FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY

SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, NOVEMBER 2022

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : HYDROLOGY II

PAPER CODE : CIV4105

DATE : Monday 21st November, 2022

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of Seven questions each of which carries the same marks; attempt
any Five questions of your choice for full marks.
3. No marks for any extra question attempted.
4. Make reasonable assumptions where necessary.
5. Do not write on the question paper.

6. Start each question attempted on a fresh page.

7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].
8. Graph paper to be provided where necessary.

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 1 of 9

QUESTION 1
a) Discus the relevance of statistical analysis to Hydrologists. (3 marks)

b) The mean annual runoff for a station for the period 1953-1970 has been calculated as 14.65
and the standard deviation 4.75. Test the hypothesis that the mean annual discharge is
16.5. (3 marks)
c) The annual precipitation data for a rain gauge station from 1988 to 19998 are given in the
table below.

Year 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
Annual 90 102 108 60 75 120 160 85 106 83
Rainfall
(cm)

i. Place confidence limits on the mean valve for the precipitation at 95% confidence level.
(5 marks)
ii. Test the hypothesis at 95% level of significance that the mean annual discharge for the rain
gauge station annual precipitation for the period 1988 to 1995 is 95 (5 marks)
iii. A hydrologist obtained 100 readings of flow from two locations P and Q of River Nile.
Upon testing these samples, he found that Location P had a mean of 1500 with a standard
deviation of 50 whereas location Q had an average of 1530 and a standard deviation of 60.
Can it be concluded at 5% level of significance that the flows at the two points are
significantly different. (4 marks)

QUESTION 2
In estimating the peak discharge of a river at a location X the catchment area was divided into four
parts A, B, C and D. The time of concentration and area for different parts are as follows;

Part Time of concentration (hrs.) Area (Ha)

A 1 600
B 2 750
C 3 1000
D 4 1200

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 2 of 9

 Records of a rain storm lasting for four hours as observed and the runoff factors during different
hours are as follows:
Time (hrs.) Rainfall (mm) Runoff factor
From To
0 1 25 0.5
1 2 50 0.7
2 3 50 0.8
3 4 23.5 0.85

Calculate the maximum flow to be expected at X in m3/s assuming a constant base flow of
42.5 m3/s. (10 marks)

A 500-ha watershed has the land use/cover and corresponding runoff coefficient as given below

Land use/cover Area (ha) Runoff coefficient

Forest 250 0.10
Pasture 50 0.11
Cultivated land 200 0.30

The maximum length of travel of water in the watershed is about 3000 m and the elevation
difference between the highest and outlet points of the watershed is 25 m. The maximum intensity
duration frequency relationship of the watershed is given by

6.311𝑇 0.1523
𝑖=
(𝐷 + 0.5)0.945
water i = intensity in cm/h, T = Return period in years and D = duration of the rainfall in hours.
Estimate the
(i) 25-year peak runoff from the watershed and (5 marks)
(ii) the 25-year peak runoff if the forest cover has decreased to 50 ha and the cultivated
land has encroached upon the pasture and forest lands to have a total coverage of 450
ha. (5 marks)

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 3 of 9

QUESTION 3
The stage-discharge data of a river are given below. Establish the stage-discharge relationship to
predict the discharge for a given stage. Assume the value of stage for zero discharge as 35.00 m.
(a) What is the correlation coefficient of the relationship established above? (12 marks)
(b) Sketch the stage-discharge relationship and estimate the discharge corresponding to stage
values of 42.50 m and 48.50 m respectively. (8 marks)

Stage (m) Discharge (m3/s) Stage (m) Discharge (m3/s)

35.91 89 39.07 468
41 798
36.90 230 43.53 2800
37.92 360 48.02 5900
44.4 3800 49.05 6800
45.40 4560 49.55 6900
46.43 5305 49.68 6950

