1011
35. An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R = 5.0 cm has C/kg).
a non-uniform volume charge density ρ(r) = Ar2, where A 40. Three identical point charges, each of charge q = +10 μC,
= 1.0 × 10−5 C/m5. Calculate the magnitude of the electric are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
field (in N/C) at a distance r = 10.0 cm from the axis of the length a = 10 cm. Find the magnitude of the net electrostatic
cylinder. force on any one of the charges in Newtons.

Exercise-4 JEE ADVANCED LEVEL Parikshit

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS *3. Consider a uniformly charged hemispherical shell shown
below. Indicate the directions (not magnitude) of the electric
1. Two small balls carry masses and charges m1, q1 and m2, q2 field at the central point P1 and an off-centre point P2 on the
respectively. The entire system is placed in uniform electric
 drumhead of the shell.
field E directed upwards. If (m1 + m2) g = (q1 + q2)E, then
the acceleration of centre of mass (Neglect the interaction P2 P1
between balls)


E
(a) ; (b) ; (c) ; (d) ;
m1q1
m2q2 R
4. Find the stress at distance from + ++
R
+ + ++ + +
(a) is necessarily zero (b) is not necessarily zero 2 + ++ + + ++ + +
(c) is directed downwards (d) none of these centre in a uniformly charged non + ++ + + ++ + +
R/2
2. A point charge is placed at origin. Electric field due to that conducting sphere having radius R + ++ + + ++ + +
+ ++ + + ++ + +
charge at point (a, b, c) is E1iˆ + E2 ˆj + E3 kˆ. Then electric and charge density ρ.
field at (a, 0, 0) due to that charge will be + ++ + + ++ + +

E12 ρ2 R 2 ρ2 R 2
(a) E1iˆ (b) iˆ (a) (b)
E12 + E22 + E32 24ε0 8ε0

( )
3
ρ2 R 2
(c) E1 a + b + c
2 2 2 2
(d) E12 + E22 + E32 iˆ (c) (d) None of these
iˆ 6ε 0
a3

42
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5. The electric field in a region of space is given by 9. Two infinitely large charged planes having uniform surface

E = 8 xiˆ − 4 yjˆ − 4 zkˆ. The equation of electric lines of force charge densities +s and –s are placed along xy plane and yz
in plane z = 0 is plane respectively as shown in the figure. Then the nature
of electric lines of forces in xz plane given by
(a) 2x – y = 0 (b) xy = constant
z z
x2
(c) xy2 = constant (d) = constant
y
(a) x (b) x
6. A solid non-conducting spherical body has a volume charge
 r
density given by ρ = ρ0 1 −  , where R is radius of the
 R
sphere, and r is distance from the center. Maximum intensity
z z
of the electric field is
1 R 1 ρ0 R 3 ρ0 R ρ0 R
(a) ρ0 (b) (c) (d)
9 ε0 12 ε0 4 ε0 4ε 0 (c) x (d) x

7. A bob of mass m and charge q is suspended from a point O

of a vertical large thin sheet of surface charge density +σ. If
the bob is released from rest from horizontal, at which angle 10. In a certain region, free from gravity, electric field is along
θ the speed of the bob will be (i) maximum (ii) zero. negative x-direction and it is constant. A particle having mass
 ‘m’ and charge q is projected along x-direction with speed v0.
O   
An additional force F= C × v is acting on the charge where
  
v is velocity vector and C is a constant vector. The charge
l v
comes out of region with speed 0 . Then the magnitude of
electric field will be 2
m
y
−1  ε 0 mg   ε mg 
(a) (i) θ1 =tan   (ii) θ2 =2 tan −1  0 
 σq   σq 
v0

 2ε mg  −1  2ε 0 mg 
(b) (i) θ1 =tan −1  0  (ii) θ2 =2 tan  
 σq   σq  x
d v0
 ε mg  −1  ε 0 mg  2
(c) (i) θ1 =2 tan −1  0  (ii) θ2 =tan  σq 
 σq   
(a)
3 mv02
(b)
4 mv02
4 qd 3 qd
 2ε mg  −1  2ε 0 mg 
(d) (i) θ1 =2 tan −1  0  (ii) θ2 =tan  σq 
 σq    3 mv02
(c) (d) cannot be determined.
8. An insulating spherical shell of inner radius a and outer 8 qd
radius b is uniformly charged with a positive charge density. *11. A spherical bob of mass m and charge q
The radial component of the electric field, Er (r) has a graph suspended from a string of length  rotates
about a fixed charge identical to that of the
bob (Fig.). The angle between the string and q
E E the vertical is θ. Find the angular velocity l
of uniform rotation of the bob. It is given
(a) (b)
0 r 0 r K q2 q q
that 2
=g.
a b a b m

g g
E
(a) (sec θ − cos ec3θ) (b) cosec θ
E  
(c) (d) g g
0 r 0 r (c) sec θ (d)
 
a b a b
Electric Charges and Fields 43
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12. An uniform electric field exist in space as shown in figure. 16. Two fixed charges 4Q (positive) and Q (negative) are located
A dipole is placed horizontally. There may be point in the at A and B, the distance AB being 3m.
space P, where electric field is zero. Then value of θ is +4Q –Q
M
A 3m B
(a) The point P where the resultant field due to both is zero
P is on AB outside AB
r (b) The point P where the resultant field due to both is zero
is on AB inside AB
q
– + (c) If a positive charge is placed at P and displaced slightly
along AB it will execute oscillations
(a) tan −1 2 (b) tan1 3 (d) If a negative charge is placed at P and displaced slightly
along AB it will execute oscillation
(c) tan–1 2 (d) 45°
17. A uniform electric field of strength E exists in a region. An
*13. The electric dipole moment of system formed by point charge electron (charge –e, mass m) enters a point A with velocity v.
–q and uniformly charged hemisphere as shown in the figure is It moves through the electric field and exits at point B. Then

–q

 2 amv ˆ
2
(a) E = − i
2
Uniformly charged ed
nonconducting hemisphere 4 m a 2 v3
(b) Rate of work done by the electric field at B is
having total surface charge +q d3
qR (c) Rate of work by the electric field at A is zero
qR qR
(a) (b) qR (c) (d) 2av ˆ
2 4 3 (d) Velocity at B is i + vjˆ
d
*14. A large insulating thick sheet of thickness 2d carries a
18. An oil drop has a charge – 96 × 10 –19 C and mass
uniform charge per unit volume ρ. A particle of mass m, 1.6 × 10–15 g. When allowed to fall, due to air resistance
carrying a charge q having a sign opposite to that of the force, it attains a constant velocity. Then if a uniform electric
sheet, is released from the surface of the sheet. The sheet field is to be applied vertically to make the oil drop ascend
does not offer any mechanical resistance to the motion of up with the same constant speed, which of the following are
the particle. Find the oscillation frequency ν of the particle correct? (g = 10 ms–2)
inside the sheet. (Assume that the magnitude of resistance force is same in
both the cases)
1 qρ 1 2qρ
(a) ν = (b) ν = (a) The electric field is directed upward
2π mε0 2π mε0 (b) The electric field is directed downward
1
1 qρ 1 qρ (c) The intensity of electric field is ×102 NC–1
(c) ν = (d) ν = 3
4π mε0 π mε0
1
(d) The intensity of electric field is × 105 NC–1
6
MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE 19. An electric field converges at the origin whose magnitude
QUESTIONS is given by the expression E = 100r N/C, where r is the
distance measured from the origin.
15. Two equal negative charges –q each are fixed at the (a) Total charge contained in any spherical volume with
points (0, a) and (0, – a) on the y-axis. A positive charge its center at origin in negative
Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. (b) Total charge contained in any spherical volume,
The charge Q will irrespective of the location of its center, is negative
(c) Total charge contained in a spherical volume of radius
(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
3 cm with its center at origin has magnitude nearly
(b) Have maximum velocity at origin 3 × 10–13C
(c) Move to infinity (d) Total charge contained in a spherical volume of radius
(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion 3 cm with its center at origin has magnitude nearly
3 × 10–9 C

44 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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20. An electric dipole is kept in the electric field produced by a 25. Two point charges are located on the x-axis. The first is
point charge. a charge +Q at x = –a. The second is an unknown charge
(a) Dipole will experience a force located at x = +3a. The net electric field these charges
(b) Dipole will experience a torque produce at the origin has a magnitude of 2kQ/a2. What are
(c) It is possible to find a path (not closed) in the field on the possible value(s) of the unknown charge ?
which work required to move the dipole is zero (a) –9Q (b) +9Q (c) +27Q (d) +8Q
(d) Dipole can be in stable equilibrium 26. A small object of mass m and of charge q slides down
21. Three charged particles are in equilibrium under their frictionlessly along a slope of angle of elevation α from a
electrostatic forces only height of h. From the midpoint of the slope, it enters into a
(a) The particles must be collinear. region of uniform horizontal electric field, and it decelerates
and stops at the bottom of the slope.
(b) All the charges cannot have the same magnitude.
(c) All the charges cannot have the same sign. m,q E
(d) The equilibrium is unstable.
22. Two point charges (Q each) are placed at (0, y) and (0, –y). A h
point charge q of the same polarity can move along X-axis.
Then: a

(a) the force on q is maximum at x = ± y / 2 mg

(a) The magniude of E is tan α.
(b) the charge q is in equilibrium at the origin q
(c) the charge q performs an oscillatory motion about the (b) The normal reaction on block before dotted line and
origin after dotted line remains the same.
(d) for any position of q other then origin the force is (c) The magnitude of acceleration before and after dotted
directed away from origin
line remains the same.
23. A point charge + q is located at the origin, and a point charge
h gh
– 4q is located at x = a, where a is positive. Which of the (d) The speed at height from bottom is .
following statements is true? 4 2
(a) Between the two charges the electric field can be zero 27. A disc of radius R is charged uniformly with charge/area σ.
at x = a/3. Choose the correct options for electric field at a point on the
(b) The electric field is zero at x = – a. axis of the disc.
(c) A point charge placed on y-axis can not be in R
(a) E is maximum at from the disc.
equilibrium. 2
(d) The electric field is minimum at a point between the σ
(b) E just close to the disc is
two charges. 2 ∈0
24. A charge q is revolving around another charge q as (c) E decreases continuously as one goes away from the
shown in a conical pendulum. The motion is in a disc.
horizontal plane.
σ
(d) E at a distance of R from disc is
4 ∈0
a
l *28. In the diagram showing the electric field lines as below,
select the correct statements (assume that the middle charge
q q is equidistant from both the charges; and number of electric
(a) Tension in the string is greater than the weight of the field lines represent magnitude of the charge.)
ball.
(b) the tension in the string is greater than the electrostatic
repulsive force
(c) If the charge is removed, the speed of ball has to be
increased to maintain the angle.
(d) If the charge is removed, the speed of ball has to be
decreased to maintain the angle.

Electric Charges and Fields 45

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(a) The leftmost charge is positive and other two charges mg
are negative. field of magnitude E = . The stick is held horizontally at the
beginning. 2Q
(b) The charges are in ratio 2 : –1 : –1
(c) The rightmost charge can be in equilibrium under Q,m
influence of electric field of both. E
31. What is the acceleration of the small ball at the instant of
(d) The leftmost charge can be in equilibrium under
releasing the stick?
influence of electric field of both.
3g 3g 9g 9g
29. The X-Y-Z space has an infinite charged sheet having charge (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 8 4
density σ on the Y-Z plane (plane of paper is XZ plane).
A negative charge particle –Q is placed at (a, 0, 0). The 32. What is the speed of ball when rod becomes vertical:
variation of net electric field on x-axis is shown in the figure. 3 g 3 g 5 g
(a) (b) 2g (c) (d)
Then choose the correct option(s). 2 4 2
33. Magnitude of acceleration of the end of the stick when it
E
swings through the vertical position?
3 5g 3 17 g 3 2g 3 11g
(a) (b) (c) (d)
–Q 2 8 4 8
(0,0,0) (a,0,0) (2a,0,0) x Comprehension (Q. 34 to 35): In 1906, Robert Millikan devised
an experiment that allowed him to determine the charge of an
electron. A schematic diagram of Millikan’s set-up is shown below:

(a) Q = 2σπa2 Oil Can

(b) Q = 4σπa2
(c) The net electric field at the point (a/2, 0, 0) is 5σ/2ε0
(d) At point (5a/2, 0, 0) the net electric field is 5σ/18ε0.
*30. An infinite plane in the xz plane carries a uniform surface
charge density σ1 = 8.85 nC/m2. A second infinite plane
carrying a uniform charge density σ2 = 17.7 nC/m2 intersects
the xz plane at the z axis and makes an angle of 60° with the Two metal plates are connected by a series of batteries to form a
xz plane as shown in Figure. The electric field in the xy plane. capacitor. There is an electric field between the plates. The metal
y plates are inside an insulated cylindrical container.
Oil drops are introduced into the container through a small hole
in the top. The oil drops acquire a negative charge as they pass
s2 through the nozzle of the oil can. Some of the drops fall through
a hole in the upper plate. By adjusting the voltage between
the plates, certain drops can be suspended between them. The
x relationship between the electric field between the plates and the
s1 voltage across the plates is:
60°
∆V = EL
where E is the electric field and L is the plate separation.
Millikan chose oil because of its relatively low vapour pressure
(a) at x = 6m, y = 2m is 500 3 N/C and high charge-holding ability.
(b) at x = –5m, y = 0 is 500 3 N/C 34. In order for an oil drop of mass m, radius r, and charge
density ρ, to be suspended between the plates, the magnitude
(c) at x = 2m, y = 6 m is 500 7 N/C
and direction of the electric field must be:
(d) at x = –1m, y = –1m is 500 7 N/C 4πr 3ρ
3mg
(a) ; downward (b) ; downward
4πr 3ρ 3mg
COMPREHENSION BASED 3mg 4πr 3ρ
QUESTIONS (c)
4πr ρ
3
; upward (d)
3mg
; upward
Comprehension (Q. 31 to 33): A thin, homogeneous stick of 35. Suppose the original oil droplet were replaced with a
mass m and length L may rotate in the vertical plane around a positively charged one that had twice the charge and three
horizontal axle pivoted at one end of the stick. A small ball of times the mass of the original droplet. How would the
mass m and charge Q is attached to the opposite end of this stick. magnitude of the electric field have to be changed in order
The whole system is positioned in a constant horizontal electric for the drop to remain suspended?

46 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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(a) No change is necessary R = 0.1 m
(b) It must be increased by a factor of 2
(c) It must be decreased by a factor of 2/3
(d) It must be increased by a factor of 3/2 H = 1m
Comprehension (Q. 36 to 37): In order to clear air of dust which
settles very slowly under ordinary conditions, we can use the fact
that dust particles are charged. The viscosity is so high that we can
assume that at any point viscous force balances other forces. The
dust particles follow Stoke’s law. In the first experiment a glass
ηr
cylinder (figure) with dusty air is placed in an electric field E1 = 36. What is the value of
1 × 104 V/m directed along the cylinder’s axis. In time t1 = 2 min q
the entire dust settles on the bottom. In the second experiment, a 105 2 × 105
(a) SI units (b) SI units
thin wire is stretched along the cylinder’s axis and given a uniform π π
charge. The charge on wire is chosen so as to make the field’s value
3 × 105 104
by the cylinder’s walls equal to its value in the first experiment, (c) SI units (d) SI units
i.e., 1 × 104 V/m. Assume the specks of dust to be identical and π 3π
equally charged. There isn’t too much dust in the air, so that the 37. How long will it take for all the dust to settle on cylinder’s
volume charge is negligible. Neglect gravity. The specks of dust walls in second experiment?
have radius r, charge q and coefficient of viscosity is η. (a) 2 sec. (b) 3 sec. (c) 6 sec. (d) 8 sec.

MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE QUESTIONS

38. The Column-I gives the two point charge system separated by 2a and the Column-II gives the variation of magnitude of electric
field intensity along x-axis. Match the situation in Column-I with the results in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
q q
A. x' + a + x p. Increases as x increases in the interval 0 ≤ x < a
(–a, 0) (0, 0) (a, 0)
q –q
B. x' + a – x q. Decreases as x increases in the interval 0 ≤ x < a
(–a, 0) (0, 0) (a, 0)
y
q + (0, +a)

C. x r. Zero at x = 0
(0, 0)

q + (0, –a)

y
–q – (0, +a)

D. x s. Decreases as x increases in the interval a < x < ∞

(0, 0)

q + (0, –a)

(a) A-(p, r, s); B-(p, s); C-(r, s); D-(q, s) (b) A-(p, s); B-(p, r, s); C-(r); D-(q, s)
(c) A-(p, r); B-(p, s); C-(r, q); D-(q, r) (d) A-(s); B-(p, s); C-(r, s); D-(q, s)

Electric Charges and Fields 47

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 
39. In each situation of Column-I, two electric dipoles having dipole moments p1 and p2 of same magnitude (that is, p1 = p2) are
placed on x-axis symmetrically about origin in different orientations as shown. In Column-II certain inferences are drawn for
these two dipoles. Then match the different orientations of dipoles in Column-I with the corresponding results in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
A. p1 y p2 p. The torque on one dipole due to other is zero.

x
(–a,0) (a,0)
 
( p1 and p2 are perpendicular to x-axis as shown)
B. y q. The net force on one dipole in electric field of other dipole is
p1 p2 attractive.
x
(–a,0) (a,0)
 
( p1 and p2 are perpendicular to x-axis as shown)
C. y r. There is at least one straight line in x-y plane (not at infinity)
p1 p2 where net electric field is perpendicular to that straight line.
x
(–a,0) (a,0)
 
( p1 and p2 are parallel to x-axis as shown)
D. y s. Electric field at origin is zero.
p1 p2
x
(–a,0) (a,0)
 
( p1 and p2 are parallel to x-axis as shown)

(a) A-(p, r, s); B-(p, s); C-(r, s); D-(q, s) (b) A-(p, r); B-(p, r, s); C-(p, q, r); D-(p, s)
(c) A-(p, r); B-(p, s, q); C-(r, q, s, p); D-(q, r) (d) A-(s); B-(p, s, r); C-(r, s); D-(q, s, p, r)

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 42. The two ends of a rubber string of negligible mass and having
unstretched length 24 cm are fixed at the same height as
Answer should be upto two decimal places.
shown. A small object is attached to the string at its midpoint,
40. Use Gauss's law to find out the ratio of electric flux through
two concentric hollow spheres, A and B, which enclose thus the depression (h) of the object in equilibrium is 5 cm.
charges 4Q and 8Q respectively, as shown in figure. (Answer Then the object is charged and a vertical electric field (E1) is
should be rounded off upto 2 decimal places) applied. The equilibrium depression of the object increases
8Q to 9 cm, then the electric field is changed to E2 and the
depression of object in equilibrium increases to 16 cm. What
is the ratio of electric field in the second case to that in the
4Q B first case (E2/E1)?

*41. Two identical charges q are connected by rubber cords to

the walls, as shown in figure at a distance 2a from each h
other. The distance between the walls is 2l and the length of
each non-deformed cord is l. Determine the force constant
of the cord. Mass of charges is negligible. q = 1 µC,
a = 3 cm, l = 4 cm.
q 43. Two infinite lines of charge with equal linear charge densities
l C/m are placed along the x and y axes, as in figure. If angle
2a
made by resultant electric field with horizontal at point P is
q
q then tan q will be equal to (given y = 2x)
2l

48 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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+ then magnitude of net torque on the ring due to the wire is
+ K
ln 2N − m. Find the value of K.
+ πε0
+ P(x, y)

+ +
y
+ x
++ + ++ + ++ + ++ + ++ + r C
+ R
+ –
+
+ *49. An infinitely long string uniformly charged with a linear
+ density λ1 = 4 C/m and a segment of length l = 8 cm
44. A clock face has negative charges –q, –2q, –3q,........., uniformly charged with linear density λ2 = 3 C/m lie in
–12q fixed at the position of the corresponding numerals a plane at right angles to each other and separated by a
distance r0 = 2 cm. The force with which these two interact
on the dial. The clock hands do not disturb the net field
6
due to point charges. Hour hand is at 12 'O' Clock at is ln P N. The value of P is________
t = 0. At what value of t (in hours) does the hour hand point πε0

in the same direction as electric field at the center of the
dial. All the parts of the clock are of nonconducting material.
45. A disc of radius R is charged uniformly with charge +Q. A 
ring of same radius R is fitted on the disc. It is charged with r0 
charge –nQ. It is found that the net electric field is zero at a
3R
point on the common axis at distance y = . Find n.
4
50. An infinitely large non-conducting plane of uniform surface
charge density 10 C/m2 has circular aperture of certain
R radius carved out from it. The electric field at a point which
is at a distance a = 7 cm from the center of the aperture
46. A fixed circle of radius a and centre O is drawn and a charge 5
(perpendicular to the plane) is N. Find the radius of
+q is placed at a distance 3a/4 from O on a line through O 2ε0
aperture in (cm).
perpendicular to the plane of circle. If a second charge q′
5a
is simiarly placed at a distance on the opposite side of
12
circle, the net electric flux through circle becomes zero. Find P
the ratio of q′ to q. a

INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS

*47. Find the magnitude of uniform electric field E in N/C 51. A square loop of side  ‘ ’ having uniform linear charge
(direction shown in figure) if an electron entering with density l is placed in xy plane as shown in the figure. There
velocity 100m/s making 30° with horizontal comes out  a
making 60° with horizontal (see figure), after a time is a non uniform electric field= E ( x + ) iˆ where a and

m  are constants. The resultant electric force on the loop is
numerically equal to for electron.
e having value nal. Find the value of n.
y
60º
B C
E 
y A D x
 
30º
*52. A thin long strip whose cross-section is a semicircle carries
100m/s
a uniform surface charge of density ‘σ’on its inner surface.
*48. In the figure shown, a very long wire and a semicircular Find the electric field in SI unit at a point ‘O’ located midway
ring of radius ‘R’ are placed in the same plane. The center on its axis. Take σ = 4π∈0 SI unit.
of the ring is at a distance ‘r’ from the wire. The wire has
O
uniformly distributed line charge density ‘l’ and the ring
has linear charge density ‘+l’ on one half and ‘–l’ on the
other half as shown. If l = 2C/m, R = 3m and r = 1m,

Electric Charges and Fields 49

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53. Positive charge +Q is distributed uniformly along the +x-axis on an insulating horizontal surface. The particle remains in
from x = 0 to x = a. Negative charge –Q is distributed equilibrium vertically above the ball with the string taut.
uniformly along the –x axis for x = 0 to x = – a. A positive The distance of the ball from point O is L.
point charge q lies on the positive y-axis, a distance
Find the minimum value of Q (in micro-coulombs) such that
y(y >> a) from the origin. The net force applied by the
the particles remains in stable equilibrium under any small
positive and negative charge distribution on the point charge
horizontal displacement.
q is F. If F = Cy–k Newton where C is positive constant. Then
find the value of K. Given Data: m = 0.01 kg, q = 2 × 10–6 C, L = 0.2 m, g = 10
1
m/s2, K = 4πε = 9 × 10 Nm2/C2
9
54. Water molecules have a dipole moment of approximately
6 × 10–30 C–m. Two water molecules are separated by 0

10–7 m and their dipole moments are in the same direction +q

along their line of separation. Mass of each molecule is about
3 ×10–26 kg. What is initial acceleration of each molecule L
(in 103 m/s2)?
O
RANGE BOUND QUESTIONS
55. A particles of mass m = 0.001 kg and charge q = 2 × 10–6 C L
is attached to a light insulating thread of length L = 0.2 m. Q
The other end of the thread is secured at point O. Exactly
below point O, there is a small ball having a fixed charge Q  [Roundoff up to two decimal places]

Exercise-5 PAST YEAR QUESTIONS PYQ’s

COULOMB FORCE 5. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of

equal lengths. The strings make an angle of 37° with each other.
1. A positive ion A and a negative ion B has charges 6.67 × When suspended in a liquid of density 0.7 g/cm3, the angle
10–19 C and 9.6 × 10–10 C, and masses 19.2 × 10–27 kg and 9 ×
remains same. If density of material of the sphere is 1.4 g/cm3,
10–27 kg respectively. At an instant, the ions are separated by
a certain distance r. At that instant the ratio of the magnitudes the dielectric constant of the liquid is _________.  tan 37  3 
 
of electrostatic force to gravitational force is P × 1044, where  4
the value of P is _______. [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]  [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
1 6. A thin metallic wire having cross sectional area of 10–4 m2
(Take = 9 × 109 Nm2C–1 and universal gravitational
4πε0 is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm. A positive charge of
constant as 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2) 2p C is uniformly distributed over the ring, while another
2. A small uncharged conducting sphere is placed in positive charge of 30 pC is kept at the centre of the ring. The
contact with an identical sphere but having 4 × 10–8 C tension in the ring is ______ N; provided that the ring does
charge and then removed to a distance such that the not get deformed (neglect the influence of gravity).
force of repulsion between them is 9 × 10 –3 N.
1 1
The distance between them is (Take as 9×109 in SI (given = 9×109 SI units) [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
4π ∈0 4π ∈0
units) [24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] 7. Suppose a uniformly charged wall provides a uniform
electric field of 2 × 104 N/C normally. A charged particle
(a) 3 cm (b) 1 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 2 cm of mass 2 g being suspended through a silk thread of length
3. Force between two point charges q1 and q2 placed in vacuum 20 cm and remain stayed at a distance of 10 cm from the
at ‘r’ cm apart is F. Force between them when placed in a 1
medium having dielectric constant = 5 at ‘r/5’ cm apart will wall. Then the charge on the particle will be µC where
x =______. [use g = 10 m/s2] x
be: [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
(a) F/25 (b) 5F (c) F/5 (d) 25F  [1 Feb, 2024 (Shift-II)]
4. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal 8. In hydrogen like system the ratio of coulombian force and
lengths. The strings make an angle q with each other. When
gravitational force between an electron and a proton is of
suspended in water the angle remains the same. If density of
the material of the sphere is 1.5 g/cc, the dielectric constant of the order of: [05 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
water will be ________ [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] (a) 1039 (b) 1019 (c) 1029 (d) 1036

50
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9. Two identical conducting spheres P and S with charge Q on 1 25
(a) =
For β =
and z0 R , the particle reaches the origin
each, repel each other with a force 16N. A third identical 4 7
uncharged conducting sphere R is successively brought in 1 3
(b) =
For β = and z0 R , the particle reaches the origin
contact with the two spheres. The new force of repulsion 4 7
between P and S is: [06 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] 1 R
(c)=For β = and z0 , the particle returns back to z = z0
4 3
(a) 4 N (b) 6 N (c) 1 N (d) 12 N
(d) For b > 1 and z0 > 0, the particle always reaches the origin
10. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance ‘d’ and
placed in a medium of dielectric constant K. What will be 14. Two identical tennis balls each having mass ‘m’ and charge
‘q’ are suspended from a fixed point by threads of length ‘l’.
the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same
What is the equilibrium separation when each thread makes
electrostatic force? [24 Jan, 2023 (Shift-I)]
a small angle ‘θ’ with the vertical?[27 July, 2021 (Shift-I)]
(a) d k (b) k d (c) 1.5 d k (d) 2 d k 1/ 2 1/3
 q2   q2 
11. As shown in the figure. a configuration of two equal point (a) x =   (b) x =  
 2πε0 mg   2πε0 mg 
charges (q0= +2m C) is placed on an inclined plane. Mass 1/3 1/3
of each point charge is 20 g. Assume that there is no friction  q22   q22 
(c) x =   (d) x =  
 2πε0 m g   2πε0 m g 
2 2 2
between charge and plane. For the system of two point
charges to be in equilibrium (at rest) the height h = x × 10–3 m 15. Two identical non-conducting solid spheres of same mass
The value of x is ______ mm.  [11 April, 2023 (Shift-I)] and charge are suspended in air from a common point by
1 two non-conducting, massless strings of same length. At
(Take 9 × 109 N m 2 C −2, g =
= 10 ms −1 ) equilibrium, the angle between the strings is a. The spheres
4πε 0
are now immersed in a dielectric liquid of density 800 kg/
q0 m3 and dielectric constant 21. If the angle between the
strings remains the same after the immersion, then
h  [JEE Adv, 2020]
(a) electric force between the spheres remains unchanged
30º q0
(b) electric force between the spheres reduces
12. Three identical charged balls each of charge 2C are (c) mass density of the spheres is 840 kg m–3
suspended from a common point P by silk threads of 2 m (d) the tension in the strings holding the spheres remains
each (as shown in figure). They form an equilateral triangle unchanged
16. Let a total charge 2Q be distributed in a sphere of
of side 1 m.
radius R, with the charge density given by r(r) = kr, where
The ratio of net force on a charged ball to the force between r is the distance from the centre. Two charges A and B, of – Q
any two charged balls will be [27 June, 2022 (Shift-II)] each, are placed on diametrically opposite points, at equal
p distance, a, from the centre. If A and B do not experience
any force, then [12 April, 2019 (Shift-II)]
3R
2m 2m 2m (a) a = 1/4 (b) a = R / 3
B3 2
(c) a = 8–1/4 R (d) a = 2–1/4 R
1m 1m
B1 1m B2 ELECTRIC FIELD AND FIELD LINES
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 3:2 (d) 3 :1 17. A metallic ring is uniformly charged as shown in figure. AC
and BD are two mutually perpendicular diameters. Electric
13. A disk of radius R with uniform positive charge density σ
field due to arc AB to ‘O’ is ‘E’ is magnitude. What would
is placed on the xy plane with its center at the origin. The
be the magnitude of electric field at ‘O’ due to arc ABC ?
Coulomb potential along the z-axis is

=

V ( z)
σ
2 ∈0 ( R2 + z 2 − z )
A particle of positive charge q is placed initially at rest at
a point on the z axis with z = z0 and z0 > 0. In addition
to the Coulomb force, the particle experiences a vertical
 2c ∈0
force F = −ckˆ with c > 0. Let β = . Which of the
qσ  [04 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
following statements is (are) correct? [JEE Adv, 2022] (a) 2 E (b) 2E (c) E / 2 (d) Zero
Electric Charges and Fields 51
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18. Two infinite identical charged sheets and a charged spherical 22. A point charge +q is placed at the origin. A second point
body of charge density ‘r’ are arranged as shown in figure. charge +9 q is placed at ( d,0,0 ) in Cartesian coordinate
Then the correct relation between the electrical fields at system. The point in between them where the electric field
A, B,C and D points is : 
vanishes is : [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
[04 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
(a) ( 4 d / 3,0,0 ) (b) ( d / 4,0,0 )
(c) ( 3 d / 4,0,0 ) (d) (d/3, 0, 0)
23. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance ‘r’ in air.
At a distance x from charge q, the resultant electric field is
zero. The value of x is: [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]

(a)
(1 + 3 ) (b)
r
       
(a)=E A E= B ;E C ED (b) E A > E B ;E C =
ED r ( )
3 1+ 3
       
(c) E C ≠ E D ;E A > E B (d)=E A E B ;E C > E D r (1 + 3 )
r
(c) (d)
19. Electric charge is transferred to an irregular metallic disk as (
1+ 3 )
shown in figure. If σ1 , σ2 , σ3 and σ4 are charge densities at 24. If the net electric field at point P along Y axis is zero, then
given points then, choose the correct answer from the options q 8
the ratio of 2 is ,
given below: q3 5 x
where x = ………….. [08 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]

A. σ1 > σ3 ; σ2 = σ4 B. σ1 > σ2 ; σ3 > σ4

25. As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is placed at the
C. σ1 > σ3 > σ2 = σ4 D. σ1 < σ3 < σ2 = σ4 centre of conducting spherical
E. σ1 =σ2 =σ3 =σ4  [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] shell of inner radius a and outer
(a) A, B and C Only (b) A and C Only radius b. The electric field due
Q I II III
(c) D and E Only (d) B and C Only to charge Q in three different O a
20. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as regions I, II and III is given by:
b
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r < b)
 [30 Jan, 2023 (Shift-II)]
Assertion (A): The outer body of an air craft is made of metal

(a) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0
which protects persons sitting inside from lightning-strikes.
(b) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0
Reason (R): The electric field inside the cavity enclosed

(c) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
by a conductor is zero. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given (d) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
below: [07 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] 26. In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive charge is
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct shown. P1 and P2 are two points at distance l and 2 l from
explanation of (A) the charge distribution. If σ is the surface charge density,
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct then the magnitude of electric fields E1 and E2 at P1 and P2
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct respectively are [25 June, 2022 (Shift-I)]
explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

21. Consider a circular loop that is uniformly charged and has

a radius a 2 . Find the position along the positive z-axis of
the cartesian coordinate system where the electric field is
maximum if the ring was assumed to be placed in xy-plane (a) E1 = σ/∈0 , E2 = σ/2∈0
at the origin: [02 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] (b) E1 = 2σ/∈0 , E2 = σ/∈0
a a (c) E1 = E2 = σ/2∈0
(a) (b) (c) a (d) 0
2 2 (d) E1 = E2 = σ/∈0

52
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27. Figure shows a rod AB, which is bent in a 120º circular R
arc of radius R. A charge (–Q) is uniformly distributed

over rod AB. What is the electric field E at the centre of 2r Q
curvature O? [27 Aug, 2021 (Shift-II)] r
y
–q O +q p
A r

32. The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large

O 60º 120º
60º X distance (r) from center of dipole on the equatorial plane
R varies with distance as: [15 April, 2023 (Shift-I)]
B 1 1 1
(a) r (b) (c) 3
(d)
r r r2
33. Two electric dipoles of dipole moments 1.2 × 10–30 and
3 3Q 3 3Q ˆ
(a) (−iˆ) (b) (i ) 2.4 × 10–3 cm are placed in two different uniform electric
8π2 ε0 R 2 8π2 ε0 R 2
fields of strengths 5 × 10 4 NC –1 and 15 × 10 4 NC –1
3 3Q ˆ 3 3Q ˆ respectively. The ratio of maximum torque experienced by
(c) (i ) (d) (i )
8πε0 R 2 16π2 ε0 R 2 1
the electric dipoles will be . The value of x is _________.
28. Charges Q1 and Q2 are at points A and B of a right angle x
triangle OAB (see figure). The resultant electric field at  [28 July, 2022 (Shift-I)]
point O is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then Q1/Q2 is 34. Two ideal electric dipoles A and B, having their dipole
proportional to [6 Sep, 2020 (Shift-I)] moment p1 and p2 respectively are placed on a plane with
A their centres at O as shown in the figure. At point C on the
Q1
axis of dipole A, the resultant electric field is making an
angle of 37° with the axis.
x1 p1
The ratio of the dipole moment of A and B, is:
p2
Q2
O x2 3
B (take sin 37 = )  [25 July, 2021 (Shift-II)]
5
x13 x22 x1
(a) (b) (c) (d) x2 –B
x23 x12 x2 x1
29. Four point charges –q, +q, +q and –q are placed on y-axis A– C
O +
at y = –2d, y = –d, y = +d and y = +2d, respectively.
The magnitude of the electric field E at a point on the x-axis at
+
x = D, with D >> d, will vary as [9 April, 2019 (Shift-II)]
3 4 2
1 1 1 1 (a) (b) 3 (c) (d)
(a) E ∝ (b) E ∝ (c) E ∝ 2 (d) E ∝ 8 2 3 3
3
D D D D4 
35. An electric dipole of moment p = (−iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ) ×10–29 C.m.
ELECTRIC DIPOLE is at the origin (0, 0, 0). The electric field due to this dipole
  
30. Two charges of –4mC and +4mC are placed at the points at r = (+iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ) (note that r . p = 0 ) is parallel to
A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2, –1, 5)m located in an electric field  [9 Jan, 2020 (Shift-I)]

E = 0.20iˆ V / cm. The magnitude of the torque acting on the
−5
(a) ( +iˆ + 3 ˆj − 2kˆ ) (b) ( −iˆ + 3 ˆj − 2kˆ )
dipole is 8 α × 10 Nm , where a = ______.
 [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
(c) ( +iˆ − 3 ˆj − 2kˆ ) (d) ( −iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ )
31. The electric field at point p due to an electric dipole is E. 36. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three
The electric field at point R on equatorial line will be E/x. charges, placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle, as
The value of x: [05 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] shown in the figure [12 Jan, 2019 (Shift-I)]
Electric Charges and Fields 53
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40. An electron is moving under the influence of the electric
–2q field of a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet S having
surface charge density +s. The electron at t = 0 is at a
y l
distance of 1 m from S and has a speed of 1 m/s. The
l
maximum value of s if the electron strikes S at t = l s is
 m ∈0  C
+q α  2 the value of a is [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
+q
x
 e m
l
41. A point charge of 2 × 10–2C is moved from P to S in a
ˆj − iˆ iˆ + ˆj
(a) 3ql (b) ( ql ) uniform electric field of 30 N/C directed along positive
2 2 x-axis. If coordinates of P and S are (1, 2, 0) m and
(c) 2qljˆ (d) − 3qljˆ (0, 0, 0)m respectively, the work done by electric field
will be [29 Jan, 2023 (Shift-II)]
MOTION OF CHARGED PARTICLE IN (a) 1200 mJ (b) 600 mJ (c) –600 mJ (d) –1200 mJ

UNIFORM ELECTRIC FIELD 42. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire
having uniform linear change density 2 × 10–8 cm–1 in
37. An electron is made to enter symmetrically between two circular path under the influence of attractive electrostatic
parallel and equally but oppositely charged metal plates, field as shown in the figure. The velocity of electron with
each of 10 cm length. The electron emerges out of the electric which it is revolving is ______ × 106 ms–1. Given mass of
field region with a horizontal component of velocity 106 m/s. electron = 9 × 10–31 kg. [10 April, 2023 (Shift-II)]
If the magnitude of the electric field between the plates is –
9.1 V/cm, then the vertical component of velocity of electron +
is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and charge of electron +
= 1.6 × 10–19 C) [22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] + e–
(a) 16 × 106 m/s (b) 0 +
+
(c) 16 × 104 m/s (d) 1 × 106 m/s
+
38. A particle of mass ‘m‘ and charge ‘q’ is fastened to one end +
‘A’ of a massless string having equilibrium length ‘l’, whose
other end is fixed at point ‘O’. The whole system is placed 43. A uniform electric field E = (8m/e) V/m is created between
on a frictionless horizontal plane and is initially at rest. If two parallel plates of length 1 m as shown in figure, (where
uniform electric field is switched on along the direction as m = mass of electron and e = charge of electron). An electron
shown in figure, then the speed of the particle when it crosses enters the field symmetrically between the plates with a
the x -axis is [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] speed of 2 m/s. The angle of the deviation (q) of the path of
the electron as it comes out of the field will be ______.
A
y  [28 July, 2022 (Shift-II)]
1 1m
E

60°
x O

qEl qEl 2m/s E

(a) 2qEl (b) qEl (c) (d)
m m 4m 2m
(a) tan–1(4) (b) tan–1(2)
39. A particle of charge ‘– q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a circle
of radius ‘r’ around an infinitely long line charge of linear −1  1 
(c) tan   (d) tan–1(3)
density ‘+l’. Then time period will be given as: (Consider 3
k as Coulomb’s constant)  [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] 44. A body having specific charge 8mC/g is resting on a
frictionless plane at a distance 10cm from the wall
4m 3 m
(a) T 2  r (b) T  2r (as shown in the figure). It starts moving towards the
2k q 2k q
wall when a uniform electric field of 100 V/m is applied

(d) T  1 2k q
horizontally towards the wall. If the collision of the body
(c) T  1 m
2r 2k q 2 m with the wall is perfectly elastic, then the time period of the
motion will be __________s. [20 July, 2021 (Shift-I)]

54
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GAUSS LAW AND ITS APPLICATIONS,

ELECTRIC FLUX
100V/m 47. An infinitely long wire has uniform linear charge density
λ =2nC/m. The net flux through a Gaussian cube of side
Body
length 3 cm , if the wire passes through any two corners of

ˆ −1 is applied in
45. A uniform electric field, E = −40 3 yNC the cube, that are maximally displaced from each other,
a region. A charged particle of mass m carrying positive would be xNm 2C−1, where x is:
charge q is projected in this region with an initial speed 1
[Neglect any edge effects and use = 9 × 109 SI units]
of 2 10 × 106 ms −1. This particle is aimed to hit a target 4πε 0
 [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
T, which is 5 m away from its entry point into the field as
q (a) 0.72π (b) 1.44π (c) 6.48π (d) 2.16π
shown schematically in the figure. Take = 1010 Ckg −1 . 48. T h e e l e c t r i c f i e l d i n a r e g i o n i s g i v e n b y
m 
Then [JEE Adv, 2020] ( )
E = 2iˆ + 4ˆj + 6kˆ × 103 N / C . The flux of the field through
a rectangular surface parallel to x – z plane is 6.0 Nm2C–1.