QUESTION 4
a) Explain the rational method of computing the peak discharge of a small catchment. Where
is this method commonly used and what are its merits and demerits? (6 marks)
b) Discuss the factors affecting the runoff coefficient C in rational formula. (6 marks)
c) In a 350-ha watershed the CN value was assessed as 70 for AMC-III.
(i) Estimate using the standard SCS-CN equations, the value of direct runoff volume for
the following 4 days of rainfall. The AMC on July 1st was of category III. (4 marks)

Date July 1 July 2 July 3 July 4

Rainfall (mm) 50 20 30 18

(ii) What would be the runoff volume if the CN III value were 80? (4 marks)

QUESTION 5
a) What are the major issues in the design of a new drainage system in a city in a developing
country? How will you address the issues? (6 marks)
b) Discuss the relevance of GIS in Urban Hydrology (5 Marks)

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 4 of 9

 c) Design a trapezoidal ditch to carry Q = 12.1m3/s. The ditch will be a lined channel, gravel
bottom with sides shown below on a slope of S = 0.0002. The side slopes of the 6m wide
ditch will be 1 vertical to 1 horizontal.
i. Determine the normal depth of low yn. (n=0.014) (5 marks)
ii. If the freeboard requirements are 25% of the normal depth, how deep the ditch
should be constructed. (2 marks)
iii. Classify the slope. (2 marks)

QUESTION SIX
a) Distinguish between hydrometry and hydrological networks. (4 marks)
b) Briefly explain the specific objectives governing the design of Hydrological networks?
(4 marks)
c) River flow measurements are vital in design of drainage structures such as dams, bridges,
flood banks and culverts, briefly explain any three ways of measuring the discharge of a
river/stream. (6 marks)
d) A 500 g/l solution of sodium dichromate was used as chemical tracer. It was dosed at a
constant rate of 4 l/s and at a downstream section. The equilibrium concentration was,
measured as 4 parts per million (ppm). Estimate the discharge in the stream.
(6 marks)

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 5 of 9

QUESTION SEVEN
a) Briefly discuss what you understand by Climate change and Hydrological models and
challenges of their application in Uganda (4 marks)
a) As a Hydrologist and climate change expert, describe what you understand by Climate
change adaptation and mitigation. (3 marks)
b) Discuss any four impacts of climate on the hydrological cycle. (4 marks)
c) Provide a schematic showing the critical components and processes of the natural
hydrologic cycle as a system. Using the schematic draw the system boundary and identify
the inputs, outputs and relationships between the different subsystems. (9 marks)

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 6 of 9

 APPENDIX
Formulae

5 1
1 𝐴3 2
; 𝑄=𝑛 2 𝑆0
𝑃3
Stage discharge relationship equations
𝑄 = 𝑎(𝐻 − 𝐻𝑜 )𝑏
𝑌 = 𝑏𝑥 + 𝐶
𝑁(∑ 𝑋𝑌) − (∑ 𝑋). (∑ 𝑌)
𝑏= 2
𝑁(∑ 𝑋 2 ) − (∑ 𝑋)
∑ 𝑌 − 𝑏(∑ 𝑋)
𝐶=
𝑁
𝑁𝑁(∑ 𝑋𝑌) − (∑ 𝑋). (∑ 𝑌)
𝑟=
√[𝑁(∑ 𝑋 2 ) − (∑ 𝑋)2 ] [𝑁(∑ 𝑌 2 ) − (∑ 𝑌)2 ]

(𝑃 − 0.2𝑆)2
𝑄=
(𝑃 + 0.8𝑆)
1000
𝑆 = 25.4 ( − 10)
𝐶𝑁

𝑄𝑡 (𝐶1 − 𝐶2 )
𝑄=
𝐶2 − 𝐶0

1
𝑄𝑃 = 𝐶𝐼𝐴
3.6
𝑇𝑐 = 0.01947 𝐿0.77 𝑆 −0.385

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@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 8 of 9
 End
---------- Good luck & Merry Christmas ----------

@ 30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Page 9 of 9

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2021
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : STRUCTURAL DESIGN III (MASONRY & TIMBER)

PAPER CODE : CIV4107

DATE : Tuesday 25th May 2021

TIME : 9:00 Am – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. This paper consists of five (5), attempt any Four (4) questions for full marks
3. Some necessary tables have been attached but you can make use of your BS & EC/ Codes
of practice. (any code written in will not be accepted in the exam room)
4. Masonry should be designed to BS & Timber to the EC5
5. Where information given seems insufficient make reasonable assumptions
6. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].

QUESTION ONE [25MKS]

(a) Timber is an important construction material today, explain why?
(b) Explain the difference between serviceability limit state and ultimate limit states.
(c) Give examples of ultimate limit states considered in timber design.
(d) Giving three examples, discuss the significance of modification factors in timber design.
(e) Discuss the limitations of timber as a construction material.
(f) Explain how limitations in timber can be remedied for better performance.

QUESTION TWO [25MKS]

A floor in a residential building is made of joists spaced at 500mm c/c in C16 timber, each
spanning 2.7m between simple supports. The floor supports a plastered board ceiling beneath it,
as shown in the figure below. If the bearing length at the supports is 120mm, design suitable
sizes for the floor joists taking imposed load to be 1.5kN/m2. Check bending, shear and
deflection requirements.

QUESTION THREE [25MKS]

(a) Using illustrations give two examples each of simple restraints and enhanced restraints for
walls
(b) An unstiffened cavity wall shown below is constructed with category I masonry units and
special construction controls. The RC slab is supported by the inner leaf only. Design the
masonry wall given the details below, assuming that dead load constitutes the self-weight of
the slab as well.

QUESTION FOUR [25MKS]

(a) Explain the difference between the orthogonal ratio and the moment coefficient of panel
masonry walls.
(b) Using illustrations, explain the typical mechanisms of failure of laterally loaded walls
(c) A masonry wall specially constructed from category I standard format bricks of water
absorption between 7% and 12%, laid in regular stretcher bond with mortar designation (iii) as
shown below. Calculate the maximum wind-pressure the wall can resist give the conditions
below.

QUESTION FIVE
A fuel tank is to be supported on two single leaf masonry walls each of which is constructed
from solid concrete blocks. The load from the tank is distributed through timber beams as shown
in the figure below and can be considered to be concentric on each wall.
Assume that;
i. The solid concrete blocks are of length 440mm, height 215mm & thickness
190mm
ii. Ultimate design load including load factors is 200KN
iii. Both manufacturing & construction controls are normal
iv. The effective height is equivalent to 2.0h
Using the above design data, determine a suitable blockwork/mortar combination which can be
used to support the walls (17mks)
 BEST WISHES

MASONRY DESIGN TABLES

TIMBER DESIGN TABLES
 With Regard to Bending:

Deflection Deflection
Shear Deflection Continued

Compression Perpendicular to the Grain Compression parallel to the grain

Columns subject to Axial Load

Columns Subject to bending and axial load

Buckling check,
Lateral Torsion Check

Otherwise where they are both less than 0.3, then:

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY 2022
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : STRUCTURAL DESIGN III (TIMBER&MASONRY)

PAPER CODE : CIV4107

DATE : Monday 17th January 2022

TIME : 9:00 Am – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

i. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

ii. This paper consists of five (5), attempt any Four (4) questions for full marks, note that each
question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you are advised to appropriate your time
wisely.

iii. Useful tables and equations have been attached but you can make use of your BS5628 & EC5/
Codes of practice. (Any code written in will not be accepted in the exam room)

iv. Masonry should be designed to BS5628 & Timber to the EC5

v. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
vi. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

vii. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

1
QUESTION ONE [25MKS]

a) Mention any five factors that influence the axial load bearing capacity of a masonry
wall. (5mks)
b) Design the internal single leaf load bearing wall for single storey building shown below.
Assume that the internal wall is 5m long and is made from solid concrete blocks of length
390mm, height 190mm and thickness 100mm and that the external wall consists of
102.5mm thick brick outer leaf with 390x190x100 mm concrete block. Assume that the
manufacturing and construction controls are special and normal respectively and that the
self-weight of the brick and block is 2.2KN/m2. (20mks)