E The area of the surface is ______ cm2.
 [07 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
u 49. Consider two infinitely large plane parallel conducting plates
as shown below. The plates are uniformly charged with a
 T
surface charge density +σ and −2σ. The force experienced
5m by a point charge +q placed at the mid point between two
plates will be:  [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
(a) The particle will hit T if projected at an angle 45º from
the horizontal
(b) The particle will hit T if projected either at an angle 30º
or 60º from the horizontal
5
(c) Time taken by the particle to hit T could be ms as (a)
σq
(b)
3σq
(c)
3σq
(d)
σq
6 4 ∈0 2 ∈0 4 ∈0 2 ∈0
well as 5 ms
3 50. A small bob of mass 100 mg and
5 charge +10µC is connected to an
(d) Time taken by the particle to hit T is ms insulating string of length 1 m. It
2
is brought near to an infinitely
46. Two large circular discs separated by a distance of 0.01 m are long non-conducting sheet of
connected to a battery via a switch as shown in the figure. charge density ‘ σ ’ as shown
Charged oil drops of density 900 kg m–3 are released through in figure. If string subtends an
a tiny hole at the center of the top disc. Once some oil drops angle of 45° with the sheet at
achieve terminal velocity, the switch is closed to apply a equilibrium the charge density of
voltage of 200 V across the discs. As a result, an oil drop of sheet will be:
radius 8×10–7 m stops moving vertically and floats between F
(Given, ε= 8.85 × 10−12 and acceleration due to gravity,
the discs. The number of electrons present in this oil drop is 0
m
________. (Neglect the buoyancy force, take acceleration g = 10 m / s )
2
[02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
due to gravity =10 ms–2 and charge on an electron (a) 0.885nC / m 2 (b) 17.7nC / m 2
(e = 1.6 × 10–19 C) [JEE Adv, 2020] (c) 885nC / m 2 (d) 1.77nC / m 2
'a '
51. A line charge of length is kept at the center of an edge
2 F E
BC of a cube ABCDEFGH having
edge length 'a' as shown in the figure. A D

Switch If the density of line charge is λ C per

0.01m
unit length, then the total electric flux G H
200 V through all the faces of the cube will
be ______. (Take, ∈ 0 as the free B C
space permittivity).
 [22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
Electric Charges and Fields 55
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λa λa λa λa 56. An electric field is given by (6 iˆ + 5 ĵ + 3 k̂ )N/C. The

(a) (b) (c) (d)
16∈0 2∈0 4∈0 8∈0
electric flux through a surface area 30 iˆ m2 lying in YZ-plane
52. A square loop of sides a = 1 m is held normally in front of (in SI unit) is: [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
a point charge q = 1C. The flux of the electric field through (a) 90 (b) 150 (c) 180 (d) 60
2
the shaded region is 5 × 1 Nm , where the value of p is 57. Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the points
_____. p ε 0 C [24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
(3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The electric flux through
a a sphere of radius ‘4a’ having center at origin is:
 [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
a
2 q 2Q 5Q 7Q 3Q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ε0 ε0 ε0 ε0
58. An infinitely long positively charged straight thread has a
linear charge density l Cm–1. An electron revolves along a
53. Match List-I with List-II. [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] circular path having axis along the length of the wire. The
graph that correctly represents the variation of the kinetic
List-I List-II
energy of electron as a function of radius of circular path
A. Electric field inside (distance r > 0 from I. σ from the wire is: [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
center) of a uniformly charged spherical ∈0 KE KE
shell with surface charge density s, and
radius R. (a) (b)
B. Electric field at distance r > 0 from a II. σ
uniformly charged infinite plane sheet 2 ∈0
O r O r
with surface charge density s. KE KE
C. Electric field outside (distance r > 0 from III. 0 (c) (d)
center) of a uniformly charged spherical
shell with surface charge density s, and
O r O r
radius R.
59. An infinite plane sheet of charge having uniform surface
D. Electric field between 2 oppositely IV. σ charge density +ss C/m2 is placed on x-y plane. Another
charged infinite plane parallel sheets
∈0 r 2 infinitely long line charge having uniform linear charge
with uniform surface charge density s.
density +le C/m is placed at z = 4m plane and parallel to
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: y-axis. If the magnitude values |  ss | = 2 | le | then at point
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (0, 0, 2), the ratio of magnitudes of electric field values due
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
to sheet charge to that of line charge is p n : 1.
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) The value of n is________. [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
54. A point charge causes an electric flux of –2 × 104 Nm2 C–1 to 60. A charge q is placed at the center of one of the surface of a
pass through a spherical Gaussian surface of 8.0 cm radius, cube. The flux linked with the cube is:
centred on the charge. The value of the point charge is:
 [04 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
(Given ∈0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2) 29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
q q q
(a) 17.7 × 10–8 C (b)–15.7 × 10–8 C (a) (b) (c) (d) Zero
4ε0 2ε0 8ε0
(c) –17.7 × 10–8 (d)15.7 × 10–8
C C
55. C1 and C2 are two hollow concentric cubes enclosing charges 61. s is the uniform surface charge density of a thin spherical
2Q and 3Q respectively as shown in figure. The ratio of shell of radius R. The electric field at any point on the surface
electric flux passing through C1 and C2 is: of the spherical shell is: [06 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
 [1 Feb, 2024 (Shift-II)] (a) s/e0R (b) s/2e0 (c) s/e0 (d) s/4e0
 2iˆ + 6 ˆj + 8kˆ
62. An electric field, E = passes through the
6
 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ 
surface of 4 m2 area having unit vector nˆ =  .
3Q 2Q  6 
The electric flux for that surface is _________ V m.
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 5 : 2' (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2  [08 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]

56 JEE (XII) Module-1 | PHYSICS

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63. Five charges +q, +5q, –2q, +3q and –4q are situated as shown 
68. An electric field E = 4 xiˆ − ( y 2 + 1) ˆj N/C passes through
in the figure. The electric flux due to this configuration the box shown in figure. The flux of the electric field
through the surface S is: [09 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] through surface ABCD and BCGF and marked as fI and fII
respectively. The difference between (fI – fII) is (in Nm2/C)
 [9 Jan, 2020 (Shift-II)]
+5q
–4q q +3q Z
S
–2q
A(0,0,2) B(3,0,2)
5q 4q 3q q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
e0 e0 e0 e0 D(0,2,2)
C(3,2,2)
 E
64. An electric field E = 2 xiˆNC−1 exists in space. A cube of (0,0,0)
X
H(0,2,0) F(3,0,0)
side 2 m is placed in the space as per figure given below. G(3,2,0)
The electric flux through the cube is ……………… Nm2/C.
 [09 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] Y
Y 69. A circular disc of radius R carries surface charge density
 r
σ0 1 −  , where s 0 is a constant and r is the
σ( r ) =
2m  R
0 X distance from the center of the disc. Electric flux through
Z 2m a large spherical surface that encloses the charged disc
 V completely is f0. Electric flux through another spherical
65. Expression for an electric field is given by E = 4000 x 2 iˆ . R
m surface of radius and concentric with the disc is f. Then
The electric flux through the cube of side 20 cm when placed 4
φ0
in electric field (as shown in the figure) is _________ V cm. the ratio is ..... [JEE Adv, 2020]
 [31 Jan, 2023 (Shift-I)] φ
y 70. A charged shell of radius R carries a total charge Q. Given
f as the flux of electric field through a closed cylindrical
surface of height h, radius r and with its center same as that
of the shell. Here, center of the cylinder is a point on the axis
of the cylinder which is equidistant from its top and bottom
20 cm
surfaces. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?
(0,0,0) [e0 is the permittivity of free space] [JEE Adv, 2019]
x
Q
cm (a) If h > 2R and r > R then φ =
20 ε0
3R
then φ = 0
20 cm
z (b) If h < 8 R and r =
5 5
66. A charge q is surrounded by a closed surface consisting
of an inverted cone of height h and base radius R, (c) If h > 2R and r = 4 R then φ = Q
and a hemisphere of radius R as shown in the figure. 5 5 ε0
nq
then φ =
The electric flux through the conical surface is 3R Q
6 ∈0 (d) If h > 2R and r =
5 5 ε0
(in SI units). The value of n is _______. [JEE Adv, 2022]
67. The electric field in a region is given by ELECTRIC DIPOLE, FORCE & TORQUE
 3 4 N
ON DIPOLE
=
E  E0 iˆ + E0 ˆj  . The ratio of flux of reported field 71. Two small spherical balls of mass 10 g each with charges
5 5 c
−2µC and 2µC , are attached to two ends of very light rigid
through the rectangular surface of area 0.2 m2 (parallel to rod of length 20 cm . The arrangement is now placed near
y – z plane) to that of the surface of area 0.3 m2 (parallel an infinite nonconducting charge sheet with uniform charge
to x – z plane) is a:b, where a = __________ (round off to density of 100µC / m 2 such that length of rod makes an angle
nearest integer) [Here iˆ, ˆj and kˆ are unit vectors along x, y of 30 with electric field generated by charge sheet. Net
and z-axes respectively] [25 Feb, 2021 (Shift-I)] torque acting on the rod is:

Electric Charges and Fields 57

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(Take ε0 : 8.85 × 10−12 C2 / Nm 2 ) [04 April, 2025 (Shift-I)] charge q separated by a distance 2a. For the charge particle
at P not to experience any net force, which of the following
(a) 112 Nm (b) 1.12 Nm (c) 2.24 Nm (d) 11.2 Nm correctly describes the situation?  [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
72. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion
P +q –q
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Dipole1
Assertion (A): Net dipole moment of a polar linear isotropic r
dielectric substance is not zero even in the absence of an r
external electric field.
2a
Reason (R): In absence of an external electric field, the +q –q
different permanent dipoles of a polar dielectric substance Dipole2
are oriented in random directions. 2a
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
a a
appropriate answer from the options given below: (a) a ~ 3 (b) ~ 20 (c) a ~ 0.5 (d) ~ 10
r r r r
 [02 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
(a) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 76. Two point charges –4 mC and 4 mC, constituting an electric
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct dipole, are placed at (–9, 0, 0) cm and (9, 0, 0) cm in a
explanation of (A) uniform electric field of strength 104 NC–1. The work done
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct on the dipole in rotating it from the equilibrium through 180°
explanation of (A) is: [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (a) 16.4 mJ (b) 12.4 mJ (c) 18.4 mJ (d) 14.4 mJ
73. A dipole with two electric charges of 2mC magnitude each, 77. An electric dipole of dipole moment 6 × 10–6 Cm is placed
with separation distance 0.5 mm, is placed between the plates in uniform electric field of magnitude. 106 V/m Initially,
of a capacitor such that its axis is parallel to an electric field the dipole moment is parallel to electric field. The work
established between the plates when a potential difference of that needs to be done on the dipole to make its dipole
5 V is applied. Separation between the plates is 0.5 mm. If moment opposite to the field, will be___________ J.
the dipole is rotated by 30o from the axis, it tends to realign  [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
in the direction due to a torque. The value of torque is: 78. An electric dipole of mass m, charge q, and length l is placed

 [07 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] in a uniform electric field E = E0iˆ . When the dipole is rotated
slightly from its equilibrium position and released, the time
(a) 5 × 10−9 Nm (b) 5 × 10−3 Nm
period of its oscillations will be: [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
(b) 2.5 × 10−12 Nm (d) 2.5 × 10−9 Nm
1 2ml ml
74. For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is (a) (b) 2π
2π qE0 qE0
along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the electric potential
and electric field at A are V0 and E0, respectively, then the ml 1 ml
(c) 2π (d)
correct combination of the electric potential and electric 2qE0 2π 2qE0
field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by:
79. An electric dipole is placed at a distance of 2 cm from an
 [22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] infinite plane sheet having positive charge density so. Choose
y
B the correct option from the following.
 [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
2r
+
P x +
O r A
+ –q +q
+
E0 +
(a) zero and (b) V0 and E0
16 2 16
E0 (a) Potential energy and torque both are maximum.
(c) zero and (d) V0 and E0
8 4 (b) Torque on dipole is zero and net force acts towards the
75. A point particle of charge Q is located at P along the axis of sheet.
an electric dipole 1 at a distance r as shown in the figure. The (c) Potential energy of dipole is minimum and torque is zero.
point P is also on the equatorial plane of a second electric (d) Torque on dipole is zero and net force is directed away
dipole 2 at a distance r. The dipoles are made of opposite from the sheet.

58
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Exercise-6 PW CHALLENGERS

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS l

A B
1. Charge q is uniformly distributed over the circumference of
a ring of radius R. The electric field at a distance r from the l l
center of ring and in the plane of ring is (r << R) [Hint: You
may use Gauss's law] D C
q l
(a) q ( 2 –1) (b) 2q
r P
q
R (c) (d) 2q
2
qr 3qr qr 3qr 5. Three point particles A, B and C, each of mass m and charge
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d)
4πε0 R 4πε 0 R 3
8πε0 R 3
8πε0 R 3 q are connected by three strings of length l. Three charges
are placed on a smooth horizontal surface (see figure). If the
2. An infinitely large layer of charge of uniform thickness t is
string connecting B and C is cut, find the initial acceleration
placed normal to an existing uniform electric field. Presence
of particle A.
of this charge layer so alters the electric field that it remains
uniform on both the sides and assumes values E1 and E2 as m.q
shown in the figure. Charge distribution in the layer is not
A
uniform and depends only on distance from its faces. Find
l
expression for the force per unit area experienced by the l
charge layer.
t B C
m.q l m.q
E1 E2

3 kq 2 2 kq 2
(a) (b)
5ml 2 2ml 2
ε0 1
( E1 − E2 ) ε0 ( E1 − E2 )
2 2
(a) (b) kq 2
2 4 2 kq 2
(c) (d)
ε0 2 5ml 2 2 l2
(c)
4
( E2 − E12 ) (d)
1
2
ε 0 ( E22 − E12 )

3. Two particles of charges and masses (q, 3m) and (–2q, m) MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE
are released at different locations in a uniform field E in free QUESTIONS
space as shown figure. If in subsequent motion separation
between them does not change, find separation between them. 6. A charged shell of radius R carries a total charge Q. Given
Φ as the flux of electric field through a closed cylindrical
E surface of height h, radius r and with its center same as
that of the shell. Here, center of the cylinder is a point on
(q, 3m) l (–2q, m) the axis of the cylinder which is equidistant from its top
and bottom surfaces. Which of the following option(s) is/
2q 2q 2q 2q are correct? [∈0 is the permittivity of free space]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7πε 0 E 9πε0 E 11πε 0 E 13πε 0 E (a) If h > 2R and r > R then Φ = Q / ∈0
4. Four small balls are connected by four identical conducting 8R 3R Q
(b) If h < and r = then Φ =
rods to form a square frame. The frame is electrically neutral. 5 5 4∈o
When it is placed in uniform electric field of intensity E R Q
pointing parallel to AB charge induced on ball B and ball (c) If h > 2R and r = then Φ =
2 2∈o
C each is q. Now the frame is rotated to make electric field
pointing from A to C. The charge induced on ball C now will 3R Q
(d) If h > 2R and r = then Φ =
be 2 2∈0

Electric Charges and Fields 59

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 (Note that for three coplanar forces keeping a point mass in
7. A uniform electric field, E = −200 yˆ NC–1 is applied in
a region. A charged particle of mass m carrying positive F
equilibrium, is the same for all forces, where F is any
charge q is projected in this region with an initial speed of sinθ
20 × 106 ms−1. This particle is aimed to hit a target T, one of the forces and q is the angle between the other two
which is 9.6 m away from its entry point into the field as forces)
q
shown schematically in the figure. Take = 1010 Ckg−1. a
Then m l

 l α
2l sin q
E 2
h
u
Q
q T
9. A circular disc of radius R carries surface charge density
9.6m  r
v σ0 1 −  , where s0 is a constant and r is the
σ( r ) =
 R 
(a) the particle will hit T if projected at an angle 37° or 53° distance from the center of the disc. Electric flux through
from the horizontal a large spherical surface that encloses the charged disc
(b) the particle will hit T if projected either at an angle of completely is f0. Electric flux through another spherical
30o or 60o from the horizontal R
5 surface of radius and concentric with the disc is f. Then
(c) time taken by the particle to hit T could be µs as φ0 2
6 the ratio is_________.
well as
5
µs φ
2
4
µs
(d) time taken by the particle to hit T could be 3
5 NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
4
as well as 4 µs Answer should be upto two decimal places.
5
10. When two identical particles A and B each having charge
INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS q are released in free space with initial separation r 0
between them, their separation becomes double in time t0.
8. A point charge q of mass m is suspended vertically by a How long will it take to double the separation, if charge
string of length l. A point charge Q is now brought towards of particle A is made aq, that of particle B is made bq and
from infinity so that the charge moves away. The final they are released with initial separation ηr0?
equilibrium position of the system, the angles and distances
is shown in the figure below. If the work done in bringing A B
the point charge Q to this position is N × (mgh), where g is
the acceleration due to gravity, then the value of N is ____. r0

To Discover more

60
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ANSWER KEY
RIDDLES
1. Electric Charge 2. Coulomb's Law 3. Electric Field 4. Electric Field Lines

CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b, c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a, c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. [16] 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a)

EXERCISE-1 PRARAMBH (TOPICWISE)

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (c)

EXERCISE-2 PRABAL (JEE MAIN LEVEL)

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a, b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. [9]
31. [3] 32. [72] 33. [9] 34. [8] 35. [2] 36. [148] 37. [9] 38. [208]

EXERCISE-3 SETU (BRIDGE)

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b,c,d) 14. (a,b,c,d) 15. (a,b,c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. [3] 23. [2] 24. [4] 25. [1] 26. [1] 27. [4] 28. [8] 29. [10] 30. [10]
31. [40] 32. [125] 33. [450.00] 34. [0.90] 35. [17.67] 36. [0.06] 37. [1.20] 38. [4.48] 39. [0.35]
40. [155.88]

EXERCISE-4 PARIKSHIT (JEE ADVANCED LEVEL)

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b,d) 16. (a,d) 17. (a,b,c,d) 18. (b,c) 19. (a,b,c) 20. (a, c)
21. (a,b,c,d) 22. (a,b,d) 23. (b,c) 24. (a,b,c) 25. (a,c) 26. (c,d) 27. (b,c) 28. (a,c) 29. (a,c) 30. (a,c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. [0.33]
41. [208.33] 42. [4.25] 43. [0.50] 44. [9.30] 45. [2.08] 46. [0.65] 47. [100] 48. [24] 49. [5] 50. [7]
51. [10] 52. [4] 53. [3] 54. [648] 55. [1.71 to 1.88]

Electric Charges and Fields 61

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EXERCISE-5 PYQ’s (PAST YEAR QUESTIONS)
1. (5) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. [3] 5. [2] 6. [3] 7. [3] 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. [300] 12. (d) 13. (a,c,d) 14. (b) 15. (a,c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. [5] 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. [2]
31. [16] 32. (c) 33. [6] 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. [8]
41. (c) 42. [8] 43. (b) 44. [1] 45. (b, c) 46. [6] 47. (d) 48. [15] 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. [48] 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (16) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. [12] 63. (b) 64. (16) 65. [640] 66. [3] 67. [1] 68. [–48] 69. [6.40] 70. (a, b,d)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. [12] 78. (c) 79. (c)

EXERCISE-6 (PW CHALLENGERS)

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a,d) 7. (a,d) 8. [3] 9. [2] 10. [12.21]

While practicing selected PYQs, it is wise to also use a compiled

source of previous year papers. A structured PYQs book helps you
track exam trends, identify repeated concepts, and improve time
management. For deeper practice, the PW PYQs Book – PW 8 Years
JEE Main & PW 49 Years JEE Advanced offers detailed solutions,
complete coverage, and even the Latest JEE 2026 PYQs not included
in this section, ensuring your preparation stays
fully updated.

Chapter Complete? Take The Test!

Scan QR To Challenge Yourself Now
Note: You can make your own part test by
combining test from different subjects

MOD2026 - FLAT 100 RUPEE EXTRA OFF

 AI
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45 olar Mass 51% CHAPTER

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YEARS
PAPER
143
SETS
124
INTRODUCTION SETS
RIDDLES OF

SOLUTIONS
Aarav and Maya, two friends and ambitious JEE aspirants THE REALM OF
with a knack for cooking, were hiking up a mountain.
Aarav: "Maya, remember that time I tried to boil water SOLUTIONS!
for noodles on top of that mountain hike? Took forever!" 1. I tell the vapor how to behave,
Maya: "Ah, the high-altitude chef! I bet your noodles Lowering pressure is what I crave.
were al dente... eventually. But what if you'd added a
pinch of salt to that water?" Proportional to mole fraction, you
Aarav: "Salt? Why would that help? I was already see,
starving!" Which law guides you and me?
Maya: "Because, Aarav, you'd be messing with its colligative 2. I pass through a membrane thin,
properties! Adding a solute like salt actually raises the
Solvent moves from dilute to
boiling point. So, paradoxically, at high altitudes where
concentrated in.
water boils at a lower temperature, adding salt would make
it boil hotter – and cook your noodles faster!" Pressure builds, I resist the flow,
Aarav: "Mind blown! So, a little salt can defy mountain Which phenomenon do I show?
physics? That's liquid magic!" 3. I’m measured above a liquid’s
Maya: "It's all about how solutes affect the solvent's
face,
properties – like vapor pressure, boiling point, freezing
point, and osmotic pressure. Think of how antifreeze Lowered by solutes in my space.
works in cars, or why roads are salted in winter." I follow Raoult and ideal ways,
Aarav: "So, these 'colligative properties' aren't just fancy Who am I in solutions’ maze?
words, they're everywhere! It's like the secret language
4. I count the particles, dissociated or
of solutions."
not,
Maya: "Exactly! And understanding that language is
key to everything from designing better medicines to I tell the effective change, the
purifying water." whole lot.
Aarav: "Well, if you're so good at decoding solutions, i multiplies ΔT effects in play,
let's see how you do with these riddles!" Guess my symbol, without delay.
Aarav: "So, Maya, solutions aren't just mixtures; they're
molecular playgrounds with their own rules!" 5. I care not for nature, size, or form,
Maya: "And mastering those rules, Aarav, is what JEE is Only the number of particles is my
all about!" norm.

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Depression, elevation, osmotic measure, CONCENTRATION TERMS
Which property group do I treasure?
Before proceeding further, it is worth reviewing the units in which
By the end of this chapter, you will not only solve the mysteries
of Aarav's mountain dilemma but also gain the conceptual clarity the concentration of the solution may be expressed.
and problem-solving skills necessary to excel in JEE and beyond. Concentration Terms
Let's unlock the secrets of solutions!
™ % Concentration
SOLUTIONS weight of solute (g)
A solution may be defined as a homogeneous mixture of a single (i) % w/w = × 100
weight of solution (g)
phase containing two or more of the chemical species dispersed
on a molecular scale. The characteristics of any one section of Example: 10% w/w urea solution = 10 gm of urea is present
the homogeneous solution will be completely identical to those in 100 gm of solution.
of any other section of the solution. Depending upon the number (ii) % wt/vol. (w/v)
of total constituents present in the solution, it is called binary % w/v = wt. of solute/100 mL of solution
solution (two constituents), ternary solution (three constituents),
weight of solute (g)
quaternary solution (four constituents) and so on. % w/v = × 100
volume of solution (mL)
(i) Solvent: The liquid or medium of dissolution which allows
the solute to dissolve in it so as to form a solution is called Example: 10% (w/v) urea solution. = 10 gm of urea is present
a solvent. in 100 mL of solution.
(ii) Solute: The substance which dissolves or disappears in the volume of solute
solvent to form a solution is called solute. (iii) % v/v = × 100
volume of solution
Solute + Solvent = Solution.
(iii) The component which has the same physical state in pure Example: 10% v/v ethanol aqueous solution → 10 mL of
form as the solution is called solvent and the other is called ethanol in 100 mL of solution.
solute. Example, in case of solution of sugar and water, = 10 mL of ethanol in 90 mL of H2O
sugar is the solute and water is solvent. ™ Strength of solution in g/L
(iv) If both the components have same state as the solution, the Weight of solute (in gram) per litre (1000 mL) of solution.
one component which is in excess is called solvent and the
Example: 10% (w/v) sucrose solution, then specify its
other is called solute. Example, alcohol in water, benzene
in toluene etc. concen­tration in g/L
100 mL _____ 10 g
Types of Solution
10
\ 1000 mL _____ × 1000 = 100 g/L
[Link]. Solvent Solute Examples 100
1. Gas Gas Mixture of gases, air. ™ Molarity (M) = No. of moles of solute per litre of solution.

2. Gas Liquid Water vapour in air, mist.

n w 1000
Molarity = =   ×
V (in L)  M  V (in mL)
Sublimation of a solid into a gas,
3. Gas Solid No. of moles of solute = molarity × volume ( in L)
smoke storms.
No. of milli moles of solute = molarity × volume (in mL)
CO2 gas dissolve in water (aerated
4. Liquid Gas ™ Molality (m) = No. of moles of solute per kg (1000 g) of solvent.
drink), soda water.
Let w gram of solute and Molar mass = M (g/mole) is
Mixture of miscible liquids e.g. dissolved in ‘W’ gram of solvent.
5. Liquid Liquid
alcohol in water. w 1000 moles × 1000
Molality =   × or molality =
6. Liquid Solid Salt in water, sugar in water. M W(g) W(g)of solvent

Adsorption of gases over metals, ™Normality (N) = No. of equivalents per litre of solution
7. Solid Gas [Link] equivalents of solute
hydrogen over palladium. =
volume of solution (in L)
Mercury in zinc, mercury in gold  No. of equivalents = normality × volume (in L)
8. Solid Liquid
i.e. all amalgams. (Normality = n-factor × molarity)
Homogeneous mixture of two Molar mass
 Equivalent mass =
9. Solid Solid or more metals (i.e. alloys) e.g. n − factor
Mass of the species
copper In gold. zinc In copper.  No. of equivalents of a species =
equivalent mass

2 JEE (XII) Module-1 | CHEMISTRY

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™ Formality (F): nA nB
 It may be defined as the number of gram formula masses XA = , XB =
nA + nB nA + nB
of the ionic solutes dissolved per litre of the solution.
Mathematically If molality of solution be m then:
nA nA
Formality (F) =
Mass of the ionic solute (in gram) = m × 1000 = × 1000
Formula mass of the solute × Volume of solution(L) mass of solvent nB × MB
 Commonly, the term formality is used to express the
where MB is the molecular wt. of the solvent B.
concentration of the ionic solids which do not exist as
X A 1000 mole fraction of A 1000
molecule but as network of ions. =
m × ⇒m= ×
XB MB mole fraction of B M B
™ Mole Fraction
For binary mixture mole fraction of solute 1000
= m mole fraction of solvent × molecular wt. of solvent
moles of solute n
Xsolute = =
total moles in solution n+N 3. Mole fraction of solute into molarity of solution
moles of solvent N X 2 d ×1000
XSolvent = = M=
Total moles in solution n+N X1 M1 + M 2 X 2
Xsolute + XSolvent = 1 Mole fraction of solvent and solute are X and X so X + X = 1
1 2 1 2
[Here n ⇒ moles of solute and N ⇒ moles of solvent] Suppose total mole of solution is = 1 then mole of solute and
™ ppm (Parts Per Million) solute and solvent are X2 & X1 respectively
[Link] solute (in g) weight of solute = X2M2, weight of solvent = X1M1
(a) ppm (w/w) = × 106
[Link] solution (in g) & total wt of solution = X1M1 + X2M2
[Link] solute (in g) X1M1 + X 2 M 2 X M + X2M2
(b) ppm (w/v) = × 106 volume of solution = ml = 1 1 L
vol. of solution (in mL) d d × 1000
moles of solute X 2 × d × 1000
(c) ppm (moles/moles) = × 106 molarity (M) =
moles of solution
X1M1 + X 2 M 2
Key Note MM1
4. Molarity into mole fraction X2 =
1000ρ − MM 2 + MM1
In general p.p.m is used for very dilute solutions. Molarity = M moles solute in 1000 ml of solution
™ In very dilute solution, mass of solution will be So, moles of solute = M & mass of solution = d × 1000
approximately taken as equal to mass of solvent. wt. of solute = MM2 & wt. of solvent = 1000d – MM2
™ Sum of mole fractions of all components is always one. Where M2 is molar mass of solute
W 1000ρ − MM 2
™ Mole fraction, ppm, molality, % 
⸫ moles of solvent = moles.
 are always M1
W
independent of the temperature. Hence, mole fraction of solute
™ Normality, molarity, % 
V,  W  of a solution M
  %  (X2) =
 
V V  1000ρ − MM 2 
changes with change in temperature. M+ 
 M1 
MM1
X2 =
INTERCONVERSION OF 1000ρ − MM 2 + MM1
CONCENTRATION TERMS 5. Molality into mole fraction X2 =
mM1
1000 + mM1
1. Molarity and % solute by mass: Let d = density of solution
Molality = moles of solute in 1000 gm of solvent = m
in g/mL and let it contains x% (w/w) solute by mass. M =
1000
x × d ×10 moles of solvent = where M1 is molar mass of solvent
M1
mA
m mM1
mole fraction X2 = =
1000
+m 1000 + mM1
™ Specific gravity has no units and its numerical value M1
equals density in g/mL.
md ×1000
6. Molality into molarity M =
2. Molality and mole fraction: Consider a binary solution 1000 + mM 2
consisting of two components A (Solute) and B (Solvent). Molality = m moles of solute in 1000 gm of solvent
Let XA & XB are the mole fraction of A & B respectively. mole of solute = m & weight of solute = mM2

Solutions 3
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Weight of solution = 1000 + mM2 Ex-2 Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5 g
1000 + mM 2
volume of solution = mL = 1000 + mM 2 L of NaOH in 450 mL solution. (NCERT)
d d × 1000 5g
m × d × 1000 Sol. Moles of NaOH = = 0.125 mol
molarity = 40g mol−1
1000 + mM 2
Volume of the solution in litres = 450 mL / 1000 mL L–1
M ×1000
7. Molarity into Molality m = 0.125 mol × 1000 mL L–1
1000d - MM 2 Molarity = = 0.278 M
450 mL
M1 and M2 are molar masses of solvent and solute.
Molarity = M mole of solute in 1000 ml of solution = 0.278 mol L–1 = 0.278 mol dm–3
moles of solute = M & weight of solute = MM2 Ex-3 Calculate molality of 1.2 M H2SO4 solution. If its
weight of solution = 1000d density (ρ) = 1.4 g/mL?
mass of solvent = 1000d – MM2 (a) 0.936 (b) 0.562
M × 1000 (c) 0.386 (d) 0.425
molality =
1000d − MM 2
1.2 × 1000
1 M  Sol. Molality = = 0.936
=
on simplifying d M + 2  1000 × 1.4 −1.2 × 98
 m 1000  Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

DILUTION & MIXING OF TWO Ex-4 A 6.90 M solution of KOH in water has 30% by
LIQUIDS weight of KOH. Calculate density of solution (in g/mL).

Upon dilution no. of moles of solute remains constant. If a

™
(a) 9.345 g/mL (b) 2.445 g/mL
particular solution having volume V1 mL and molarity M1 is (c) 5.852 g/mL (d) 1.288 g/mL
diluted upto volume V2 mL. Sol. Let V = 1 lt, then moles of solute = 6.9
M1V1 = M2V2 wt. of solute = 6.9 × 56 gm
M2 : final molarity M solute
If a solution having volume V1 and molarity M1 is mixed with
™ % by mass = × 100
M solution
another solution of same solute having volume V2 & molarity
6.9 × 56
M2 then M1V1 + M2V2 = MR (V1 + V2) So, = × 100 = 30
d × 1000
M V +M 2 V2
MR = Resultant molarity = 1 1 d = 1.288 g/mL
V1 +V2
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Ex-1 Calculate the mole fraction of ethylene glycol
(C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of C2H6O2 by mass. Ex-5 The density of 3M solution of Na2S2O3 is 1.25 g
(NCERT) mL–1. Calculate.
Sol. Assume that we have 100 g of solution (one can start with (a) The % by weight of Na2S2O3
any amount of solution because the results obtained will be (b) Mole fraction of Na2S2O3
the same). Solution will contain 20 g of ethylene glycol and
Sol. (a) mass of solution = 1000 × 1.25 = 1250 gm
80 g of water.
Molar mass of C2H6O2 = 12 × 2 + 1 × 6 + 16 × 2 = 62 g mol–1. mass of Na2S2O3 = 3 × 158 = 474

20g 474
% (w/w) = × 100 = 37.92
Moles of C2H6O2 = = 0.322 mol 1250
62g mol−1
Therefore, 37.92 is the correct answer.
80g
Moles of water = = 4.444 mol 3
18g mol−1 (b) X Na 2S2O3 = = 0.065.
3 + 43.11
moles of C2 H 6 O 2
xglycol = 1250 − 474
moles of C2 H 6 O 2 + moles of H 2 O Mole of water solvent = = 43.11
18

0.322 mol
= 0.068 Therefore, 43.11 is the correct answer.
0.322 mol + 4.444 mol Ex-6 Calculate molality of aqueous urea solution
4.444 mol
Similarly, xwater = = 0.932 which has Xurea = 0.2.
0.322 mol + 4.444 mol
Mole fraction of water can also be calculated as: (a) 15.99 (b) 13.88
1 – 0.068 = 0.932 (c) 10.99 (d) 19.76

4 JEE (XII) Module-1 | CHEMISTRY

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Sol. Xu + Xw = 1 Ex-8
Xw = 1–0.2 = 0.8 (i) Which type of solution is milk?
Let total moles = 1 (ii) Name a solid - solid type solution.
nu = 0.2 (iii) Which type of solution is smoke?
nw = 0.8 Identify the correct matching
wwater = 0.8 × 18 = 14.4 (i) (ii) (iii)
Number of moles of solute (a) Liquid in solid Atmosphere Gas in liquid
Molality (m) =
Weight of solvent (kg) (b) Liquid in gas Alloys Liquid in solid
0.2 (c) Liquid in liquid Rubber Solid in gas
= = 13.88
14.4 / 1000 (d) Gas in liquid Rubber Liquid in liquid
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Sol. (c) Liquid in liquid – Rubber – Solid in gas

Ex-9 A storage battery contains a solution of H2SO4

Key Note 30% by weight. Find
(i) Molality (ii) Molarity
P Molality is the most convenient method to express the (iii) Normality (iv) Mole fraction of H2SO4
concentration because it involves the mass of liquids  (Given density of solution = 1.2 gm/cm3)
rather than their volumes. It is also independent of the
Sol. 30% by weight ⇒ Wsolute = 30 gm, Wsolution = 100 gm,
variation in temperature. Wsolvent = 70 gm
P No. of moles of solute = Molarity × volume of solution (in L) 100
mass of solute Vsolution = mL
=
P Number of millimoles × 1000 1.2
( Mol. wt. of solute ) 30 70
   = Molarity of solution × volume of solution (in mL) nsolute = = 0.306 nsolvent = = 3.889
98 18
P Mole fraction is a pure number its also independent of
n solute × 1000 0.306 × 1000
temperature (i) Molality = = = 4.37 m
Wsolvent 70
P All the concentration terms are intensive property of the
solution. n solute × 1000 0.306 × 1000
(ii) Molarity = = = 3.67 M
P Molarity is an unit that depends upon temperature it varies Vsolution 100
1.2
inversely with temperature. mathematically: molarity
decreases as temperature increases. (iii) Normality = Wsolute × 1000 = 30 × 1000 = 7.34 N
Esolute × Vsolution 49 ×
100
1 1
P Molarity ∝ ∝ 1.2
temperature volume Alternatively
P All those concentration terms which does not involve Normality = n-factor × Molarity
volume terms e,g., ppm, mass %, molality, mole fraction = 2 × 3.67 = 7.34
are independent of temperature of the solution.
X H 2SO4 0.306
P For dilute aqueous solution, molarity = molality =
(iv) X H 2SO4 = = 0.073
n H 2SO4 + n H 2 O 0.306 + 3.889
P Concentration of solids or pure liquids is constant.
(C = n/V = d/M) CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
Ex-7 If we have 6% w/w urea solution with density 1.060 1. A sample of H2SO4 (density 1.8 g/mL) is labelled as
74.66% by weight. What is the molarity of acid?
g/mL, then calculate its strength in g/L.
(a) 15.2 M (b) 16.3 M
Sol. 6 g urea is present in 100 gm solution.
(c) 17.5 M (d) 13.7 M
6 g in
100  mass 
mL  density =  2. Which of the following is an example of gaseous
1.060  volume 
solution?
100
mL → 6 gm (a) Camphor in nitrogen gas
1.060
(b) Solution of hydrogen in palladium
6
∴ 1000 mL = × 1.060 × 1000 (c) Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas
100 (d) Both (a) and (c)
= 10.6 × 6= 63.6 g/L

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(iii) Factors affecting solubility:
3. The molarity of 9.8 % (w/w) H 2SO 4 solution is
(a) Nature of solute and solvent: Like dissolves like. Polar
(d = 1.02 g/cc)
solutes dissolves in polar solvents and non polar solutes
(a) 1.02 M (b) 2.04 M dissolve in non polar solvents. NaCl dissolves in water
(c) 1 M (d) 4.12 M because NaCl and water both are polar. CS2 dissolves in
4. What will be the mole fraction of ethanol in a sample benzene because CS2 and C6H6 both are non polar.
of spirit containing 85% ethanol by mass? (b) Size of solute particles: Dissolution is a surface
(a) 0.69 (b) 0.82 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.60 phenomenon like the evaporation. So, increase of surface
area of the solute increases the rate of dissolution.
5. What is molarity of K+ in aqueous solution that contains
The surface area of a solid solute can be increased by
17.4 ppm of K2SO4 (174 g mol–1)?
converting it into powder. The powdered solute dissolves
(a) 2 × 10–2 M (b) 2 × 10–3 M more easily than the large crystals, as in the former case,
(c) 4 × 10–4 M (d) 2 × 10–4 M larger surface area is in contact with the solvent.
6. What is the molarity of 4.9% (w/w) H3PO4 solution by (c) Effect of Temperature: Solubility may increase or
mass (density of H3PO4 = 1.22 g/ml)? decrease with increase of temperature. This depend
(a) 0.61 M (b) 4.9 M on the enthalpy change of the solution. If the solute
dissolves with the evolution of heat, solubility
(c) 1.22 M (d) 1 M
decreases with increase of temperature. On the other
7. The concentration of NO3– ions when equal volumes of hand if the solute dissolves with the absorption of heat,
0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.1 M NaCl are mixed together is: solubility increases with rise in temperature.
(a) 0.05 M (b) 0.25 M (c) 0.1 M (d) 0.2 M
Example: When ammonium chloride or silver nitrate
8. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol, is dissolved in water, the solution gets cooled.
(CH3OH) is supplied. What is the mole fraction of NH 4 Cl(s) + H 2 O() 
→ NH 4 Cl(s) − heat

methyl alcohol in the solution?
For such solutions, solubility increases on increase of
(a) 1.100 (b) 0.190 (c) 0.086 (d) 0.050
temperature.
9. A compound H2X with molar mass of 80g/mol is

Example: When calcium oxide or lithium carbonate
dissolved in a solvent having density of 0.4 gml–1.
is placed in water the solution gets heated.
Assuming no change in volume upon dissolution, the
molality of a 3.2 molar solution is: CaO(s) + H 2 O 
→ Ca(OH) 2 (aq) + Heat
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 For such solutions, solubility decreases on increase of
temperature.
10. An aqueous solution contains 28% (w/w) KOH
solution, if density of solution is 1.25g/mL, if mole
Key Note
fraction of KOH is Y then find out the value of 18Y.
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2.6 The amount of heat change during the formation of a solution
depends mainly on two factors:
SOLUTIONS OF SOLID/LIQUID ™ Lattice energy: It is the amount of heat required to
IN LIQUID separate one mole of the ionic substances into its
component positive and negative ions. This is an
Solubility of a solid in liquid endothermic process.
(i) Introduction: Different solutes dissolve to a different
™ Heat of hydration: These ions get hydrated. The ions
extent in the same mass of a solvent i.e., they have different
hold the water molecules by ion dipole attraction. Heat
solubilities. Solubility is thus the ability of a solute to
is liberated during the process of hydration. Thus it is an
dissolve in a particular solvent.
exothermic process.
(ii) Definition: The solubility of a particular solute in a solvent
(a) If lattice energy > hydration energy, the system cools
is the maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in 100 g
down.
solvent.
Wt. of solute
Examples: NaNO3, KNO3, KCl, NH4Cl etc,
Solubility = × 100 (solubility increases with rise in temperature are).
Wt. of solvent

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Characteristics of Henry’s Law Constant (KH)
(b) If lattice energy < hydration energy, the system heats up.
(i) Unit same as those of pressure i.e. torr or bar.
Examples: NaOH, Na2CO3, Na2SO4, all gases, etc,
(ii) Different gases have different values of KH.
(solubility decreases with rise in temperature are).

Partial pressure of HCl/torr

(c) If lattice energy = hydration energy, no heat exchange. 1000
In such cases, temperature has little effect on solubility.
Example: NaCl, Li2SO4 (solubility fairly increases
500
or no change with rise in temperature). slope = KH
™ Pressure has no effect on solubility for solid-liquid
solutions.
0.01 0.02
Mole fraction of HCl in its
SOLUBILITY OF GASES IN solution in cyclohexane

LIQUID SOLUTIONS Figure: Plot of p Vs X for solution of HCl in cyclohexane.

(iii) The KH value of a gas is different in different solvents and
Henry’s law deals with effect of pressure on the solubility of gas. it increases with the increase in temperature.
Statement (iv) Higher the value of KH of a gas, lower will be its solubility.
The solubility of a gas in a liquid at a given temperature is directly (v) Plot of p Vs X is a straight line passing through the origin
proportional to the partial pressure at which it is dissolved. with slope equal to KH
Let X = Mole fraction of gas at a given temperature as a Limitation of Henry’s Law
measure of its solubility.
Henry’s law is valid only for following conditions:
P = Partial pressure of gas in equilibrium with the
(i) The pressure of gas is not too high.
solution.
(ii) The temperature is not too low.
Then according to Henry’s law,
(iii) The gas should not undergo any chemical reaction with the
X ∝ P
solvent.
or P ∝ X (iv) The gas should not undergo dissociation/association in
or P = KHX solution.
where KH = Henry law constant.
Application of Henry’s Law
Several applications in biological and industrial phenomenon:
Key Note
(i) To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft drinks and soda
(i) If a mixture of gases is brought in contact with solvent, water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure.
each constituent gas dissolves in proportion to its (ii) Scuba divers must cope with high concentrations of
partial pressure. It means Henry’s law applies to each dissolved gases while breathing air at high pressure
gas independent of the presence of other gas. underwater. Increased pressure increases the solubility of
(ii) Henry’s law can also be applied by expressing the atmospheric gases in blood. When the divers come towards
solubility of the gas in terms of mass per unit volume. surface, the pressure gradually decreases. This releases the
(iii) Mass of the gas dissolved per unit volume of a solvent dissolved gases and leads to the formation of bubbles of
at a given temperature is directly proportional to nitrogen in the blood. This blocks capillaries and creates
the partial pressure of a gas in equilibrium with the a medical condition known as bends, which are painful
solution. and dangerous to life. To avoid bends, as well as, the toxic
effects of high concentrations of nitrogen in the blood, the
m ∝ p, m = K × p tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with
where, helium (11.7% helium, 56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% oxygen).
(iii) At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is less than
m = mass of gas dissolved in unit volume of solvent.
that at the ground level. This leads to low concentrations
p = pressure of gas in equilibrium with solution. of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high
altitudes or climbers. Low blood oxygen causes climbers
Where K is the constant of proportionality that depends
to become weak and unable to think clearly, symptoms of a
on nature of gas, temperature and unit of pressure.
condition known as anoxia.

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Effect of Temperature & Le-Chatelier’s Principle CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in temperature.
When dissolved, the gas molecules are present in liquid phase and 11. The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and
the process of dissolution can be considered similar to condensation C6H5NO2 are 80º, 67°, 180° and 210°C respectively. Which
and heat is evolved in this process. We have learnt that dissolution
process involves dynamic equilibrium and thus must follow Le will show highest vapor pressure at room temperature?
Chatelier’s principle. As dissolution is an exothermic process, the (a) C6H6 (b) CH3OH
solubility should decrease with increase of temperature. (c) C6H5 NH2 (d) C6H5 NO2
™ KH values for both N2 and O2 increase with increase 12. Solubility of a substance remains unchanged on heating
of temperature indicating that the solubility of gases or cooling. Identify its solubility curve.
increases with decrease of temperature. It is due to this
reason that aquatic species are more comfortable in (a) (b)
cold water rather than in warm water.

Solubility

Solubility
Ex-10 If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 293K, how
many millimoles of N2 gas will be dissolved in 1L of water.
Assume partial pressure of N2 = 0.987 bar. Temperature Temperature
(Henry’s Law constant for N2 at 293K is 76.48 k bar)
(c) (d)
Sol. PN 2 = K H .X N 2

Solubility

Solubility
0.987 bar
X= N2
= 1.29 × 10−5
76480 bar
1L water contains 55.5 moles of water. Let, n be the number
of moles of N2 in solution
Temperature Temperature
n mol n
=
XN ≈
2 n mol + 55.5mol 55.5 13. On cooling, solubility of a substance decreases. Identify
= 1.29 × 10–5 its solubility curve.
∴ n = (1.29 × 10–5 × 55.5) mol
= 7.16 × 10–4 mol = (7.16 × 10–4 × 1000) m mole (a) (b)
= 0.716 m mole
Solubility

Solubility
Ex-11 Henry’s Law constant of CO2 in water at 298 K is
5/3 k bar. If pressure of CO2 is 0.01 bar, then find its solubility
in terms of mole fraction.
Sol. P = KH.X Temperature Temperature
or, PCO2 (g) = K H .X CO2
(c) (d)
= (5/3) × 1000 × X CO2
or, 0.01

∴ X
CO2 = 6 × 10
–6
Solubility

Solubility

Ex-12 Identify following statement as true or false and

identify correct match.
(i) Cooling favours the solubility of exothermic solutions.
(ii) Heating favours the solubility of endothermic solutions.
Temperature Temperature
(i) (ii)
(a) T F 14. The fizz in a can of soda is caused by dissolved carbon
(b) F T dioxide gas. The can is sealed under pressure. When
(c) T T you open the can: (NCERT)
(d) F F (a) The pressure inside increases, and more CO2
dissolves.
Sol. (c) T, T
(b) The pressure above the liquid decreases, and CO2
(i) We know that solubility of exothermic solutions decreases comes out of solution.
on increase of temperature (heating). Therefore the given
(c) The temperature of the soda drops, causing the
statement is true. CO2 to escape.
(ii) We know that solubility increases with increase of
temperature (heating). Therefore the given statement is true. (d) The CO2 reacts with the air and creates bubbles.

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Does the vapour pressure of a liquid depend on the volume of the
15. Four gases H2, He, CH4 and CO2 has Henry’s constant vessel, shape of the vessel or the amount of liquid taken in the
values (KH) 69.16, 144.979, 0.413 and 1.67 respectively. container?
The gas which is most soluble in liquid is:
These questions can be answered by involving the concept of
(a) He (b) CH4 (c) H2 (d) CO2 equilibrium constant. For the equilibrium, liquid  vapour,
16. The value of Henry’s law constant for some gases at the KP for the equilibrium would be equal to Pvap, since
293 K is given below. this is the pressure exerted by the vapours at equilibrium
He : 144.97 kbar, H2 : 69.16 kbar, (by definition). We know Kp depends only on temperature. This
N2 : 76.48 kbar, O2 : 34.86 kbar means that vapour pressure of a liquid will also be constant at a
Arrange the gases in the increasing order of their given temperature and will depend only on temperature and the
solubility. nature of liquid.
(a) He < N2 < H2 < O2 (b) O2 < H2 < N2 < He Therefore, it should be noted that the vapor pressure of a liquid
(c) H2 < N2 < O2 < He (d) He < O2 < N2 < H2 is independent of whatever be the volume or shape of the vessel,
17. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 mL water at or the amount of liquid in it (assuming it to be more than the
298 K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm and KH minimum amount required).
= 1.4 × 10–3 mol/L/atm? Moreover, on addition of any substance to the liquid, as long as the
(a) 22.4 mg (b) 22.4 g substance does not dissolve in the liquid and completely covers
(c) 2.24 g (d) 2.24 mg the surface, the vapour pressure of a liquid remains constant.
18. Henry’s law constant for solubility of methane in Factors affecting vapour pressure
benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg. The mole (a) Temperature: Vapour pressure ∝ Temperature
fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760
mm Hg is
(a) 1.78 × 10–3 (b) 17.43

Vapour pressure
(c) 0.114 (d) 2.814
19. H2S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If
solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195m, what is
the value of KH?
(a) 0.0263 bar (b) 69.16 bar Temperature
(c) 192 bar (d) 289 bar Higher the temperature, higher will be the vapour pressure
20. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very because a larger fraction of molecules have sufficient
dilute solution of gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant kinetic energy to escape.
for the gas is 100 k bar. If gas exerts a pressure of 1
bar, the number of moles of gas dissolved in 1 litre of
water is ADVANCED LEARNING
(a) 0.555 (b) 55.55 × 10–5
Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
(c) 55.55 × 10–3 (d) 5.55 × 10–5
P ∆H  1 1 
2.303 =
log 2  − 
VAPOUR PRESSURE
P1 R  T1 T2 

When a liquid is placed in a closed container, it evaporates and Here P1 and P2 are V.P. at temperature T1 and T2 respectively
converts into vapour. After some time, the liquid and the vapour and ∆H = Enthalpy of evaporation / vapourisation and is always
reaches equilibrium, i.e., the rate of evaporation becomes equal to positive, thus if T1 < T2, then P1 < P2.
the rate of condensation. At this point of time, the pressure exerted (b) Nature of liquid:
by the vapours of the liquid on the surface of the liquid and on the
walls of the container is called the vapour pressure of the liquid. Vapour pressure of liquid ∝
1
The strength of intermolecular forces
acting between molecules
For example, CCl4 has higher vapour pressure because of
the weak intermolecular forces acting between its molecules
than water which has stronger intermolecular forces acting
between water molecules.

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ADVANCED LEARNING Partial pressure of A = PA and Partial pressure of B = PB
According to Raoult’s law (experimentally)
VAPOR PRESSURES OF PA ∝ XA
IMMISCIBLE LIQUIDS PA = XAPAº
Since immiscible liquids are mutually insoluble, addition of one Here PAº & PBº are vapour pressure of pure liquid A & B at
liquid to the other does not affect the properties of either liquid. given temperature
Hence each will behave as if the other were not present. Similarly. PB ∝ XB
Consequently, in a mixture of two immiscible liquids, each will
exert the vapor pressure corresponding to the pure liquid at the given ∴ PB = XBPBº
temperature, and the total vapor pressure above the mixture will be if PAº > PBº
the sum of the vapor pressures of the two pure constituents, namely, ∴ A is more volatile than B
P = P°A+ P°B
∴ boiling point of A < boiling point of B
where P is the total vapor pressure, and P°A, P°B are the vapor
∴ According to Dalton’s law,
pressures of the two pure liquids A and & B. If we let X′A and X′B
be the mol fractions of the two constituents in the vapor, then P°A PT = PA + PB = XAPAº + XBPBº
= X′AP, P°B = X′BP, and hence,
Graphical Representation
= PA° X ′A P X ′A
= PA= XAPAº and PB = XB PBº
PB° X ′B P X ′B
PT = XAPAº + XB PBº
But X′A = nA/(nA + nB), and X′B = nB/(nA + nB), where nA and nB
are the number of moles of A and B in any given volume of vapor. PT = XAPAº + (1 – XA) PBº = ( PAº – PBº ) XA + PBº
The total vapor pressure exerted by a mixture of immiscible PT = (1 – XB) PAº + XBPBº = ( PBº – PAº ) XB + PAº
liquids at a given temperature is the sum of the vapor pressures of
PT = PA + PB
the individual components at that temperature.
The boiling point of any system is the temperature at which the
total vapor pressure is equal to the confining pressure. Since the
two liquids together can reach any given total pressure at a lower Here
temperature than either liquid alone, it must follow that any mixture PAº > PBº i.e.
of two immiscible liquids must boil at a temperature lower than the
(A is more volatile than B)
boiling point of either of the two liquids.
Ratio of Distillate to Residue Compositions
The relative proportions of the two liquids in the distillate can be
calculated on the basis that the number of moles of each component Relation between Mole Fraction of
present in the vapour phase is proportional to its vapour pressure. Vapour Phase and PT
If n′A and n′B are the number of moles of the components A and B XA′ = mole fraction of A in vapour above the liquid / solution.
in the vapour phase, then XB′ = mole fraction of B in vapour above the liquid / solution.
n′A/n′B = p°A/n°B … (i)
Dalton’s law for gaseous mixture,
If wA and wB represent the actual masses of the two components
in the distillate and MA and MB their respective molecular masses, PA = X'A PT
then Eq. (i) may be written as Raoult’s law when liquid and vapour are in equilibrium
w A n A M A PAº M A w pº M PA = XAPAº = X'A PT
= = º ⇒ A= Aº A
w B n B M B pB M B w B pB M B PB = XBPBº = X'B PT
Weight fraction of A in the distillate is X 'A PT X 'B PT
X A + XB = 1 = +
wA= PAoMA/ ( PAoMA + PBoMB) PAο PBο
RAOULT‘S LAW FOR MIXTURE OF 1 X X′
= °A + °B
TWO VOLATILE LIQUIDS PT PA PB

RAOULT’S LAW IS A SPECIAL CASE

OF HENRY’S LAW
According to Henry’s law
mole fractions of A and p = kHx...(i)
B in liquid solution where, x is the mole fraction of the gas (solute) in the solution
Figure: Let A, B be two volatile liquids which is in contact with the gas above having pressure equal to p.

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Here, it may be mentioned that Raoult’s law holds good for ideal FRACTIONAL DISTILLATION
solutions in which both solute and solvent are volatile liquid. In
the above example, we can regard p as the vapour pressure of Repeated boiling of any mixture of two volatile liquids, as
volatile solute (gas) when it is present to the extent of x2 mole in fractional distillation, always results in the separation of
fraction in the solution. the mixture. The liquid in the mixture with the lower boiling
Applying Raoult’s law point (and higher vapour pressure) comes off the top of the
fractionating column, while the other liquid is left in the flask.
P = p°x ...(ii)
Mixtures which behave like this with both components obeying
where p° is the vapour pressure of pure solute (dissolved gas in the
(or nearly obeying) Raoult's law are called ideal mixtures and can
present case) at the temperature of the solution.
be completely separated by fractional distillation.
Eqs. (i) and (ii) are quite similar. In fact, both become identical if
Examples are: liquid air (a mixture of nitrogen and oxygen) and
kH becomes equal to p°. Therefore. Raoult’s law can be taken as a
petroleum.
special case of Henry’s law.
For Ideal Solution
IDEAL SOLUTIONS
The mixtures which follow Raoult’s law at all temperatures and at all
compositions are known as ideal mixtures / ideal solution. TA° Vapour
Characteristic of an ideal solution:
™ Ideal solution are obtained only when the forces of attraction Liquid
between the liquid molecules are exactly of same nature and TB°

pressure
Vapour
almost of same magnitude. a′′
A --- A ≈ A --- B ≈ B --- B
(b) (a) (a′)
™ ∆Hmix = 0, ∆Vmix = 0 cB = 1
cA = 1 Mole
™ ∆Smix = + ve Distillate
Residue from fraction richer in B
™ ∆Gmix = – ve
distillation of a Mixture composition
Example:
‘a’ richer in A
(1) Benzene + Toluene. Graph for boiling point vs composition for ideal solution
(2) n-Hexane + n-Heptane. ™ Point 1: Mixture composition (a) is taken richer in a
(3) C2H5Br + C2H5Ι. component (A)
(4) Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene;
™ Point 2: Mixture composition (a) boils at Tb(a) temperature
™ Point 3: Distillate (a′) of (a) is the mixture composition richer
™ In case of ideal solution the vapour phase is richer with in component B.
more volatile component (i.e., the one having relatively ™ Point 4: ‘b’ is residue during distillation of mixture
greater vapour pressure) in comparison to that in composition ‘a’.
solution phase. Hence such solution can be successfully solution separated into
pure A and pure B.
ADVANCED LEARNING Successive distillation of a′ give a′′ and then finally pure B, as
distillate.
CONDENSATION OF VAPOURS Ex-13 Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and
OF SOLUTION dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 298 K are 200 mm Hg and 415
mm Hg respectively. (i) Calculate the vapour pressure of
When the vapours of ideal solution (containing liquids the solution prepared by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of
A and B) is condensed , the composition of liquids A and B in CH2Cl2 at 298 K and, (ii) mole fractions of each component in
the condensate remains same. The vapours over condensate
vapour phase. (NCERT)
can again be recondensed and the composition of A and B in
condensate (2) remains same as it was in vapour phase over Sol. (i) Molar mass of CH2Cl2 = 12 × 1 + 1 × 2 + 35.5 × 2 = 85
condensate (1). g mol–1
Molar mass of CHCl3 = 12 × 1 + 1 × 1 + 35.5 × 3 = 119.5 g mol–1
40g
Moles of CH2Cl2 = = 0.47 mol
Vapour 85g mol−1
25.5g
Moles of CHCl3 = = 0.213 mol
119.5g mol−1
Liquid
Total number of moles = 0.47 + 0.213 = 0.683 mol
0.47 mol
Solution Condensate(1) Condensate(2) xCH Cl = = 0.688
2 2 0.683 mol

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xCHCl =1.00 – 0.688 = 0.312 nB′′ nB′′ 4n ′′A
3 ⇒ XB =
=4 ⇒ n ′′B =4n ′′A =
ptotal = p10 + (p20 – p10) x2 = 200 + (415 – 200) × 0.688 nA′′ nA′′ + nB′′ nA′′ + 4nA′′
= 200 + 147.9 = 347.9 mm Hg 4
∴ Mole fraction of B= = 0.8
(ii) Using y1 = p1/ptotal, we can calculate the mole 5
fraction of the components in gas phase (y1). Ex-16 Vapour pressure of CH3 Cl and CH2 Cl2 are
pCH Cl = 0.688 × 415 mm Hg = 285.5 mm Hg 540 mm Hg and 402 mm Hg respectively. 101 g of CH3 Cl and
2 2
pCHCl = 0.312 × 200 mm Hg = 62.4 mm Hg 85 g of CH2Cl2 are mixed together. Determine
3
yCH Cl = 285.5 mm Hg/347.9 mm Hg = 0.82 (i) The pressure (in mm Hg) at which the solution starts
2 2
yCHCl = 62.4 mm Hg/347.9 mm Hg = 0.18 boiling.
3 (ii)  Molar ratio of solute vs solvent in vapour phase in
equilibrium with solution.
Ex-14 The vapour pressures of ethanol and methanol are
44.5 mm Hg and 88.7 mm Hg respectively. An ideal solution is Sol. (i) Solution boils when atmospheric pressure becomes equal
to vapour pressure.
formed at the same temperature by mixing 60 g of ethanol with
40 g of methanol. Calculate the total vapour pressure (in mm ∴ Boiling atmospheric pressure = vapour pressure
° °
Hg) of the solution and mole fraction of methanol in the vapour. = PA X A + PB X B
60
Sol. Number of moles of C2H5OH =  2  1
46
= 1.304 Total pressure =  540 ×  +  402 × 
 3  3
40
Number of moles of CH3OH = = 1.25 = (360 + 134) mm Hg = 494 mm Hg
32 (ii) Here, the solute is CH2Cl2
1.304 402 × 13 134
Mole fraction of C2H5OH = = 0.5107
1.304 + 1.25 X=′CH Cl =
2 2
494 494
1.25
Mole fraction of CH3OH = = 0.4893 540 × 23 360
1.304 + 1.25 =

X ′CH Cl =
3
494 494
Partial pressure of C2H5OH = XA.PºA
n′CH 2Cl2 nsolute 134
= (0.5107 × 44.5) mm Hg = 22.73 mm Hg now, = = = 0.372
Partial pressure of CH3OH = X B .PBº n′CHCl3 nsolvent 360
= (0.4893 × 88.7) mm Hg = 43.40 mm Hg Ex-17 At 25°C, the vapour pressure of methyl alcohol
Total vapour pressure of solution = (22.73 + 43.40) mm Hg is 96.0 torr. What is the mole fraction of CH3OH in a solution
= 66.13 mm Hg in which the (partial) vapor pressure of CH3OH is 23.0 torr
Mole fraction of CH3 OH in vapour at 25°C?
Partial pressure of CH3OH 43.40 PCH3OH 23
= = = 0.6563 Sol. XCH OH = 0 = = 0.24
Total vapour pressure 66.13 3 PCH OH 96
3

Ex-15 Liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ form ideal solution. At 80°C,

PAº = 0.4 bar and PBº = 0.8 bar. All the vapour above the CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
liquid solution containing equal moles of both the liquids at 21. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 300K, the
equilibrium is collected in another empty vessel and condensed. vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mole of A and
Now, the condensate is heated to 80°C and all the vapours 3 mole of B is 550 mm Hg. At the same temp, if one more
mole of B is added to the solution, the vapour pressure
above the liquid solution at equilibrium is again collected in
of the solution is increased by 10 mm Hg. Determine the
another empty vessel and condensed. What is the mole fraction
vapour pressure of A and B in the pure state (in mm Hg).
of ‘B’ in new condensate?
22. The vapour pressure of water depends upon
Sol. For the first condensate, (a) Surface area of container
nB X B YB X B . PBº nB PBº (b) Volume of container
= ; = = ×
nA X A YA X A .PAº nA PAº (c) Temperature
For second condensate, (d) All of these
2 23. For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour
nB′′ X ′′B YB′  YB  PBº nB  PBº 
= ; =   = ×  pressure of each component in solution is directly
nA′′ X ′′A YA′  YB  PA nA  PAº 
º
proportional to
x  0.8 
2 (a) Molarity (b) Mole fraction
= = .  4 [As moles of both liquids are equal] (c) Molality (d) Normality
x  0.4 

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NON-IDEAL SOLUTIONS Graphical Representation

In terms of Raoult’s law, a non-ideal solution is defined as the V.P. = max.
one which does not obey Raoult’s law. These are divided into two B.P. = min.
P>
PA +

Vapour pressure
types as explained below: P B

3D Model
P
0XA A >
Scan this QR code to understand Non-ideal > PA P
B 0X
solution through 3D model. To learn more PA
B
download the Physics Wallah App.
XA = 0 Mole fraction XA = 0
XB = 1 XB = 1
(1) NON-IDEAL SOLUTIONS SHOWING POSITIVE
DEVIATIONS
These can be defined on the basis of
(a) Molecular interactions
A non-ideal solution showing positive deviation is defined as the
one in which the intermolecular forces of interactions between
the molecules is weaker than the interactions found in either of
the pure components.
(b) Thermodynamics
A non-ideal solution is defined as the one in which there is a slight
increase in volume on mixing and absorption of heat takes place Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
on mixing. ∆Vmixing = positive, ∆Hmixing = positive. For one intermediate composition, the total vapour pressure of
In general, the trend of molecular interactions in the molecules are such a solution will be the highest and the boiling point will be
hydrogen bonding > dipole−dipole interactions > van der Waal’s the lowest. This solution acquires the property of boiling at a
interaction (for compounds having similar molar mass). Hence, constant temperature and its composition in liquid phase remains
replacement of any one of the stronger interactions by the weaker unchanged because the composition in vapour phase is also same
one would result in positive deviation. as in liquid phase. Liquid mixtures, which boil out without any
™ PTexp. > ( XAPº change in the composition are called azeotropes or azeotropic
A + XBPºB)
mixtures. In case of positive deviation from Raoult's law, we get
A − − − −A minimum boiling azeotrope.
™ or > A ---- B
B − − − −B
→

(2) N
 ON-IDEAL SOLUTIONS SHOWING NEGATIVE

Weaker force of attraction
DEVIATIONS
These can be defined on the basis of
™ ∆Hmix = +ve
(a) Molecular Interactions
™ ∆Vmix = +ve (1L + 1L, then final volume of solution is greater
Solutions in which forces of interactions between the components
then 2L)
is stronger than that in between both the pure components are the
™ ∆Smix = +ve
ones showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
™ ∆Gmix = –ve
(b) Thermodynamics
Example: In the case of such solutions, a slight decrease in volume and
(i) Acetone (dipole) + carbon disulphide (van der Waals) evolution of heat takes place on mixing i.e.,
(ii) Acetone (dipole) + ethyl alcohol (hydrogen-bond) ∆Vmixing = negative and ∆Hmixing = negative
(iii) Acetone (dipole) + benzene (van der Waals) ™ PT exp < XAPºA + XBPºB
(iv) Carbon tetrachloride (van der Waals) + Chloroform (dipole) A − − − −A
™ and <A ------ B
(v) Methyl alcohol + water B − − − −B
→

(vi) Ethyl alcohol + water

In the given examples from (i) to (vi), the molecules possessing stronger force of attraction.
weaker interactions get in between the molecules possessing ™ ∆Hmix = –ve
stronger one and thereby reducing the overall interactions.
™ ∆Vmix = –ve (1L+1L, then final volume of solution is less
In examples (v) and (vi), though both the components have
then 2L)
hydrogen bonding but the extent of hydrogen bonding in
™ ∆Smix = +ve
the case of water is more than that in the case of alcohols
(methanol or ethanol) or alcohol-water. ™ ∆Gmix = –ve

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Examples ADVANCED LEARNING
(i) Chloroform (dipole) + acetone (dipole) TEMPERATURE VERSUS
(ii) Acetone(dipole) + aniline (weak hydrogen bond) COMPOSITION CURVES
(iii) Pyridine (van der Waal’s) + Acetic acid (hydrogen For non Ideal Solutions
bonding) A) +Deviation solution or (–ve boiling azeotropes)
(iv) HCl + water When temperature versus composition graphs are drawn for
(v) HNO3 + water +ve deviation solution we get

Cl
CH3 TA° Vapour
(vi) acetone + chloroform; Cl C H O C Liquid V
CH3 TB°
Cl
Vapour L
In the above examples from (i) to (ii), the weak interactions are pressure D
being replaced by strong hydrogen bonds, thus reducing the
e
escaping tendency of the molecules. In case of (iii), one of the
b a a′ c′
constituents is basic while the other is acidic. Whereas (iv) and c
cB = 1
(v) involve an aqueous solution of a strong volatile acid such as cA = 1 d
Mole
a halogen acid. In these cases, non-volatile ions are formed as a fraction
result of interaction of ions of the acid with water. (Graph for boiling point vs to composition for non-ideal solution
showing +ve deviation)
Graphical Representation
Point 1: Here when mixture composition ‘a’ is boiled, then the
distillate (a′) becomes more rich in ‘B’ but, successive distillation
V.P. = min. of a′ will finally lead to compositions (‘d’) where vapour phase
B.P. = max. and liquid phase compositions are same. Hence d(D) is a solution
Vapour pressure

which cannot be separated into pure A and B. Hence it is a –ve

+ PB
P < PA boiling azeotropic mixture. But the residue ‘b’ becomes richer in
0XA ‘A’.
P > PA Point 2: When mixture composition ‘c’ is boiled then distillate is
A > PA
P
B 0X (c′) richer in ‘A’ but successive distillation makes it to composition
A d(D) i.e. –ve boiling azeotropic mixture.
The distillate is ‘e’ richer in (B) component
XA = 0 Mole fraction XA = 0 B) –ve Deviation solutions (+ve Boiling azeotropic)
XB = 1 XB = 1 When temperature versus composition are drawn for the
solutions showing –ve deviation the graph obtained is

D V
Maximum boiling V
azeotropic mix TB°
P
TA° L
(Azeotropic composition)
d
X a′ a b c c′

XA = 1 d e XB = 1
Mole fraction
Negative deviations from Raoult’s law (Graph of Boiling point Vs composition for non-ideal solution –ve
For one intermediate composition, the total vapour pressure of deviation)
such a solution will be the lowest and the boiling point will be the Point 1: When mixture composition ‘a’ is taken, then on boiling.
highest. This solution acquires the property of boiling at a constant (i) Distillate a′ is obtained which is richer in component A
temperature and its composition remains unchanged because the (ii) Residue is ‘b’
composition in vapour phase is also same as in liquid phase. Successive distillation of ‘b’ leads to azeotropic solution
In case of negative deviation from Raoult's law, we get maximum D. (+ve boiling azeotropic mixture)
boiling azeotrope. (iii) Successive distillation of a′ will lead to pure (A)

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Point 2: When mixture composition c is taken and boiled. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES AND
CONSTITUTIONAL PROPERTIES
(i) Distillate is c′ which is richer in component B and
successive distillation of distillates lead to solution
becoming pure ‘B’ Colligative Properties
(ii) The residue of ‘c’ is ‘e’ successive distillation of ‘e’
The properties of the solution which are dependent on the total
makes the residue richer in ‘D’ which is +ve boiling
no. of solute particles or total concentration of solute particles in
azeotropic mixtures.
the solution and are not dependent on the nature of solute particle
Ex-18 The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of i.e., shape, size, charge etc. of the particles.
water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The There are 4 colligative properties of solution.
mixture shows  ∆P 
(a) No deviation from Raoult’s Law ™ Relative lowering in vapour pressure  
 Pº 
(b) Positive deviation from Raoult’s Law ™ Elevation in boiling point (∆Tb)

(c) Negative deviation from Raoult’s Law ™ Depression in freezing point (∆Tf)

(d) That the solution is unsaturated ™ Osmotic pressure (π)

Sol. Positive deviation is noticed, because, water-ethyl alcohol To be more accurate, the colligative property depends upon the
interaction is weak, hence boiling point is low. That means fraction of solute and solvent particles in solution.

RELATIVE LOWERING IN VAPOUR

higher vapour pressure. Hence, positive deviation is shown.

CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING PRESSURE (RLVP)

24. A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 mL Lowering in Vapour Pressure of a Solution
chloroform and 50 mL acetone. The volume of mixture Vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute (solid solute)
will be < ________ mL. is always found to be less than the vapour pressure of pure solvent.
25. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, the
Reason
(a) Enthalpy of mixing is zero
Some of the solute molecules will occupy some surface area of
(b) Entropy of mixing is zero the solutions, so tendency of the solvent particles to go into the
(c) Free energy of mixing is zero vapour phase is slightly decreased because A is volatile solvent
(d) Free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are and B is non-volatile solute. Vapour pressure of B = 0 (i.e. PºB = 0)
each zero because B is non-volatile.
26. An ideal solution has two components A and B. If A is
more volatile than B and also PA0 > PT , then the correct
relation between mole fraction of A in liquid (X) and
vapour (Y) phase is:
(a) XA = YA (b) XA > YA
(c) XA < YA (d) Nothing can be said
27. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is: Figure: PS < PoA
(a) Water + Nitric Acid From Raoult’s law
(b) Ethanol + Water PS = PºA XA + PºB XB
(c) Acetone + Carbon disulphide PS = PºA XA  (As PºB = 0, So PºB XB= 0)
(d) Heptane + Octane PS = PºA (1 – XB)
28. Raoult’s law is not valid in PS = PºA – PºA XB
(a) Non-ideal solution showing positive deviation PºAXB = PºA – PS (Lowering in V.P. = PºA – PS= ∆P)
(b) Non-ideal solution showing negative deviation
PºA – PS ∆P ∆P
(c) Mixture of two immiscible liquid XB = = (Relative lowering in V.P. = )
PºA PºA PºA
(d) All of these
™ Raoult’s law: (For non – volatile solutes)
29. For water Ethanol solution, how many statements are
Experimentally relative lowering in Vapour pressure = mole
correct?
fraction of the non volatile solute in solution.
(i) VPobserved = VPcalculated (ii) DVmix = 0
PºA – Ps
(iii) DHmix < 0 (iv) DSmix > 0 RLVP =
PºA
(v) DGmix < 0 n PºA n+N
⇒ N
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2 RLVP = XSolute = = = 1+
n+N PºA – Ps n n

Solutions 15
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(Here n = Moles of solute and N = Moles of solvent) The first three bulbs contain a weighed amount of the solution
PºA Pº – PºA + Ps Ps and the next three bulbs contain a weighed amount of the pure
N = –1 = A = solvent. A weighed amount of anhydrous CaCl2 is taken in the U
n PºA – Ps PºA – Ps
PºA – Ps
tube. All the bulbs must be kept at the same temperature and dry
Pº – Ps n PºA – Ps w M air must be bubbled gradually to ensure that it gets saturated with
A = ; = ×
Ps N Ps m W the vapours in each bulb.
(Here m = Molar mass of solute and M = Molar mass of solvent) The dry air, as it passes through the solution, takes up an amount
P° − PS w M 1000 w 1000 M of vapour which is proportional to the vapour pressure of the
A = × × = × × solution at the prevailing temperature. This moist air when passes
PS m W 1000 m W 1000
through water (solvent), it takes up a further amount of vapour
P ° – Ps M which is proportional to the difference in vapour pressure of pure
A = (molality)× (M = molar mass of solvent)
Ps 1000 solvent and vapour pressure of the solution.
(i) Loss in mass of solution ∝ vapour pressure of solution ∝ PS
This indicates that equimolecular quantity of any non-volatile
(ii) Loss in mass of solvent ∝ vapour pressure of pure solvent
solute dissolve in same quantity of the same solvent will produce the
- vapour pressure of solution ∝ Pº – PS
equal lowering of vapour pressure. Hence, this is colligative property.
(iii) Loss in mass of solution + loss in mass of solvent
∝ PS + Pº – PS ∝ Pº
Key Note
This moist air is then passed through CaCl2 taken in U-tube.
™ (PºA– PA) is the lowering of vapour pressure whereas The CaCl2 tubes are weighed at the end of the experiment. The
gain in mass should be equal to the total loss in mass of the
 PA0 − PA  solution and solvent bulbs which is proportional to Pº.
 0  is called relative lowering of vapour
 PA  ο
i.e., loss in mass of solvent = P – PS
pressure. gain in mass of CaCl 2 Pο
™ Mole fraction of solute Important: When a dry gas is bubbled slowly through a pure
Vapour pressure of pure solvent − Vapour pressure of solution liquid or a solution, the gas gets saturated with respect to that
=
Vapour pressure of pure solvent liquid or solvent. e.g. If V litres are bubbled through a pure
liquid having molecular weight M and a vapor pressure P° at that
™ Vapour pressure of solutions having non volatile solute
temperature, T, and if this leads to a reduction in w grams of the
will always be less than that of solvent, however vapour liquid then P° = wRT/MV
pressure of solutions with volatile solute may be more or
less than that of pure solvent. Ex-19 1 mole of a non-volatile solute is dissolved
in 2 moles of water. The vapour pressure of the solution
relative to that of water is ________
ADVANCED LEARNING º
Psolvent − Psolution 1 1
Sol. = =
º
Psolvent 1 + 2 3
Dynamic Method
Psolution
1 2
Measurement of Relative Lowering of Vapour º
=1 − =
Psolvent 3 3
Pressure using Ostwald and Walker’s Method
Ex-20 The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A
Ostwald and Walker apparatus is the arrangement to calculate
is 0.80 atm. When a nonvolatile substance B is added to the
relative lowering in vapour pressure. In this method, a stream
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. What is the mole
of dry air is bubbled successively through (i) the solution
fraction of component B in the solution?
(ii) the solvent and (iii) a reagent which can absorb the vapours of
the solvent. Generally solvent is water and thus the reagent used PA0 − Psol 0.80 − 0.60
Sol. XB = = = 0.25
is anhydrous CaCl 2. PA0 0.80
Ex-21 Dry air is passed through a solution containing
20 g. of an organic non-volatile solute in 250 ml of water.
Then the air was passed through pure water and then
through a U-tube containing anhydrous CaCl2. The mass lost
in solution is 26 g and the mass gained in the U-tube is 26.48
CaCl 2-U-tube g. Calculate the molar mass (in g/mol) of the organic solute.
(dsolution = 1 g/ml)

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Sol. Loss in mass in solution = 26g
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
Gain in mass in U-tube = 26. 48 g
Therefore, Loss in mass in solvent = 0.48 g 30. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temp
Loss in mass of solvent p° − p is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile solid weighing 2.175 g
We know that = = is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure
gain in ma ss of U − tube P°
of solution is 600 mm Hg. What is molecular weight
0.48 P° − P
= = mole fraction of solute in the solution (in g/mol) of solid substance?
26.48 P°
0.48 n solute n solute 31. Vapour pressure of solution containing 6 gm of
=
=
26.48 n solute + n solvent n solute + 250 / 18 non-volatile solute in 180 gm of water is 20 Torr.
If 1 mole of water is further added, then the vapour
250 × 0.48
nsolute = pressure increases by 0.02 Torr. Calculate vapour
18 × 26
pressure (in Torr) of pure water and molecular weight
25 × 18 × 26
Msolute = = 78 g / mol of non-volatile solute?
250 × 0.48
32. In Ostwald and Walker’s Apparatus, if the loss in wt.
Ex-22 Dry Air was passed through a solution containing of solution is 6 unit and loss in wt of solvent is 3 unit,
20 gm. of substance in 100 gm of water and then through pure then calculate the mole fraction of the solute.
water. The loss in mass of the solution was 2.9 gm and that of

ELEVATION IN BOILING POINT (∆TB)

pure water was 0.06 gm. Calculate the molar mass (in g/mol)
of the substance.
Sol. Ps ∝ loss in mass of solution Boiling Point of a Liquid
The temperature at which vapour pressure of a liquid becomes
p0 – Ps ∝ loss in mass of pure water
equal to the external pressure present at the surface of the liquid is
Then, Ps ∝2.9 called boiling point of liquid at that pressure.
p0 – Ps ∝ 0.06
or, P0 ∝ (2.9 + 0.06) ∝ 2.96 = 3
Normal Boiling Point
The temperature at which boiling occurs when the external pressure
Now,
is exactly 1 atm is called the normal boiling point of the liquid. (Tb)
p0 − ps 0.06
= = x2 H2O()  H2O(g) ∆H = +ve
p0 3
n2 n 2 w 2 / M 2 w 2 / M1 20 × 18 Standard Boiling Point
≈= = = 100 × M The temperature at which boiling occurs when the external
n1 + n 2 n1 w1 / M 2 w1 / M 2 2 pressure is exactly 1 bar is called the standard boiling point of
or, M2 = 180 gm/mole the liquid. (Tb)

Ex-23 The vapour pressure of water at 293 K is Elevation in Boiling Point

17.54 mm of Hg and the vapour pressure of solution at the Since vapour pressure of solution is smaller than the vapour
same temperature is 17.35 mm of Hg. The solution is prepared pressure of pure solvent at any temperature, hence to make it
by dissolving 100 gm. of non-volatile solute in one litre water. equal to Pext, we have to increase the temperature of solution by
Calculate the molar mass (in g/mol) of solute. some amount in comparison to that of pure solvent.

∆p 1atm
Sol. = X2
Vapor Pressure

p10 Psolv Tb

(atm)

Dp = (17.54 – 17.35) = 0.19 mm of Hg Psoln

n2 n w 2 / M2
Now, X 2 ≈ ≈ 2 = bpsolv bpsoln
n1 + n 2 n1 n1
Temperature (°C)
wt. of solute in gm 1000
= = 55.56
n1 = Mole wt. of solvent Graphical Representation
18
w2 = mass of solute in gm = 100 gm
M2 = Molar mass of solute
0.19 100 1
= ×
17.54 M 2 55.56
⇒ M2 = 166 g/mol

Solutions
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™ If solution are dilute then BE and CD can be approximated Sol. If vant Hoff factor is i, then
as straight lines.
DTb = i Kb.m (for NaCl i = 2)
∴ ∆ABE and ∆ACD will be similar. Using property of similar
triangles, we can write = 2 × 0.52 × (0.1) = 0.104.
AB AE ∆Tb1 ∆P1 And, so the boiling point of solution will be 100.104°C.
= ⇒ =
AC AD ∆Tb2 ∆P2 Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
∴ ∆Tb α ∆P
DEPRESSION OF FREEZING POINT (∆TF)
n
∆Tb ∝ ∆P ∝
N Freezing Point
n w×M Temperature at which vapour pressure of solid phase becomes
∴ ∆Tb ∝ = (for a given solvent P° and M = constant) equal to vapour pressure of corresponding liquid phase is called
N m× W
freezing point of liquid.
∆Tb ∝ w K×w
or ∆Tb = Normal Freezing Point
m× W m× W
The temperature at which the liquid/solution is in equilibrium
T → b ⋅ p ⋅ of solution
s

∆ Tb = TbS – Tb°  bο with its solid state at an external pressure of 1 atm is called normal
Tb → b ⋅ p ⋅ of solvent freezing point of the liquid. (Tf)
w H2O()  H2O(s) ∆H = –ve
If = 1 mole and W = 1000 gm, then ∆Tb = Kb
m
K Standard Freezing Point
∴ = Kb (Molal elevation constant or Ebullioscopic
1000 The temperature at which the liquid/solution is equilibrium with
constant)
its solid state at an external pressure of 1 bar is called standard
w 1000 freezing point of the liquid. (Tf)
∆Tb = × × Kb
m W Graphical Representation
∴ ∆Tb = molality × Kb ∴ ∆Tb ∝ molality Pressure

Hence, elevation in boiling point (∆Tb) is a colligative property.

Vapor

Using thermodynamics

RTb 2
™ Kb =
1000× L vap ™For dilute solutions, BE and CD can be assumed to be straight
lines.
∴ LVap = latent heat of vapourisation in cal/g or J/g ∴ using similar triangles ∆Tf a ∆P
R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1 or 8.314 J mol–1 K–1. ∴ ∆Tf = Kf . molality

Tb = boiling point of liquid (in kelvin) ™ Kf = molal depression constant = cryoscopic constant
RTf 2 RTf 2 M
Unit of Kb = K kg mol–1
Kf = =
1000 × Lfusion 1000 × ∆H fusion
RTb2 M
Kb = For water, Tf = 273 K and Lfusion = 80 cal/gm
1000 × ∆H vap
2 × 273 × 273
∆Hvap – molar enthalpy of vapourisation in cal/mole or J/mole
Kf = = 1.86 K kg mol–1
1000 × 80
Here, M is molecular wt. of solvent ™ Now, at freezing point or below temperature only solvent
 ∆H vap  molecules will freeze, no solute molecules will be present in
Lvap =   the solid formed (solid phase will only contain pure solvent).
 M  ™ From room temperature to the state of freezing point of
Ex-24 Molal elevation constant Kb for water is 0.52 solution, we will always assume that the molality of solution
K/m. 0.1 molal solution of NaCl will boil at will remain same but if the temperature of solution goes
below its freezing temperature, then some solvent will freeze
(a) 100.52°C (b) 100.052°C
suddenly to change the molality of solution, and the molality
(c) 101.04°C (d) 100.104°C of remaining solution increases.

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Sol. ∆ Tb = Kb × m
Key Note
0.707 1000
= (56.88 – 56.38) =1.72 × ×
∆Tb(1) K b(1) MB 10
(i) Also = when concentration is same but ∴ MB = 243.2 g/mol
∆Tb(2) K b(2)
solvent different Ex-27 If freezing point of a solution prepared
from 1.25 g of non electrolyte and 20g water is
∆Tb(1) m(1) 271.9 K, then molar mass of the solute (in g/mol) will be
(ii) ∆T =
b(2) m 2 when solvent is same but concentration (Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1) (Tf° = 273.15 k)
different Sol. Tf = 271.9 K
∆Tb(1) M o(2)   w = 1.25 g, W = 20 g, Kf = 1.86
=
(iii) ∆T M o(1) ⇒ (Mo = Molar mass of solute) when
b(2) ∆ Tf = Tºf – Tf = 273.15 – 271.9 = 1.25 K

solvent is same and amount of solute is same
w
∆T=
f × 1000 × K f
m× W
ANTIFREEZE SOLUTIONS ∴ m=

w × 1000 × K f
∆T f × W
Water is used in radiators of vehicles as cooling liquid.t If the 1.25 × 1000 × 1.86
vehicle is to be used at high altitudes where temperature is sub- m=
= 93 g/mol.
1.25 × 20
zero. water would freeze in radiators. To avoid this problem. a
Ex-28 18 g glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in
solution of ethylene glycol in water is used in radiators which will
1 kg of water in a saucepan. At what temperature (in kelvin)
lower the freezing point lower than zero. will the water boil (1.013 bar pressure)? Kb(H2O) (Tb° =
373.15)= 0.52 K kg mol –1. (NCERT)
Kb, Kf for various Solvents ([Link] mol– 1)
w B × 1000
Sol. ∆ Tb = Kb ×
Solvent B.P. Kb F.P. Kf mB × w A
18 × 1000
∆ Tb = 0.52 ×

Acetic acid 118.1°C 2.93 17°C 3.9 180 × 1000
Tb–T0 = 0.052
Benzene 80.2°C 2.53 5.4°C 5.13 Tb – 373.15 = 0.052

Water 100°C 0.53 0ºC 1.86 Tb = 373.15 + 0.052 = 373.202 K

Ex-29 A 0.5 percent aqueous solution of Potassium

Ex-25 The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When chloride was found to freeze at 0.24°C. Calculate the Van’t
1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, Hoff factor and degree of dissociation of the solute at this
the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar concentration (kf for water is 1.86).
mass of the solute. Kb for benzene is 2.53 K kg mol–1
i × 1000k f w
Sol. ∆Tf =
Sol. The elevation (DTb) in the boiling point = 354.11 K – 353. W.M
23 K = 0.88 K i × 1000 × 0.5 × 1.86
0.24 =

Substituting these values in expression we get 100 × 74.5
0.24 × 100 × 74.5
2.53 K kg mol –1 × 1.8 g × 1000 g kg –1 i =
1000 × 0.5 × 1.86
= 1.923;
M 2 = 58g mol –1

0.88 K × 90 g i = 1 + ( n –1 ) α
Therefore, molar mass of the solute, M2 = 58 g mol–1
1.923 = 1 + ( 2 –1 ) α
Ex-26 The boiling point of pure acetone is 56.38ºC. When
1.923 = 1 + α
0.707 g of a compound is dissolved in 10 g of acetone, there is b.p.
elevation to 56.88°C, what is the M.W. (in g/mol)of the compound? α = 1.923 – 1 = 0.923
(K b(CH CO CH ) ) = 1.72 K kg mole–1 or α = 0.923 or 92.3 %
3 3

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CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING 42. Kf, molal depression constant or cryoscopic constant,
33. Pure benzene freezes at 5.45°C. Solution containing does not depend on
7.24 g C2H2Cl4 in 115.3 g benzene was observed (a) Nature of solvent
to freeze at 3.55°C. What is molal freezing point (b) Amount of solvent
(c) Freezing point of solvent
(in °C/m) of benzene.
(d) (ΔH)fusion of solvent
34. Which of the following is incorrect regarding solution
43. The unit of ebulioscopic constant is_____.
of non-volatile solute in a volatile solvent?
(a) K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1
(a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent (b) mol kg K–1 or K–1(molality)
of the nature of the solute and the solvent. (c) kg mol–1 K–1 or K–1(molality)–1
(b) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is a (d) K mol kg–1 or K (molality
colligative property.
OSMOSIS AND OSMOTIC PRESSURE
(c) Vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the
vapour pressure of the solvent.
(d) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly OSMOSIS: Osmosis is defined as the spontaneous flow of
proportional to the original pressure. solvent molecules through semipermeable membrane from pure
35. The mass of a non-volatile solute of molar mass 40 g solvent side to the solution side or from a dilute solution to the
concentrated solution.
mol–1 that should be dissolved in 114 g of Octane to
lower its vapour pressure by 20% is:
(a) 10 g (b) 11.4 g (c) 9.8 g (d) 12.8 g
36. The vapour pressure lowering caused by the addition
of 100g of sucrose (molecular mass = 342) to 1000g
of water if the vapour pressure of pure water at 25oC
is 23.8 mm Hg:
(a) 1.25 mm Hg (b) 0.125 mm Hg
(c) 1.15 mm Hg (d) 0.012 mm Hg
37. If X gram of glucose is dissolved in 180g of water to
reduce is vapour pressure by 20% then find the value
of X/10.
(a) 450 (b) 4.5 (c) 45 (d) 0.45
3D Model
38. ‘A’ gram of non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute (molar
mass M) is dissolved in 200 ml of unknown solvent (density Scan this QR code to understand Osmotic
= 1.25 gm/ml, molal elevation constant is Kb). Elevation Pressure through 3D model. To learn more
in boiling point of this solution can be given by: download the Physics Wallah App.
M 4Kb A
(a) (b)
Kb M OSMOTIC PRESSURE (p)– When a solution is separated from
Kb A Kb M the pure solvent with the help of a semipermeable membrane.
(c) (d) There occurs the flow of solvent molecules from the pure solvent
4M 4A
to the solution side. The flow of solvent molecules from a
39. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 g region of higher concentration of solvent to the region of
of solute (mol. wt. = 100 g) in 100 g water is ΔTb, the lower concentration of solvent is termed as the phenomenon
ebullioscopic constant of water is: of osmosis. This also happens when two solution of different
∆Tb concentra­tions are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
(a) 10 (b) 100 ΔTb (c) ΔTb (d)
10 As a result of osmosis a pressure is developed which is termed
40. When 10 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in as osmotic pressure. It is defined as.
100 g of benzene, it raises boiling point by 1°C then (1) The excess hydrostatic pressure which builds up as a result
molecular mass of the solute is: of osmosis is called osmotic pressure.
(kb for C6H6 = 2.53 K kg mol–1) (2) The external pressure which must be applied on the solution
side in order to just stop the flow of the solvent molecule
(a) 223g/mol (b) 233g/mol
into the solution side through semipermeable membrane.
(c) 243g/mol (d) 253g/mol
(3) Osmotic pressure of a solution is equal to the negative
41. At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g pressure which must be applied to the sol­vent in order to
of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If kb = 0.52, the just stop the osmosis.
boiling point of this solution will be approximately: ⇒ osmotic pressure = hydrostatic pressure
(a) 102°C (b) 103°C (c) 101°C (d) 100°C p = hdg

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h = increase in level in the tube of unit cross section. ISOTONIC OR ISO-OSMOTIC
SOLUTION
d = density of solution,
g = acceleration due to gravity
Solutions which have the same osmotic pressure are termed
OR isotonic or iso-osmotic solutions.
π1 =π2 i.e., C1ST = C2ST; C1 = C2
If two such solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane,
there will be net zero transference of solvent from one solution to
the other.
0.85% NaCl solutions is found to be isotonic with blood, while
0.9% NaCl solution is isotonic with human RBCs.
(i) When placed in water or hypotonic solutions, cell swell and
burst (haemolysis).
(ii) When placed in hypertonic solutions, the fluid from the
Van’t Hoff law for a dilute solution: plant cells comes out and thus the cells contract in size
The osmotic pressure (p) of a solution is directly proportional to (plasmolysis). e.g. When excess of fertilizers (like urea) are
its concentration(C) when the temperature is kept constant. applied, plasmolysis takes place and plants dry up (wilt).
Gay Lussac – Van’t Hoff law – p V = nST Hypotonic and Hypertonic Solutions
Here, p = Osmotic pressure A solution having lower osmotic pressure then other solution is
V = Volume of solution (in lit.) said to be hypotonic with respect to other solution.
n = No. of moles of solute A solution having higher osmotic pressure than other solution
S = Molar solution constant (0.082 lit atm K–1 mol–1) is said to be hypertonic with respect to other solution.
T = Temperature (in K)
n
REVERSE OSMOSIS (R.O.)
π = ST or p = CST If external pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on the
V
n solution side, the flow of solvent molecules can be made to proceed
[ C = = molar concentration of solution] from solution side towards pure solvent side, i.e., in reverse direction
V
of the ordinary osmosis.
Important: Osmotic pressures can be determined quite accurately,
hence it is used in the determination of molecular weights of large Reverse osmosis is used for the desalination of sea water for
getting fresh drinking water.
proteins and similar substances.
3D Model
Key Note
Scan this QR code to understand Reverse
™ Semipermeable membrane: A membrane which allows Osmosis through 3D model. To learn more
the passage of solvent molecules but not that of solute. download the Physics Wallah App.
e.g. Copper ferrocyanide Cu2[Fe(CN)6];
 The most frequently used semipermeable membrane in
laboratory is that of copper ferrocyanide, Cu2[Fe(CN)6] Ex-30 200 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains
because it is very strong and can withstand very high 1.26 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such a solution at
pressure. Remember that semipermeable membrane of 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of
Cu2[Fe(CN)6] does not work in non-aqueous solution the protein. (NCERT)
because it gets dissolved in non-aqueous solvents. Other Sol. The various quantities known to us are as follows: p = 2.57
synthetic semipermeable membrane is that of calcium × 10–3 bar,
phosphate. Natural semipermeable membranes are V = 200 cm3 = 0.200 litre
parchment paper, cell walls, pig’s bladder, skin surrounding
white of an egg, membrane surrounding RBCs etc. T = 300 K
™ If a number of solutes are present in the solutions and R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1
p1, p2, p3 etc. are their individual osmotic pressures, then 1.26g × 0.083L bar K –1mol –1 × 300K
= M2 = 61, 022g mol –1
Total osmotic pressure = p1 + p2 + p3 + ..... 2.57 × 10−3 bar × 0.200L
™ Exosmosis is the outward flow of water from a cell Ex-31 A cane sugar solution has an osmotic pressure of
containing an aqueous solution through a semipermeable
2.46 atm at 300 K. What is the molar concentration of the solution?
membrane, e.g. grape in NaCl solution.
n
™ Endosmosis is the inward flow of water into a cell Sol. π V = nST or π = ST = CST
containing an aqueous solution through a semipermeable V
or= π 2.46
membrane, e.g. grape in water. C = = 0.1 M
ST 300 × 0.0821