QUESTION TWO [25MKS]

a) Discuss the factors which influence the strength of timber and explain how the strength of
timber is assessed in practice. (5mks)
b) A mechanically graded timber column of strength class C16 consists of a 100 mm square
section which is restrained at both ends in position but not in direction. Assuming that the
service conditions comply with Service Class 2 and the actual height of the column is
3.75m, calculate the design axial long term load that the column can support. (20mks)

QUESTION THREE [25MKS]

(a) Explain the difference between the orthogonal ratio and the moment coefficient of panel
masonry walls.
(b) The side cladding for a steel portal framed building is to be of cavity wall, at the base the wall
is supported on a dropped edge beam which is incorporated in the floor slab and is built of a
bituminous damp-proof course as shown in the figure below. The wall is built up to, but not
pinned to, the structure above. Using the design data given and considering a typical internal
panel. Determine the maximum wind load which can be resisted if the outer leaf is constructed
2
 from calcium silicate bricks and the inner leaf is constructed from 90 mm thick hollow concrete
blocks with a compressive strength of 7.3N/mm2. Both leaves are constructed using mortar
type (i).
Design data
Category of manufacturing and construction controls are special and normal respectively.
Assume that the wall does not provide lateral bracing to the building and its removal does not
affect the stability of the remaining structure. Vertical twist wall ties are to be used and all
cladding panels are to be tied to the steel frame using suitable anchors.

QUESTION FOUR [25MKS]

A 75 mm wide by 300 mm deep simply supported C40 (Kerto-S) beam, AB, supports another
beam CD on its compression face at mid-span as shown in Figure below. Beam CD provides
lateral restraint to beam AB at mid-span and applies a characteristic permanent load of 5.25 kN
and a characteristic variable medium duration load of 7.35 kN. Beam AB has a clear span of 5.00
m, a bearing length of 100 mm at each end, and functions in service class 1 conditions. Carry out
a design check to confirm that the beam will satisfy the ULS design requirements of EC5 (bending
strength, shear strength & bearing)

3
QUESTION FIVE [25MKS]
a) Mention any five factors that influence compressive strength of masonry (5marks)
b) What is your opinion of why it is necessary to carefully select a combination of structural
unit and mortar designation? (4marks)
c) Describe the terms category II [‘normal’] and category I [‘special’] control in relation
to manufacturing of structural units and construction of masonry. (6marks)
d) What is the purpose of the capacity reduction factor ‘β’ in the design of vertically loaded
walls? (5marks)
e) Determine the capacity reduction factor for a wall with a slenderness ratio equal to ‘16’
and an eccentricity at the top of the wall equal to ‘0.15t’. (5marks)

4
DESIGN TABLES

5
6
TIMBER DESIGN TABLES

7
8
9
 With Regard to Bending:

Deflection Deflection

Shear Deflection Continued

10
Compression Perpendicular to the Grain Compression parallel to the grain

Columns subject to Axial Load

11
Columns Subject to bending and axial load

Buckling check,
Lateral Torsion Check

Otherwise where they are both less than 0.3, then:

12
13
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, NOVEMBER 2023
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : STRUCTURAL DESIGN III (TIMBER&MASONRY)

PAPER CODE : CIV4105

DATE : WEDNESDAY 6TH DECEMBER 2023

TIME : 9:00 AM – 12:00 NOON [3 HOURS]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of Five questions each of which carries the same marks; attempt any
Four questions. Note that each question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you
are advised to appropriate your time wisely.
3. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
4. Useful tables and equations have been provided; codes (BS5628, EC6 & EC5) will be
allowed in the examination room for reference especially for tables that do not appear
clearly
5. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,
6. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023-2024 Examinations Page 1 of 18