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Dissociation of solute molecules:
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING Molecules of electrolytes undergo ionization or dissociation in
44. What is the osmotic pressure (in atm) of 12% w/v ionizing solvents to give two or more particles in solution. For
solution of cane sugar (molecular weight 342) at 17°C. example, AB ionizes in solution to give two particles.
45. A solution containing 8.6 g urea in one litre solution was ionizing
AB ← → A+ + B –
solvent
found to be isotonic with 0.5% (weight/volume) solution This dissociation results in an increase in the total number of
of an organic, non-volatile solute at same temperature. particles, and therefore the value of colligative properties of such
The molecular weight (in g/mol) of the solute is ______ solutions will be higher.
46. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution As the colligative properties are inversely related to molecular
to prepare pickle, shrivels because _____. (NCERT) weight, so the molecular weight of ionizable solute will be less
(a) it gains water due to osmosis. than the theoretical value.
(b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis. Van’t Hoff factor (i) : Van’t Hoff in 1886 introduced a factor called
(d) it loses water due to osmosis. Van’t Hoff factor (i). The Van’t Hoff factor (i) is defined as
Number of solute particles after dissociation / association
47. At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a i=
concentrated solution of a substance _____. (NCERT) Number of solute particles before dissociation / association
(a) is higher than that of a dilute solution. observed colligative property
i ,
(b) is lower than that of a dilute solution. Normal colligative property
(c) is same as that of a dilute solution. Normal or actual molecular weight ( calculated )
(d) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of i=
observed molecular mass ( experimental )
dilute solution.
In case of association of solute particles in solution, the observed
48. Which of the following statements is false? (NCERT) molecular weight of solute being more than the normal, the value
(a) Units of atmospheric pressure and osmotic of factor i, is less than unity, while for dissociation the value of i
pressure are the same. is greater than unity because the observed molecular weight has
(b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules move lesser value than normal molecular weight.
through a semipermeable membrane from a region
Van’t Hoff factor and degree of dissociation: The fraction of
of lower concentration of solute to a region of
higher concentration. the total number of molecules which dissociates in the solution
(c) The value of molal depression constant depends into simple ions or molecules is called the degree of dissociation.
on nature of solvent. A x By → xA y + + yBx −
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure, is a Initially 1 0 0
dimensionless quantity. After dissociation (1 − α) xα yα
Total number of solute particle = 1 – α + xα+ yα
= 1 – α + (x + y) α
ABNORMAL COLLIGATIVE After dissociation
= (1 – α + nα) mol
PROPERTIES where n = x + y = total sum of no. of cations and anions given by
It has been observed that difference in the observed and calculated 1 molecule of solute.
molecular masses of solute is due to association or dissociation of Observed colligative property is proportional to observed number
solute molecules in solution. It results in a change in the number of solute particle = (1 – α + nα).
1 − α + nα
of particles in solution. i=
1
Association of solute particles i = 1 + (n – 1)α
The formation of a bigger molecule by the union of two, three where α is the degree of dissociation of solute
or more solute molecules is called association. Let ‘n’ simple For strong electrolytes:
molecules combine to give an associated molecule as: if α = 1 or 100 % ⇒ then, i = n

non polar
n( X ) ← →( X ) n Example: NaCl, n = 2 ⇒ i = 2, for α = 100 %
solvent

As a result, the total number of particles in solution becomes less K2SO4, n = 3 ⇒ i = 3, for α = 100 %
than the number of molecules initially dissolved in the solution and Example: K4[Fe(CN)6], n = 5 ⇒ i = 5, for α = 100 %
hence the colligative properties will have lower value. For α = 50%, i = 1 + (n – 1) α = 3
As the molar mass of solute is inversely proportional to the Van’t Hoff factor and degree of association: The fraction of
colligative properties, so the molar mass of solute will be greater the total number of molecules of the substance which is present
than theoretical value. as associated molecules is known as the degree of association.
nA → [A]n
3D Model Initially 1 0
α
After association (1 − α)
Scan this QR code to understand Association and n
Dissociation of solute particles through 3D model. Total number of solute particles after association
To learn more download the Physics Wallah App.  α
= 1 − α +  mol
 n

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Observed C.P. ∝ observed number of solute particles
 α ™ Similarly, there are certain substances which associate
= 1 − α +  when dissolved in a particular solvent. Hence the
 n molecular weight of such substances as determined
α
1− α + with the help of colligative properties will be more than
i= n ⇒ i = 1− α + α the theoretically calculated value from the molecular
1 n formula. For example, the observed molecular weight of
α = Degree of association acetic acid when dissolved in benzene is found to be 118
n = Number of solute particles which are associated. which is nearly double the value (60) calculated from its
1 molecular formula, CH3COOH. This is due to the fact
If α = 100% or 1 or α is not specified ⇒ i = that acetic acid, in benzene, does not exist as CH3COOH
n but as a dimer, i.e. (CH3COOH)2.
Ex-32 2 g of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dissolved in 25 g
of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 1.62 K.
Molal depression constant for benzene is 4.9 K kg mol–1. What is
ABNORMAL MOLECULAR MASSES
the percentage association of acid if it forms dimer in solution? The molecular mass of a solute is inversely proportional to its
concentration or value of colligative properties.
Sol. The given quantities are: w2 = 2 g; Kf = 4.9 K kg mol–1;
(i) The extent of dissociation and colligative property:
w1 = 25 g, DTf = 1.62 K A solute which dissociates completely or partially in solution makes
4.9 K kg mol –1 × 2 g × 1000K kg –1 available more particles than would otherwise be present in solution
M2
= 241.98g mol –1 and therefore, a colligative property shows an increased effect. For
25 g × 1.62 K
example, molecular masses obtained of strong acids, bases and
Thus, experimental molar mass of benzoic acid in benzene is
salts are much less than their normal values. As an example, one
= 241.98 g mol–1
particle of potassium chloride on dissociation in water gives two
Now consider the following equilibrium for the acid: particles, K+ and Cl– and therefore, the molecular mass obtained by
2C6H5COOH  (C6H5COOH)2 a colligative property is half of its normal molecular mass.
If x represents the degree of association of the solute then we K + Cl(s)
−
+ nH 2 O  +
→ K (aq) +
+ Cl(aq)
would have (1 – x) mol of benzoic acid left in unassociated 1 mol 1 mol 1 mol
x (ii) The extent of association and colligative property:
form and correspondingly as associated moles of benzoic
2 A solute that associates in solution provides less particles
acid at equilibrium.
that would otherwise be present in solution and therefore, the
Therefore, total number of moles of particles at equilibrium is: colligative property shows the decreased effect. For example,
x x benzoic acid in benzene is found to have molecular mass which is
1 − x + =1 − just twice its normal molecular mass.
2 2
It is found that compounds which are capable of forming
Thus, total number of moles of particles at equilibrium equals hydrogen bonds, e.g., phenols, carboxylic aids, alcohols: because
van’t Hoff factor i.
122g mol−1 of association show decreased effect of colligative property.
Normal molar mass
But i = = −1
O H O
Abnormal molar mass 241.98g mol H5C6 C6H5
x 122 O H O
or = 1− = 1 − 0.504 = 0.496
2 241.98 A dimer of benzoic acid
or x = 2 × 0 .496 = 0.992
Key Note
Therefore, degree of association of benzoic acid in benzene
is 99.2 %. Experimental value of colligative property
™ i=
Calculated value of this property when the solution behaves ideally
Key Note (∆Tb )obs (∆Tf )obs (∆p / p1º )obs πobs M cal
™ = = = =
(∆Tb )cal (∆Tf )cal (∆p / p1º )cal πobs M obs
™ One mole of a solute like glucose, cane sugar, urea, etc. Where M is the molar mass of solute.
when dissolved in 1000 g of water depresses the freezing ™ Knowing , the observed molar mass and the Van’t Hoff factor,
point of water by 1.86ºC. However, solution of one mole i, the degree of dissociation, α can be easily calculated.
of NaCl or BaCl2 in 1000 g of water depress the freezing ™ The ideal solutions relations can be modified in
point of water by 3.72ºC (2 × 1.86) and 5.58ºC (3 × 1.86) abnormal solution as given below:
∆p
respectively because each molecule of NaCl and BaCl2 = i x2 , DTb = i Kb m
dissociates to give 2 (Na+ & Cl–) and three (Ba2+ and p10
2Cl–) ions respectively and each ion behaves as a particle DTf = i kf m and p = i CRT
in itself. Thus, among the 0.1 M solution of the various ™ The value of i is taken as one when solute is non
substances like cane sugar, NaCl, BaCl2, Al2(SO4)3, etc. electrolyte e.g. glucose, sucrose, urea etc.
™ All the 4 colligative properties are calculated by formula,
the colligative effect will be maximum in Al2(SO4)3
only for solution containing non-volatile solutes in a
solution giving 5 ions per molecule.
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Ex-33 A 5% solution of anhydrous CaCl2 at 0°C

(a) There will be no movement of any across the
developed 15 atm osmotic pressure. What is the degree of membrane
dissociation of CaCl2. (b) Solvent of BaCl2 will flow towards the NaCl
Sol. 5 g of CaCl2 is present in 100 mL, so 111 g (MW of CaCl2) solution
(c) NaCl will flow towards the BaCl2 solution
100 × 111
will be present in = 2.22 litre (d) The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is equal to
5 × 1000 the osmotic pressure of 0.05 M BaCl2, assuming
Now, π V = ST { n = 1} complete dissociation of the electrolyte.
0.082 × 273 22.47 51. When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved
or π = = = 10.09 atm
2.22 2.22 in 50 g of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K kg/mol) a freezing
point depression of 2 K is observed. The van’t Hoff
We know that Van’t Hoff factor factor (i) is
observed colligative property 15 (a) 0.5 (b) 0.2
i=
=
Normal colligative property 10.09 (c) 1.0 (d) 3.0
i −1 52. A 0.001 molal solution of [Pt(NH3)4Cl4] in water had a
CaCl2 → Ca2+ + 2Cl–, n = 3 and α = or
n −1 freezing point depression of 0.0054°C. If Kf for water
15 is 1.80, the correct formula for the above compound
−1
10.09 4.91 assuming its complete dissociation is:
= α
=
3 −1 10.09 × 2 (a) [Pt(NH3)4Cl3]Cl (b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(c) [Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl4]
=0.2433 or 24.33%
53. 0.04 M Na2SO4 solution is isotonic with 0.1 M glucose
Ex-34 Molal elevation constant for water is at the same temperature. What is the apparent degree
0.52 K/m. 0.1 m solution of NaCl will boil at _____°C? of dissociation of Na2SO4?
Sol. If van’t Hoff factor is i, then (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.75 (d) 0.58
∆Tb = i. Kb. m (for NaCl, i = 2)
54. If 0.1 M solutions of each electrolyte are taken and if
∆Tb = 2 × 0.52 × 0.1 = 0.104 all electrolytes are completely dissociated, then whose
∆Tb = TbS – Tb° ⇒ 0.104 = TbS – 100 boiling point will be highest?
0.104 + 100 = TbS ⇒ 100.104 = TbS (a) Glucose (b) KCl
(c) BaCl2 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
∴ B. P. of solution is 100. 104°C
55. Consider the following three aqueous solution of
CH3COOH
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
i. 0.1 m ii. 0.01m iii. 0.001m
49. 19.5 g CH2FCOOH is dissolved in 500 g water. The If i1, i2 and i3 represents the value of van’t Hoff factor
depression in freezing point of water observed is for solution I, II and III respectively, the correct order
of i1, i2 and i3 is:
1.0ºC. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor and dissociation
(a) i1 > i2 > i3 (b) i1 < i2 < i3
constant of CH2 FCOOH. kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kgmol– 1 (c) i2 < i1 < i3 (d) i1 < i3 < i2
50. Study the following figure and choose the correct option
56. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dimerise in
benzene. ‘w’ g of the acid dissolved in 30g of benzene
shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2K. If
the percentage association of the acid to form dimer
in the solution is 80, the w is:
0.1-M 0.05-M
NaCl BaCl2 (Given that Kf = 5K kg mol–1, Molar mass of benzoic
Solution Solution acid = 122g mol–1)
(a) 2.4 g (b) 1.0 g
Semipermeable
(c) 1.5 g (d) 1.8 g
membrane

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Exercise-1 TOPICWISE Prarambh

CONCENTRATION TERMS V.P OF MIXTURE OF LIQUIDS

(REVISION OF MOLE) 11. For a solution of two liquids A and B it was proved that
1. The amount of anhydrous Na2CO3 present in 250 mL of P = XA ( PA0 − P B0 ) + PB0 . The solution is
0.25 M solution is (a) Ideal (b) Non-ideal
(a) 225 g (b) 66.25 g (c) 6.0 g (d) 6.625 g (c) Semi ideal (d) None of these
2. 2.0 molar solution is obtained, when 0.5 mole solute is
12. 1 mole of n-heptane (V.P. = 92 mm of Hg) was mixed
dissolved in
with 4 moles of n-octane (V.P = 31 mm of Hg), the vapour
(a) 250 mL solvent (b) 250 g solvent pressure of the resulting ideal solution is
(c) 250 mL solution (d) 1000 mL solvent (a) 46.2 mm of Hg (b) 40.0 mm of Hg
3. 36 g of water and 828 g of ethyl alcohol form an ideal (c) 43.2 mm of Hg (d) 38.4 mm of Hg
solution. The mole fraction of water in it, is
13. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution, What is the
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.1 vapour pressure of solution containing 2 moles of A and
4. An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole 3 moles of B at 300 K? [Given: At 300 K, Vapour pressure
fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value of X is of pure liquid A (PºA ) = 100 torr, Vapour pressure of pure
(a) 14 (b) 3.2 (c) 4 (d) 2 liquid B (PºB ) = 300 torr]
5. 4.0 gm of NaOH is contained in one decilitre of solution. (a) 200 torr (b) 140 torr (c) 180 torr (d) 220 torr
Its molarity would be 14. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 160
(a) 4 M (b) 2 M (c) 1 M (d) 1.5 M and 60 torr respectively. The mole fraction of toluene in
vapour phase in contact with equimolar solution of benzene
HENRY’S LAW AND BASICS OF and toluene is
VAPOUR PRESSURE (a) 0.50 (b) 0.60 (c) 0.27 (d) 0.73

6. Calculate the solubility of gaseous oxygen in water at a DIFFERENCE BETWEEN IDEAL AND
NON-IDEAL SOLUTION
temperature of 293 K when the partial pressure exerted by
O2 is 1 bar. (Given: KH for O2 34840 bar L mol–1)
(a) 2.87 × 10–5 mol/L (b) 4 × 10–4 mol/L 15. Which pair from the following will not form an ideal
–4
(c) 2.87 × 10 mol/L (d) 5 × 10–4 mol/L solution?
7. Solubility of gas in water is x g/cm3 at 300 K temperature. (a) CCl4 + SiCl4 (b) H2O + C4H9OH
When temperature increases to 400 K, then solubility of gas (c) C2H5Br + C2H5I (d) C6H14 + C7H16
(a) Increases (b) Decreases 16. An ideal solution is that which
1 (a) Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(c) Remain same (d) x
2 (b) Shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law
8. Which one of the following gases has the lowest value of (c) Has no connection with Raoult’s law
Henry’s law constant? (d) Obeys Raoult’s law
(a) N2 (b) He (c) H2 (d) CO2 17. Which property is shown by an ideal solution?
9. The vapour pressure of water depends upon (a) It follows Raoult’s law (b) ∆Hmix = 0
(a) Surface area of container (c) ∆Vmix = 0 (d) All of these
(b) Volume of container 18. When two liquids A and B are mixed then their boiling
(c) Temperature points becomes greater than both of them. What is the
nature of this solution?
(d) All of these
(a) Ideal solution
10. A vessel has nitrogen gas and water vapours in equilibrium
(b) Non-ideal solution with positive deviation
with liquid water at a total pressure of 1 atm. The partial
pressure of water vapours is 0.3 atm. The volume of this (c) Non-ideal solution with negative deviation
vessel is reduced to one third of the original volume, at the (d) Normal solution
same temperature, then total pressure of the system is 19. All form ideal solution except
(Neglect volume occupied by liquid water) (a) C2H5Br and C2H5I (b) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br
(a) 3.0 atm (b) 1 atm (c) 3.33 atm (d) 2.4 atm (c) C6H6 and C6 H5CH3 (d) C2H5I and C2H5OH

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20. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point 28. Mark the correct relationship between the boiling points of
lower than either when it very dilute solutions of BaCl2, (T1) and KCl (T2), having
(a) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law the same molarity
(b) Shows no deviation from Raoult’s law (a) T1 = T2
(c) Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law (b) T1 > T2
(d) Is saturated (c) T2 > T1
(d) T2 is approximately equal to T1
RELATIVE LOWERING IN V.P
29. The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86°C kg mole–1.
21. For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure If 342 gm of canesugar (C12H22O11) are dissolved in 1000
of each component in solution is directly proportional to gm of water, the solution will freeze at
(a) Molarity (b) Mole fraction (a) –1.86°C (b) 1.86°C
(c) Molality (d) Normality (c) – 3.92°C (d) 2.42°C
22. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour 30. The freezing point of one molal NaCl solution assuming
pressure of the solvent is decreased. This results in NaCl to be 100 % dissociated in water is (molal freezing
(a) An increase in the b.p. of the solution point depression constant = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(b) A decrease in the b.p. of the solvent (a) – 1.86°C (b) – 3.72°C
(c) The solution having a higher freezing point than the (c) + 1.86°C (d) + 3.72°C
solvent
31. 1.00 gm of a non-electrolyte solute when dissolved in 50 gm
(d) The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the of benzene lowers the freezing point of benzene by 0.40 K.
solvent
Kf for benzene is 5.12 kg mol–1. Molecular mass of the
23. The vapour pressure lowering caused by the addition of 100 g solute will be
of sucrose (molecular mass = 342) to 1000 g of water if the
(a) 256 g mol–1 (b) 2.56 g mol–1
vapour pressure of pure water at 25ºC is 23.8 mm Hg, is
(c) 512×103 g mol–1 (d) 2.56×104 g mol–1
(a) 1.25 mm Hg (b) 0.125 mm Hg
(c) 1.15 mm Hg (d) 00.12 mm Hg
24. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour
OSMOTIC PRESSURE
pressure of a solution of non-volatile substance is equal 32. The concentration in gms per litre of a solution of cane
to sugar (M = 342) which is isotonic with a solution containing
(a) Mole fraction of the solvent 6 gms of urea (M = 60) per litre is
(b) Mole fraction of the solute (a) 3.42 (b) 34.2 (c) 5.7 (d) 19
(c) Weight percentage of a solute 33. Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at temperature of 300 K.
(d) Weight percentage of a solvent Find concentration in mole/litre
25. The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17.54 mm Hg. (a) 0.033 (b) 0.066
When 20 g of a non-ionic, substance is dissolved in 100 g (c) 0.33 × 10–2 (d) 0.3
of water, the vapour pressure is lowered by 0.30 mm Hg. 34. A 5 % solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic
What is the molecular weight (in g/mol) of the substance?
with 1 % solution of a substance X. The molecular weight
(Do not consider solution as dilute)
(in g/mol) of X is
(a) 210.2 (b) 206.88 (c) 215.2 (d) 200.8
(a) 34.2 (b) 171.2 (c) 68.4 (d) 136.8
ELEVATION OF BOILING POINT AND 35. Which statement is wrong regarding osmotic pressure (p),
DEPRESSION OF FREEZING POINT volume (V) and temperature (T)?
1
26. The latent heat of vapourisation of water is 9700 Cal/mole (a) π ∝ , if T is constant
V
and if the b.p. is 100° C, ebullioscopic constant of water is
(a) 0.513°C/molal (b) 1.026°C/molal (b) p ∝ T, if V is constant
(c) 10.26°C/molal (d) 1.832°C/molal (c) p ∝ V, if T is constant
27. If 0.15 g of a non-volatile solute dissolved in 15 g of solvent (d) pV is constant, if T is constant
has boiling point higher by 0.216°C than that of the pure 36. The value of osmotic pressure of a 0.2 M aqueous solution
solvent, then molecular weight (in g/mol) of the substance at 293 K is
(molal elevation constant for the solvent is 2.16° K kg/mol)
is (a) 8.4 atm (b) 0.48 atm
(a) 1.01 (b) 10 (c) 10.1 (d) 100 (c) 4.8 atm (d) 4.0 atm

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37. If a 0.1 M solution of glucose (mol. wt. 180) and 0.1 molar 42. The freezing points of equimolar solutions of glucose, KNO3
solution of urea (mol. wt. 60) are placed on the two sides of and AlCl3 are in the order of
a semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be (a) AlCl3 < KNO3 < Glucose
correct to say that
(b) Glucose < KNO3 < AlCl3
(a) There will be no net movement across the membrane.
(c) Glucose < AlCl3 < KNO3
(b) Glucose will move across the membrane into urea
solution. (d) AlCl3 <Glucose < KNO3
(c) Urea will flow across the membrane into glucose 43. Which of the following salt has the same value of Van’t Hoff
solution. factor (i) as that of K4 [Fe(CN)6]?
(d) Water will flow from urea solution into glucose solution. (a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) NaCl
38. A solution of urea contain 8.6 gm/litre (mol. wt. 60.0). (c) Na2SO4 (d) Al(NO3)3
It is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The
44. One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume of a
molecular weight (in g/mol) of the solute will be
solvent. The association of the solute take place according
(a) 348.9 (b) 34.89 (c) 3489 (d) 861.2
to nA  An.
39. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of NaCl and Na2SO4
If x is the degree of association of A, then Van’t Hoff factor
will be
(i) is expressed as
(a) Same
x
(b) Osmotic pressure of NaCl solution will be more than (a) i =1 – x (b) i = 1 +
n
Na2SO4 solution. x
1− x +
(c) Osmotic pressure of Na2SO4 solution will be more than n
(c) i = (d) i = 1
NaCl. 1
(d) Osmotic pressure of Na2SO4 will be less than that of 45. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined
NaCl solution. by depression in freezing point method corresponds to

VAN’T HOFF FACTOR (a) Ionization of benzoic acid

(b) Dimerization of benzoic acid
40. Which of the following will have the highest freezing point
(c) Trimerization of benzoic acid
at 1 atm pressure?
(a) 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1 Na2SO4 (d) Solvation of benzoic acid
(c) 0.1 M BaCl2 (d) 0.1 M glucose 46. What is the freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g
41. Which of the following aqueous solutions containing 10 gm HBr in 100 g water assuming the acid to be 90 % ionised?
of solute in each case has highest B.P.? (Kf for water = 1.86 K mole–1)
(a) NaCl solution (b) KCl solution (a) 0.85°C (b) – 3.53°C
(c) Sugar solution (d) Glucose solution (c) 0°C (d) – 0.35°C

Exercise-2 JEE MAIN LEVEL Prabal

1. A 1% solution of solute 'X' is isotonic with a 6% solution 3. Which of the following solutions would have the highest
of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol–1). The molar mass of osmotic pressure:
solute 'X' is: M M
(a) 34.2 g mol–1 (a) NaCl (b) Urea
10 10
(b) 57 g mol–1
M M
(c) 114 g mol–1 (c) BaCl2 (d) Glucose
10 10
(d) 3.42 g mol–1
4. For an electrolyte undergoing association in a solvent, the
2. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of
van't Hoff factor:
people living at high altitudes is due to:
(a) is always greater than one
(a) Low temperature
(b) Low atmospheric pressure (b) has negative value
(c) High atmospheric pressure (c) has zero value
(d) High temperature (d) is always less than one

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5. Van’t Hoff factor for Na2SO4.10H2O solution, assuming 16. At a constant temperature, ∆S will be maximum for which
complete ionization is of the following processes?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 13 (d) 2 (a) Vaporisation of a pure solvent
6. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, (b) Vaporisation of solvent from a solution containing non-
‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations 0.1M, 0.01M and 0.001M, volatile and non electrolyte solute in it.
respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor for these (c) Vaporisation of solvent from a solution containing non-
solutions will be in the order______. volatile but electrolyte solute in it.
(a) i A < i B < i C (b) i A > iB > iC (d) Entropy change will be same in all the above cases.
(c) i A = i B = i C (d) i A < i B > i C *17. Which of the following is less than zero for ideal solutions?
7. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an aqueous (a) ∆Hmix (b) ∆Gmix (c) ∆Vmix (d) ∆Smix
solution containing non-volatile solute is 0.0225. The mole
18. The vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 300 and
fraction of the non-volatile solute is:
800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these two liquids are
(a) 0.80 (b) 0.725 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.0225
mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole
8. Mole fraction of C3H5(OH)3 (glycerine) in a solution of percentage of “B” is 92, then the total vapour pressure is
36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is observed to be 0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for
(a) 0.46 (b) 0.36 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.40 this solution?
9. An aqueous solution of urea containing 18 g urea in (a) ∆Vmix > 0 (b) ∆Hmix < 0
1500 cm 3 of solution has a density of 1.052 g/cm 3 . (c) ∆Vmix = 0 (d) ∆Hmix = 0
If the molecular weight of urea is 60, then the molality of 19. Consider a binary mixture of volatile liquids. If at
solution is XA = 0.4, the vapour pressure of solution is 580 torr then the
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.192 (c) 0.064 (d) 1.2 O O
mixture could be [ PA = 300 torr, PB = 800 torr]
*10. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density of
(a) H2O – HNO3 (b) C6H5Cl – C6H5Br
1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight?
(c) C6H6 – C6H5CH3 (d) nC6H14 – nC7H16
(a) 4.18 M (b) 8.14 M (c) 18.4 M (d) 18 M
20. Which of the following mixture of liquids will form an ideal
11. When 5.0 gram of BaCl2 is dissolved in water to have 106
solution?
gram of solution. The concentration of solution is
(a) 2.5 ppm (b) 5 ppm (c) 5 M (d) 5 gm L–1 (a) C2H5OH and water (b) HNO3 and water
(c) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 (d) C6H6 and C6H5CH3
12. A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A ( PAO = 100 Hg )
21. Which of the following mixture shows negative deviation
and 3 moles of volatile liquid B ( PB = 80 mm Hg ) . If
O
from Raoult’s law?
solution behaves ideally, the total vapour pressure of the (a) CHCl3 and acetone (b) CHCl3 and C2H5OH
distillate is (c) C6H5CH3 and C6H6 (d) C6H6 and CCl4
(a) 80 mm Hg (b) 85.88 mm Hg 22. Assuming each salt to be completely dissociated, which of
(c) 90 mm Hg (d) 92 mm Hg the following will have the highest osmotic pressure?
*13. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour (a) Decimolar Al2(SO4)3
pressure (in Torr) P = 254 –119 XA where XA is mole fraction (b) Decimolar BaCl2
of A in mixture. Hence, PAO and PBO are (in Torr) (c) Decimolar Na2SO4
(a) 254, 119 (b) 119, 254 (d) A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of
(c) 135, 254 (d) 119, 373 (b) and (c) and filtering
14. What is ratio of mole fraction of benzene (PºB = 150 torr) and 23. A complex containing K+, Pt(IV) and Cl– is 100% ionised
toluene (PºT = 50 torr) in vapour phase if the given solution giving i = 3. Thus, complex is
has a vapour pressure of 120 torr? (a) K2 [PtCl4] (b) K2[PtCl6]
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 7 : 3 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 7 : 8
(c) K3[PtCl5] (d) K[PtCl3]
15. At 300 K. the vapour pressure of an ideal solution
*24. pH of 1 M HA (weak acid) is 2. Hence, van’t Hoff factor of
containing 3 mole of A and 2 mole of B is 600 torr.
HA is
At the same temperature, if 1.5 mole of A and 0.5 mole of C
(non-volatile) are added to this solution, the vapour pressure (a) 1.2 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.1 (d) 1.01
of solution increases by 30 torr. What is the value of ? *25. In which case, van’t Hoff factor is maximum?
(a) 940 torr (b) 405 torr (a) KCl, 50% ionised (b) K2SO4 40% ionised
(c) 90 torr (d) None of these (c) FeCl3 30% ionised (d) SnCl4 20% ionised

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26. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is lowered 35. Which of the solutions have equal elevation in boiling point?
by 5% by dissolving a solute in it, then the approximate A. 0.1 M Na2SO4
molality of solution is B. 0.1 M MgCl2
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3 C. 0.1 M C6H12O6 (glucose)
D. 0.1 M Al(NO3)3
27. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74.
(a) A and B (b) B and C
The degree of dissociation is
(c) C and D (d) None of these
(a) 91.3% (b) 87% (c) 100% (d) 74%
36. Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionised in 0.01 molal aqueous
28. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 10 torr and at the solution. Hence, ∆Tb/Kb is
same temperature when 1 g of B solid is dissolved in 20 g of (a) 0.01 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.0175 (d) 0.02
A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0 torr. If the molecular 37. A 0.001 molal solution of a complex MA8 in water has the
mass of A is 200 amu, then the molecular mass of B is freezing point of – 0.0054°C. Assuming 100% ionization of
(a) 100 amu (b) 90 amu the complex salt and Kr for H2O = 1.86 K m–1, what is the
(c) 75 amu (d) 120 amu correct representation for the complex?
(a) [MA5] (b) [MA7]A
29. The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute
(c) [MA6]A2 (d) [MA5]A3
B in a solvent A is 95% of the vapour pressure of the pure
solvent at the same temperature. If the molecular weight of 38. Which of the following option has been arranged in the order
the solvent is 0.3 times the molecular weight of the solute, of decreasing freezing point?
what is the ratio of weight of solvent to solute? (a) 0.05 M KNO3 > 0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M sucrose >
(a) 0.15 (b) 5.7 0.075 M CuSO4
(b) 0.04 M BaCl2 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.075 M CuSO4 >
(c) 0.2 (d) None of these
0.05 M KNO3
30. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose (c) 0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.140 M sucrose > 0.04 M BaCl2 >
is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute 0.05 M KNO3
is (d) 0.075 M CuSO4 > 0.05 M KNO3 > 0.140 M sucrose >
1 1 1 1 0.04 M BaCl2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 7.6 35 76 39. A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX)
31. 1 mol each of following solutes are taken in 5 mol water. is 20% ionised. The freezing point of this solution is
(A) NaCl (B) K2SO4 (Given: Kf = 1.86°C kg mol–1 for water)
(a) – 0.45°C (b) – 0.90°C
(C) Na3PO4 (D) Glucose
(c) – 0.31°C (d) – 0.53°C
Assuming 100% ionisation of each electrolyte, vapour
pressure of solutions will be in the order 40. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionised at 1 m
(molal). If its elevation in b.p. is 2.08, then the complex is
(a) D < A < B < C (b) D < C < B < A
(Kb = 0.52°C mol–1 kg)
(c) C < B < A < D (d) Equal for all (a) K3[Fe(CN)6] (b) Fe(CN)2
32. The vapour pressure of a solvent is decreased by 10 mm of (c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) Fe(CN)4
Hgwhen a non-volatile solute was added to the pure solvent.
*41. A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 grams of water freezes
The mole fraction of solute in solution is 0.2, what would be
at –0.2°C. As ice separates, the freezing point goes down to
mole fraction of the solvent if decrease in vapour pressure –0.25°C. How many grams of ice would have separated?
is 20 mm of Hg?
(a) 18 grams (b) 20 grams
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.8
(c) 25 grams (d) 23 grams
33. The vapour pressure of a saturated solution of sparingly 42. Elevation of boiling point of 1 molar aqueous glucose
soluble salt (XCl3) was 17.20 mm Hg at 27°C. If the vapour solution (density = 1.2 g/mL) is
pressure of pure H2O is 17.25 mm Hg at 300 K. What is the (a) Kb (b) 1.20 Kb (c) 1.02 Kb (d) 0.98 Kb
solubility of sparingly soluble salt XCl3 in mole/Litre?
*43. Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm at 27°C. Number of
(a) 4.04 × 10–2 (b) 8.08 × 10–2
mol of glucose to be used per L for an intravenous injection
(c) 2.02 × 10 –2 (d) 4.04 × 10–3 that is to have the same osmotic pressure as blood, is
34. 0.5 M, 100 mL A and 0.2 M, 500 mL B are mixed at 27°C. (a) 0.3 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.4
Vapour pressure of pure A and pure B is 200 mm Hg and 44. A solution of glucose (C6H12O6) is isotonic with 4 g of urea
50 mm Hg respectively at 27°C. The ratio of partial pressures (NH2–CO–NH2) per liter of solution. The concentration of
of A and B (in vapour phase) after mixing is glucose is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 1 (a) 4 g/l (b) 8 g/l (c) 12 g/l (d) 14 g/l

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45. A solution of a substance containing 1.05 g per 100 mL was 52. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated
found to be isotonic with 3% by mass of glucose solution. into cations and anions in aqueous solution, the change in
The molecular mass (in g/mol) of the substance is freezing point of water(∆ Tf),when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate
(a) 31.5 (b) 6.3 (c) 630 (d) 63 is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol – 1)
46. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when (a) 0.0186 K (b) 0.0372 K
10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2) and 10 g sucrose (P3) are (c) 0.0558 K (d) 0.0744 K
dissolved in 250 mL of water is 53. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20° C is 185 torr. When
(a) P1 > P2 > P3 (b) P3 > P1 > P2 1.2 g of non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of
(c) P2 > P1 > P3 (d) P2 > P3 > P1 acetone at 20° C, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar
mass (g mol– 1) of the substance is
47. Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect
to be isotonic at the same temperature? (a) 128 (b) 448 (c) 32 (d) 64
(a) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl *54. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds,
(b) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2 which one will show the highest freezing point?
(c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (a) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H 2O
(d) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (b) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H 2O
(c) [Co(H2O)3Cl3]·3H 2O
*48. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN6)] in aqueous solution
gives blue colour. These two solutions are separated by a (d) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due to osmosis, 55. A solution at 20°C is composed of 1.5 mol of benzene and
there is 3.5 mol of toluene. If the vapour pressure of pure benzene
0.01 M 0.01 M
and pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr and
FeCl3
22.3 torr, respectively, then the total vapour pressure of
K4Fe(CN)6
the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium
(in vapor phase) with it will be, respectively
(a) 38.0 torr and 0.589 (b) 30.5 torr and 0.389
Side X Side Y (c) 35.8 torr and 0.280 (d) 35.0 torr and 0.480
56. A volatile liquid solute ‘A’ is dissolved in a volatile solvent
‘B’. In the vapor phase, the solute ‘A’ undergoes partial
SPM
dimerization: 2A(g)  A2(g) with an equilibrium constant
(a) Blue colour formation on side X
Kp. If the solution were ideal and no dimerization occurred,
(b) Blue colour formation on side Y the expected total pressure would be Pideal. The observed total
(c) Blue colour formation on both sides of X and Y pressure is Pobs. Assuming the vapor behaves as an ideal gas
(d) No blue colour formation mixture, which of the following is true?
*49. The partial pressure of ethane over a solution containing (a) Pobs = Pideal
6.56 × 10–2 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution contains (b) Pobs > Pideal
5.00 × 10–2 g ethane, then partial pressure is ______ (c) Pobs < Pideal
(a) 1.312 bar (b) 1.0 bar (d) The relationship depends on the mole fraction of A and
(c) 0.762 bar (d) 0.912 bar the value of Kp.
*50. Two elements A and B form compounds AB2 and AB4 (both
are non-volatile and non-electrolyte). When dissolved in INTEGER TYPE QUESTION
20.0 g of benzene, 1 g of AB2 lowers the freezing point of 57. At 10°C, the osmotic pressure of urea solution is
benzene by 2.3 K, whereas 1 .0 g of AB4 lowers it by 1 .3 K 500 mm of Hg. The solution is diluted and the temperature
[Kf (benzene) = 5.52 K mol–1 kg]. Thus, atomic masses of is raised to 25°C, when the osmotic pressure is found to be
A and B respectively, are 105.3 mm of Hg. Determine the extent of dilution done with
(a) 120, 212 (b) 96, 28 original solution.
(c) 212, 120 (d) 28, 46 58. Three particles of a solute ‘A’ associate in benzene to form
*51. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 30° C, the total species (A)3. Calculate the freezing point (in °C) of 0.25
vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mol of A and molal solution. The degree of association of solute ‘A’ is
2 moles of B is 250 mm Hg. The total vapour pressure found to be 0.80. The freezing point of benzene is 5.5°C
becomes 300 mm Hg when 1 more mol of A is added to the and its cryoscopic constant is 5.12 K m–1.
first solution. The vapour pressures (in mm Hg) of pure A *59. Two liquids A and B have PA0 : PB0 = 1 : 3 at a certain
and B at the same temperature are temperature. If the mole fraction ratio of XA : XB = 1:3,
(a) 450, 150 (b) 250, 300 the mole percentage of A in vapour in equilibrium with the
(c) 125, 150 (d) 150, 450 solution at a given temperature is _________.

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60. 500 mL of 6% (w/V) urea solution is mixed with 500 mL of ratio of N2 gas and the liquid vapour in the gaseous sample
18 % (w/V) glucose solution and final volume of mixture coming out is 25 : 4 and the vapour pressure of the liquid at
becomes 2 L after addition of water. The osmotic pressure 27°C is 0.04 atm, the molar mass (gm/mol) of liquid is.
of final 2 L solution at 27°C is 5yR atm. The value of y is *64. H2S, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the
[R → universal gas constant] quantitative analysis. If the solubility of H2S in water at STP
61. The molal freezing point depression constant of benzene is 0.2m, Henry’s law constant (in bar) for H2S in water at
(C6H6) is 4.90 K kg mol–1. Selenium exists as a polymer of 273K is ___ .
the type SeX. When 3.26 g of selenium is dissolved in 226 65. A CaCl2 aqueous solution at 27°C has an osmotic pressure
g of benzene, the observed freezing point is 0.112°C lower 16 atm and density of 1.2 gm/ml. What is depression of
than that of pure benzene. What is the value of X. (Atomic freezing point (in °C) of this solution? [Kf of water = 1.8
K Kg mol–1, R = 0.08 atm litre / mole - K] (multiply final
mass of Se = 78.8 mol– 1).
answer by 100)
*62. A radiator was filled with 10L of water to which 2.5 L of
66. Calculate solubility (in moles/litre) of a saturated
methanol (density = [Link]–1) were added. The vehicle is aqueous solution of Ag 3PO 4 if the vapour pressure of
parked outdoors where the temperature is 0°C. The temperature the solution becomes 750 torr at 373 K. (multiply final
is decreasing at a uniform rate of 0.50C/min. Upto what time answer by 54)
(in min) will there be no danger to the radiator of the car? *67. A weak benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) solution undergoes
Kf(water) = 1.86 [Link]–1.K. Assume methanol to be non- dimerization in benzene: 2C6H5COOH  (C6H5COOH)2.
volatile. Multiply final answer by four. When 1.22 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g of benzene
*63. 24.6 litre dry N2 gas is slowly passed over a liquid at 27°C and (Kf = 5.12 K kg/mol), the freezing point of the solution
1 atm. The pressure of gaseous sample coming out increases is depressed by 0.258 K. The percentage of benzoic acid
molecules that have dimerized is _______ %.
due to saturation of gas with vapours of the liquid. If the mass

Exercise-3 BRIDGE Setu

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS (a) 100.26°C (b) 100.31°C

(c) 100.36°C (d) 100.21°C
1. A weak monoprotic acid, HA, has a dissociation constant 4. The vapor pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of a non-
Ka = 1.0 × 10−5 at 25°C (298 K). The enthalpy of dissociation, volatile solute is 750 Torr at 373 K. This solution is separated
∆Hdiss, is 18.6 kJ/mol. If a 1 m aqueous solution of this acid from another aqueous solution containing 0.05 moles
is prepared, what will be its approximate boiling point? of NaCl and 0.05 moles of CaCl2 in 540 g of water by a
(Kb for water = 0.52 K kg/mol, R = 8.314 J/(mol K)) rigid, perfectly semipermeable membrane. What is the net
(a) 100.520°C (b) 100.524°C direction of solvent flow and the initial osmotic pressure of
(c) 100.780°C (d) 101.040°C the mixed electrolyte solution at 373 K? (Vapor pressure of
pure water at 373 K = 760 Torr; R = 0.0821 L/(mol K))
2. The solubility of a sparingly soluble gas X in water at 298
(a) Flow from electrolyte solution to dilute solution;
K and 1 atm partial pressure is 2 × 10−3 M. This gas reacts
Π ≈ 20.2 atm
with water according to the equilibrium: X(aq) + H2O(l)  (b) Flow from dilute solution to electrolyte solution;
Y(aq), with Kc = 4. If the partial pressure of X is maintained Π ≈ 20.2 atm
at 4 atm over the solution, what is the total concentration of (c) No net flow; Π ≈ 12.1 atm
all dissolved species originating from X? (d) Flow from electrolyte solution to dilute solution;
(a) 8 × 10−3 M (b) 3.2 × 10−2 M Π ≈ 14.2 atm
−2
(c) 4.0 × 10 M (d) 4.8 × 10−2 M 5. The cryoscopic constant (Kf ) of a solvent is 5.0 K kg/
3. A solute undergoes trimerization in a solvent: 3A  A3. mol. A 0.2 molal solution of a solute in this solvent causes
A solution is prepared that is 0.1 molal with respect to the a freezing point depression of 0.75 K. The same solute is
solute A (as monomers). At the boiling point of the solution, dissolved in a second solvent, whose ebullioscopic constant
60% of the solute has trimerized. The boiling point of this (Kb) is 2.0 K kg/mol, to make a 0.1 molal solution. Assuming
solution is 100.26°C. What would be the boiling point of a the solute behaves identically in both solvents, what is the
0.1 molal solution of a different solute, B, which dimerizes expected boiling point elevation in the second solvent?
with 80% association in the same solvent? (a) 0.10 K (b) 0.15 K (c) 0.20 K (d) 0.30 K

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6. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is governed by Henry’s 14. The molal boiling point elevation constant (Kb) for a solvent
Law, P = KH · x, where P is the partial pressure, x is the mole R ⋅ Tb2 ⋅ M
fraction, and KH is Henry’s constant. For Gas A, KH = 40 is given by Kb = , where Tb is the boiling point
1000 ⋅ ∆H vap
kbar and for Gas B, KH = 80 kbar. A liquid is exposed to
a gaseous mixture containing 20% A and 80% B by moles and M is the molar mass of the solvent. If a measurement is
at a total pressure of 10 bar. What is the ratio of the mole performed on a mountain where the atmospheric pressure is
fraction of A to B in the liquid phase (xA/xB)? significantly lower than 1 atm, how will the experimentally
determined Kb value change?
(a) 0.50 (b) 1.00 (c) 2.00 (d) 4.00
(a) It will decrease because Tb decreases.
7. 1 L of aq. solution containing 60 g urea having density = (b) It will increase because ∆Hvap decreases.
1.060 gm/mL is found to have ∆Tb = 0.5ºC. If temperature (c) It will remain exactly the same as ∆Hvap and Tb change
of this solution increases to 101.5ºC, then calculate amount proportionally.
of water which must have gone in vapour state upto this (d) It will decrease because both Tb and ∆Hvap decrease,
point. [Given: Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1 for water] but the effect of the Tb2 term dominates.
(a) 666.67 g (b) 999.97 g
*15. Henry’s law constant (KH) for N2 in water at 298 K is
(c) 777.77 g (d) 888.87 g 105 atm. A sample of water is in equilibrium with air (80%
8. 1000 gm H2O have 0.1 mole urea and its freezing point N2, 20% O2) at 1 atm. A non-volatile solute is added to the
is – 0.2ºC and now it is freezed upto – 2ºC, then how much water, lowering its vapor pressure by 2%. Assuming the
amount of ice (in g) will form? volume of the solution does not change, what is the new
mole fraction of N2 dissolved in the water?
(a) 7.84 × 10−6
(b) 8.00 × 10−6
(c) 8.16 × 10−6
(d) The mole fraction of N2 will not change.
*16. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of a weak acid,
ice HA (0.1 molal), is –0.18786°C. The pH of this solution is:
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol−1)
solute (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE

(a) 900 gm (b) 600 gm (c) 800 gm (d) 700 gm

QUESTIONS
9. What is the percent by mass of iodine needed to reduce the
freezing point of benzene to 3.5°C? The freezing point and
cryoscopic constant of pure benzene are 5.5°C and 5.12 Directions: These questions consist of two statements each,
K/m respectively. printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions,
(a) 9.01% (b) 6.01% (c) 8.01% (d) 7.01% you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a
10. A brass sample composed of 20% Zinc and 80% copper by
correct explanation of the Assertion.
mass melts at 1268K. Pure copper melts at 1357K. What is
the molal freezing point constant for copper? (b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(a) 23.14K kgmol– 1 (b) 30.14K kgmol– 1
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(c) 55.14K kgmol– 1 (d) 44.14K kgmol– 1
(d) Assertion is False but Reason is True.
11. A solution is prepared by dissolving 26.3g of CdSO4 in
17. Assertion: Addition of ethylene glycol to water lowers its
1000g water. The depression in freezing point of solution
freezing point.
was found to be 0.284K. Calculate the Van’t Hoff factor. The
Reason: Ethylene glycol is insoluble in water due to lack of
cryoscopic constant of water is 1.86K kg mol–1.
its ability to form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
(a) 1.21 (b) 3.41 (c) 4.77 (d) 7.44
18. Assertion: When NaCl is added to water a depression in
*12. The freezing point (in °C) of a solution containing 0.1 g of freezing point is observed.
K3 [Fe(CN)6] (Mol. Wt. 329) in 100 g of water (Kf = 1.86 Reason: The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes
K kg mol–1) isP: depression in the freezing point.
(a) –2.3 × 10–2 (b) –5.7 × 10–2
(c) –5.7 × 10 –3 (d) –1.2 × 10–2 MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS
∆Tb 19. Upon dissolving a substantial amount of NaCl in water at
13. Ratio of of 10 g AB2 and 14 g A2B per 100 g of
Kb room temperature (an endothermic process), which of the
solvent in their respective solution (AB2 and A2B both are following thermodynamic quantities for the system (the
non-electrolytes) is 1 mol/kg in both cases. Hence, atomic solution) show an increase?
wt. of A and B are respectively (a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy
(a) 100, 40 (b) 60, 20 (c) 20, 60 (d) 40, 100 (c) Gibbs Free Energy (d) Temperature

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*20. Two liquids A and B form a nearly ideal solution. At a certain 26. Two volatile liquids, Benzene (B) and Toluene (T), form
temperature, a solution containing 1 mole of A and 2 moles a nearly ideal solution. At 80°C, the vapor pressures are
of B has a total vapor pressure of 400 mm Hg. If 1 more PB° = 753 mmHg and PT° = 290 mmHg. A solution is prepared
mole of A is added to this solution, the total vapor pressure with 1 mole of Benzene and 1 mole of Toluene at 80°C.
increases to 500 mm Hg. The vapor pressures of pure A and Which of the following statements is/are correct?
B in mm Hg are respectively: (a) The mole fraction of Benzene in the vapor phase is
(a) P°A = 800 (b) P°A = 700 greater than 0.5.
(c) P°B = 200 (d) P°B = 100 (b) The total vapor pressure of the solution is 521.5 mmHg.
(c) If the temperature is increased, the mole fraction of
21. Which of the following pairs of liquids, when mixed, will Toluene in the vapor phase will increase.
result in an increase in temperature and a final volume less
than the sum of the initial volumes? (d) The enthalpy of mixing for this process is nearly zero.
(a) Nitric acid and Water 27. An aqueous solution contains a mixture of 0.1 M glucose
and 0.1 M KCl. Which of the following statements is/are
(b) Acetone and Carbon disulfide correct?
(c) Chloroform and Benzene (a) The solution is isotonic with a 0.3 M urea solution.
(d) Aniline and Phenol (b) The osmotic pressure of the solution is greater than that
22. 100 mL of a 0.1 M solution of a non-volatile solute A is of a 0.1 M CaCl2 solution.
mixed with 200 mL of a 0.05 M solution of a non-volatile (c) The freezing point of the solution is lower than that of
solute B. The mixture is then diluted with 100 mL of the a 0.1 M K2SO4 solution.
same solvent. Assuming the solutions are ideal and the (d) The solution will have a higher boiling point than a
solvent is water, which of the following properties of the 0.2 M sucrose solution.
final solution will be exactly half of the corresponding 28. A semipermeable membrane separates a 0.1 M solution of a
property of the initial 0.1 M solution of A? non-dissociating poly- mer from its pure solvent. Which of
(a) Osmotic Pressure at a given temperature T. the following actions will increase the net rate of osmosis
(b) Elevation in boiling point. into the polymer solution?
(c) Depression in freezing point. (a) Increasing the temperature of the system.
(d) Vapor pressure of the solution. (b) Adding more polymer to the solution.
23. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.1 mol of BaCl2 and (c) Applying a pressure on the solution side that is less than
0.1 mol of sucrose in 500 g of water. (Assume complete the osmotic pressure.
dissociation for BaCl2. Kf for water = 1.86 K kg/mol). Which (d) Using a membrane with larger pores.
of the following statements is/are correct for this solution? *29. Which of the following pairs of aqueous solutions are
(a) The molality of Cl− ions is 0.4 m. expected to be isotonic at the same temperature? (Assume
(b) The total molality of all solute particles is 0.8 m. complete dissociation of strong electrolytes).
(a) 0.1 M Urea and 0.05 M NaCl.
(c) The freezing point of the solution is approximately
−1.49 °C. (b) 0.2 M Sucrose and 0.1 M KCl.
(d) The vapor pressure of the solution will be lower than (c) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.2 M CaCl2.
that of a 0.2 m sucrose solution. (d) 0.1 M Glucose and 0.1 M NaCl.
*24. When acetone is mixed with chloroform, the following COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS
observations can be made.
(a) An increase in temperature is observed, indicating an Comprehension (Q. 30 to 31): Isopiestic analysis is a technique
exothermic process. to determine solvent activity. Two solutions, one with a known
(b) The total vapor pressure of the solution is less than that reference solute (NaCl) and the other with an unknown solute, are
predicted by Raoult’s law. placed in a sealed chamber. Solvent evaporates from the solution
with higher vapor pressure and condenses into the solution with
(c) The components can be separated by fractional lower vapor pressure until their vapor pressures become equal.
distillation at all compositions. At this point, the effective molalities (i × m) of all non-volatile
(d) The formation of a hydrogen bond between the oxygen solutes are equal. In an experiment, a 100.0 g sample of a 1.00
of acetone and the hydrogen of chloroform is the molal aqueous NaCl solution (assume iNaCl = 1.80) is placed with a
primary reason for the observed behavior. 100.0 g sample of a 2.00 molal aqueous solution of a non-volatile,
*25. A 1.0 m aqueous solution of a trichloroacetic acid non-electrolyte polymer ‘P’. The system is allowed to equilibrate.
(CCl3COOH) has a boiling point of 100.91°C. (Kb = 0.52 K 30. At the start of the experiment, from which solution will the
kg/mol). Which of the following conclusions can be drawn? net evaporation of water occur?
(a) The acid is approximately 75% dissociated. (a) From the NaCl solution, because its molality is lower.
(b) The van’t Hoff factor (i) is approximately 1.75. (b) From the polymer solution, because its effective
(c) The solution contains a higher concentration of hydronium molality is lower.
ions (H3O+) than a 1.0 m solution of acetic acid. (c) From the NaCl solution, because its effective molality
(d) Upon dilution, the degree of dissociation of the acid is lower.
will decrease. (d) From the polymer solution, because its molality is higher.

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31. Calculate the final mass of the polymer solution at Comprehension (Q. 38 to 41): Boiling point or freezing point
equilibrium. of liquid solution would be affected by the dissolved solids in the
(a) 95.0 g (b) 100.0 g (c) 102.6 g (d) 105.2 g liquid phase. A soluble solid in solution has the effect of raising
its boiling point and depressing its freezing point. The addition of
Comprehension (Q. 32 to 34): A chemical engineer is studying
non-volatile substances to a solvent decreases the vapor pressure
the phase behavior of a binary mixture of liquid A and liquid B.
and the added solute particles affect the formation of pure solvent
The pure component vapor pressures at 80°C are PA° = 800 Torr
crystals. According to many researches the decrease in freezing
and PB° = 1200 Torr. The system is known to exhibit significant
point directly correlated to the concentration of solutes dissolved
deviation from Raoult’s law. The engineer observes that at 80°C,
in the solvent. This phenomenon is expressed as freezing point
a solution with a liquid mole fraction of A, xA = 0.5, has a total
depression and it is useful for several applications such as freeze
vapor pressure of 1100 Torr. This particular composition is found
concentration of liquid food and to find the molar mass of an
to be an azeotrope.
unknown solute in the solution. Freeze concentration is a high
32. What is the nature of the deviation from Raoult’s law and quality liquid food concentration method where water is removed
the type of azeotrope formed? by forming ice crystals. This is done by cooling the liquid food
(a) Positive deviation, minimum boiling azeotrope. below the freezing point of the solution. The freezing point
(b) Positive deviation, maximum boiling azeotrope. depression is referred as a colligative property and it is proportional
(c) Negative deviation, minimum boiling azeotrope. to the molar concentration of the solution (m), along with vapour
(d) Negative deviation, maximum boiling azeotrope. pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, and osmotic pressure.
These are physical characteristics of solutions that depend
33. What is the composition of the vapor phase (mole fraction of
only on the identity of the solvent and the concentration of the
A, yA) in equilibrium with the liquid at the azeotropic point?
solute. The characters are not depending on the solute’s identity.
(a) 0.45 (b) 0.50
(Jayawardena, J. A. E. C., Vanniarachchi, M. P. G. & Wansapala,
(c) 0.55 (d) Cannot be determined. M. A. J. (2017). Freezing point depression of different Sucrose
34. If a solution with x A = 0.2 is subjected to fractional solutions and coconut water.)
distillation, what will be the composition of the initial
38. When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
distillate?
(a) Boil above 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(a) Pure A
(b) Boil below 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(b) Pure B
(c) Boil below 100°C and freeze below 0°C
(c) The azeotropic mixture
(d) Boil above 100°C and freeze below 0°C
(d) A mixture richer in A than the original solution.
39. Colligative properties are:
Comprehension (Q. 35 to 37): A researcher inves- tigates the
behavior of mercuric iodide (HgI2) in an aqueous solution (a) Dependent only on the concentration of the solute and
of potassium iodide (KI). HgI2 is insoluble in pure water but independent of the solvent’s and solute’s identity.
dissolves in a KI solution due to the formation of a soluble (b) Dependent only on the identity of the solute and the
complex ion according to the reaction: HgI2(s) + 2KI(aq)  concentration of the solute and independent of the
K2[HgI4](aq). The complex salt K2[HgI4] is a strong electrolyte solvent’s identity.
and dissociates completely into 2K+ and [HgI4]2− ions. An (c) Dependent on the identity of the solvent and solute and
experiment is conducted by adding 0.01 moles of solid HgI2 to 1 thus on the concentration of the solute.
kg of a 0.10 m aqueous solution of KI. The mixture is stirred until (d) Dependent only on the identity of the solvent and the
equilibrium is reached. (Assume the reaction goes to completion concentration of the solute and independent of the
due to the stoichiometry chosen. Kf for water = 1.86 K kg/mol). solute’s identity.
35. What is the total molality of all solute particles (ions and 40. Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as
any unreacted species) in the final equilibrium solution? the only sugar present in them. The concentration of sample
(a) 0.15 m (b) 0.19 m (c) 0.21 m (d) 0.24 m A, B and C are 0.1M, .5M and 0.2 M respectively. Freezing
36. What is the freezing point of the final solution? point will be highest for the fruit juice:
(a) −0.279°C (b) −0.335°C (a) A
(c) −0.353°C (d) −0.446°C (b) B
(c) C
37. If instead of 0.01 moles, 0.06 moles of HgI2 were added to the
initial 1 kg of 0.10 m KI solution, what would be the limiting (d) All have same freezing point
reactant and the approximate freezing point depression (∆Tf)? 41. Identify which of the following is a colligative property:
(a) Limiting reactant: HgI2; ∆Tf ≈ 0.372 K (a) Freezing point
(b) Limiting reactant: KI; ∆Tf ≈ 0.279 K (b) Boiling point
(c) Limiting reactant: KI; ∆Tf ≈ 0.372 K (c) Osmotic pressure
(d) Limiting reactant: HgI2; ∆Tf ≈ 0.279 K (d) All of the above

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MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE 45. A solution containing a mixture of 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M
K2SO4 is separated from pure water by a semipermeable
QUESTIONS membrane. The minimum external pressure in atmospheres
42. Match the binary liquid mixtures in Column-I with their that must be applied on the solution side to prevent osmosis
characteristic properties in Column-II. at 300 K is ______ . (Assume complete dissociation of salts,
R = 0.0821 L/(mol K)).
Column-I Column-II (Answer upto three decimal place)
(Mixture) (Property/Behavior) 46. A solution is prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (Molar
Mass = 60 g/mol) in 880 g of water. The density of the
A. Benzene + Toluene p. ∆Hmix < 0
solution is 1.05 g/mL. The molality of the solution is m. The
B. Chloroform (CHCl3) + q. Shows positive molarity of the solution is M. Calculate the value of (m − M).
Acetone (CH3COCH3) deviation from Raoult’s (Answer upto two decimal place)
Law *47. An electrolyte A2B3 has a molar mass of 200 g/mol. A
solution prepared by dis-solving 10.0 g of this salt in 500
C. Carbon disulphide (CS2) r. Forms a maximum g of water boils at 100.208°C. Assuming 80% dissociation
+ Acetone (CH3COCH3) boiling azeotrope of the salt, the ebullioscopic constant (Kb) of water in
K·kg/mol is_____ . (Answer upto three decimal place)
D. Nitric Acid (HNO 3 ) + s. Nearly an ideal solution
Water (H2O) INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) A–s; B–p,r; C–q; D–p,r *48. Liquids A and B form ideal solution over the entire range of
(b) A–r; B–p,s; C–q; D–p,q composition. At temperature T, equimolar binary solution
of liquids A and B has vapour pressure 45 Torr. At the same
(c) A–s; B–p,r; C–r,s; D–q
temperature, a new solution of A and B having mole fractions
(d) A–p,s; B–q,r; C–q,s; D–s XA and xB, respectively, has vapour pressure of 22.5 Torr. The
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
value of xA/xB in the new solution is____. (given that the
vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 20 Torr at temperature T)
43. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A 49. An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.2 mol of
and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole an ionic salt in 3.6 kg of water at 35°C. The salt remains
fractions of A have the total vapor pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 60% dissociated in the solution. The vapour pressure of the
bar, respectively. What is the vapor pressure of pure liquid solution is 59.724 mm of Hg. Vapor pressure of water at
A in bar? (Answer upto one decimal place) 35°C is 60.000 mm of Hg. Find the number of ions present
44. A solution is prepared by mixing 300 g of a 25% w/w per formula unit of the ionic salt.
solution of A and 400 g of a 40% w/w solution of A. Water *50. The vapor pressure of a binary solution of A and B is given
is then added to this mixture to make the total mass 1000 by the relation PT(torr) = 200 − 80XA + 20X2A , where XA is
g. The density of the final solution is 1.2 g/mL. The molar the mole fraction of A in the liquid. This solution shows a
mass of A is 60 g/mol. Calculate the molarity of the final negative deviation from Raoult’s Law. Calculate the vapor
solution. (Answer upto one decimal place) pressure of pure liquid B (P°B) in torr.

To Discover more

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Exercise-4 JEE ADVANCED LEVEL Parikshit

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS 6. The immiscible liquid system containing aniline-water boils
at 98oC under a pressure of 760 mm Hg. At this temperature,
1. A very small amount of non-volatile solute (that does not the vapour pressure of water is 700 mm Hg. If aniline is
dissociate) is dissolved is 56.8 cm3 of benzene (density distilled in steam at 98oC, then what percent of total weight
0.889 g cm–3). At room temperature, vapour pressure of this of the distillate will be aniline?
solution is 100 mm Hg while that of benzene is 102 mm Hg. (a) 7.89 (b) 8.57 (c) 30.5 (d) 44.3
If the freezing temperature of this solution is 1.3 degree
*7. The amino acid alanine has two isomers, such as α-alanine
lower than that of benzene, then what is the value of molal
and β-alanine. When equal masses of these two compounds
freezing point depression constant of benzene?
are dissolved in equal mass of a solvent, the solution of
(a) 5.07 deg/molal (b) 1.3 deg/molal
α-alanine freezes at relatively lower temperature. Which
(c) 3.9 deg/molal (d) 4.97 deg/molal forms of α-alanine or β-alanine, has the larger equilibrium
2. Using the following information determine the boiling constant for ionization?
point of a mixture containing 1560 gm benzene and 1125 gm (a) α-alanine (b) β -alanine
chlorobenzene, when the external pressure is 1000 torr.
(c) Same for both (d) Unpredictable
Assume the solution is ideal.
Given: Molar mass of benzene = 78 8. The vapour pressure of a substance of low volatility can be
Molar mass of chlorobenzene = 112.5 measured by passing an unreactive gas over a sample of the
substance and analysing the composition of the resulting
Temperature Vapour Vapour pressure gas mixture. When di-nitrogen was passed over mercury at
(0°C) pressure of of chlorobenzene 23° C, the mixture was analysed to 0.8 mg of Hg, 50.4 g of
benzene (torr) (torr) di-nitrogen at total pressure of 720 torr. The vapour pressure
80 750 120 of mercury at this temperature is (Hg = 200)
(a) 8 × 10–4 torr (b) 1.6 × 10–3 torr
90 1000 200
(c) 3.2 × 10–3 torr (d) 1.6 × 10–4 torr
100 1350 300
9. ‘x’ moles of KCl and ‘y’ mole of BaCl2 are dissolved in
110 1800 400 1 kg of water. If (x + y) = 0.1, then the observed range of
DTf is (Kf of water = 1.86 K-Kg mol–1)
120 2200 540
(a) 0.372°C to 0.558°C (b) 0.186°C to 0.93°C
(a) 120 °C (b) 110 °C (c) 100 °C (d) 90 °C
(c) 0.558°C to 0.93°C (d) 0.372°C to 0.93°C
*3. Pressure over ideal binary liquid mixture containing 10 moles
each of liquid A and B is gradually decreased isothermally. MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS
If PA° = 200 mm Hg and PB° = 100 mm Hg, find the pressure
at which half of the liquid is converted into vapour. *10. Blood cells in the human body have semipermeable
(a) 150 mm Hg (b) 166.5 mm Hg membrane and depending upon the concentration of
(c) 133 mm Hg (d) 141.4 mm Hg solution inside blood cells and outside (in the body), ‘Lysis’
(expansion of blood cells) and ‘Crenation’ (contraction
4. The vapour pressure of benzene, toluene and xylene are 80
of blood cells) may occur. Kidneys are responsible for
torr, 20 torr and 10 torr respectively at 25°C. Then which of
keeping the solution inside blood cells and blood at the same
the following is possible value of vapour pressure of equimolar
concentration. Identify the correct information.
binary/ternery solution of these at same temperature?
Assuming all forming an ideal solution with each other. (a) Lysis will occur when blood cells are kept in a solution
110 which is isotonic with blood.
(a) torr (b) 50 torr (b) Crenation will occur when blood cells are kept in a
3
solution which is hypertonic with blood.
(c) 45 torr (d) All are possible
(c) Blood cells will have normal shape when placed in an
5. Calculate solubility of a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 if isotonic solution with blood.
boiling point of its saturated solution is 373K at a pressure
(d) Lysis will occur when blood cells are kept in a solution
of 760 mm of Hg. which is hypertonic with blood.
(1 + 1.35 × 10− 5 )
11. The example of negative deviation from Raoult's law is/are
(a) 2.5 × 10–4 M (b) 7.5 × 10–4 M (a) HCl and H2O (b) C2H5OH and H2O
(c) 5.4 × 10–7 M (d) 1.8 × 10–7 M (c) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 (d) C6H6 and C6H5CH3

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12. Acetone and carbon disulphide form binary liquid solution *18. Consider the following vapour pressure composition graph.
showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law. The normal Hence
boiling point (Tb) of pure acetone is less than that of pure X
CS2. Pick out the incorrect statements among the following. Ps
(a) Boiling temperature of mixture is always less than PA Y V.P.
boiling temperature of acetone. V.P.
PB Z
(b) Boiling temperature of mixture is always less than
boiling temperature of pure CS2.
(c) When a small amount of CS2 (less volatile component) X
XAA == 01 S XX =1
A A= 0
is added to excess of acetone, boiling point of resulting (a) V.P. of A = SZ
mixture increases.
(b) V.P. of B = ZY
(d) A mixture of CS2 and CH3COCH3 can be completely
(c) V.P. of B = SY
separated by simple fractional distillation.
(d) V.P. of solution at X = SZ + SY
13. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values
of the van't Hoff factor be the same? *19. The diagram given below represents boiling point
composition diagram of solution of component A and B,
(a) 0.05 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4
which is/are incorrect among the following?
(b) 0.10 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.05 M FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4 °
TA
(c) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl2
TB°
(d) 0.05 M FeSO4.(NH4)2 SO4 . 6H2O and 0.02 M KC1.
MgCl2 . 6H2O T (K)

14. In which of the given cases, van’t Hoff factor are equal?
(a) KCl, 50% ionised (b) K2SO4, 40% ionised
XB
(c) FeCl3, 30% ionised (d) SnCl4, 20% ionised
15. When CuSO4(s) is dissolved in NH4OH solution, then the (a) The solution shows negative deviation.
correct statement is/are (b) A-B-interactions are stronger than A-A and B-B.
(a) Freezing point of solution is raised (c) The solution is an ideal solution.
(b) Boiling point of solution is lowered (d) The solution shows positive deviation.
(c) Freezing point of solution is lowered 20. For the given electrolyte AxBy, the degree of dissociation
(d) Boiling point of solution is raised ‘α’ can be given as
16. Which of the following statements is/are true about an i −1
(a) α = (b) i = (1 – α) + xα + yα
azeotropic mixture? ( x + y − 1)
(a) An azeotropic mixture boils at constant temperature. 1− i
(b) The composition of an azeotropic mixture changes on (c) α = (d) None of these
(1 − x − y )
distillation.
(c) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point *21. A liquid mixture having composition corresponding to point
lower than that of either of them when it shows positive Z in the figure shown is subjected to distillation at constant
deviation from Raoult’s law. pressure.
(d) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point
higher than that of either of them if it shows positive
deviation from Raoult’s law.
17. A substance ‘A’ has the following variation of vapour
pressure with temperature for its solid state and liquid state.
Identify the options which is/are correct?
2000
Data: For solid A: log10 P= 4 − ;
T
1500
For liquid A: log10= P 3.48 − Which of the following statement is/are correct about the
T process regarding point Z?
Where P is in mm of Hg and T in K. (a) The composition of distillate differs from the mixture.
(a) Enthalpy of vapourisation and enthalpy of fusion will (b) The boiling point goes on changing.
be temperature independent. (c) The mixture has lowest vapour pressure than that for
(b) ∆Hsub. will be approximately 9.212 kcal/mol. any other composition.
(c) ∆Hfusion will be approximately 2.303 kcal/mol. (d) Composition of an azeotrope alters on changing the
(d) ∆Hvap. will be approximately 6.909 kcal/mol. external pressure.

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22. Two solutions S1 and S2 containing 0.1 M NaCl(aq.) and 0.08 Comprehension (Q. 27 to 29): Colligative properties i.e., the properties
M BaCl2(aq.) are separated by a semipermeable membrane. of solution which depend upon the number of particles present in
Which among the following statements is/are correct? solution are osmotic pressure, depression in freezing point, elevation
(a) S1 and S2 are isotonic. in boiling point and lowering in vapour pressure. Experimental values
of colligative properties for electrolytes are always higher than those
(b) S1 is hypertonic and S2 is hypotonic.
obtained theoretically because electrolytes dissociate to furnish more
(c) S1 is hypotonic and S2 is hypertonic. ions in solution. On the other hand, experimentally obtained values of
(d) Osmosis will take place from S1 to S2. colligative properties for associating nature of solute are lower than
*23. 1 mole of a non-volatile solid is dissolved in 200 moles those obtained theoretically. The ratio of experimental colligative
of water. The solution is taken to a temperature TK properties value to theoretical colligative properties value is called
as van't Hoff factor.
(lower than the freezing point of solution) to cause ice
formation. After removal of ice, the remaining solution is 27. A weak monoprotic acid (molar mass 180) aqueous
taken to 373 K where vapour pressure is observed to be 740 solution of 0.18% w/v at 300 K has observed osmotic
mm of Hg. Identify the correct option. pressure 0.369 atm. What should be its Van't Hoff
factor (i)? (R = 0.082 L-atm/K mole)
[Given data: Kf (H2O) = 2 K kg mol–1 and normal boiling
point of H2O = 373 K.] (a) 1.2 (b) 1.5 (c) 1 (d) 0.5
(a) 163 moles of ice will be formed. 28. What is observed molar mass (in g/mol) of weak monoprotic
acid in solution in above question?
2000
(b) F.P. of final solution = 273 – K. (a) 270 (b) 180 (c) 120 (d) 90
37 × 18
29. If equal volume of 0.01 M NaOH is added in the solution
(c) Freezing point of original solution should be − 10 °C. of above weak acid solution, then what will be new
18
observed osmotic pressure at same temperature? Neglect the
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure of final solution hydrolysis, dissociation of water and any volume contraction
1 or expansion. Assume 100% dissociation of the salt formed.
will be .
201 (a) 0.246 atm (b) 0.369 atm
(c) 0.123 atm (d) 0.492 atm
COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS Comprehension (Q. 30 to 31): The composition of vapour over
a binary ideal solution is determined by the composition of the
Comprehension (Q. 24 to 26): Vapour pressure of a solvent is liquid. XA and YA are the mole fractions of ‘A’ in the liquid and
the pressure exerted by vapours when they are in equilibrium with vapour at equilibrium, respectively.
its solvent at that temperature. The vapour pressure of a solvent
*30. The value of XA for which (YA – XA) is maximum is
is dependent on nature of solvent, temperature, addition of a
non-volatile solute as well as nature of solute that dissociates or PAo .PBo – PAo PAo .PBo – PBo
associates. The vapour pressure of a mixture obtained by mixing (a) (b)
PAo – PBo
PAo – PBo
two volatile liquids is given by PM = P°A. XA + P°B. XB where P°A
and P°B are vapour pressures of pure components A and B and PAo .PBo – PBo PAo .PBo – PAo
XA and XB are their mole fraction in liquid mixture. For solute- (c) (d)
PAo PBo
solvent system, the relation becomes PM = P°A. XA where B is a
non-volatile solute. *31. The vapour pressure of solution at this composition is
24. The vapour pressure of benzene and its solution with a non- (a) PAo . PBo (b) (PAo – PBo )
electrolyte solute are 640 and 600 mm respectively. The
molality of the solution is (c) (PAo + PBo ) (d) 0.5(PAo + PBo )
(a) 0.80 (b) 0.85 (c) 0.90 (d) 0.95 Comprehension (Q. 32 to 34): The experimental values of
25. A mixture of two volatile liquids A and B for 1 and 3 moles colligative properties of many solutes in solution resembles
respectively has a V.P. of 300 mm at 27°C. If one mole of A calculated values of colligative properties.
is further added to this solution, the vapour pressure becomes However in same cases, the experimental value of colligative
290 mm at 27°C. The vapour pressure of pure A is property differ widely than those obtained by calculation. Such
experimental values of colligative properties are known as
(a) 250 mm (b) 316 mm
Abnormal values of colligative property. Cause for abnormal
(c) 220 mm (d) 270 mm values of colligative properties are:
26. The amount of solute (mol. wt. 60 g/mol) required to dissolve (i) Dissociation of solute: It increases the value of colligative
in 180 g of water to reduce the vapour pressure to 4/5th of properties. e.g.: Dissociation of KCl, NaCl etc. in H2O.
the vapour pressure of pure water, is (ii) Association of solute: It decreases the value of colligative
(a) 120 g (b) 150 g (c) 200 g (d) 60 g properties. e.g.: Dimerisation of acetic acid in benzene

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32. If degree of dissociation of an electrolyte A2B3 is 25% in a 36.
solvent, then
Column-I Column-II
(a) Normal boiling point = Experimental boiling point
(b) Normal freezing point < Experimental freezing point A. Acetone + CHCl3 p. ∆Smix. > 0
(c) Normal osmotic pressure = (1/2) Experimental osmotic B. Ethanol + Water q. ∆Vmix. > 0
pressure
C. C2H5Br + C2H5l r. ∆Hmix. < 0
(d) Normal molecular weight = Experimental molecular
weight D. Acetone + Benzene s. Maximum boiling azeotrope
33. 4 different 100 mL solutions are prepared by mixing 1 t. Minimum boiling azeotrope
gram each of NaCl, (NH2)2CO, Na2SO4 and K4[Fe(CN)6]
(a) A→ p; B→ p, q, t; C→ p; D→ q, t
at temperature T. Correct order of osmotic pressure is
(b) A→ p, s; B→ q, t; C→ p; D→ p, q,
(a) (NH2)2CO solution > NaCl solution > Na2SO4 solution
> K4[Fe(CN)6] solution (c) A→ p, r; B→ q, t; C→ p; D→ p, q, t
(b) NaCl solution > Na2SO4 solution > (NH2)2CO solution (d) A→ p, s, r; B→ p, q, t; C→ p; D→ p, q, t
> K4 [Fe(CN)6] solution 37.
(c) K 4[Fe(CN) 6] solution > Na 2SO 4 solution > NaCl Column-I Column-II
solution (NH2)2CO solution (Solute, degree of (van't Hoff
(d) Na2SO4 solution > (NH2)2CO solution > NaCl solution ionisation) factor)
> K4 [Fe(CN)6] solution
A. K2SO4 ; α = 0.85 p. 3.7
34. One mole l2 (solid) is added in 1 M, 1 litre Kl solution. Then
(a) Osmotic pressure of solution increases B. SnCl2 ; α = 0.7 q. 4.0
(b) Freezing point of solution increases C. Al(NO3)3 ; α = 0.9 r. 2.7
(c) Relative lowering in vapour pressure decreases
(d) No change in boiling point of solution D. Fe2(SO4)3 ; α = 0.75 s. 2.4
(a) A→ r; B→ s; C→ p; D→ q
MATCH THE COLUMN TYPE (b) A→ p; B→ s; C→ r; D→ q
QUESTIONS (c) A→ s; B→ r; C→ p; D→ q
35. Assuming all the solutes are non-volatile and all solutions (d) A→ q; B→ r; C→ p; D→ s
are ideal and neglect the hydrolysis of cation and anion. 38.
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. 10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH p. Osmotic pressure A. Ideal solutions p. Solute-solvent
aqueous solution is mixed of solution interactions are weaker
with 10 mL of 0.1 M HCl decreases than either solute-solute
aqueous solution or solvent-solvent
B. 10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH q. Vapour pressure interactions
aqueous solution is added to of solution
B. Solutions showing q. Solute-solvent
10 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH increases
aqueous solution positive deviations interactions are similar
to solute-solute
C. 10 mL of 0.1 M HCl r. Boiling point of
aqueous solution is added solution decreases and solvent-solvent
to 10 mL of 0.1 M NH3 interactions
aqueous solution C. Solutions showing r. Solute-solvent
D. 10 mL of 0.1 M HCl s. Freezing point of negative deviations interactions are stronger
aqueous solution is added solution increases than both solute-solute
to 10 mL of 0.1 M KOH and solvent-solvent
aqueous solution interactions
(a) A→ q, r, s; B→ p, q, r, s; C→ p, q, r; D→ p, r, s (a) A→ p; B→ r; C→ q
(b) A→ p, q; B→ q, r, s; C→ p, r, s; D→ p, q, r, s (b) A→ r; B→ p; C→ q
(c) A→ p, q, r, s; B→ p, q, r, s; C→ p, q, r, s; D→ p, q, r, s (c) A→ p; B→ q; C→ r
(d) A→ p, q, r; B→ p, q, s; C→ p, q, r, s; D→ p, q (d) A→ q; B→ p; C→ r

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NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS *47. Equimolar mixture of A and B form an ideal solution at 300
K. The vapour of this solution is condensed in 2nd container
(UPTO TWO DECIMAL PLACE) and temperature is maintained at 300 K. The vapour of 2nd
39. A binary solution of A and B is ideal. If total vapour pressure container is condensed into 3rd container and temperature is
of this solution is represented as maintained at 300 K. If total vapour pressure of solution in
PS (in mm Hg) = 100 – 50 XB x
3rd container is x mm Hg, the value of is [P°A, and P°B
Here, PS ⇒ Total vapour pressure 9
XB ⇒ Mole fraction of B in liquid state at 300 K are 100 mm Hg and 200 mm Hg respectively.]
This solution is passed through different distillation stages 48. A non-volatile solute P is present in 500 mL solution and
and at a particular stage, it is found that the mole fraction of molarity is found to be 1 M. A sample of 5 mL of this solution
4 is taken in another container and further 0.4 g of P is added
A in vapour phase is . The total vapour pressure of solution
7 and volume is increased by adding water such that final
at this stage of distillation is ______ (in mm Hg). volume becomes 10 L. If molarity of diluted solution is 10–3
40. The mole fraction, x of a solute in an ideal saturated solution M, the molar mass of solute P (in g/mol) is _________.
− ∆H  1 1  49. A solution comprising 0.1 mol of naphthalene and 0.6 mol
in a solvent is given by log10x = ×  −  where of benzene is cooled until some solid benzene freezes out.
2.303R  T T0 
The solution is then decanted off from solid and warmed
DHf and T0 are the molar heat of fusion and the freezing point to 353 K, where its vapour pressure is found to be 608
of the solute. The melting point of phenanthrene is 100°C torr. The freezing and normal boiling points of benzene are
and the latent heat of fusion is 24.3 cal g–1. Calculate x, (the 278.5 K and 353 K respectively. The amount of benzene
ideal solubility) of phenanthrene (C14H10) in benzene at 25°C. that freezes out due to cooling is x g. The value of 5x is
41. Mixture of two liquids A and B is placed in cylinder _________ .
containing piston. Piston is pulled out isothermally so that 50. A solution containing compound 'X' in water and a solution
volume of liquid decreases but that of vapour increases. containing glucose in water were put in a closed system.
When negligibly small amount of liquid was remaining, the By doing this, some water vapour was removed from one
mole fraction of A in vapour is 0.4. Given PA° = 0.4 atm and
solution and got condensed in the other. It is found that when
PB° = 1.2 atm at the experimental temperature. Calculate
both the solutions were at equilibrium vapour pressure, one
the total pressure (in atm) at which the liquid has almost
solution contains 10% (w/w) of 'X' and the other 5% (w/w)
evaporated. (Assume ideal behaviour).
glucose. The molar mass (in g/mol) of 'X' is
*42. The K sp (25°C) of sparingly soluble salt XY 2 (s) is
3.56 × 10– 5 (mol lit–1)3 and at 30°C, the vapour pressure of 51. Safrole is contained in oil of sassafras and was once
its saturated solution in water is 31.78 mm of Hg. Calculate used to flavour root beer. A 2.4 mg sample of safrole was
the enthalpy change (in kJ/mol) of the reaction. dissolved in 100.0 mg of diphenyl ether. The solution has
 X+2 (aq) + 2Y–(aq) a freezing of 25.64oC. The freezing point of pure diphenyl
XY2(s) 
ether is 26.84 oC and the freezing-point-depression
Given : Vapour pressure of pure water = 31.82 mm of Hg
constant Kf, is 8.00oC/m. The molecular mass (in g/mol)
43. What is Van’t Hoff factor when benzene vapour pressure of safrole is
falls from 165 mm Hg to 162 mm Hg on addition of 6 g of
52. 1.22 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g of acetone and
CH3COOH to 3 moles of benzene?
100 g of benzene separately. Boiling point of the solution in
44. Calculate the density of glycol solution whose 2.976 litre on acetone increases by 0.17 °C while in benzene increases by
addition to 5 litres of water produces an antifreeze solution 0.13°C. Kb for acetone and benzene are 1.7 K kg mol–1 and
which protects automobile radiator down to –20°C. 2.6 K kg mol–1. If x and y are the molecular weight of benzoic
Kb and Kf for water = 1.86 and 0.52 (K kg/mol). acid in acetone and benzene respectively, then the value of
45. 1 g of monobasic acid when dissolved in 100 g of water (x + y) is:
lower the freezing point by 0.168°C. 0.2 gm of the same 53. Vapour pressure of an equimolar mixture of benzene and
acid when dissolved and titrated required 15.1 ml of N/10 toluene at a given temperature was found to be 80 mm Hg.
alkali. Calculate degree of dissociation of the acid. (kf for If vapour above the liquid phase is condensed in a beaker,
water is 1.86 K kg/mol). vapour pressure of this condensate at the same temperature
INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
was found to be 100 mm Hg. If the pure sate vapour pressure
of benzene and toluene is respectively x and y. Then
46. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of 0.1 molal aqueous solution x + 2y
determine the value of .
of urea is 0.03 mm less than that of water and the vapour 50
pressure of 0.1 molal solution of KCl is 0.0594 mm less than 54. In 10 3 Litre sample of hard water CaSO 4 and MgSO 4
that of water. The apparent percentage dissociation of KCI in is present. If elevation in Boiling point is 0.000052°C.
water at the given temperature is (Neglect the mole of solute Calculate the degree of Hardness (in ppm) of hard water.
particles in comparison to the mole of water in both solutions.) (Kb for H2O = 0.52 [Link]/mol)

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55. The vapour pressure of fluorobenzene at t°C is given by the the aqueous layer (180 g of water). Assuming the solute
equation does not dissolve in CCl₄ and the volumes of the liquids
1250 are constant, calculate the total vapor pressure (in torr) in
= 7.0 −
log p (mm Hg)
t + 220 the container after the solute is added.
Calculate the boiling point of the liquid in °C if the external  [Roundoff to one decimal place]
(applied) pressure is 5.26% more than required for normal
58. Calculate the freezing point (in °C) of an aqueous solution
boiling point. (log 2 = 0.3)
prepared by mixing 100 mL of 0.1 M formic acid (HCOOH)

RANGE BOUND QUESTIONS and 100 mL of 0.05 M sodium formate (HCOONa). The acid
dissociation constant (Ka) for HCOOH is 1.8 x 10⁻⁴ and Kf
56. A certain substance 'A' undergoes dimerization in an aqueous
for water is 1.86 K·kg·mol⁻¹. Assume the final density of
solution to the extent of 80%. A solution is prepared by
the solution is 1.0 g/mL. [Roundoff to two decimal place]
dissolving 20 g of 'A' in 1.0 kg of water. The vapor pressure
of this solution at 373 K is 750 mm Hg. The vapor pressure 59. A solution is prepared with 156 g of benzene (C₆H₆) and 122 g
of pure water at 373 K is 760 mm Hg. Calculate the molar of benzoic acid (C₇H₆O₂). At 100°C, the vapor pressure of
mass (in g/mol) of 'A'. [Integer type] pure benzene is 1350 torr. Benzoic acid is non-volatile at
57. Two immiscible liquids, water and carbon tetrachloride this temperature but dimerizes in benzene. The equilibrium
(CCl₄), are placed in a closed container at 40 °C. The vapor constant (Kc) for the dimerization (2C₇H₆O₂  (C₇H₆O₂)₂)
pressures of pure water and pure CCl₄ at this temperature in benzene is 2.5 L/mol. Calculate the vapor pressure (in
are 55.3 torr and 213 torr, respectively. After equilibrium is
established, 11.7 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute torr) of the solution at 100 °C.
with a molar mass of 58.5 g/mol is added exclusively to [density of benzene is 0.876 g/mL] [Integer type]

Exercise-5 PAST YEAR QUESTIONS PYQ's

EXPRESSING CONCENTRATIONS 4. 'x' g of NaCl is added to water in a beaker with a lid. The
temperature of the system is raised from 1°C to 25°C. Which
OF SOLUTIONS out of the following plots, is best suited for the change in the
1. Sea water, which can be considered as a 6 molar (6 M) solution molarity (M) of the solution with respect to temperature?
of NaCl , has a density of 2 g mL−1. The concentration of [Consider the solubility of NaCl remains unchanged over
dissolved oxygen (O 2) in sea water is 5.8 ppm . Then the the temperature range] [02 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
concentration of dissolved oxygen (O2) in sea water, is
x × 10−4 m. M
M
x = _______. (Nearest integer) (a) (b)
Given: Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g mol−1
5 10 15
Molar mass of O2 is 32 g mol−1 [04 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] 5 10 15
t/°C 
t/°C 
2. Fortification of food with iron is done using FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H 2O . The
mass in grams of the FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H 2O required to achieve 12
ppm of iron in 150 kg of wheat is ________ (Nearest integer) M M
[Given: Molar mass of Fe,S and O respectively are 56,32 and (c) (d)
16 g mol–1 ] [04 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
5 10 15 5 10 15
3. 10 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 20 mL of 1 M t/°C  t/°C 
HCl solution kept in a beaker. Now, 10 mL of this mixture is
poured into a volumetric flask of 100 mL containing 2 moles 5. Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of
of HCl and made the volume upto the mark with distilled the solution is: [22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
water. The solution in this flask is: (a) 2 m (b) 2.79 m (c) 1.79 m (d) 3 m
 [03 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] 6. 20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH
(a) 0.2 M NaCl solution (b) 20 M HCl solution solution. The final concentration of the solution is __________
(c) 10 M HCl solution (d) Neutral solution × 10–2 M.(Nearest integer) [22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]

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7. The molarity of a 70% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of a 19. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea is 4.44 m. Mole
monobasic acid (X) is _____ × 10–1 M (Nearest integer) fraction of urea in solution is x × 10–3.
[Given: Density of aqueous isolation of (X) is 1.25 g mL–1 Value of x is _______. (integer answer)
Molar mass of the acid is 70 g mol–1] [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]  [08 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
8. Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% by mass. The 20. A solution is prepared by adding 1 mole ethyl alcohol in 9
volume in mL of the solution which contains 30 g of nitric mole water. The mass percent of solute in the solution is
acid is __________. _______ (Integer Answer)
Given: Density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 g /m L. (Given: Molar mass in g mol–1 Ethyl alcohol: 46, water: 18)
 [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]  [08 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 32 (d) 40
21. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
9. The quantity which changes with temperature is: (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
 [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] Assertion (A): 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in
(a) Molarity (b) Mass percentage water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1 M oxalic
(c) Molality (d) Mole fraction acid solution.
10. Volume of 3M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1) which Reason (R): Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is
can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is _____ × 10–1 dm3. 126 g mol–1. [10 April, 2023 (Shift-II)]
 [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
11. A solution of H2SO4 is 31.4% H2SO4 by mass and has a from the options given below:
density of 1.25g/[Link] molarity of the H2SO4 solution (a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct
is____M (nearest integer) explanation of (A).
[Given molar mass of H2SO4 = 98g mol–1] (b) (A) is false but (R) is true.
 [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
12. Molality of 0.8 M H2SO4 solution (density 1.06 g cm–3) is
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
______ × 10–3 m. [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
explanation of (A).
13. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required to
22. The molality of a 10%(V/V) solution of di-bromine solution
prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is _____ g.
(Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g mol–1) in CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is 'x'. x = _________ × 10–2 M.
 [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] (Nearest Integer)
[Given: molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol–1
14. If a substance 'A' dissolves in solution of a mixture of 'B'
and 'C' with their respective number of moles as nA, nB and atomic mass of C = 12 g mol–1
nC, mole fraction of C in the solution is: atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1
 [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] density of dibromine 3.2 g cm–3
nC nC density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm–3] [1 Feb, 2023 (Shift-II)]
(a) (b)
nA × nB × nC nA + nB + nC
23. A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200 g of its 25%
(c) nC
(d)
nB solution and 500 g of its 40% solution (both by mass). The
nA − nB − nC nA + nB mass percentage of the resulting sugar solution is. (Nearest
15. The molarity of 1L orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) having Integer) [11 April, 2023 (Shift-I)]
70% purity by weight (specific gravity 1.54 g cm–3 ) is 24. When 800 mL of 0.5 M nitric acid is heated in a beaker,
______M. (Molar mass of H3PO4 = 98 g mol–1) its volume is reduced to half and 11.5 g of nitric acid is
 [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] evaporated. The molarity of the remaining nitric acid solution
16. The Molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing 5.85 g is x × 10–2M. (Nearest Integer)
of NaCl in 500 mL water is: [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)] (Molar mass of nitric acid is 63 g mol–1)
(Given: Molar Mass Na : 23 and Cl : 35.5 gmol–1)  [26 July, 2022 (Shift-I)]
(a) 20 (b) 0.2 (c) 2 (d) 4 25. The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving 6.3 g of
17. The density of 'x' M solution ('x' molar) of NaOH is 1.12 g oxalic acid (H2C2O4 . 2H2O) in 250 mL of water in mol L–1
mL–1. while in molality, the concentration of the solution is is x × 10–2. The value of x is ______. (Nearest Integer)
3 m (3 molal). Then x is [06 April, 2024 (Shift-I)] [Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]
(Given: Molar mass of NaOH is 40 g/mol)  [31Aug, 2021 (Shift-I)]
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 3.8 (d) 2.8 26. 100 mL of Na3PO4 solution contains 3.45 g of sodium.
18. Molality (m) of 3M aqueous solution of NaCl is: (Given: The molarity of the solution is ____ × 10–2 mol L–1, (Nearest
Density of solution = 1.25 g mL–1, Molar mass in g mol–1 : Integer)
Na-23,Cl-35.5) [06 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] [Atomic Masses – Na : 23.0 u, O : 16.0 u, P : 31.0 u]
(a) 2.90 m (b) 2.79 m (c) 1.90 m (d) 3.85 m  [26 Aug, 2021 (Shift-II)]

42 JEE (XII) Module-1 | CHEMISTRY

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27. The mole fraction of glucose (C6H12O6) in an aqueous binary
P10 P20 − P10 P10 P10 − P20
solution is 0.1. The mass percentage of water in it, to the (a) , (b) ,
nearest Integer, is __________ . [3 Sept, 2020 (Shift-I)] P20 P20 P20 P20
28. The mole fraction of urea in an aqueous urea solution P20 P10 − P20 P20 P20 − P10
(c) , (d) ,
containing 900 g of water is 0.05. If the density of the P10 P20 P10 P20
solution is 1.2 g cm–3, the molarity of urea solution is _____.
(Given data: Molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol–1 33. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and methyl benzene at
and 18 g mol–1, respectively) [JEE Adv (2019)] 27°C is given as 80 Torr and 24 Torr, respectively. The mole
fraction of methyl benzene in vapour phase, in equilibrium
SOLUBILITY AND VAPOUR PRESSURE with an equimolar mixture of those two liquids (ideal
solution) at the same temperature is____× 10–2 (nearest
OF LIQUID SOLUTIONS integer) [09 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
29. Liquid A and B form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures 34. If O2 gas is bubbled through water at 303 K, the number
of pure liquids A and B are 350 and 750 mm Hg respectively of millimoles of O2 gas that dissolve in 1 litre of water is
at the same temperature. If xA and xB are the mole fraction of __________. (Nearest Integer)
A and B in solution while yA and yB are the mole fraction of (Given: Henry’s Law constant for O2 at 303 K is 46.82 k bar
A and B in vapour phase then: [07 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] and partial pressure of O2 = 0.920 bar)
xA y A xA y A (Assume solubility of O 2 in water is too small, nearly
(a) < (b) = negligible) [29 July, 2022 (Shift-II)]
xB y B xB y B
35. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of
(d) ( x A − y A ) < ( xB − yB )
xA y A
(c) > 20 kPa in the vapour above water. The molar solubility of
xB y B oxygen in water is ____ × 10–5 mol dm–3.
30. At the sea level, the dry air mass percentage composition is (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
given as nitrogen gas : 70.0, oxygen gas : 27.0 and argon gas [Given: Henry’s law constant = KH = 8.0 × 104 kPa for O2
: 3.0. If total pressure is 1.15 atm , then calculate the ratio of
Density of water with dissolved oxygen = 1.0 kg dm–³]
following respectively:  [17 March, 2021 (Shift-I)]
(i) partial pressure of nitrogen gas to partial pressure of
36. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm of Hg
oxygen gas
and that of acetone is 344 mm of Hg. A solution of CS2 in
(ii) partial pressure of oxygen gas to partial pressure of acetone has a total vapour pressure of 600 mm of Hg. The
argon gas false statement among the following is
(Given : Molar mass of N, O and Ar are 14, 16, and 40 g (a) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other than to
mol–1 respectively) [07 April, 2025 (Shift-I)] themselves
(a) 4.26, 19.3 (b) 2.59, 11.85 (b) Heat must be absorbed in order to produce the solution
(c) 5.46, 17.8 (d) 2.96, 11.2 at 35°C
31. Which of the following graph correctly represents the plots (c) Raoult's law is not obeyed by this system
of KH at 1 bar gases in water versus temperature? (d) a mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone has a
 [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)] volume of < 200 mL [7 Jan, 2020 (Shift-I)]
37. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution for all compositions
of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50
mole fractions of A have the total vapor pressures of 0.3
(a) (b) and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapor pressure of pure
liquid B in bar? [JEE Adv 2020]
38. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire
composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressures of pure
A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 Pa, respectively.
The composition of the vapour in equilibrium with a solution
containing 40 mole percent of A at this temperature is
(c) (d)  [10 Jan, 2019 (Shift-I)]
(a) XA = 0.76 ; XB = 0.24 (b) XA = 0.37 ; XB = 0.63
(c) XA = 0.28 ; XB = 0.72 (d) XA = 0.4 ; XB = 0.6
39. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared
by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of water. If the vapour
32. Consider a binary solution of two volatile liquid components pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg,
1 and 2. x1 and y1 are the mole fractions of component 1 in lowering of vapour pressure will be: (molar mass of urea =
liquid and vapour phase, respectively. The slope and intercept 60 g mol–1) [10 April, 2019 (Shift-I)]
1 1 (a) 0.027 mmHg (b) 0.031 mmHg
of the linear plot of vs are given respectively as:
 x1 y1 [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] (c) 0.028 mmHg (d) 0.017 mmHg

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IDEAL AND NON-IDEAL SOLUTIONS COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES AND

40. Which of the following binary mixture does not show the ABNORMAL MOLAR MASS
behaviour of minimum boiling azeotropes?
 [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] 46. HA ( aq )  H + ( aq ) + A − ( aq )
(a) H 2O + CH3COC2H5 (b) C6H5OH + C6H5 NH 2 The freezing point depression of a 0.1 m aqueous solution
(c) CS2 + CH3COCH3 (d) CH3OH + CHCl3 of a monobasic weak acid HA is 0.20 C . The dissociation
constant for the acid is Given :
41. Match List-I with List-II
K f ( H 2O ) = 1.8 K kg mol−1 , molality ≡ molarity
List-I List-II  [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]

(A)
Solution of chloroform
(I)
Minimum (a) 1.38 × 10−3 (b) 1.1 × 10−2
and acetone boiling azeotrope
(c) 1.90 × 10−3 (d) 1.89 × 10−1
Solution of ethanol and
(B)
water
(II) Dimerizes 47. The percentage dissociation of a salt (MX3) solution at given
temperature (van’t Hoff factor i = 2 ) is..........% (Nearest
Solution of benzene and Maximum
(C) (III) integer) [07 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
toluene boiling azeotrope
48. Given below are two statements:
Solution of acetic acid in
(D) (IV) DVmix = 0  [04 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
benzene
M 1RT f
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Statement I: Molal depression constant Kf is given by ,
 [07 April, 2025 (Shift-II)] ∆S fus
where symbols have their usual meaning.
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) Statement II: Kf for benzene is less than the Kf for water.
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) appropriate answer from the options given below :
42. A solution is made by mixing one mole of volatile liquid A (a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
with 3 moles of volatile liquid B. The vapour pressure of pure (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
A is 200 mm Hg and that of the solution is 500 mm Hg. The (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
vapour pressure of pure B and the least volatile component (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
of the solution, respectively, are: [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
49. XY is the membrane / partition between two chambers
(a) 1400 mm Hg, A (b) 1400 mm Hg, B 1 and 2 containing sugar solutions of concentration c1 and
(c) 600 mm Hg, B (d) 600 mm Hg, A c 2 ( c1 > c 2 ) molL−1 . For the reverse osmosis to take place identify
43. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative the correct condition (Here p1 and p1 are pressures applied
deviation from Raoult's law will have: on chamber 1 and 2)
 [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] ;
(a) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point  
(b) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point ͘
6ROXWLRQ 6ROXWLRQ
(c) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point F F
(d) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
<
44. Identify the mixture that shows positive deviations from A. Membrane/Partition; Cellophane, p1 > π
Raoult’s Law [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
B. Membrane/Partition; Porous, p 2 > π
(a) (CH3)2CO + C6H5NH2 (b) CHCl3 + C6H6
C. Membrane/Partition; Parchment paper, p1 > π
(c) CHCl3 + (CH3)2CO (d) (CH3)2CO + CS2
D. Membrane/Partition : Cellophane, p 2 > π
45. Two open beakers one containing a solvent and the other
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
containing a mixture of that solvent with a non-volatile solute
 [04 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
are together sealed in a container. Over time.
(a) B and D only (b) A and D only
(a) The volume of the solution and the solvent does not change.
(c) A and C only (d) C only
(b) The volume of the solution increases and the volume
of the solvent decreases. 50. 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are dissolved in
(c) The volume of the solution does not change and the 500 g of water. The boiling point of the resulting solution is:
volume of the solvent decreases. (Given: Ebullioscopic constant of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
(d) The volume of the solution decreases and the volume  [03 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
of the solvent increases. [7 Jan, 2020 (Shift-II)] (a) 379.2 K (b) 377.3 K (c) 375.3 K (d) 277.3 K

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51. When 1 g each of compounds AB and AB2 are dissolved in 15 g nt
Solve
of water separately, they increased the boiling point of Liquid
water by 2.7 K and 1.5 K respectively. The atomic mass of Frozen
Solution
Solutio
n

A (in amu) is_______×10–1(Nearest integer) (Given : Molal (c)

boiling point elevation constant is 0.5 K kg mol–1)
DTf

VP
[02 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
52. Arrange the following soloutions in order of their increasing Tf Tf°
boiling points. T
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea K
–3
(iii) 10 M NaCl (iv) 10–2 M NaCl
[22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] Frozen Solution
(a) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv) Solution Liquid Solvent
(b) (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii)
(c) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) (d)

VP
(d) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) DTf
53. CrC13.xNH3 can exist as a complex. 0.1 molal aqueous Tf Tf°
solution of this complex shows a depression in freezing point
T
of 0.558°C. Assuming 100% ionisation of this complex and K
coordination number of Cr is 6, the complex will be
56. The observed and normal molar masses of compound
(Given Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
MX2 are 65.6 and 164 respectively. The percent degree of
(a) [Cr(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 (b) [Cr(NH3)6] Cl3 ionisation of MX2 is _____%. (Nearest integer)
(c) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3] (d) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2] Cl [24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
54. When a non-volatile solute is added to the solvent, the vapour 57. What is the freezing point depression constant of a solvent,
pressure of the solvent decreases by 10 mm of Hg. The mole 50 g of which contain 1 g non volatile solute (molar mass
fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What would be 256 g mol-1) and the decrease in freezing point is 0.40 K?
the mole fraction of the solvent if decrease in vapour pressure [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
is 20 mm of Hg? [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] (a) 5.12 K kg mol-1 (b) 3.72 K kg mol-1
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.6 (c) 4.43 K kg mol-1 (d) 1.86 K kg mol-1
55. Consider the given plots of vapour pressure (VP) vs 58. Assume a living cell with 0.9%(ω/ω) of glucose solution
temperature (T/K). Which amongst the following options is (aqueous). This cell is immersed in another solution having
correct graphical representation showing DTf , depression in equal mole fraction of glucose and water.
the freezing point of a solvent in a solution?
(Consider the data up to first decimal place only)
[24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
The cell will: [28 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
(a) show no change in volume since solution is 0.9%(ω/ω)
Solution nt
(b) shrink since solution is 0.45%(ω/ω) as a result of
o lve association of glucose molecules (due to hydrogen
(a) zenS
Fro bonding)
VP

DTf (c) shrink since solution is 0.5%(ω/ω)

Tf Tf° (d) swell up since solution is 1%(ω/ω)

T
59. 1.24g of AX2 (molar mass 124 g mol–1) is dissolved in
K 1 kg of water to form a solution with boiling point of
100.0156°C, while 25.4 g of AY 2 (molar mass 250 g
mol –1) in 2 kg of water constitutes a solution with a
boiling point of 100.0260°C.
Solution t
en
S olv Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
(b) uid
Liq Which of the following is correct? [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
VP

DTf
(a) AX2 and AY2 (both) are completely unionised.
(b) AX2 is fully ionised while AY2 is completely unionised.
Tf Tf°
(c) AX2 and AY2 (both) are ionised.
T
K (d) AX2 is completely unionised while AY2 is fully ionised.

Solutions 45
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60. If A2B is 30% ionised in an aqueous solution, then the value 68. 2.7 Kg of each of water and acetic acid are mixed, The freezing
of van't Hoff factor (i) is ________ × 10–1. point of the solution will be –x °C. Consider the acetic acid
 [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] does not dimerise in water, nor dissociates in water x = ______
(nearest integer) [04 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
61. Given below are two statements:
[Given: Molar mass of water = 18 g mol–1, acetic acid = 60
Statement I: NaCl is added to the ice at 0°C, present in g mol–1]
the ice cream box to prevent the melting of ice cream.
Kf H2O: 1.86 K kg mol–1
Statement II: On addition of NaCl to ice at 0°C, there is Kf acetic acid: 3.90 K kg mol–1
a depression in freezing point.
freezing point: H2O = 273 K, acetic acid = 290 K]
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
69. An artificial cell is made by encapsulating 0.2 M glucose
answer from the options given below: [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
solution within a semipermeable membrane. The osmotic
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false pressure developed when the artificial cell is placed within
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true a 0.05 M solution of NaCl at 300 K is _______ × 10–1 bar.
(c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (Nearest Integer) [05 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false [Given: R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1]
Assume complete dissociation of NaCl
62. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 × 105 Pa at 273K.
Osmotic pressure of the same solution at 283K is____× 104 70. Considering acetic acid dissociates in water, its dissociation
Nm–2. [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] constant is 6.25 × 10–5. If 5 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in
1 liter water, the solution will freeze at –x × 10–2 °C, provided
63. What happens to freezing point of benzene when small pure water freezes at 0 °C. [05 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
quantity of napthalene is added to benzene? x = _________. (Nearest integer)
 [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] Given: (Kf )water = 1.86 K kg mol–1.
(a) Increases density of acetic acid is 1.2 g mol–1
(b) Remains unchanged molar mass of water = 18 g mol–1.
(c) First decreases and then increases molar mass of acetic acid = 60 g mol–1.
density of water = 1g cm–3
(d) Decreases
Acetic acid dissociates as
64. The solution from the following with highest depression in CH3COOH  CH3COOΘ + H⊕
freezing point/lowest freezing point is 71. Consider the dissociation of the weak acid HX as given below
 [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] HX(aq)  H+(aq) + X–(aq), Ka = 1.2 × 10–5
(a) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water [Ka: dissociation constant]
(b) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene The osmotic pressure of 0.03M aqueous solution of HX at
300 K is ______ ×10–2 bar (nearest integer).
(c) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
[Given: R = 0.083 L bar Mol–1 K–1]
(d) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water  [06 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
65. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, 72. When 'x' × 10–2 mL methanol (molar mass = 32 g; density =
‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M, 0.01M & 0.001 M, 0.792 g/cm3) is added to 100 mL water (density =1 g/cm3),
respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor (i) for these the following diagram is obtained.
solutions will be in the order. [01 Feb, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(a) iA < iB < iC (b) iA < iC < iB Water
Vapour pressurce

olic
han
(c) iA = iB = iC (d) iA > iB > iC e m Met lution
en syst so
66. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to 18.6 kg Froz
of water to protect the freezing point at –24°C is________
kg (Molar mass in g mol–1 for ethylene glycol is 62, Kf of 270.65 273.15
water = 1.86 K kg mol–1). [01 Feb, 2024 (Shift-II)] Temperature/K
x = ................... (nearest integer)
67. 2.5 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte is dissolved in 100 g of
[Given: Molal freezing point depression constant of water at
water at 25°C. The solution showed a boiling point elevation 273.15K is 1.86 K kg mol–1] [06 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
by 2°C. Assuming the solute concentration in negligible with
73. A solution containing 10 g of an electrolyte AB2 in 100 g
respect to the solvent concentration, the vapour pressure of
of water boils at 100.52°C. The degree of ionization of the
the resulting aqueous solution is _______ mm of Hg (nearest
electrolyte (α) is ______ × 10 –1 (nearest integer).
integer) [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
[Given: Molar mass of AB2 = 200 g mol–1 Kb (molal boiling
[Given: Molal boiling point elevation constant of water (Kb) point elevation const. of water) = 0.52 K kg mol–1, boiling
= 0.52 K. kg mol–1, 1 atm pressure = 760 mm of Hg, molar point of water = 100°C; AB2 ionises as AB2 → A2+ +2B –]
mass of water = 18 g mol–1]  [08 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]

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74. 0.05M CuSO4 when treated with 0.01M K2Cr2O7 gives green 80. The osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by
colour solution of Cu2Cr2O7. The [SPM : Semi Permeable dissolving 2.0 g of protein of molar mass 60 kg mol–1 in
Membrane] [09 April, 2024 (Shift-I)] 200 mL of water at 27°C is _____Pa. (nearest Integer)
(Use R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1) [26 June, 2022 (Shift-II)]
K2Cr2O7 CuSO4
81. Which one of the following 0.06 M aqueous solutions has
SideX SPM SideY lowest freezing point? [22 July, 2021 (Shift-II)]
Due to osmosis: (a) Kl (b) Al2(SO4)3
(a) Green colour formation observed on side Y. (c) C6H12O6 (d) K2SO4
(b) Green colour formation observed on side X. 82. 40 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180) is mixed with
(c) Molarity of K2Cr2O7 solution is lowered. 200 mL of water. The freezing point of solution is _____ K.
(d) Molarity of CuSO4 solution is lowered. (Nearest Integer)
75. Solid Lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The solution [Given: Kf =1.86 K kg mol–1; Density of water = 1.00 g
was found to boil at 100.15ºC. When 0.2 mol of NaCl is cm–3; Freezing point of water = 273.15 K]
[27 Aug, 2021 (Shift-II)]
added to the resulting solution, it was observed that the
solution froze at –0.8ºC. The solubility product of PbCl2 Question stem for Question No. (83-84)
formed is _____________ ×10–6 at 298 K. (Nearest Integer) The boiling point of water in a 0.1 molal silver nitrate solution
(solution A) is x°C. To this solution A, an equal volume of 0.1
Given: Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1 and Kf = 1.8 kg mol–1. Assume
molal aqueous barium chloride solution is added to make a new
molality to be equal to molarity in all cases.
solution B. The difference in the boiling points of water in the two
[29 Jan, 2023 (Shift-I)] solutions A and B is y × 10–2 °C.
76. Evaluate the following statements for their correctness. (Assume: Densities of the solutions A and B are the same as that
(A) The elevation in boiling point temperature of water will of water and the soluble salts dissociate completely.
be same for 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M urea. Use: Molal elevation constant (Ebullioscopic constant).
(B) Azeotropic mixtures boil without change in their composition Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1; Boiling point of pure water as 100°C.)
(C) Osmosis always takes place from hypertonic to 83. The value of x is ______. [JEE Adv 2021]
hypotonic solution 84. The value of |y| is ______.
(D) The density of 32% H2SO 4 solution having molarity 85. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g
4.09 M is approximately 1.26 g mL−1 of benzene, vapor pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to
(E) A negatively charged sol is obtained when KI solution 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene
is added to silver nitrate solution. (in K) upon addition of the solute is ______.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (Given data: Molar mass and the molal freezing point
[31 Jan, 2023 (Shift-II)] depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol –1 and
5.12 K kg mol–1, respectively) [JEE Adv (2019)]
(a) (B), (D), and (E) only (b) (A), (B), and (D) only
(c) (A) and (C) only (d) (B) and (D) only 86. A set of solutions is prepared using 180 g of water as a
solvent and 10 g of different non-volatile solutes A, B and C.
77. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water The relative lowering of vapour pressure in the presence
to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mm Hg? of these solutes are in the order [Given, molar mass of
(Assume dilute solution is being formed) A = 100 g mol–1; B = 200 g mol–1; C = 10,000 g mol–1]
[6 Sept, 2020 (Shift-II)]
Given: Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mm Hg at room
temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol–1. (a) A > C > B (b) C > B >A
[11 April, 2023 (Shift-II)] (c) A > B > C (d) B > C >A
(a) 4.69 g (b) 3.59 g 87. The osmotic pressure of a solution of NaCl is 0.10 atm
(c) 2.59 g (d) 3.69 g and that of a glucose solution is 0.20 atm. The osmotic
pressure of a solution formed by mixing 1 L of the sodium
78. A solution containing 2g of a non-volatile solute in 20g of chloride solution with 2 L of the glucose solution is
water boils at 373.52 K. The molecular mass of the solute x × 10–3 atm. x is____. (nearest Integer)
is gmol–1. (Nearest Integer) [4 Sept, 2020 (Shift-II)]
Given, water boils at 373 K, Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1 88. The freezing point of diluted milk sample is found to be
[30 Jan, 2023 (Shift-I)] 0.2°C, while it should have been –0.5°C for pure milk. How
79. When a certain amount of solid A is dissolved in 100 g of much water has been added to pure milk to make the diluted
sample? [11 Jan, 2019 (Shift-I)]
water at 25°C to make a dilute solution, the vapour pressure
of the solution is reduced to one-half of that of pure water. (a) 1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk
The vapour pressure of pure water is 23.76 mmHg. The (b) 3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk
number of moles of solute A added is________. (Nearest (c) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk
Integer) [27 July, 2022 (Shift-II)] (d) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk

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Exercise-6 PW CHALLENGERS

SINGLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS Comprehension (Q. 8 to 12): A liquid mixture of benzene and
toluene is composed of 1 mol of benzene and 1 mol of toluene.
1. A dilute solution contains m mol of solute A in 1 kg of a Given: PT° = 32.05 mm Hg, PB° = 103 mm Hg
solvent with molal elevation constant Kb; The solute dimerises
 A2. What is correct expression for
in solution as 2A  8. If the pressure over the mixture at 300 K is reduced, at what
pressure (in mm Hg) does the first vapour form?
the equilibrium constant for this dimer formation? (DTb is (Answer upto two decimal place)
the elevation in boiling point for the given solution) 9. What is the mole percent of benzene in the first trace of vapour
K b (K b m + ∆Tb ) K b (K b m + ∆Tb ) formed. (Integer Type)
(a) K = (b) K =
(2∆Tb + K b m) 2
(∆Tb + K b m) 2 10. If the pressure is reduced further, at what pressure
K b (K b m + ∆Tb ) K b (K b m − ∆Tb ) (in mm Hg) does the last trace of liquid disappear?
(c) K = (d) K = (Integer Type)
(∆Tb − 2K b m) 2
(2∆Tb − K b m) 2
11. What is the mole percent of Toluene in the last trace of liquid?
2. The partial molar volumes of propanone (CH3COCH3)and (Integer Type)
butanone (CH3COCH2CH3 ) in a mixture in which mole
12. What will be the pressure (in mm Hg) when 1 mol of the
fraction of propanone is 0.4 are 75 cm3 mol–1 and 80 cm3 mol–1.
mixture has been vaporized?
Thus, the total volume of solution of total mass 1 kg, is
(a) 1175 cm3 (b) 1000 cm3 (a) 72.56 (b) 67.29 (c) 63.52 (d) 57.46

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

(c) 1200 cm 3 (d) 972 cm3

COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS 13. Two solutions of non-volatile solutes A and B are prepared.
Comprehension (Q. 3 to 5): 10 mole of liquid ‘A’ and 20 mole The molar mass ratio, M A = 1 . Both are prepared as 5%
MB 3
of liquid ‘B’ is mixed in a cylindrical vessel containing a piston
arrangement. Initially a pressure of 2 atm is maintained on the solutions by weight in water. If the two solutions are mixed
to prepare two new solution S1 and S2, the mixing ratio being
solution. Now, the piston is raised slowly and isothermally. Assume
2 : 3 and 3 : 2 by volume for S1 and S2 respectively what
ideal behaviour of solution and A and B are completely miscible. (∆Tf )S1
PA° = 0.6 atm and PB° = 0.9 atm would be the value of ?
(∆Tf )S2
3. The pressure below which the evaporation of liquid solution
(Answer upto two decimal place)
will start, is
(a) 0.6 atm (b) 0.8 atm INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) 0.77 atm (d) 0.9 atm
14. In water at 20°C, the Henry’s law constant for oxygen is
1
4. The pressure at which th of the total amount (by mol) of 4.6 × 104 atm, and for nitrogen it is 8.2 × 104 atm, where
3 the concentration are expressed as mole fractions. If we
liquid solution taken initially, will be present in the vapour are to prepare 90 mole % pure oxygen from air (successive
form, is treatments by partially dissolving in water and then all the
(a) 0.283 (b) 0.791 (c) 0.600 (d) 0.652 gas is removed under vacuum the water), how many cycles
would be necessary to achieve this result?
5. The minimum pressure for the existence of liquid solution is
(a) 0.6 atm (b) 0.8 atm (c) 0.77 atm (d) 0.9 atm 15. When cells of the skeletal vacuole of a frog wee placed in
series of NaCl solution of different concentrations at 6°C, it
Comprehension (Q. 6 to 7): The freezing point of an aqueous was observed microscopically that they remained unchanged
saturated solution of I2 is –0.0024°C. More than this can dissolve in x% NaCl solution, it shrank in more concentrated solution
in an KI solution because of the following equilibrium: and swells in more dilute solutions. Water freezes from the
 _______I3–(aq)
I2(aq) + I–(aq)_______  x% salt solution at –0.40°C. If the osmotic pressure of the
cell cytoplasm at 6°C is ‘y’× 0.0821 atm, then the value of
0.1 M KI solution dissolves 12.5 g/L of I2.
‘y’ is (Kf = 1.86 K mol–1 kg)
6. Identify the closest value of equilibrium constant KC for the
16. Consider the following arrangements, in which a solution
above equilibrium. (When concentrations are taking mole/L) containing 20 g of haemoglobin in 1 dm3 of the solution is
(a) 512.7 (b) 707.2 (c) 634.5 (d) 891.3 placed in right compartment and pure water is placed in left
7. Calculate the freezing point (in K) of the resulting solution. compartment, separated by SPM. At equilibrium, the height
Assume molarity to be equal to molality and also assume that of liquid in the right compartment is 74.5 mm in excess of
conc. of I2 in all saturated solution is same. that in the left compartment. The temperature of the system
is maintained at 298K. The number of millimoles in 320 g
[Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol– 1] of haemoglobin is (Given: The density of final solution is
(a) 263.4 (b) 252.5 (c) 272.6 (d) 265.7 1.013 g/ml, g = 10 m/s2, R = 0.08 L-atm / K-mol)

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ANSWER KEY
RIDDLES

1. Raoult’s law 2. Osmotic pressure 3. Vapor pressure of a solution 4. van’t Hoff factor (i)
5. Colligative properties

CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)

21. [ PBº = 600 mm Hg , PAº = 400 mm Hg ] 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. [< 80 mL] 25. (a) 26. (c)
27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. [65.25 g/mol]
31. vapour pressure of pure water = 20.22 Torr.
Mol. weight of non-volatile solute = 54 g/mol. 32. [0.33] 33. [5.08 K kg mole–1] 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. [π = 8.35 atm]
45. [34.89 g/mol.] 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. [i = 1.0753, Ka = 3.07 × 10–3] 50. (b) 51. (a)
52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a)

EXERCISE-1 PRARAMBH (TOPICWISE)

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b)

EXERCISE-2 PRABAL (JEE MAIN LEVEL)

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. [5] 58. [5] 59. [10] 60. [30]
61. [8] 62. [93] 63. [112] 64. [278] 65. [102] 66. [10] 67. [99]

EXERCISE-3 SETU (BRIDGE)

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a,b) 20. (a,c)
21. (a,d) 22. (a,b,c) 23. (a,b,c,d) 24. (a,b,d) 25. (a,b,c) 26. (a,b,c,d) 27. (a,d) 28. (a,b) 29. (a,b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. [0.6] 44. [4.7] 45. [12.315] 46. [0.17] 47. [0.495] 48. [19] 49. [7] 50. [200]

Solutions 49
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EXERCISE-4 PARIKSHIT (JEE ADVANCED LEVEL)
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b,c,d)
11. (a,c) 12. (a,c,d) 13. (b,d) 14. (b,d) 15. (a,b) 16. (a,c) 17. (a,b,c,d) 18. (a,c,d) 19. (a,b,c) 20. (a,b,c)
21. (c,d) 22. (c,d) 23. (a,b,c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. [71.42] 40. [0.23]
41. [0.67] 42. [52.5] 43. [0.56] 44. [1.04] 45. [0.20] 46. [98] 47. [20] 48. [80] 49. [78] 50. [380]
51. [160] 52. [52.50] 53. [4] 54. [5] 55. [85] 56. [16 to 17] 57. [267.0 to 267.4]
58. [–0.18 to – 0.20] 59. [1041 to 1047]

EXERCISE-5 PYQ’s (PAST YEAR QUESTIONS)

1. [2] 2. [9] 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. [57] 7. [125] 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. [7]
11. [4] 12. [815] 13. [7] 14. (b) 15. [11] 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. [74] 20. [22]
21. (d) 22. [139] 23. [36] 24. [54] 25. [20] 26. [50] 27. [47] 28. [2.8-3.05] 29. (c)
30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33. [23] 34. [1] 35. [25] 36. (d) 37. [0.20] 38. (c) 39. (d)
40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. [33] 48. (d) 49. (c)
50. (b) 51. [25] 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. [75] 57. (a) 58. (*) 59. (b)
60. [16] 61. (b) 62. [73] 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. [15] 67. [707] 68. [31] 69. [25]
70. [19] 71. [76] 72. [543] 73. [5] 74. (d) 75. [13] 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. [100] 79. [6]
80. [415] 81. (b) 82. [271] 83. [100.1] 84. [2.5] 85. [0.97 to 1.06] 86. (c) 87. [167] 88. (b)

EXERCISE-6 (PW CHALLENGERS)

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. [67.52] 9. [76] 10. [49]
11. [76] 12. (d) 13. [0.82] 14. [7] 15. [60] 16. [5]

Chapter Complete? Take The Test!

Scan QR To Challenge Yourself Now
Note: You can make your own part test by
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50 JEE (XII) Module-1 | CHEMISTRY

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DETERMINANTS
PAPER
143
124
SETS
INTRODUCTION
(Arav is a curious JEE aspirant and RIDDLES
Maya is his friend and Mentor.) To get your mind thinking about the exciting ideas of
Aarav: “I edited a photo with a filter that this chapter, here are a few riddles that you’ll be able to
stretched it. One number told me how solve once you master the concepts within these pages.
much bigger it got—and whether it flipped 1. From a square matrix, I arise,
A single scalar, for your eyes.
like a mirror. If the number was zero, the
I tell you much about its form,
picture got crushed flat and I couldn’t get And whether solutions have the storm.
the original back.” What am I?
Maya: “That’s the idea of a determinant. It 2. If my value is zero, flat and low,
acts like a stamp for a square move: it tells Then no inverse, can ever grow,
you the overall scale, whether there’s a flip, My matrix is special, lacking power,
and whether the move is reversible. There A singular form, in that hour.
What state am I describing?
are quick ways to read this stamp—swap
3. If two of my rows, are quite the same,
two rows and the sign changes, copycat Or columns duplicate, in my frame.
rows make it vanish, scaling a row scales My value instantly becomes,
the number, and staircase patterns let you A perfect zero, silencing drums.
multiply entries on the main line. With the What property of determinants is this?
adjoint trick, a nonzero stamp even gives 4. When rows and columns, I exchange,
you the exact undo.” My numerical value, does not change.
From matrix A to AT, you see,
Aarav: “So one number gives a verdict on
My magnitude stays, wild and free.
big changes and reversibility.” What property of determinants is this?
Maya: “Exactly—and that’s a huge advantage 5. If a row or column, all are zero,
in JEE problems.” Aarav: “Determinants My final value, a sad hero.
boil a whole transformation down to one Without a fight, I will agree,
decisive number.” My result is zero, for all to see.
What property of determinants is this?
Maya: “And that number tells you scale, Intrigued by these puzzles? The concepts and
flip, and invertibility—exactly what you solutions are waiting for you in the detailed
need for fast JEE solutions.” explanations that follow. Happy learning!

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What is Determinant? Evaluation of Determinant

Let us consider the three variable equation, There are six ways to evaluate a determinant, three ways are with
a1x + a2y + a3z = 0 respect to rows and three ways are with respect to columns.
b1x + b2y + b3z = 0
 a11 a12 a13 
Let A =  a21 a23 
c1x + c2y + c3z = 0
a22
from above equations after eliminating x, y, z.
 a31 a32 a33 
Determinant form can be represented as
C1 C2 C3 Let us evaluate with respect to R1
↓ ↓ ↓
|A| or ∆ = a11C11 + a12 C12 + a13C13 (using first row).
R1 → a1 a2 a3
R2 → b1 b2 b3      = a11(–1)1 + 1 M11 + a12(–1)1+2 M12 + a13(–1)1+3 M13
R3 → c1 c2 c3
It is a third order determinant having three rows and three columns. a22 a23 a a23 a a22
= a11 − a12 21 + a13 21
        a32 a33 a31 a33 a31 a32
Determinant of a Square Matrix
Let A = [a]n×n be a n × n matrix. Determinant of A is defined as   = a11 (a22 × a33 – a32 × a23) – a12 (a21 × a33 – a31 × a23)
|A| = |aij|n×n.
Determinant can be represented as det(A) or |A| or ∆ or D.  + a13 (a21 × a32 – a31 × a22)

Element of a determinant is denoted by aij, where i and j represent n

row and column number respectively. In general for a n × n matrix A, | A |= ∑ ai1Ci1 ,

i =1
 a11 a12 a13 
 a23  be a third order square matrix, Cij ≡ (–1)i+j Mij, where Cij is the cofactor of aij and Mij is the minor
Now, let A =  a21 a22
 a31 a33 
a32 of element aij this process is called determinant expansion by
minors (or “Laplacian expansion by minors”, sometimes further
then determinant is
shortened to simply “Laplacian expansion”).
a11 a12 a13
Note:
| A |= a21 a22 a23
a31 a32 a33 1. A determinant of order three will have nine minors and each
a31 = element of third row and first column minor will be determinant of order two and a determinant of
a12 = element of first row and second column an order four will have sixteen minors each minor will be
determinant of order three.
 5 3
e.g. A =   , |A| = 20 + 3 = 23 2. Sum of product of element of any row (column) with their
 −1 4 
corresponding cofactors is equal to the value of determinant.
Minors and Cofactors 3
Let ∆ be a determinant. Then minor of element aij, denoted by Mij i.e., D = a11C11 + a12C12 + a13C13 = ∑ aij Cij , i = 1, 2, 3
is defined as the determinant of the submatrix obtained by deleting j =1

ith row and jth column of ∆. Cofactor of element aij, denoted by Cij,
is defined as Cij = (– 1)i+j Mij. a11 a12 a13
D = a21 a22 a23
a b c
a31 a32 a33
e.g.: ∆ = p q r  
x y z 3. Sum of product of elements of any row (column) with
cofactors of corresponding elements of any other row
q r
M 11 = = qz − yr = C11 . (column) is ZERO. i.e. a11C12 + a12 C22 + a13C32 = 0. The
y z
above result remain true for determinant of every order.
a b 4. While expanding, instead of multiplying by (–1)i+j, we
M 23 = = ay – bx, C23= – (ay – bx) = bx – ay.
x y directly multiply by + 1 or –1 according to (i + j) even or odd.

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3 1 6
Ex-1 Evaluate determinant 5 7 4 with respect to C1 a1 b1 c1
7 3 0 4. If D = a2 b2 c 2 then D can not be (where Ai, Bi
a3 b3 c3
3 1 6 and Ci (i = 1, 2, 3) denote cofactors of ai, bi and ci
7 4 1 6 1 6
Sol. 5 7 4 =3 −5 +7 respectively).
3 0 3 0 7 4
7 3 0 (a) c1C1 + c2C2 + c3C3 (b) a1A1 + a2A2 + a3A3
(c) a2A1 + b2B1 + c2C1 (d) a1A1 + b1B1 + c1C1
= 3(0 – 12) –5 (0 – 18) +7(4 – 42) = –212
5. The cofactor of the element ‘4’ in the determinant
Ex-2 Find the Co-factors of a11, a12, a13, a21, a22 for 1 3 5 1
1 2 3 2 3 4 2
A  4 −5 6 
A = [aij] given by,= is
8 0 1 1
 7 0 −1
0 2 1 1

−5 6 (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) – 10 (d) –4

=
Sol. (i) Minor of 1 = 5
0 −1 5 6 3
Co-factor of 1 = (–1)1+1 5=5 6. If A = −4 3 2 , then cofactors of the elements
−4 −7 3
4 6
(ii) Minor of 2 = =−4 − 42 =−46
7 −1 of second row are
(a) 39, –3, 11 (b) –39, 3, 11
Co-factor of 2 = (–1)1+2 (–46) = 46
(c) –39, 27, 11 (d) –39, –3, 11
4 −5
=
(iii) Minor of 3 = 35
7 0
Co-factor of 3 = (–1)1+3 35 = 35 TRANSPOSE OF A DETERMINANT
2 3 The transpose of a determinant is the determinant of transpose of
(iv) Minor of 4 = = −2
0 −1 the corresponding matrix.
Co-factor of 4 = (–1)2+1 (–2) = 2 a1 b1 c1 a1 a2 a3
(v) Minor of −5 =
1 3
=−22 =D a2 b2 =
c2 ⇒ D′ b1 b2 b3
7 −1 a3 b3 c3 c1 c2 c3
Co-factor of –5 = (–1)2+2 (–22) = –22
PROPERTIES OF DETERMINANT
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
1. |A| = |A′| for any square matrix A.
a +1 a − 2
1. Evaluate i.e., the value of a determinant remains unaltered, if the rows
a + 2 a −1
& columns are interchanged (Reflection Property),
(a) 2a2 (b) 0 (c) –3 (d) 3
2. Write minor and cofactor along second column and a1 b1 c1 a1 a2 a3
evaluate determinant w.r.t. third row. i.e., D= a2 b2 c2 = b1 b2 b3 = D′
1 3 1 a3 b3 c3 c1 c2 c3
2 −1 1 2. If any two rows (or columns) of a determinant be interchanged,
0 4 2 the value of determinant is changed in sign only (Switching

Property).
3. The sum of the product of the elements of any row of
a determinant A with the corresponding cofactor of the a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2
same row is always equal to =e.g., Let D1 a=
2 b2 c2 and D2 a1 b1 c1
A a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
(a) |A| (b) (c) 1 (d) 0
2
Then D2 = – D1

Determinants 3
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3. Let λ be a scalar, then λ |A| is obtained by multiplying any a1 b1 c1

one row (or any one column) of |A| by λ (Scalar Multiple =
i.e., D1 a2 b2 c2 C1 → C1 + λC2 + µC3
Property) a3 b3 c3

a1 b1 c1 Ka1 Kb1 Kc1

a1 + λ b1 + µc1 b1 c1
=D1 a= b2 c2 and D2 a2 b2 c2
and D= a2 + λ b2 + µc2
2
2 b2 c2 .
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
a3 + λ b3 + µc3 b3 c3
Then D2 = KD1
Then D2 = D1
Note: |λA| = λn |A|, when A = [aij]n.
4. A skew-symmetric matrix of odd order has determinant value 9. The determinant of upper and lower triangular matrix is equal

zero. to product of it’s diagonal elements

Note: For the determinant where aij = –aji for all i & j a1 b1 c1
(i) Diagonal elements are zero. =
i.e., D =
0 b2 c2 a1b2 c3
aii = –ajj (for diagonal elements) ⇒ 2aii = 0 ⇒ aii = 0
0 0 c3

(ii) If the order of above determinant is ODD then its value

0 a −b SOME SPECIAL DETERMINANT
is ZERO e.g., −a 0 c =0
b −c 0 1 x x2
1. 1 y y 2 =( x − y )( y − z )( z − x)
5. If a determinant has all the elements zero in any row or 1 z z2
column, then its value is zero (All Zero Property),
1 x x3
0 0 0 2. 1 y y 3 = ( x − y )( y − z )( z − x)( x + y + z )
=i.e., D a=2 b2 c2 0. 1 z z3
a3 b3 c3

1 x2 x3
6. If a determinant has any two rows (or columns) identical
3. 1 y 2 y 3 = ( x − y )( y − z )( z − x)( xy + yz + zx)
(or proportional), then its value is zero (Proportionality or
1 z2 z3
Repetition Property),
a b c
a1 b1 c1
4. b c a= 3abc − a 3 − b3 − c 3
=
i.e., D a= b1 c1 0.
1 c a b
a3 b3 c3

= –(a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca)
     
7. If each element of any row (or column) can be expressed as
a sum of two terms then the determinant can be expressed as a b c
the sum of two determinants, i.e., (Sum Property), Note: If a, b, c > 0, then b c a < 0
c a b
a1 + x b1 + y c1 + z a1 b1 c1 x y z
a2 b=
2 c2 a2 b2 c2 + a2 b2 c2

FACTOR THEOREM
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
8. The value of a determinant is not altered by adding to the
elements of any row (or column) a constant multiple of Use of factor theorem to find the value of determinant. If by

the corresponding elements of any other row (or column) putting x = a the value of a determinant vanishes then (x − a) is a
(Invariance Property), factor of the determinant.

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a b c CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING

Ex-3 Simplify b c a
c a b x y z x 2y z
7. If ∆ = p q r then 2 p 4q 2r is equal to
Sol. Using R1 → R1 + R2 + R3 a b c a 2b c
(a) ∆2 (b) 4∆ (c) 3∆ (d) ∆/2
a+b+c a+b+c a+b+c
8. Using properties of determinants prove that
= b c a
sin 2 A sin A cos A cos 2 A
c a b

sin 2 B sin B cos B cos 2 B =
1 1 1 sin 2 C sin C cos C cos 2 C

= (a + b + c) b c a – sin (A – B) sin (B – C) sin (C – A).
c a b Given that A + B + C = π

9. Show that x = 2 is a root of the equation
Apply C1→ C1 – C2, C2 → C2 – C3 x −6 −1
2 −3 x x − 3 = 0
0 0 1
−3 2 x x + 2
= (a + b + c) b − c c − a a
c−a a −b b 10. If the value of xyz = – 2007 and

a+x b c
= (a + b + c) ((b – c) (a – b) – (c – a)2)
=∆
a b + y=c 0 then the value of ayz +
= (a + b + c) (ab + bc – ca – b2 – c2 + 2ca – a2) a b c+z
= (a + b + c) (ab + bc + ca – a2 – b2– c2) bzx + cxy is
≡ 3abc–a3–b3–c3
(a) 2007 (b) –2007
(c) 0 (d) None of these
a b c
a1 b1 c1
Ex-4 Simplify a b c 2 2 2
11. If ∆ = a2 b2 c2 and Ai, Bi, Ci denote the cofactors
bc ca ab
a3 b3 c3
Sol. Since detereminant is equal to of ai, bi, ci , for i = 1, 2, 3 respectively, then the value
A1 B1 C1
a 2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2 of the determinant A2 B2 C2 is
1 abc
= a3 b3 c3 = a3 b3 c3 A3 B3 C3
abc abc
abc abc abc 1 1 1 (a) ∆ (b) ∆2 (c) ∆3 (d) 0

1 log x y log x z
Apply C1 → C1 – C2, C2 → C2 – C3
=12. ∆ log
= y x 1 log y z
a −b
2 2
b −c
2 2
c 2 log z x log z y 1
= a −b 3 3
b −c
3 3
c 3 (a) logx y logy z logz x (b) 1
0 0 1 (c) 0 (d) None of these

 a b c
a+b b+c c2 13. Let a matrix is given by A =  p q r  and suppose
 
= (a − b)(b − c) a + ab + b 2
2
b + bc + c 2
2
c3  x y z 
0 0 1
 p + x q + y r + z
= (a – b) (b – c) [ab2 + abc + ac2 + b3 + b2c + bc2 – a2b that det. A = 6. If B = a + x b + y c + z  then
 
– a2c – ab2 – abc – b3 – b2c]  a + p b + q c + r 
= (a – b) (b – c) [c(ab + bc + ca) – a(ab + bc + ca)] (a) det. B = 6 (b) det. B = –6
(c) det. B = 12 (d) det. B = –12
= (a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (ab + bc + ca)

Determinants 5
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b1 + c1 c1 + a1 a1 + b1 b+c a b (b + c) 2 a2 bc
14. The determinant b2 + c2 c2 + a2 a2 + b2 = 20. Let D1 =
c + a c a and D2 =
(c + a ) b 2 ca . 2

b3 + c3 c3 + a3 a3 + b3 a+b b c ( a + b) 2 c2 ab
The divisor which is common to both D1 and D2 is
a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(a) (a – b)
(a) a2 b2 c2 (b) 2 a2 b2 c2
(b) (ab + bc + ca)
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
(c) a + b + c
a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1 (d) (c + a)
(c) 3 a2 b2 c2 (d) 4 a2 b2 c2
−x a b
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
21. Let a, b > 0 and=
∆ b − x a , then
b c bα + c a b −x
=
15. The determinant ∆ c d cα + d is
(a) a + b – x is a factor of ∆
bα + c cα + d a α 3 − cα
equal to 0, if (b) x2 + (a + b)x + a2 + b2 – ab is a factor of ∆

(a) b, c, d are in A.P. (c) ∆ = 0 has three real roots

(b) b, d, c are in G.P. (d) a – b + x is a factor of ∆
(c) b, c, d are in H.P. 22. The determinant
(d) α is a root of ax3 – bx2 – 3cx – d = 0
a 2 (1 + x) ab ac
16. The digits A, B, C are such that three digit number A88,
=∆
ab b (1 + x)
2
bc is divisible by
6B8, 86C are divisible by 72, then the determinant
A 6 8 ac bc c (1 + x)
2

8 B 6 is divisible by (a) x – 3
8 8 C (b) (1 + x)2
(a) 72 (b) 144 (c) 288 (d) 1216 (c) x2
17. Three distinct points P(3u2, 2u3); Q(3v2, 2v3) and (d) x2 + 1
R(3w2, 2w3) are collinear then sin θ
 1 1 
(a) uv + vw + wu = 0  sin θ
23. Let A =− 1 sin θ  , where 0 ≤ θ < 2π,

(b) uv + vw + wu = 3
 −1 − sin θ 1 
(c) uv + vw + wu = 2
then
(d) uv + ww + wu = 1
(a) Det (A) = 0
18. The absolute value of the determinant (b) Det A ∈ (0, ∞)
−1 2 1
(c) Det (A) ∈ [2, 4]
3 + 2 2 2 + 2 2 1 is
(d) Det A ∈ [2, ∞)
3− 2 2 2 − 2 2 1
24. If a1, a2, a3, ..., an are in G.P., then the determinant
(a) 16 2 (b) 8 2 (c) 8 (d) 4 2 log an log an +1 log an +2
19. If a, b, c > 0 & x, y, z ∈ R, then the determinant ∆ = log an + 3 log an +4 log an +5 is equal to
log an +6 log an +7 log an +8
(a x + a − x ) 2 (a x − a − x ) 2 1
(b y + b − y ) 2 (b y − b − y ) 2 1 = 25. The number of distinct real roots of
(c z + c − z ) 2 (c z − c − z ) 2 1
sin x cos x cos x
π π
(a) axbycz (b) a−xb−yc−z cos x sin x cos x = 0 in the interval – ≤ x ≤ is

4 4
(c) a2xb2yc2z (d) Zero cos x cos x sin x

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ADDITION OF TWO DETERMINANT LIMIT OF A DETERMINANT

The sum of two determinants, can be expressed as ADVANCED LEARNING
a1 b1 c1 x y z a1 + x b1 + y c1 + z f ( x) g ( x) h ( x)
a2 b2 c2 + a2 b2 c2 = a2 b2 c2 Let ∆( x) = ( x) m ( x) n ( x) , then
a3 b3
c3 a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3 u ( x) v ( x) w ( x)

MULTIPLICATION OF TWO lim f ( x)

x→a
lim g ( x)
x→a
lim h ( x)
x→a

DETERMINANT lim ∆( x) =
x→a
lim  ( x)
x→a
lim m ( x)
x→a
lim n ( x) , provided each
x→a

If A and B are two square matrices of same order, then lim u ( x) lim v ( x) lim w ( x)
x→a x→a x→a
|AB| = |A| |B|.
of nine limiting values exist finitely.
a1 b1 1 m1 a1 1 + b1  2 a1 m1 + b1 m2
× = 1 2 3 0
a2 b2  2 m2 a2 1 + b2  2 a2 m1 + b2 m2 Ex-5 Find the value of × and prove
−1 3 −1 4
For order 3 × 3 1 8
that it is equal to .
a1 b1 c1 1 m1 n1 −6 12
a2 b2 c2 ×  2 m2 n2 1 2 3 0
Sol. ×
a3 b3 c3  3 m3 n3 −1 3 −1 4
a11 + b1 2 + c1 3 a1m1 + b1m2 + c1m3 a1n1 + b1n2 + c1n3 1× 3 − 2 × 1 1× 0 + 2 × 4 1 8
= a2 1 + b2  2 + c2  3 a2 m1 + b2 m2 + c2 m3 a2 n1 + b2 n2 + c2 n3 = = = 60
−1× 3 + 3 × (−1) −1× 0 + 3 × 4 −6 12

a3 1 + b3  2 + c3  3 a3 m1 + b3 m2 + c3 m3 a3 n1 + b3 n2 + c3 n3
a1 x1 + b1 y1 a1 x2 + b1 y2 a1 x3 + b1 y3
We can also multiply rows by column or columns by rows or Ex-6 Prove that a2 x1 + b2 y1 a2 x2 + b2 y2 a2 x3 + b2 y3 =
0
columns by columns. a3 x1 + b3 y1 a3 x2 + b3 y2 a3 x3 + b3 y3
Note: As |A| = |A′|, we have |A| |B| = |AB′| (row - row method) Sol. Given determinant can be splitted into product of two
|A| |B| = |A′B| (column - column method) determinant
|A| |B| = |A′B′| (column - row method) a1 x1 + b1 y1 a1 x2 + b1 y2 a1 x3 + b1 y3
i.e., a2 x1 + b2 y1 a2 x2 + b2 y2 a2 x3 + b2 y3
THEOREM a3 x1 + b3 y1 a3 x2 + b3 y2 a3 x3 + b3 y3
If D' is the determinant formed by replacing the elements of a
a1 b1 c1 x1 x2 x3
determinant D of order n by their corresponding cofactor then |D'|
= |D|n–1 (D' is called the reciprocal determinant) = a2 b2 c2 × y1 y2 y3 = 0
a b3 c3 0 0 0
SUMMATION OF DETERMINANTS
3
(a1 − b1 )2 (a1 − b2 )2 (a1 − b3 )2
f(r) g (r ) h(r ) Ex-7 Prove that (a2 − b1 )2 (a2 − b2 )2 (a2 − b3 )2
Let ∆(r ) =a1 a2 a3 where a1, a2, a3, b1, b2, b3 are (a3 − b1 )2 (a3 − b2 )2 (a3 − b3 )2
b1 b2 b3
= 2(a1 – a2) (a2 – a3) (a3 – a1) (b1 – b2) (b2 – b3) (b3 – b1).
constants independent of r, then
(a1 − b1 ) 2 (a1 − b2 ) 2 (a1 − b3 ) 2
n n n

∑ f ( r ) ∑ g ( r ) ∑ h( r ) Sol. (a − b ) 2
2 1 (a2 − b2 ) 2 (a2 − b3 ) 2
n
=r 1=r 1=r 1
(a3 − b1 ) 2 (a3 − b2 ) 2 (a3 − b3 ) 2
∑ ∆(r ) = a
r =1
1 a2 a3
a12 + b12 − 2a1b1 a12 + b2 2 − 2a1b2 a12 + b32 − 2a1b3
b1 b2 b3
= a2 2 + b12 − 2a2 b1 a2 2 + b2 2 − 2a2 b2 a2 2 + b32 − 2a2 b3
a32 + b12 − 2a3b1 a32 + b2 2 − 2a3b2 a32 + b32 − 2a3b3
Here the functions of r can be the elements of only one row or
column. None of the elements other than that row or column a12 1 −2a1 1 1 1
should be dependent on r. If more than one column or row have = a2 1 −2a2 × b12
2
b2 2 b32
elements dependent on r then first expand the determinant and
a32 1 −2a3 b1 b2 b3
then find the summation.

Determinants 7
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Note: The above problem can also be solved using factor theorem
method.
DIFFERENTIATION OF DETERMINANT
n
2r − 1 n
Cr 2r f1 ( x) f 2 ( x) f 3 ( x)
Ex-8 Evaluate ∑
r =1
x cos θ
2
y Let ∆( x) =g1 ( x) g 2 ( x) g3 ( x)
n+1
n2 n
2 –1 2 – 2 h1 ( x) h2 ( x) h3 ( x)
n n n
f1′( x) f 2′( x) f 3′( x)
∑ (2r − 1) ∑ n
Cr ∑2 r

n=r 1 =r 1= r 1 Then ∆′( x) = g1 ( x) g 2 ( x) g3 ( x)

Sol. ∑ Dr
= cos θ
2
x y
r =1
h1 ( x) h2 ( x) h3 ( x)
n2 2n − 1 2n +1 − 2
f1 ( x) f 2 ( x) f 3 ( x) f1 ( x) f 2 ( x) f 3 ( x)
n +1 + g1′( x) g 2′ ( x) g3′ ( x) + g1 ( x) g 2 ( x) g3 ( x)
n 2
2 −1 2 − 2
n

h1 ( x) h2 ( x) h3 ( x) h1′( x) h2′ ( x) h3′ ( x)

= x cos 2 θ y =0
n +1
n 2 2 −1 2 − 2
n Note: We can differentiate a determinant columnwise also.

r −1 1 0 n INTEGRATION OF A DETERMINANT
Ex-9 =
If ∆ r 2 r 3 + r , find ∑
r =1
∆r .
r + 1 −1 −2 ADVANCED LEARNING
Sol. On expansion of determinant, we get f ( x ) g ( x ) h( x )
Dr = (r –1) (3 – r) + 7 + r2 + 4r = 8r + 4 Let ∆( x) = a1 b1 c1 where a1, b1, c1, a2, b2, c2 are
n
a2 b2 c2
⇒ ∑ ∆=
r 4n(n + 2)
r =1 constants independent of x. Hence
b b b
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING ∫ f ( x) dx ∫ g ( x) dx ∫ h( x) dx
b a a a

∫
26. Prove that ∆( x) dx =a1 b1 c1
2 a+b+c+d ab + cd a
a2 b2 c2
a + b + c + d 2(a + b)(c + d ) ab(c + d ) + cd (a + b) =0
ab + cd ab(c + d ) + cd (a + b) 2abcd Note: If more than one row or one column are function of x then
first expand the determinant and then integrate it.
(a − 1) n 6
3 2 1
27. Let ∆ a = (a −1) 2 2n 2 4n − 2 show that
Ex-10 If f ( x ) = 6 x
2
2 x3 x 4 , then find the value of
(a − 1)3 3n3 3n 2 − 3n
1 a a2
n f′′(a).
∑ ∆ a =c, a constant.
a =1 3 2 1
cos x x sec x Sol. f ′( x) =
12 x 6 x 2 4 x3
f ( x) 1 a a2
28. Let f ( x) = 2sin x x 2
2 x . Then, find lim .
x →0 x
tan x x sec x 3 2 1
f ′′( x) = 12 12 x 12 x 2
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
1 a a2
29. The determinant
cos ( x − y ) cos ( y − z ) cos ( z − x) 3 2 1
cos ( x + y ) cos ( y + z ) cos ( z + x) = =
⇒
f ′′( a ) =
12 1 a a 2 0.
sin ( x + y ) sin ( y + z ) sin ( z + x) 1 a a2

(a) 2 sin (x − y) sin (y − z) sin (z − x) Ex-11 Let α be a repeated root of quadratic equation
(b) −2 sin (x − y) sin (y − z) sin (z − x) f(x) = 0 and A(x), B(x) and C(x) be polynomial of degree 3,
A( x ) B( x ) C ( x )
(c) 2 cos (x − y) cos (y − z) cos (z − x)
4 and 5 respectively, then show that A(α ) B(α ) C (α )
(d) −2 cos (x − y) cos (y − z) cos (z − x)
divisible by f(x). A′(α ) B′(α ) C ′(α )

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A( x) B( x) C ( x)
sec x cos x sec 2 x + cot x cosec x
Sol. Let g ( x) = A(α) B (α) C (α)
31. Let f ( x) = cos 2 x cos 2 x cos ec 2 x ,
A′(α) B′(α) C ′(α) 2
1 cos x cos 2 x
A′( x) B′( x) C ′( x) π/ 2 π 8 
⇒ g ′( x) = A(α) B (α) C (α) prove that ∫
0
f ( x)dx =
−  + .
 4 15 
A′(α) B′(α) C ′(α)

1+ x x x2
Since g(α) = g′(α) = 0 ⇒ therefore α is a repeated root
32. Let x 1 + x x 2 = ax5 + bx4 + cx3 + dx2 + λx + µ
of g(x) and α is repeated root of the quadratic equation
f(x) = 0, hence g(x) is divisible by f(x). x2 x 1+ x

cos x 1 0 be an identity in x, where a, b, c, d, λ, µ are independent

of x. Then the value of λ is
Ex-12 If f ( x ) = 1 2cos x 1 , then find
(a) 3 (b) 2
0 1 2cos x
π/2
(c) 4 (d) None of these
∫ f ( x ) dx .

CRAMER’S RULE: SYSTEM OF LINEAR

0

Sol. Here f(x) = cos x (4 cos2x – 1) –2 cos x

= 4 cos3x – 3 cos x = cos 3x EQUATIONS
π/ 2 π/ 2
sin 3 x  1
so ∫
0
cos 3 x dx =
3  0
= − .
3
1. Two variables:

Let a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 & a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 then:

α −1 β − 2 γ − 3
2 2 2
1

Consistent:
Ex-13 If ∆ = 6 4 3 , then find ∫ ∆ ( x ) dx .
x x2 x3 0
a1 b1 c1
Case-I: If = = then the given equations has infinite
a2 b2 c2
solution.

1
α2 − 1 β2 − 2 γ2 − 3
a b
Case-II: If 1 ≠ 1 then the given equations has unique
Sol. ∫
0
∆( x) dx = 6 4 3 solution.
a2 b2
1 1 1

Inconsistent:
∫ x dx ∫ x 2 dx ∫ x 3 dx
0 0 0 a1 b1 c1
If = ≠ then the given equations has no solution.
a2 b2 c2
α 2 − 1 β2 − 2 γ 2 − 3
2. Three variables:
= 6 4 3
Consider the system
1 1 1

a1x + b1y + c1z = d1
2 3 4

a2x + b2y + c2z = d2
α 2 − 1 β2 − 2 γ 2 − 3
a3x + b3y + c3z = d3
1
= 6 4 3 0 Then, D.x = D1, D.y = D2, D.z = D3
12
6 4 3
D1 D2 D3
⇒=
x ,=
y =
,z
D D D
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING

a1 b1 c1 d1 b1 c1
30. Let
=
Where D a= b2 c2 ; D1 d 2 b2 c2 ;
cos ( x + x 2 ) sin ( x + x 2 ) − cos ( x + x 2 ) 2

a3 b3 c3 d3 b3 c3
f ( x) =
sin ( x − x 2 ) cos ( x − x 2 ) sin ( x − x 2 ) .
sin (2 x) 0 sin (2 x 2 ) a1 d1 c1 a1 b1 d1
Then find the value of f ′(0). =D2 a=
2 d 2 c2 & D3 a 2 b2 d2
(a) –2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2 a3 d3 c3 a3 b3 d3

Determinants 9
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CONSISTENCY OF A SYSTEM OF 1 2 3
EQUATIONS Sol. Let D = 2 3 4
3 4 5
1. If D ≠ 0 and alteast one of D1, D2, D3 ≠ 0, then the given
system of equations are consistent and have unique non trivial Apply C1 → C1 – C2, C2 → C2 – C3
solution. −1 −1 3 1 2 3
2. If D ≠ 0 & D1 = D2 = D3 = 0, then the given system of equations D =−1 −1 4 =0 . Now, D1 = 3 3 4
are consistent and have trivial solution only.
−1 −1 5 0 4 5
3. If D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0, then the given system of equations
C3 → C3 – C2

have either infinite solutions or no solution. (For 2 × 2 system,
D = 0 = D1 = D2 ⇔ system has infinitely many solutions). 1 2 1
Cofactors of D D1 = 3 3 1
0 4 1

R1 → R1 – R2, R2 → R2 – R3

Atleast one non-zero, All zeros
−2 −1 0
then system will have
infinite solutions D1 = 3 −1 0 = 5
0 4 1
All the cofactors of D1, Cofactors of atleast one D = 0. But D1 ≠ 0. Hence no solution.
D2 and D3 are zero, then of D1, D2 and D3 is non-zero, Ex-15 Solve the following system of equations
system will have infinite then system will have no x+y+z=2
solutions solutions
2x + 2y + 2z = 4
4. If D = 0 but atleast one of D1, D2, D3 is not zero then the 3x + 3y + 3z = 6
equations are inconsistent and have no solution. 1 1 1
= ∴ D =
HOMOGENEOUS SYSTEM
Sol. 2 2 2 0
3 3 3
Consider the system
D1 = 0, D2 = 0, D3 = 0
a1x + b1y + c1z = d1 a2x + b2y + c2z = d2
All the cofactors of D, D1, D2 and D3 are all zeros, hence
a3x + b3y + c3z = d3 the system will have infinite solutions.
For homogeneous system, d1 = d2 = d3 = 0 Let z = t1, y = t2 ⇒ x = 2 – t1 – t2 where t1, t2 ∈ R.
a1x + b1y + c1z = 0 a2x + b2y + c2z = 0 Ex-16 Consider the following system of equations
a3x + b3y + c3z = 0 x+y+z=6
(x, y, z) = (0, 0, 0) is always a solution of this system. This solution x + 2y + 3z = 10
is called as the trivial solution (or zero solution) of this system. x + 2y + λz = µ
D ≠ 0 ⇒ this system has only the trivial solution. Find values of λ and µ if such that sets of equation have
D = 0 ⇒ this system has nontrivial solutions as well as trivial (i) unique solution
(infinitely many solutions). (ii) infinite solution
(iii) no solution
Three Equations in Two Variables
Sol. x + y + z = 6
If x and y are not zero, then condition for a1x + b1y + c1 = 0; a2x
x + 2y + 3z = 10
+ b2y + c2 = 0 and a3x + b3y + c3 = 0 to be consistent in x and y is
x + 2y + λz = µ
a1 b1 c1
1 1 1
a2 b2 c2 = 0.
D= 1 2 3
a3 b3 c3
1 2 λ
Ex-14 Find the nature of solution for the given system Here for λ = 3 second and third rows are identical hence
D = 0 for λ = 3.
of equations.
6 1 1
x + 2y + 3z = 1
D1 = 10 2 3
2x + 3y + 4z = 3
3x + 4y + 5z = 0 µ 2 λ

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1 6 1 APPLICATION OF DETERMINANT
D2 = 1 10 3 Following examples of short hand writing large expressions are
1 µ λ (i) Area of a triangle whose vertices are (xr, yr); r = 1, 2, 3 is:
1 1 6 x1 y1 1
D3 = 1 2 10 1
D= x2 y2 1
1 2 µ 2
x3 y3 1
If λ = 3 then D1 = D2 = D3 = 0 for µ = 10
(i) For unique solution D ≠ 0 i.e., λ ≠ 3. If D = 0 then the three points are collinear.
(ii) For infinite solutions (ii) Equation of a straight line passing through (x1, y1) and
D=0⇒λ=3
x y 1
D1 = D2 = D3 = 0 ⇒ µ = 10.
(x2, y2) is x1 y1 1 = 0.
(iii) For no solution
x2 y2 1
D=0⇒λ=3
Atleast one of D1, D2 or D3 is non zero (iii) The lines: a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 ...(1)
⇒ µ ≠ 10.      a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 ...(2)
CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING      a3x + b3y + c3 = 0 ...(3)
33. The system of equations a1 b1 c1
2x – y + z = 0 are concurrent if, a2 b2 c2 = 0.
x – 2y + z = 0
a3 b3 c3
λx – y + 2z = 0

This is also the condition for the consistency of three
has infinite number of nontrivial solutions for
simultaneous linear equations in two variables.
(a) λ = 1
(b) λ = 5 ADVANCED LEARNING
(c) λ = –5 (iv) ax² + 2hxy + by² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 represents a pair of
(d) no real value of λ straight lines if:
34. The equations x + y + z = 6, x + 2y + 3z = 10, x + 2y a h g
+ mz = n give infinite number of values of the triplet abc + 2fgh − af ² − bg² − ch² = 0 = h b f .

(x, y, z) if g f c
(a) m = 3, n ∈ R
(b) m = 3, n ≠ 10 (v) Conjugate of Determinant: If ai, bi and ci for i = 1,2,3
(c) m = 3, n = 10 a1 b1 c1
a1 b1 c1
(d) None of these
=∆ a2 b2=c2 ⇒ ∆ a2 b2 c2
35. The following system of equations 3x – 7y + 5z = 3; a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
3x + y + 5z = 7 and 2x + 3y + 5z = 5 are
(a) consistent with trivial solution (a) If ∆ is purely real then ∆ = ∆
(b) consistent with unique non trivial solution (b) If ∆ is purely imaginary then ∆ = –∆
(c) consistent with infinite solution
(d) inconsistent with no solution Ex-17 Find the area of triangle whose vertices are (3, 8),
36. If the system of linear equations (–4, 1) and (4, 3)

x + 2ay + az = 0 3 8 1

x + 3by + bz = 0 1
=
Sol. Area −4 1 1

x + 4cy + cz = 0 2
4 3 1
has a non-zero solution, then a, b, c
(a) are in G. P. 1
=
[3(1 − 3) + 4(8 − 3) + 4(8 − 1)]
(b) are in H.P. 2
(c) satisfy a + 2b + 3c = 0 42
(d) are in A.P. =
= 21 square units
2

Determinants 11
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Ex-18 Find the equation of straight line joining point CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING
P (3, 4) and Q (0, 0) using determinant
37. A triangle has vertices (1, 6) (3, 0) and (–3, –7), then
Sol. R(x,y) P(3, 4) Q(0,0)
area in square units is
 R, P and Q are collinear
x y 1 (a) 10 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 40
1
∴ 3 4 1 =0
2 38. Determine the value of k, if the area of triangle is
0 0 1
4 square units. The vertices are (k, 0), (4, 0) and (0, 2)
⇒ 4x – 3y = 0
39. Let A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) be vertices of
Ex-19 Find the value of λ if A(λ, 0), B(5, 2) and
an equilateral triangle whose side is 4 units. Let
C(3, 1) are collinear
Sol. Since A, B and C are collinear x1 y1 1
λ 0 1 ∆ = x2 y2 1 , then ∆2 is equal to
1 x3 y3 1
∴ 5 2 1 = 0 ⇒ λ (2–1) + 1(5 – 6) = 0 ⇒ λ = 1
2
3 1 1 (a) 64 (b) 128 (c) 192 (d) 256

To Discover more

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Exercise-1 TOPICWISE Prarambh

MINORS, COFACTORS AND PROPERTIES OF DETERMINANT

EXPANSION OF DETERMINANT x +1 3 5
8. If 2 x+2 5 =0, then x =
1 1 1
2 3 x+4
1. The determinant 1 2 3 is not equal to
1 3 6 (a) 1, 9 (b) –1, 9
2 1 1 2 1 1 (c) –1, –9 (d) 1, –9
(a) 2 2 3 (b) 3 2 3 a + b a + 2b a + 3b
2 3 6 4 3 6 9. a + 2b a + 3b a + 4b =
1 2 1 3 1 1 a + 4b a + 5b a + 6b
(c) 1 5 3 (d) 6 2 3 (a) a2 + b2 + c2 – 3abc (b) 3ab
1 9 6 10 3 6 (c) 3a + 5b (d) 0

2. The minors of –4 and 9 and the cofactors of –4 and 9 in b2 + c2 a2 a2

−1 −2 3 10. b2 c2 + a2 b2 =
determinant −4 −5 −6 are respectively c2 c2 a + b2
2

−7 8 9 (a) abc (b) 4abc

(a) 42, 3; –42, 3 (b) –42, –3; 42, –3 (c) 4a2b2c2 (d) a2b2c2
(c) 42, 3; –42, –3 (d) 42, 3; 42, 3 y+z x y
3. A determinant of second order is made with the elements 11. If z + x z x = k ( x + y + z )( x − z ) 2 , then k =
0 and 1. The number of determinants with non-negative x+ y y z
values is
(a) 3 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 13 (a) 2xyz (b) 1
 r r −1 (c) xyz (d) x2y2z2
4. If the matrix Mr is given by M r = 
r 
, r = 1, 2, 3,
 r − 1 1+ a 1 1
... then the value of det(M1) + det(M2) + ... + det(M2024) is 12. If a–1 + b–1+ c–1 = 0 such that 1 1+ b 1 = λ, then
(a) 2023 (b) 2024 1 1 1+ c
(c) (2024) 2 (d) (2023)2 the value of λ is
0 ab 2
ac 2 (a) 0 (b) abc
(c) –abc (d) 2abc
5. If a 2 b 0 bc 2 = 2a p b q c r , then 10 + p + q + r is equal to
a 2 c cb 2 0 13. If a2 + b2 + c2 = –2
1 + a 2 x (1 + b 2 ) x (1 + c 2 ) x
(a) 16 (b) 13
(c) 19 (d) 10 and f ( x) =(1 + a 2 ) x 1 + b 2 x (1 + c 2 ) x then f(x) is a
(1 + a 2 ) x (1 + b 2 ) x 1 + c2 x
6. If [x] stands for the greatest integer less than or equal to x,
[e] [π] [π2 − 6] polynomial of degree
then the value of [π] [π2 − 6] [e] is (a) 3 (b) 2
[π − 6]
2
[e] [π] (c) 1 (d) 0
4 + x2 −6 −2
(a) –8 (b) 8 (c) 0 (d) 1
14. The determinant −6 9 + x2 3 is not divisible by
n1 n2
7. =
If 2022 (n1 , n2 ∈ I ), then number of solutions is −2 3 1 + x2
n2 n1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) x (b) x3
(c) 2 (d) More than 2 (c) 14 + x2 (d) x5

Determinants 13
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23. If D is a determinant of order three and ∆ is a determinant

0 b3 − a 3 c3 − a3
formed by the cofactors of determinant D; then
15. The value of the determinant a − b c 3 − b3 is
3 3
0
(a) ∆ = D2
a −c
3 3
b3 − c 3 0
(b) D = 0 implies ∆ ≠ 0
equal to
(c) if D = 27, then ∆ is not perfect cube
(a) a3 + b3 + c3 (b) a3 – b3 – c3
(d) if D = 27, then ∆ is not perfect square
(c) 0 (d) –a3 + b3 + c3
24. Suppose, n, m are natural number and
1 + sin 2 θ sin 2 θ sin 2 θ
16. cos θ 1 + cos θ
2 2
cos 2 θ =0 then sin 4θ equal to 1 (1 + x) m (1 + mx) mn
4sin 4θ 4sin 4θ 1 + 4sin 4θ f ( x) =
(1 + mx) n 1 (1 + nx) mn
(1 + nx) m
(1 + x) n
1
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) –1/2 (d) –1
Constant term of the polynomial f(x) is
x − 3 2 x 2 − 18 3 x 3 − 81
(a) 1 (b) m + n (c) m – n (d) 0
x − 5 2 x 2 − 50 4 x 3 − 500 then f(1) ∙ f(3)
17. If f ( x) =
1 2 3 y z (z − y )
5 6 3 3
x z ( x − z ) x y 5 ( y 3 − x3 )
4 6 3 3 4

25. If D1 =y2 z3 ( y6 − z6 ) xz 3 ( z 6 − x 6 ) xy 2 ( x 6 − y 6 ) and

– f(3) ∙ f(5) + f(5) ∙ f(1) =
y 2 z3 ( z3 − y3 ) xz 3 ( x 3 − z 3 ) xy 2 ( y 3 − x 3 )
(a) f(1) (b) f(3)
(c) f(1) + f(3) (d) f(1) + f(5) x y2 z3
y+z x−z x− y D2 = x 4 y5 z 6 . Then D1D2 is equal to
18. If y − z z+x y−x =k xyz , then the value of k is x7 y8 z9
z−y z−x x+ y
(a) D23 (b) D22
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (c) D24 (d) None of these
a a+d a + 2d
19. Let ∆= a+d a + 2d a , then SUMMATION, LIMIT,
a + 2d a a+d DIFFERENTIATION AND
(a) ∆ depends on a (b) ∆ depends on d INTEGRATION OF DETERMINANT
(c) ∆ is a constant (d) Both (a) and (b)
r −1 n 6
1 ω3 ω5 n
26. If ∆ r = (r − 1) 4n − 2 then ∑∆
2
2n 2 equals
20. If w is cube root of unity, then ω3 1 ω4 = r =1
r
(r − 1)3 3n3 3n 2 − 3n
ω5 ω4 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 (a) 1 (b) –1

21. If α, β and γ are the roots of the equation x3 + px + q = 0, (c) 0 (d) None of these

α β γ x b b
x b
then the value of the determinant β γ α = =
27. If ∆1 a x=b and ∆ 2 then
a x
γ α β a a x

(a) p (b) q (c) p2 − 2q (d) 0 d

(a) ∆1 = 3∆22 (b) (∆1 ) =3∆ 22
dx
1 x x2
22. Let ∆ = x 2 1 x , then (c)
d
(∆1 ) =3∆ 2 (d) None of these
x x2 1 dx
sin x cos x sin x
(a) 1 + x3 is a factor of ∆ dy
=
28. If y cos x − sin x cos x , find
(b) (1 – x3)2 is factor of ∆ dx
x 1 1
(c) ∆(x) = 0 has 4 real roots
(d) ∆(1) = 1 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1

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29. Find the coefficient of x in the expansion of 36. The number of solutions of equations x + 4y – z = 0,
3x – 4y – z – 0, x – 3y + z = 0 is
(1 + x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x )
22 44 66

(a) 0 (b) 1
(1 + x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x )
33 66 99
(c) 2 (d) Infinite
(1 + x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x )
44 88 144
37. If the system of equations, x + 2y – 3z = 1, (k + 3)z = 3,
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –1 (2k + 1)x + z = 0 is inconsistent, then the value of k is
(a) –3 (b) 1/2
sin 2 x log cos x log tan x
(c) 0 (d) 2
30. If=
∆( x) n2 2n − 1 2n + 1 then evaluate
38. If the system of equation 3x – 2y + z = 0, lx – 14y + 15z
1 −2 log 2 0
= 0, x + 2y + 3z = 0 have a non-trivial solution, then l =
π/ 2
(a) 5 (b) –5
∫ ∆( x)dx
0
(c) –29 (d) 29
39. The existence of the unique solution of the system x + y + z
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
= l, 5x – y + mz = 10, 2x + 3y – z = 6 depends on
f ( x) (a) µ only (b) λ only
31. Let lim then find
x →∞ x2
(c) λ and µ both (d) Neither λ nor µ
x( x + 1) x 2 − 1 x 2 + 5 x + 6 40. The system of equations x + y + z = 2, 3x – y + 2z = 6 and
f ( x) = 1 2 3 3x + y + z = –18 has
1 –1 1 (a) A unique solution

(b) No solutions
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 4
(c) An infinite number of solutions
cos(θ + φ) − sin(θ + φ) cos 2φ
(d) Zero solution as the only solution
32. The determinant sin θ cos θ sin φ is
41. If the system of equations x + ay = 0, az + y = 0 and ax + z
− cos θ sin θ cos φ
= 0 has infinite solutions, then the value of a is
(a) 0 (b) independent of θ (a) –1 (b) 1
(c) independent of φ (d) independent of θ and φ both (c) 0 (d) No real values

i
2
1 and lilj + mimj + ninj = 0 ∀ i, j ∈ {1, 2, 3},
33. If l + m + n =2
i
2
i
42. If a, b, c are non-zeros, then the system of equations
(α + a) x + αy + αz = 0
l1 m1 n1
αx + (α + b)y + αz = 0
i ≠ j and ∆ = l 2 m2 n2 then
αx + αy + (α + c)z = 0
l3 m3 n3
has a non-trivial solution if
(a) |∆| = 3 (b) |∆| = 2 (a) α–1 = –(a–1 + b–1 + c–1) (b) α–1 = a + b + c
(c) |∆| = 1 (d) ∆=0 (c) α + a + b + c = 1 (d) None of these
34. If f r (x), g r (x), h r (x), r = 1, 2, 3 are polynomials
in x such that f r (a) = g r (a) = h r (a), r = 1, 2, 3 and 43. The system of equation − 2x + y + z = 1, x − 2y + z = −2,
x + y + λz = 4 will have no solution if
f1 ( x) f 2 ( x) f 3 ( x)
F ( x) = g1 ( x) g 2 ( x) g3 ( x) then value of F′(x) at (a) λ = − 2 (b) λ = −1
h1 ( x) h2 ( x) h3 ( x) (c) λ = 3 (d) None of these

x = a is 44. The system of equations

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 (aa + b)x + ay + bz = 0
(ba + c)x + by + cz = 0
CRAMER’S RULE: SYSTEM OF LINEAR (aa + b)y + (ba + c)z = 0
EQUATIONS has a non-trival solution, if
35. x + ky – z = 0, 3x – ky – z = 0 and x – 3y + z = 0 has non-zero (a) a, b, c are in A.P (b) a, b, c are in G.P
solution for k = (c) a, b, c are in H.P
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2 (d) α is a root of ax2 + 2bx + c+1 = 0

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Exercise-2 JEE MAIN LEVEL Prabal

n1 n2 n1 n2 + 1 7. If xi = aibici, i = 1, 2, 3 are three-digit positive integer such

1. If n1, n2 are integers then is always that each xi is a multiple of 19, then for same integer n,
1 1 −1 1
multiple of a1 a2 a3
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 ∆ = b1 b2 b3 is given by
a11 a12 a13 c1 c2 c3
2. Let ∆ 0 =a21 a22 a23 and let ∆1 denote the determinant
(a) 19n + 1 (b) 19n + 2 (c) 19n (d) 19n + 3
a31 a32 a33
a− x e xna x2
formed by the cofactors of elements of ∆0 and ∆2 denote
the determinant formed by the cofactor at ∆1 similarly ∆n 8. If f ( x) = a −3 x e3 xna x 4 , then
denotes the determinant formed by the cofactors at ∆n–1 then a −5 x e5 xna 1
the determinant value of ∆n is
(a) ∆ 02 n (b) ∆ 02
n
(c) ∆ 0n
2
(d) ∆ 02 (a) f 2(x) + f 2(–x) = 1
(b) f(x) · f(–x) = 0
1 + a 2 + a 4 1 + ab + a 2 b 2 1 + ac + a 2 c 2
(c) f(x) + f(–x) = 0
3. ∆ = 1 + ab + a b 1 + b 2 + b 4 1 + bc + b 2 c 2 is equal to
2 2

1 + ac + a 2 c 2 1 + bc + b 2 c 2 1 + c2 + c4 (d) f(x) – f(–x) = 0

(a) (a – b)2 (b – c)2 (c – a)2 (b) 2(a – b) (b – c) (c – a) sin θ cos θ sin θ

(c) 4(a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (d) (a + b + c)3 9. If f (θ=
) cos θ sin θ cos θ , then
4. Suppose a1, a2, a3 are in A.P. and b1, b2, b3 are in H.P. and cos θ sin θ sin θ
a1 − b1 a1 − b2 a1 − b3
(a) f(θ) = 0 has exactly 5 real solutions in [0, π]
let =
∆ a 2 − b1 a2 − b2 a2 − b3 , then
a3 − b1 a3 − b2 a3 − b3 (b) f(θ) = 0 has exactly 3 real solutions in [0, π]

(a) ∆ is independent of a1, a2, a3 f (θ)

(c) Range of function is  − 2, 2 
(b) a1 − ∆, a2 − 2∆, a3 − 3∆ are in H.P. 1 − sin 2θ 
(c) b1 + ∆, b2 + ∆2, b3 + ∆ are in A.P. f (θ)
(d) ∆ is dependent of b1, b2, b3 (d) Range of function
sin 2θ − 1
is [–3, 3]

sec x x2 x
1/ x 1/ y 1/ z
5. Let f ( x ) = 2sin x x3 2 x 2 , then absolute value of
10. The value of ∆ = xyz p 2q 3r where x, y, z are
tan 3 x x2 x
1 1 1
f ( x)
lim
is given by respectively, pth, (2q)th and (3r)th terms of an H.P., is
x →0 x4
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (a) –1 (b) 0

5m 3b (c) 1 (d) None of these

6. If x 2 a y 3=
b
e5 m , x 3c y 4 d= e 2 n , ∆=
1 ,
2n 4d 11. If α, β, γ are the angles of a triangle and the system of
2a 5m 2a 3b equations
=
∆2 =, ∆3 , then the values of x and y
3c 2n 3c 4d cos (α – β)x + cos (β – γ)y + cos (γ – α) z = 0
are
cos (α + β)x + cos (β + γ)y + cos (γ + α) z = 0
∆1 ∆ 2 ∆ 2 ∆3
(a) , (b) , sin (α+β)x + sin (β + γ)y + sin (γ + α) z = 0
∆3 ∆3 ∆1 ∆1
∆1 ∆2 has non-trivial solutions, then triangle is necessarily
∆  ∆  ∆ ∆
(c) log  1  , log  2  (d) e 3 , e 3 (a) Equilateral (b) Isosceles
∆
 3  ∆3 
(c) Right angled (d) Acute angled

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12. Suppose a1, a2, ... real numbers, with a1 ≠ 0. If a1, a2, a3, ... 16. If x, y, z are natural numbers such that
are in A.P. Then, which of the following is not correct?
x4 + x x3 y x3 z
 a1 a2 a3 
xy 3 y4 + y y3 z =
11xyz , then x can be equal to
 a6  is singular
(a) A =  a4 a5
xz 3 yz 3 z +z
4

 a5 a7 
a6
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 11
(b) The system of equations a1x + a2y + a3z = 0, a4x + a5y
+ a6z = 0, a7x + a8y + a9z = 0 has infinite number of 17. P(x, y, z) satisfies the equations
solutions x + (loga b)y + (loga c)z = 1,

 a1 ia2 
(c) B =   is non-singular; where i= −1
(logb a)x + y + (logb c)z = 1 and
ia2 a1  (logc a)x + (logc b)y + z = 1, then
(d) None of these (a) Locus of P is a straight line
13. If p, q, r, s are in A.P. and (b) Locus of P is a plane if a = b = c
p + sin x q + sin x p − r + sin x (c) P is a unique point
f ( x) = q + sin x r + sin x − 1 + sin x such that (d) No such P exists
r + sin x s + sin x s − q + sin x
a1 a2
2 18. ∆ = and ai ∈ {1, 2, 3}, (i = 1, 2, 3, 4) then number
a3 a4
∫ f ( x)dx = −4 , then the common difference of the A.P.
0
of different possible real value of D
can be (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 17 (d) 21
(a) −2 (b) 1/2 (c) 1 (d) 2 x 2
e sin 2 x tan x
14. If α, β are the, maximum and minimum values of
19. If ∆( x) = ln(1 + x) cos x sin x =A + Bx + Cx + ...,
2
1 + sin 2 x cos 2 x sin 2 x
cos x 2
e − 1 sin x
x 2
= f ( x) sin x 1 + cos 2 x
2
sin 2 x
2
sin x cos x 1 + sin 2 x
2
then B is equal to
then match the following (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) None of these
A. α + β87 (p) 6
20. The values of θ, λ for which the following equations
B. α2 – 3β11 (q) 2 sin θx – cos θy + (λ + 1) z = 0; cos θx + sin θy – λz = 0;
C. (r) 4 λx + (λ + 1)y + cos θz = 0 have non-trivial solution, is
π
f '  (a) θ = nπ, λ ∈ R – {0}
2
(b) θ = 2nπ, λ is any rational number
D. π (s) –2
f  (c) θ = (2n + 1)π, λ ∈ R+, n ∈ I
2 π
(d) θ = (2n + 1) , λ ∈ R, n ∈ I
(a) A → (s); B → (q); C → (p); D → (r) 2
(b) A → (r); B → (p); C → (s); D → (q) 21. If the system of equations x – 2y + z = a; 2x + y – 2z = b
(c) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (p) and x + 3y – 3z = c have atleast one solution, then the
(d) A → (s); B → (q); C → (r); D → (p) relationship between a, b and c is
15. In triangle ABC, if (a) a + b + c = 0 (b) a – b + c = 0
(c) –a + b + c = 0 (d) a + b – c = 0
1 1 1
22. If system of equations
A B C
cot cot cot = 0, then the (tan α) x + (cot α) y + (8 cos 2α) z = 0
2 2 2
B C C A A B (cot α) x + (8 cos 2α) y + (tan α) z = 0
tan + tan tan + tan tan + tan (8 cos 2α) x + (tan α)y + (cot α) z = 0
2 2 2 2 2 2
triangle must be have non-trivial solution, then sin (4α) is equal to
(a) Equilateral (b) Isosceles − 3 −1 1
(a) (b) –1 (c) (d)
(c) Obtuse angled (d) None of these 2 2 2

Determinants 17
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23. The set of equations

(13) + 3 2 5 5
λx – y + (cos θ) z = 0

3x + y + 2z = 0 (15) + (26) 5 (10)
(cos θ)x + y + 2z = 0 3 + (65) (15) 5
0 ≤ θ < 2π , has non-trivial solution(s)
(a) for no value of λ and θ =a ( b )(c − 6)(a, b, c ∈ I ) then a + b + c is
(b) for all values of λ and θ 1
f ( x) f   + f ( x)
(c) for all values of λ and only two values of θ x
= 31. If ∆ = 0
(d) for only one value of λ and all values of θ 1
*24. If c < 1 and the system of equations x + y – 1 = 0, 2x – y 1 f 
x
– c = 0 and –bx + 3by – c = 0 is consistent, then number of
integral values of b is where it is given f(2) = 17, then f(5) is equal to:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 32. The value of the determinant
*25. Let λ and α be real. Then the number of integral values λ
1
for which the system of linear equations −(25 + 1) 2 210 − 1
λx + (sin α)y + (cos α) z = 0;
2 −1
5

x + (cos α)y + (sin α) z = 0; 1

210 − 1 −(25 − 1) 2 is
– x + (sin α)y – (cos α) z = 0 has non-trivial solutions is 25 + 1
1 1 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 − 10
25 − 1 25 + 1 (2 − 1) 2

INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
x 1
x x+ y x+ y+z 33.=
Let a Lim
x →1
− ;
ln x x ln x
26. If x, y, z ∈ R & ∆ = 2 x 5 x + 2 y 7 x + 5 y + 2 z = −16
3x 7 x + 3 y 9 x + 7 y + 3z x 3 − 16 x
b = Lim ;
x →0 4x + x2
then value of x is
27. If 0 ≤ q ≤ p/2, find the number of roots of ln(1 + sin x)
c = Lim and
x →0 x
cos 2 2θ cos 2 4θ cos 2 6θ
( x + 1)3
∆=
(θ) sin 2θ sin 4θ sin 6θ d = Lim , then value of det(A) where
x →−1 3[sin( x + 1) − ( x + 1)]
1 1 1
a b 
A= 
28. If x, y, z are in A.P, lying between 1 and 9, and x51, y41 and z31 c d 
5 4 3
a1 a2 a3
are three digit numbers, then value of x51 y 41 z 31 is
*34. If a1, a2, a3, 5, 4, a6, a7, a8, a9 are in H.P. and ∆ = 5 4 a6
x y z
a7 a8 a9
x n r then find the value of [∆] is, where [.] denotes G.I.F.
29. If x > m, y > n, z > r (x, y, z > 0) such that m y r = 0
(β + γ − α − δ) 4 (β + γ − α − δ) 2 1
m n z
*35. If ( γ + α − β − δ) ( γ + α − β − δ) 2 1
4

then find the greatest value of 27 xyz

. ( α + β − γ − δ) 4 ( α + β − γ − δ) 2 1
( x − m)( y − n)( z − r )
= –k (α – β) (α – γ) (α – δ) (β – γ) (β – δ) (γ – δ). Then the
30. If the value of the determinant
value of (k)1/2 is

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Exercise-3 BRIDGE Setu

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS x x +1 x + 2

7. Let Ä ( x ) =+
x 3 x + 4 x + 5 The value of Δ(x) is:
1. If α, β, γ are the roots of the equation x3 – px + q = 0, then
x+6 x+7 x+8
α β γ
the value of the determinant β γ α (a) x3 (b) 0
γ α β (c) x2 – 1 (d) –12

(a) p (b) q 8. If A and B are square matrices of order 3 such that |A| = –2
and |B| = 3, then |2A−1B′| is:
(c) p2 – 2q (d) 0
(a) –12 (b) –3
2. If the system of equations x + ky + 3z = 0, 3x + ky − 2z = (c) 12 (d) –4
0, and 2x + 3y − 4z = 0 has a non-trivial solution, then the
9. If a–1 + = 0, where a, b, c ≠ 0, then the value of the
b–1 + c–1
value of k is:
1+ a 1 1
11 33 determinant 1 1 + b 1 is:
(a) (b)
2 2 1 1 1+ c
−11 −33
(a) (b)
2 2 (a) 0 (b) abc
3. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix such that |A| = 4, then |adj(adj(A))| is 1
(c) (d) a + b + c
equal to: abc
(a) 16 (b) 64 *10. The value of k for which the points (1, –1), (3, k), and (5, 7)
are collinear is:
1
(c) 256 (d) (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) –2 (d) 5
16
MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS
1 sinθ 1
4. Let Ä =−sinθ 1 sinθ . The determinant Δ lies in the 1+ x 2 3
−1 −sinθ 1 =
11. If Ä 1 2+ x 3 which of the following statements
1 2 3+ x
interval:
is/are correct?
(a) [2, 4] (b) [−2, 2]
(a) x2(x + 6) is the value of Δ.
(c) [0, 4] (d) [−4, 0]
(b) x = 0 is a root of Δ = 0.
5. If a, b, c are sides of a scalene triangle, then the value of the (c) The degree of Δ(x) as a polynomial in x is 3.
α β γ (d) The sum of the roots of Δ = 0 is – 6.
determinant β γ α is always: 12. Consider the system of linear equations x + y + z = 6, x + 2y
γ α β + 3z = 10, x + 2y + λz = μ. The system has:
(a) a unique solution if λ ≠ 3.
(a) Positive (b) Zero
(b) infinite solutions if λ = 3 and μ = 10.
(c) Negative (d) Non-negative
(c) no solution if λ = 3 and μ ≠ 10.
6. The number of distinct real values of λ for which the system (d) no solution if λ ≠ 3 and μ = 10.
of equations (λ − 1)x + y + z = 0, x + (λ − 1)y + z = 0, and x
13. Let A be a 3 × 3 skew-symmetric matrix. Which of the
+ y + (λ − 1)z = 0 has a non-trivial solution is: following matrices is/are singular?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) A2 (b) A
(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) A – I (d) A2 + I

Determinants 19
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14. If a, b, c are all positive and distinct, which of the following MATRIX MATCH TYPE QUESTIONS
determinants are always negative?
1 a a2 21. Match the determinants in Column I with their values in
a b c
2 Column II. ‘ω’ isanon − realcuberootofunity.
(a) b c a (b) 1 b b
c a b 1 c c 2
Column-I Column-II

a a2 a3 1 a a2
2 3 lna 1
(c) b b b (d) (A) 1 b b2 (p) –(a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc)
2 3
lnb 1
c c c 1 c c2

a b aα + b a b c
=
15. If the determinant ∆ b c bα + c is equal to (B) b c a (q) (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)
aα + b bα + c 0 c a b
zero, where α ∈ R, then:
(a) a, b, c are in G.P. (b) a, b, c are in A.P. a 2 b2 c2
(C) bc ca ab (r) 0
(c) a, b, c are in H.P. (d) a is a root of ax2 + 2bx + c = 0.
1 1 1
16. The value of λ for which the system of equations x – 2y + z =
0, λx – y + 2z = 0, x + y + z = 0 has only the trivial solution is: 1 ω ω2
(a) λ ≠ 2 (b) λ = 1 (a – b)(b – c)(c –a) (a
(D) ω2 1 ω (s)
(c) λ R R − {2} (d) λ = 0 + b + c)
ω ω2 1
17. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix such that A′A = I, which of the following
must be true? (a) A → q, B → p, C → s, D → r
(a) |A| = 1 or |A| = −1 (b) A–1 = A′ (b) A → p, B → q, C → r, D → s
(c) |adj(A)| = 1 (d) |A2| = 1 (c) A → p, B → r, C → q, D → s
a2 + 1 ab ac (d) A → q, B → s, C → p, D → r
18. The determinant Ä= b +1 bc = 0, then:
2
ab
22. Match the following matrices in Column-I with their
ac bc c +1
2
properties in Column-II.
(a) 1 – a2 – b2 – c2 (b) 1 + a2 + b2 + c2 Column-I Column-II
(c) a2 + b2 + c2 (d) 0
0 −1
0 a b (A) A = 1 0  (p) Orthogonal matrix
 
19. A =  −a 0 c 
1 1
 −b −c 0  (B) B = 0 1 (q)
Upper-triangular
matrix

is a skew-symmetric matrix of order 3, then which of the
following is/are alwasy true? cos θ − sin θ 
(C) C =  sin θ cos θ  (r) Determinant = 1
(a) |A| = 0 (b) trace (A) = 0 

(c) A is invertible (d) |A| = a2 + b2 + c2 2 0

D =  1 
*20. A solution to the system of equations x – y = a, y – z = b,
(D) 0 (s) Symmetric matrix
 2 
z – x = c exists if:
(a) a + b + c = 0 (a) A → p, B → q, C → r, D → s

(b) The system has infinite solutions, if consistent. (b) A → p,r, B → q,r, C → p,r, D → q,s
(c) a + b + c ≠ 0 are any real numbers. (c) A → p,r, B → p,r, C → q,r, D → q,s
(d) The system has a unique solution if a + b + c = 0 (d) A → r, B → p, C → s, D → q

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COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS 33. The value of the determinant

2 α+β+ γ +δ αβ + γδ
Comprehension (Q. 23 to 25): Consider a function f(x) defined
α+β+ γ +δ
2(α + β)( γ + δ) αβ( γ + δ) + γδ(α + β) is
by the determinant:
αβ + γδ αβ( γ + δ) + γδ(α + β) 2αβγδ
1 + sin 2 x cos 2 x sin ( 2 x )
=f ( x) sin x 2
1 + cos 2 x sin ( 2 x ) 34. If f(x), g(x), h(x) are three polynomial functions of degree
sin x 2
cos x2
1 + sin ( 2 x ) f ( x ) g ( x ) h( x )
two and φ( x) = f ′( x) g ′( x) h′( x) , then the value of
Let g(x) = f (x) – x.
f ′′( x) g ′′( x) h′′( x)
23. What is the minimum value of f (x)?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 0 φ( x) − φ(4 − x)
lim is equal to:
24. Which of the following is true about f (x)? x→2 sin( x − 2)
(a) f (x) is a periodic function with period is p.
(b) f (x) is a periodic function with period 2p. 35. Area of triangle whose vertices (a, a 2 ) (b, b 2 )
(c) f (x) is a constant function
(c, c2) is 1 , and area of another triangle whose vertices
(d) f (x) is an increasing function.
2
25. If g’(x) denotes the first derivative of g(x) with respect to x, are (p, p2), (q, q2) and (r, r2) is 4, then the value of
what is the maximum value of |g’(x)|?
(1 + ap ) 2 (1 + bp ) 2 (1 + cp ) 2
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(1 + aq ) 2 (1 + bq ) 2 (1 + cq ) 2 , is
INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 + ar ) 2 (1 + br ) 2 (1 + cr ) 2
26. If the area of a triangle with vertices (k, 0), (4, 0), and (0, 2)
is 4 square units, find the sum of all possible values of k.
x2 + x x +1 x−2
27. The system of equations depends on parameter l:
36. If 2 x + 3 x − 1
2
3x 3 x − 3 = Px – 12 then P =
x + y + z = 3, x + 2y + 3z = 6, x + 3y + lz = 10.
For what integer value of l does the system have no solution? x + 2x + 3
2
2x −1 2x −1
28. Evaluate the determinant:
r −1 n 6
n
sin 2 θ cos 2 θ
∑ ∆ r equals
1
37. If Dr = (r − 1) 2
2n 2
4n − 2 , then
 π  π r =1
=∆ 1 sin 2  θ +  cos 2  θ +  (r − 1)3 3n 2 3n 2 − 3n
 3  3
2 2π  2 2π  38. If a, b, c are pth, qth and rth terms respectively of a H.P., then
1 sin  θ +  cos  θ + 
 3   3 
bc ca ab
Find the integer value of 18D.
value of the determinant p q r is
k 1 1
1 1 1
29. Let Ak =  1 k 1  . If |det (adj (Ak))| = 16, find the sum of
 1 1 k  *39. If the values of q lying between q = 0 and q = p/2 and
all integer values of k. satisfying the equation
30. Let A be a 3 × 3 non-singular matrix with integer entries
such that adj(A) = 2A. Find |A| 1 + sin 2 θ cos 2 θ 4 sin 4θ
31. If w is non-real complex cube root of unity, then sin θ 2
1 + cos θ2
4 sin 4θ = 0 are k 1 and k 2
1 ω ω 2
sin θ 2
cos θ
2
1 + 4 sin 4θ
ω ω
2
1 is equal to 24
then ( k1 + k2 ) =
ω 2
ω 1 π

1 −1 1  *40. If x, y, z are three integers in A.P, lying between 1 and 9 and

=
32. If A  0 2 −3 and B = (adjA), and C = 5A, then x51, y41 and z31 are three digits numbers, then the value of
 
 2 1 0  5 4 3
| adj B | x51 y 41 z 31 is
=
|C| x y z

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Exercise-4 JEE ADVANCED LEVEL Parikshit

SINGLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS (2n1 + 1) 2 (2n2 + 1) 2 (2n3 + 1) 2

1 + a1 + b1 a1 + b2 a1 + b3 6. If=
∆ (2n4 + 1) 2 (2n5 + 1) 2 (2n6 + 1) 2
1. If a2 + b1 1 + a2 + b2 a2 + b3 (2n7 + 1) 2 (2n8 + 1) 2 (2n9 + 1) 2
a3 + b1 a3 + b2 1 + a3 + b3
ni ∈ I, (i = 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 9) then D is always divisible by

3
=k + ∑ (ai + bi ) + ∑ ∑ (ai − a j )(b j − bi ); then find the (a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 64
=i 1 1 ≤ i < j ≤3

7. Let An be a n × n matrix with its ith row and jth column
value of k
(−1)|i − j | i≠ j
(a) 0 (b) 1 elements aij is defined as aij =  match
(c) 2 (d) 8  2 i= j

n! (n + 1)! (n + 2)! values of List-I with number of their factor in List-II.

2. If n ∈ N and ∆ n = (n + 1)! (n + 2)! (n + 3)! then List-I List-II
(n + 2)! (n + 3)! (n + 4)!
A. |A2| p. 5
(3n3 − 5)∆ n
lim equals
n →∞ ∆ n +1 B. |A1| q. 4
3 5 5 C. |A3| r. 3
(a) (b) (c) − (d) 3
2 2 2
D. |A4| s. 2
x 2 − 4 x + 6 2 x 2 + 4 x + 10 3 x 2 − 2 x + 16
3. If f ( x) = x−2 2x + 2 3x − 1 and (a) A-(p); B-(q); C-(r); D-(s)
1 2 3 (b) A-(r); B-(s); C-(p); D-(q)

{∫ 2

−2 }
x [ f ( x)]dx = 2/k , when [ ] denotes the greatest integer
2
(c) A-(r); B-(s); C-(q); D-(p)

function, { } denotes fractional part; then find the value of k. (d) A-(s); B-(r); C-(q); D-(p)
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 8 a1 a2 a3
8. If ∆ = a4 a5 a6 then incorrect statement is
−bc b 2 + bc c 2 + bc
a7 a8 a9
4. Let ∆
= a 2 + ac −ac c 2 + ac and the equation
 a + ab b + ab
2 2
−ab (a) If ai ∈ {–1, 1} then Dmax = 4
px3+ + rx + s = 0 has roots a, b, c, where a, b, c ∈
qx2 R+. (b) If ai ∈ {0, 1} then Dmax = 2
The value of ∆ is (c) If ai ∈ {–1, 0} then Dmax = –2
(a) r2/p2 (b) r3/p3 (d) If ai ∈ {–1, 0} then Dmax = 2
(c) –s/p (d) None of these *9. If a, b, c ∈ R and a + b + c ≠ 0 and the system of equations
1 1 ( x + y)
ax + by + cz = 0
−
bx + cy + az = 0
z z z2
( y + z) 1 1
cx + ay + bz = 0
5. If D = − then, the
x2 x x has a non-zero solution, then a : b : c is given by
y( y + z) x + 2y + z y( x + y)
− − (a) 1 : α : β where α, β are roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0
x2 z xz xz 2
incorrect statement is (b) 1 : r : r2 where r is some positive real number

(a) D is independent of x (b) D is independent of y (c) 1 : k : 2k where k is some positive real number
(c) D is independent of z (d) D is dependent on x, y, z (d) None of these

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MULTIPLE CORRECT TYPE QUESTIONS MATRIX MATCH QUESTIONS

f ( x) py
10. If g ( x) = , where f(x) is a polynomial 15. Consider a system of linear equations 3x + y – z = 0, x –
( x − a )( x − b)( x − c) 4
of degree <3, then + z = 2 and 2x – y + 2z = q where p, q ∈ I and p, q ∈ [1, 10],
1 a f (a ) log x − a 1 a a 2
then identify the correct statement(s).
=
(a) ∫ g ( x)dx 1 b f (b) log x − b ÷ 1 b b 2 + k
List-I List-II
1 c f (c) log x − c 1 c c2
A. Number of ordered pairs (p, q) (p) 1
−2 for which system of equation
1 a f (a )( x − a ) a 2
a 1
dg ( x) has unique solution is
(b) = 1 b f (b)( x − b) −2 ÷ b 2 b 1
dx B. Number of ordered pairs (p, q) (q) 9
1 c f (c)( x − c) −2 c 2 c 1
for which system of equation
1 a f (a )( x − a ) −2 1 a a 2 has no solution is
dg ( x) C. Number of ordered pairs (p, q) (r) 10
(c) = 1 b f (b)( x − b) −2 ÷ 1 b b 2
dx for which system of equation
1 c f (c)( x − c) −2 1 c c 2 has infinite solutions is
1 a f (a ) log x − a a 2 a 1 D. Number of ordered pairs (p, q) (s) 90
for which system of equation
(d) ∫ g ( x)dx 1 b
= f (b) log x − b ÷ b 2 b 1 +k
has atleast one solution is
1 c f (c) log x − c c2 c 1
(t) 91
11. Let {∆1, ∆2, ∆3, ..., ∆k} be the set of third-order determinant
that can be made with the distinct nonzero real numbers a1, (a) A → (s); B → (q); C → (p); D → (t)
a2, a3, ..., a9; then (b) A → (s); B → (r); C → (p); D → (s)
k
(a) k = 9! (b) ∑∆
i =1
i =0 (c) A → (s); B → (r); C → (q); D → (t)

(c) At least one ∆i = 0 (d) None of these (d) A → (s); B → (q); C → (q); D → (s)

12. Which of the following values of α satisfy the equation

COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS
(1 + α) 2 (1 + 2α) 2 (1 +3α) 2
(2 + α) 2 (2 + 2α) 2 (2 + 3α) 2 =
−648α  Comprehension (Q. 16 to 18): For α, β, γ, θ ∈ R. Let
(3 + α) 2 (3 + 2α) 2 (3 + 3α) 2

(a) –4 (b) 9 (c) –9 (d) 4 cos(α + θ) sin(α + θ) 1

13. Let M and N be two 3 × 3 matrices such that MN = NM. Aθ (α, β,=
γ ) cos(β + θ) sin(β + θ) 1
Further, if M ≠ N2 and M2 = N4, then cos( γ + θ) sin( γ + θ) 1
(a) Determinant of (M2 + MN2) is 0
16. If a = Aπ/2 (α, β, γ), b = Aπ/3 (α, β, γ). Which of the following
(b) There is a 3 × 3 non-zero matrix U such that
is true?
(M2 + MN2)U is the zero matrix
(a) a = b (b) a < b
(c) Determinant of (M2 + MN2) ≥ 1
(c) a > b (d) 2a = b
(d) For a 3 × 3 matrix U, if (M2 + MN2)U equals the zero
matrix then U is the zero matrix 17. Aθ2 + Aφ2 – 2(Aθ+φ)2 equals
*14. If a, b, c are three distinct real numbers for which there exist (a) –2AθAφ (b) Aθ + Aφ
x, y, z such that (c) Aθ – Aφ (d) None of these
x+y+z=1
18. If α, β, γ are fixed, then y = Ax (α, β, γ) represents
ax + by + cz = t
(a) a straight line parallel to x-axis
a2x + b2y + c2z = t2
(b) a straight line through the origin
then a3x + b3y + c3z – t3 = P(t), polynomial in t, find solutions
of P(t) = 0. (c) a parabola with vertex at origin
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) 3 (d) None of these

Determinants 23
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Comprehension (Q. 19-20): INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS

Let α, β, γ be the roots of the cubic x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0,
which (taken in given order) are in G.P. If α and β are such that 1 a bc 1 a a2
2 1 2 24. The value of 1 b ca − 1 b b 2 is
1+ α α β = 0, then 1 c ab 1 c c2
4 − β 3 − β α +1
25. For what value of 2k/33 the equations x + ky + 3z = 0,
19. The value of a + b + c equals 3x + ky – 2z = 0, 2x + 3y – 4z = 0 possess a nontrival solution
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 2 over the set of rationals?
 α  r r
 a2 (s − a)2 (s − a)2
100
a
=
20. If S ∑   β  + 
 b
, then S equals
 26. If 2s = a + b + c and ( s − b) 2 b2 ( s − b) 2
r =1
   ( s − c) ( s − c)
2 2
c2
1 1  4 1 
(a) 1 − 100  (b) 1 − 100  = ks3 (s – a)(s – b)(s – c), then the numerical quantity k
3 2  3 2  should be
8 1  2 1  27. If (1 + ax + bx2)4 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ... + a8x8, where a, b, a0,
(c) 1 −  (d) 1 − 
3  2100  3  2100 
a0 a1 a2
Comprehension (Q. 21 to 23)
a1, ..., a8 ∈ R such that a0 + a1 + a2 ≠ 0 and a1 a2 a0 = 0,
Let α, β, be the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0.
a2 a0 a1
3 1 + S1 1 + S 2 5a
then the value of is
Let Sn = α + β for n ≥ 1 and
n n ∆ = 1 + S 1 1 + S 2 1 + S3 b
1 + S 2 1 + S3 1 + S 4 28. The system of equations
ax + y + z = a – 1

21. If ∆ < 0, then the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has x + ay + z = a – 1

(a) Positive real roots (b) Negative real roots x + y + az = a – 1

(c) Equal roots (d) Imaginary roots has no solution, then absolute value of α is
22. If a, b, c are rational and one of the roots of the equations is *29. Number of values of θ lying in [0, 100π] for which the
1 + 2, then the value of ∆ is system of equations, (sin 3θ) x – y + z = 0; (cos 2θ)
x + 4y + 3z = 0; 2x + 7y + 7z = 0 has non-trivial solution is
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 30 (d) 32
________.
23. If ∆ > 0, then
*30. If sin q ≠ cos q and x, y, z satisfy the equations
(a) f(1) > 0

x cos p – y sin p + z = cos q + 1
(b) f(1) < 0
x sin p + y cos p + z = 1 – sin q

(c) f(1) = 0
x cos(p + q) – y sin (p + q) + z = 2
(d) Cannot say anything about f(1) then find the value of x2 + y2 + z2.

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Exercise-5 PAST YEAR QUESTIONS PYQ’s

PROPERTIES OF DETERMINANTS 1 0 0
  3
5. Let A= 0 α β  and 2 A = 221 where a, b, ∈ Z, Then a
α −1 0 β α 
1. =
Let A   , α > 0 , such that det ( A ) = 0 and α + β =1 .
6 β  value of a is [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
If I denotes 2 × 2 identity matrix, then the matrix (1 + A)8 is:
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 17 (d) 9
 [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
2 1 2  1 2 0 
A =  6 2 11 P = 5 0 2 
 4 −1  257 −64  6. Let   and   . The sum of the
(a)   (b)    3 3 2  7 1 5 
6 −1  514 −127 
factors of |P–1AP – 2I| is equal to[29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
1025 −511   766 −255
(c)   (d)   (a) 26 (b) 27
 2024 −1024  1530 −509 
(c) 66 (d) 23
2. Let M and m respectively be the maximum and the
2cos 4 x 2sin 4 x 3 + sin 2 2 x
1
minimum values of 7. If f ( x )= 3 + 2cos x 4
2sin x 4
sin 2 2 x then f ′ ( 0 ) is
5
2cos 4 x 3 + 2sin 4 x sin 2 2 x
1 + sin 2 x cos 2 x 4sin 4 x
f ( x) =
sin 2 x 1 + cos 2 x 4sin 4 x , x∈R equal to [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
2
sin x 2
cos x 1 + 4sin 4 x (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6

Then M4 – m4 is equal to: [29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)] x3 2 x 2  1 1  3x

8. If f ( x)  3x  22
2x x3  6
(a) 1295 (b) 1040
x3  x 4 x2  2
(c) 1215 (d) 1280
for all x ∈ R, then 2f (0) + f ‘(0) is equal to
2 0 1
 [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
3. Let A = 1 1 0  , B = [B1, B2, B3,] where B1, B2, B3 are
1 0 1  (a) 48 (b) 24 (c) 42 (d) 18
1  2 3
 2 1  1 0 
column matrices, and AB1 = 0  , AB2 =  3  , AB3 =  2  =
9. If A = , B  T T 2
 , C = ABA and X = A C A, then
     
0   0  1   −1 2  1 1 
det X is equal to: [1 Feb, 2024 (Shift-I)]
If  = |B| and  is the sum of all the diagonal elements of B,
(a) 243 (b) 729 (c) 27 (d) 891
then 3 + 3 is equal to _____. [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
1 2 α 
10. Let α ∈ ( 0, ∞ ) and A = 1 0 1  .
3 3
1α+ 0 1 2 
2 2
1 1
α + = 0, lie in If det(adj(2A – AT).adj(A – 2AT)) = 28 , then (det(A))2 is
4. The values of a, for which 1
3 3 equal to: [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
2α + 3 3α + 1 0
(a) 1 (b) 49 (c) 16 (d) 36

the interval. [27 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] 11. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix of non-negative real elements such
1 1
(a) (–2, 1) (b) (–3, 0) that A 1 = 3 1 . Then the maximum value of det(A) is
1 1
 3 3 ______ [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(c)  – ,  (d) (0, 3)
 2 2

Determinants 25
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1 3  20. Let p and p + 2 be prime numbers and let

12. Let A be a 2 × 2 symmetric matrix such that A   =   and
1 7    p! ( p + 1)! ( p + 2)!
the determinant of A be 1. If A–1 = aA + bI, where I is an ∆
= ( p + 1)! ( p + 2)! ( p + 3)!
identity matrix of order 2 × 2, then a + b equals ..... ( p + 2)! ( p + 3)! ( p + 4)!

 [04 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
then the sum of the maximum values of α and β such that
13. Let A and B be two square matrices of order 3 such that |A| pα and (p + 2)b divide ∆ is ____. [29 July, 2022 (Shift-I)]
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
= 3 and |B| = 2. Then |ATA(adj(2A))–1(adj(4B))(adj(AB))–1
21. Let | M | denote the determinant of a square matrix M. Let
AAT| is equal to: [05 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]  π
g : 0,  → R be the function defined by
(a) 64 (b) 81 (c) 32 (d) 108  2
β α
3
π 
14. Let αβ ≠ 0 and A = α α β

. g (=
θ) f (θ) − 1 + f  − θ  − 1 where
 −β α 2α  2 
1 sin θ 1
 3α −9 3α  1
If 
B=  −α 7 −2α 

is the matrix of cofactors f (θ)= − sin θ 1 sin θ +
2
 −2α 5 −2β  −1 − sin θ 1

of the elements of A, then det(AB)is equal to:  π  π
sin πcos  θ +  tan  θ − 
 [05 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]  4  4
 π π 4
(a) 343 (b) 125 (c) 64 (d) 216 sin  θ −  − cos log e  
 4 2 π
15. For a, b, ∈ R and a natural number n, let
 π π
n2
cot  θ +  log e   tan π
r 1 +α   4  4
2
=Ar 2r 2 n 2 − β . Then 2 A10 − A8 is
Let p(x) be a quadratic polynomial whose roots are the
maximum and minimum values of the function g(θ), and
n ( 3n − 1) p (2)= 2 − 2. Then, which of the following is/are TRUE?
3r − 2 3
2   [JEE Adv, 2022]
 [06 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
 3+ 2  1+ 3 2 
(a) 4a + 2b (b) 2a + 4b (a) p  <0 (b) p  >0
 4   4 
(c) 2n (d) 0
 5 2 −1  5− 2 
16. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that det(A) = 3 and (c) p  >0 (d) p  <0
 4   4 


( ( ( (
det  adj −4adj −3adj 3adj (2 A) −1 ) ) ))  =
2 3 , then m + 2n is equal
m n

 
a b 
to: [06 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] 22. Let M=  A=   : a, b, c, d ∈ {±3, ±2, ±1, 0} . Define
 c d  
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 f : M → Z, as f(A) = det(A), for all A ∈ M, where Z is set of
α b c
all integers. Then the number of A ∈ M such that f(A) = 15
a is equal to. [25 July, 2021 (Shift-I)]
17. I f α ≠ a, β ≠ b, γ ≠ c a n d a β c = 0, then
α−a 23. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let | M | denote the determinant of
a b γ M. Let
b γ
+ + is equal to: [08 April, 2024 (Shift-II)] 1 2 3  1 0 0  1 3 2 
β−b γ −c
= E = 
2 3 4  , P 0 =  0 1  and F 8 18 13

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
8 13 18 0 1 0   2 4 3 
18. Let A be a non-singular matrix of order 3. 
If Q is a non-singular matrix of order 3 × 3, then which of
If det ( 3adj( 2adj(( detA) A=
))) 3−13 ⋅ 2−10 and the following statements is(are) TRUE? [JEE Adv, 2021]
1 0 0 
det ( 3adj( 2 A)=) 2 ⋅ 3 , then 3m + 2n is equal to ______.
m n
0 1 0 
 [09 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(a) F = PEP and P 2
=  
0 0 1 

1 2k 2k − 1 n
19. Let = Dk n n 2 + n + 2 n2 . If ∑ Dk = 96, (b) | EQ + PFQ–1| = | EQ | + | PFQ–1 |
= (c) | (EF)3| > | EF |2
n2 + n n2 + n + 2
k 1
n
(d) Sum of the diagonal entries of P–1EP + F is equal to the
then n is equal to [12 April, 2023 (Shift-I)] sum of diagonal entries of E + P–1FP

26 JEE (XII) Module-1 | MATHEMATICS

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24. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the determinant 30. If the minimum and the maximum values of the function f :
of M. Let l be the 3 × 3 identify matrix. Let E and F be π π
 4 , 2  → R, defined by [5 Sep, 2020 (Shift-I)]
two 3 × 3 matrices such that (I – EF) is invertible. If  
G = (I – EF)–1, then which of the following statements is
(are) TRUE? [JEE Adv, 2021] − sin 2 θ −1 − sin 2 θ 1
(a) |FE| = |I – FE| |FGE| (b) (I – FE) (I + FGE) = I f (θ) = − cos θ −1 − cos θ 1
2 2

12 10 −2
(c) EFG = GEF (d) (I – FE) (I – FGE) = I
25. Let a, b, c, d be in arithmetic progression with common are m and M respectively, then the ordered pair (m, M) is
difference l. equal to:
x+a−c x+b x+a
x −1 x+c x+b =
2 , then the value of l2 is equal (a) (0, 2 2 ) (b) (0, 4)
If
x−b+ d x+d x+c
(c) (– 4, 4) (d) (– 4, 0)
to [20 July, 2021 (Shift-I)]
31. Let m and M be respectively the minimum and maximum
26. Let A = [aij] and B = [bij] be two 3 × 3 real matrices such
values of [6 Sep, 2020 (Shift-I)]
that bij = (3)(i+j–2) aji, where i, j = 1, 2, 3. If the determinant
of B is 81, then the determinant of A is cos 2 x 1 + sin 2 x sin 2 x
 [7 Jan, 2020 (Shift-II)] 1 + cos x
2
sin x 2
sin 2 x
(a) 1/9 (b) 1/81 (c) 3 (d) 1/3 2
cos x sin x 2
1 + sin 2 x
27. Suppose the vectors x1, x2 and x3 are the solutions of the
system of linear equations, Ax = b when the vector b on the Then the ordered pair (m, M) is equal to:
right side is equal to b1, b2 and b3 respectively. If
(a) (1, 3) (b) (–3, –1)
1 0  0  1  0 
  
= 0  , = 0  , =  2  and
(c) (–4, –1) (d) (–3, 3)
x1 = 1 ,
x2 = 2 , x3  
b1  
b2  
1 1  1  0  0  x sin θ cos θ
0  32. If ∆1 = − sin θ − x 1 and
b3 = 0  , then the determinant of A is equal to cos θ 1 x
 
  2  [4 Sep, 2020 (Shift-II)]
x sin 2θ cos 2θ
∆ 2 = − sin 2θ
−x 1 , x ≠ 0; then for all
1 3
(a) 4 (b) (c) 2 (d) cos 2θ 1 x
2 2
 π
π  cos θ sin θ  θ ∈  0,   [10 April, 2019 (Shift-I)]
28. Let θ = and A =   . If B = A + A ,
4  2
5  − sin θ cos θ 
(a) ∆1 – ∆2 = x (cos 2θ – cos 4θ)
then det (B) [6 Sep, 2020 (Shift-II)]
(b) ∆1 + ∆2 = – 2x3

(a) lies in (2, 3) (b) is zero (c) ∆1 – ∆2 = – 2x3

(c) is one (d) lies in (1, 2) (d) ∆1 + ∆2 = – 2(x3 + x – 1)

29. Let a – 2b + c = 1. 33. Let d ∈ R, and

 −2 4+d (sin θ) − 2 
x+a x + 2 x +1
=A  1
(sin θ) + 2 d ,
 q ∈ [0, 2p].
If f ( x) =+
x b x + 3 x + 2 , then
 5 (2sin θ) − d (− sin θ) + 2 + 2d 
 x+c x+4 x+3
[9 Jan, 2020 (Shift-II)] If the minimum value of det. (A) is 8, then a value of d is
 [10 Jan, 2019 (Shift-I)]
(a) f(–50) = –1 (b) f(50) = 1
(a) –5 (b) –7
(c) f(50) = –501 (d) f(–50) = 501 (c) 2( 2 + 1) (d) 2( 2 + 2)

Determinants 27
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2 b 1 40. Let α be a solution of x 2 + x + 1 =0 , and for some a and

=
34. Let A b b + 1 b  where b > 0. Then the minimum
 2
 1 16 13 
, [ 4 a b ]  −1 −1 2  =
4
1 b 2  b in [ 0 0 0] . If
 −2 −14 −8 α4
det( A) 
value of is [10 Jan, 2019 (Shift-II)] m n
b + + =
3 , then m + n is equal to 
αa αb
(a) 2 3 (b) −2 3 (c) − 3 (d) 3  [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
35. Let a1, a2, a3, ..., a10 be in G.P. with ai > 0 for i = 1, 2, ..., (a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 7 (d) 8
10 and S be the set of pairs (r, k); r, k ∈ N (the set of natural
2 2 + p 2+ p+q 
numbers) for which  4 6 + 2 p 8 + 3 p + 2q 
41. Let =
A  .
log e a1r a2k log e a2r a3k log e a3r a4k  6 12 + 3 p 20 + 6 p + 3q 
log e a4r a5k log e a5r a6k log e a6r a7k = 0
If det ( adj( adj( 3 A ) ) ) =
2m ⋅ 3n , m, n ∈  , then m + n is equal to
log e a7r a8k
log e a8r a9k log e a9r a10k
 [08 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]
Then the number of elements in S, is:
 [10 Jan, 2019 (Shift-II)] (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 20
(a) 4 (b) Infinitely many 42. Let the system of equations:
(c) 2 (d) 10 2x + 3y + 5z = 9,
1 1 1  7x + 3y – 2z = 8,
36. Let the number 2, b, c be in an A.P. and A =  2 b c  . 12x + 3y – (4 + λ)z = 16 – µ
have infinitely many solutions. Then the radius of the circle
 4 b 2 c 2 
centred at (λ, µ) and touching the line 4x = 3y is
If det (A) ∈ [2,16], then c lies in the interval
 [07 April, 2025 (Shift-I)]
 [8 April, 2019 (Shift-II)]
17 7 21
(a) [2, 3) (b) (2 + 23/4, 4) (a) (b) (c) 7 (d)
3/4 5 5 5
(c) [3, 2 + 2 ] (d) [4, 6]
43. If the system of linear equations:[22 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
 n n

 ∑k ∑ n
Ck k 2  x + y + 2z = 6,
2x + 3y + az = a + 1,
37. Suppose det  n  = 0, holds for some
= k 0= k 0

 n n
k
– x – 3y + bz = 2b,
∑ k ∑ k 
n
C k C 3 where a, b ∈ R, has infinitely many solutions, then 7a + 3b is equal
=  k 0=k 0 to:
n n
C
positive integer n. Then ∑ k equals [JEE Adv, 2019] (a) 16 (b) 22 (c) 9 (d) 12
k =0 k + 1
44. If the system of equations [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
SYSTEM OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN (l – 1)x + (l – 4)y + lz = 5
lx + (l – 1)y + (l – 4)z = 7
THREE UNKNOWNS (l + 1)x + (l + 2)y – (l + 2)z = 9
38. If the system of linear equations has infinitely many solutions, then l2 + l is equal to
(a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 10
3x + y + βz = 3
45. The system of equations [23 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)]
2 x + αy − z = −3 x + y + z = 6,
x + 2y + z =4 x + 2y + 5z = 9,
has infinitely many solutions, then the value of 22β − 9α is: x + 5y + λz = μ,
 [02 April, 2025 (Shift-I)] has no solution if
(a) 49 (b) 31 (c) 43 (d) 37 (a) λ = 15, μ ≠ 17 (b) λ ≠ 17, μ ≠ 18
(c) λ = 17, μ = 18 (d) λ = 17, μ ≠ 18
39. If the system of equations
46. If the system of equations
2x + ly + 3z = 5
2x – y + z = 4
3x + 2y – z = 7
5x + ly + 3z = 12
4x + 5y + mz = 9
100x – 47y + µz = 212,
has infinitely many solutions, then (l2 + m2) is equal to: has infinitely many solutions, then µ–2l is equal to
 [02 April, 2025 (Shift-II)]  [24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-I)]
(a) 22 (b) 18 (c) 26 (d) 30 (a) 55 (b) 59 (c) 56 (d) 57

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47. If the system of equations 1  1   −1  −1  0  0

x + 2 y − 3z =            
2 =A  0  2=0 , A
    0 4= 0 ,
   A 1 2 1  .
2 x + λy + 5 z = 5 1  1  1  1   0  0
           
14 x + 3 y + µz = 33
x 1 
has infinitely many solutions, then λ + µ is equal to:    
Then, the system ( A − 3I )  y  =
 2  has
 [24 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] z  3
   
(a) 13 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 10
(a) unique solution
48. Let a, b(a ≠ b) be the values of m, for which the equations
x + y + z = 1; x + 2y + 4z = m and x + 4y + 10z = m2 have (b) exactly two solutions
10
infinitely many solutions. Then the value of ∑ (nα + nβ ) is (c) no solution
equal to: n =1
(d) infinitely many solutions
[29 Jan, 2025 (Shift-II)] 54. Let the system of equations x + 2y + 3z = 5, 2x + 3y + z = 9,
(a) 3080 (b) 560 (c) 3410 (d) 440 4x + 3y + λz = μ have infinite number of solutions. Then λ
49. Let for any three distinct consecutive terms a, b, c of an A.P., + 2μ is equal to: [1 Feb, 2024 (Shift-II)]
the lines ax + by + c = 0 be concurrent at the point P and (a) 28 (b) 17 (c) 22 (d) 15
Q(a, b) be a point such that the system of equations
55. If the system of equations
x + y + z = 6,
x + ( 2 sin α)y + ( 2 cos α)z = 0
2x + 5y + az = b and
x + (cos α)y + (sin α)z = 0
x + 2y + 3z = 4, has infinitely many solutions. Then (PQ)2 x + (sin α)y – (cos α)z = 0
is equal to ______.  [29 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]
π
50. Consider the system of linear equation x + y + z has a non-trivial solution, then α ∈  0,  is equal to:
2  
= 4µ, x + 2 y + 2λz =10µ, x + 3 y + 4λ z =µ + 15 ,
2 2
 [04 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
where l, m ∈ R. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct? [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)] (a) 3π (b) 7π (c) 5π (d) 11π
4 24 24 24
1 56. If the system of equations
(a) The system has unique solution if λ ≠ and µ ≠ 1,15 11x + y + λz = – 5
2
1
2x + 3y + 5z = 3
(b) The system is inconsistent if λ = and m ≠ 1 8x – 19y – 39z = m has infinitely many solutions, then λ4 – m
2
is equal to: [05 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
1
(c) The system has infinite number of solutions if λ = and
2 (a) 49 (b) 45 (c) 47 (d) 51
m = 15
1
57. The values of m, n , for which the system of equations
(d) The system is consistent if λ ≠ x+ y+z = 4,
2
2x + 5 y + 5z =17 ,
51. Consider the system of linear equations
x + 2 y + mz = n
x + y + z = 5, x + 2y + l2z = 9, x + 3y + lz = m, where l, m ∈ R.
Then, which of the following statement is NOT correct? has infinitely many solutions, satisfy the equation :
 [30 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)]  [05 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]

(a) System has infinite number of solution if l = 1 and (a) m 2 + n 2 − m − n =46 (b) m 2 + n 2 + m + n =64
m = 13 (c) m 2 + n 2 + mn =
68 (d) m 2 + n 2 − mn =
39
(b) System is inconsistent if l = 1 and m ≠ 13 58. Let αbg = 45; α, b, g ∈ R. If x(α, 1, 2) + y(1, b, 2) + z(2, 3, g)
(c) System is consistent if l ≠ 1 and m = 13 = (0, 0, 0) for some x, y, z ∈ R, xyz ≠ 0,then 6α + 4b + g is
equal to ____________. [06 April, 2024 (Shift-I)]
(d) System has unique solution if l ≠ 1 and m ≠ 13
59. If the system of equations
52. If the system of linear equations 2x + 7y + lz = 3
x – 2y + z = – 4 3x + 2y + 5z = 4
2x + αy + 3z = 5 x + my + 32z = –1
3x – y + βz = 3 has infinitely many solutions, then (l – m) is equal to
has infinitely many solutions, then 12α + 13β is equal to ________. [06 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
 [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-I)]
60. If the system of equations x + 4y – z = l, 7x + 9y + µz = –3,
(a) 60 (b) 64 (c) 54 (d) 58 5x + y + 2z = –1 has infinitely many solutions, then
(2µ + 3l) is equal to: [08 April, 2024 (Shift-II)]
53. Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix such that
 [31 Jan, 2024 (Shift-II)] (a) 2 (b) –3 (c) 3 (d) –2

Determinants 29
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61. Let λ, µ ∈ R. If the system of equations 65. For the system of linear equations
3x + 5y + λz = 3 [10 April, 2023 (Shift-I)]
2x – y + 3z = 5
7x + 11y – 9z = 2
3x + 2y – z = 7
97x + 155y – 189z = µ 4x + 5y + az = b
has infinitely many solutions, then m + 2λ is equal to Which of the following is NOT correct ?
[09 April, 2024 (Shift-I)] (a) The system has infinitely many solutions for a = –5
(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 27 (d) 22 and b = 9
(b) The system has a unique solution for a ≠ –5 and b = 8
62. If a point P(a, b, g) satisfying
(c) The system has infinitely many solutions for a = – 6
 2 10 8  and b = 9
( α β γ )  9 3 8  =( 0 0 0 ) lies on the plane
(d) The system is inconsistent for a = –5 and b = 8
 8 4 8
  66. The number of real values λ, such that the system of linear
equations
2x + 4y + 3z = 5, then 6a + 9b + 7g is equal to:
2x – 3y + 5z = 9
[31 Jan, 2023 (Shift-II)] x + 3y – z = –18

11 5 3x – y + (λ2 – |λ|) z = 16 has no solution, is
(a) –1 (b) (c) (d) 11 [25 July, 2022 (Shift-II)]
5 4
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
63. Let N denote the number that turns up when a fair die is
rolled. If the probability that the system of equations 67. Let the system of linear equations x + 2y + z = 2, αx + 3y – z = a,
[24 Jan, 2023 (Shift-I)] –ax + y + 2z = –a be inconsistent. Then α is equal to:
x+y+z=1 [27 June, 2022 (Shift-I)]
2x + Ny + 2z = 2
5 5
3x + 3y + Nz = 3 (a) (b) −
2 2
k
has unique solution is , then the sum of value of k and all 7 7
6 (c) (d) −
2 2
possible values of N is
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21 68. If the system of linear equations
64. Let S denote the set of all real values of l such that the 2x + 2ay + az = 0
system of equations [1 Feb, 2023 (Shift-I)] 2x + 3by + bz = 0
λx + y + z =1 2x + 4cy + cz = 0
x + λy + z =1 where a, b, c ∈ R are non‑zero and distinct; has a non‑zero

solution, then [7 Jan, 2020 (Shift-I)]
x + y + λz =1
1 1 1
(
is inconsistent, then ∑ λ∈S | λ |2 + λ ) is equal to (a) a, b, c are in A.P. (b) , , are in A.P.
a b c
(a) 2 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 6 (c) a + b + c = 0 (d) a, b, c are in G.P.

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30 JEE (XII) Module-1 | MATHEMATICS

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Exercise-6 PW CHALLENGERS

SINGLE CORRECT QUESTIONS 6. If (x1 – x2)2 + (y1 – y2)2 = a2;

(x2 – x3)2 + (y2 – y3)2 = b2;
( x 2 + 1) 2 ( xy + 1) 2 ( xz + 1) 2
(x3 – x1)2 + (y3 – y1)2 = c2; and
1. If ( xy + 1) ( y + 1) ( yz + 1) = k(x – y)2 (x – z)2 (y – z)2.
2 2 2 2

( xz + 1) 2 ( yz + 1) 2 ( z 2 + 1)
2
x1 y1 1
Find the value of k. 4 x2
y2 1 = l(l3 – (l + l + l )l2 + l(l l + l l
1 2 3 1 2 2 3
(a) 2 (b) 3 x3 y3 1
(c) 4 (d) 5
+..– l1l2l3)), then
2. For any integers x1, x2,…, xn and positive integers k1, k2,…, kn,
1
(a) λ > 3 ( λ1λ 2 λ 3 ) 3 (b) λ1λ 2 λ 3 =8abc
x1k1 x2k1  xnk1 2
x1k2 x2k2  xnk2
the determinant
   
is (c) ∑λ λ 1 2 =4∑ ab (d) 2λ = λ1 + λ 2 + λ 3

x1kn x2kn  xnkn

COMPREHENSION-BASED QUESTIONS
(a) divisible by n!
Comprehension (Q. 7 to 8): If g(x) = (c1 – x) (c2 – x)(c3 – x)
(b) divisible by (n + 1)!
(c) 0 x + c1 x+a x+a
(d) divisible by (n + 2)! f ( x) =+
x b x + c2 x+a
x+b x+b x + c3
MULTIPLE CORRECT QUESTIONS
7. Coefficient of x in f(x) is
3. If p, q, r, s are in A.P. and f (x)
g (a ) − f (b) g (−a ) − g (−b)
p + sin x q + sin x p − r + sin x (a) (b)
b−a b−a
= q + sin x r + sin x −1 + sin x such that
g (a ) − g (b)
r + sin x s + sin x s − q + sin x (c) (d) None of these
b−a
∫ 02 f ( x)dx =
−4 then the common difference of the A.P. 8. Which of the following is not a constant term in f(x)
can be: bg (a ) − ag (b) bg (a ) − af (−b)
(a) (b)
(a) –1 (b) 1/2 b−a b−a
(c) –1/2 (d) 1
bf (−a ) − ag (b)
yz − x 2 zx − y 2 xy − z 2 r2 u2 u2 (c) (d) None of these
b−a
4. If xz − y 2 xy − z 2 yz − x 2 =
u2 r2 u 2 , then
xy − z yz − x zx − y
2 2 2
u2 u2 r2
INTEGER ANSWER TYPE
9. The value of determinant
(a) r2 = x + y + z (b) r2 = x2 + y2 + z2
ax + xy a 2 + xb ab + xc 1 1 1
(c) u2 = yz + zx + xy (d) u2 = xyz
bx + y ab + yb b + yc + cos θ cos θ sin θ is

2 2

n −1 n−2 n−6
cx + yz ac + zb bc + cz − sin θ − sin θ cos θ
T
5. If n =2 n − 4 2 n − 6 2 n − 11 where n ∈ N, then which
equal to
3n − 9 3n − 12 3n − 18
10. If f (x), g(x), h(x) are three polynomial functions of degree
of the following is/are true? f ( x ) g ( x ) h( x )
m 10

(a) ∏T n = 6m (b) ∑T
n =1
n = 60 two and= φ( x) f ′( x) g ′( x) h′( x) , then the value of
n =1
f ′′ ( x) g ′′ ( x) h′′ ( x)
Tn +1 φ( x) − φ(4 − x)
(c) =2 (d) T100 ⋅ T101 =
48 lim is equal to:
Tn x→2 sin( x − 2)

Determinants 31
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ANSWER KEY
RIDDLES
1. A Determinant 2. A singular matrix (when determinant 0)
3. It two row/columns are identical, the determinant is zero. 4. det (A) = det(AT)
5. If a row/column is all zeros, the determinant is zero.

CHECK YOUR UNDERSTANDING

1. (d) 2. [–10] 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a,b,c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a, b) 22. (c)
23. (c) 24. [0] 25. [1] 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. {0,8} 39. (c)
EXERCISE-1 PRARAMBH (TOPICWISE)

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b)

EXERCISE-2 PRABAL (JEE MAIN LEVEL)

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. [2] 27. [6] 28. [0] 29. [8] 30. [3]
31. [626] 32. [4] 33. [0] 34. [2] 35. [8]
EXERCISE-3 SETU (BRIDGE)
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a,b,c,d) 12. (a,b,c) 13. (a, b) 14. (a,b,c) 15. (a,d) 16. (a,c) 17. (a,b,c,d) 18. (b) 19. (a, b) 20. (a,b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25 (d) 26. [8] 27. [5] 28. [0] 29. [1] 30. [8]
31. [0] 32. [1] 33. [0] 34. [0] 35. [16] 36. [24] 37. [0] 38. [0] 39. [18] 40. [0]

EXERCISE-4 PARIKSHIT (JEE ADVANCED LEVEL)

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a,b)
11. (a,b) 12. (b,c) 13. (a,b) 14. (a,b,c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. [0] 25. [1] 26. [2] 27. [8] 28. [2] 29. [201] 30. [2]
EXERCISE-5 PYQ’s (PAST YEAR QUESTIONS)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. [28] 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. [27] 12. [5] 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. [14] 19. [6] 20. (d)
21. (a, c) 22. [16] 23. (a,b,d) 24. (a,b,c) 25. [1] 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. [6.20] 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. [113] 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. [55] 59. [38] 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (b)
EXERCISE-6 (PW CHALLENGERS)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a, d) 4. (b, c) 5. (a, b) 6. (a,b,c,d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. [2] 10. [0]

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