QUESTION ONE (25MKS)

a) Give three advantages of Hollow blocks over solid blocks (1 ½ Marks)

b) Explain four (4) advantages of masonry construction (2Marks)

c) Give three (3) properties of mortar that ease construction and maintenance of masonry
structures (1 ½ Marks)
d) A fuel tank is to be supported on two single leaf masonry walls each of which is constructed
from solid concrete blocks. The load from the tank is distributed through timber beams as
shown in Fig1, assume that the 200KN load is concentrated on each wall (don’t divide the
load by 2). Also assume that; The single leaf made of group 1 solid concrete blocks are of
length 440mm, height 215mm & thickness 190mm laid in general purpose mortar.
Assuming that the manufacturing control of the units is category 1, the execution control
is class 1, shape factor = 0.85 and conditioning factor = 1.0 for EC6; (Ultimate design load
including load factors is 200KN and is concentrated on each wall; Both manufacturing &
construction controls are normal for BS5628) The effective height is equivalent to 2.0h.
Using the above design data, determine a suitable blockwork/mortar combination which
can be used to support the walls. (20Marks)

Figure 1

QUESTION TWO (25MKS)

a) Explain why for laterally loaded wall panels, flexural strength of masonry is significantly
greater when the plane of failure occurs perpendicular to the bed joints rather than when it
occurs parallel to bed joint (2Marks)
b) Explain the effect of addition of masonry infill panels to an originally bare moment resisting
frame. (3Marks)

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023-2024 Examinations Page 2 of 18

c) A single leaf masonry wall is supported by and tied to a series of columns at 4.25m. given that
the wind load is 1.2KN/M2, standard format bricks of thickness 102.5mm as shown in Figure
1. Assuming that the bottom and top ends are simply supported and then the left and right sides
are fixed, and both manufacturing and construction control are normal (The clay bricks are
category 1 and execution control is class 1 for EC6), with orthogonal ratio of the wall equal to
0.35. Determine suitable brick/mortar combinations for the wall (20Marks)

Figure 2

QUESTION THREE (25MKS)

a) What is your opinion of why it is necessary to carefully select a combination of structural
unit and mortar designation? (2Marks)
b) Explain four problems associated with masonry construction in Uganda. (2 Marks)
c) A 3.5 m high wall shown in cross-section in Figure 3 below is constructed from clay bricks
having a compressive strength of 30 N mm2 laid in a 1:1:6 mortar. Calculate the ultimate
load-bearing capacity of the internal wall stiffened by piers assuming the partial safety
factor for materials is 3.5, the manufacturing control of the units is category 1, the execution
control is class 1, resistance to lateral movement is enhanced. Conditioning factor = 1.0
and shape factor = 0.85. (21Marks)

Figure 1

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023-2024 Examinations Page 3 of 18

QUESTION FOUR (25MKS)

a) Discuss any four (4) factors that influence the strength of timber and explain how the
strength of timber is assessed in practice. (6Marks)
b) List two uses of timber in the following;
i. Construction of Heavy civil engineering works. (1Marks)
ii. Construction of marine works (1Marks)
c) A mechanically graded timber column of strength class C24 consists of a 150 mm square
section which is restrained at both ends in position but not in direction. Assuming that the
service conditions comply with Service Class 2 and the actual height of the column is 4.0m,
calculate the design axial long term load that the column can support. (17Marks)

QUESTION FIVE (25MKS)

a) List three (3) problems of timber in construction (1 ½ Marks)

b) Give two (2) measures that reduces decay in timber (1Marks)
c) A simply supported rectangular joist is subjected to a characteristic permanent load of
0.5KN/M2 and characteristic medium duration variable load of 2.0KN/M2. The clear span
is 4.5m and joists spaced at 0.6m centers, a bearing length of 100 mm at each end, the joist
is part of an indoor floor and its service class is 1.
i. Design the joist in structural timber of strength class C24 and select 4 possible
timber sections, among the selected sections for the suitability of 100x225 section
for the following; (12 ½ Marks)
i. Shear capacity (2 ½ Marks)
ii. Bearing capacity (2 ½ Marks)
iii. Deflection assuming Ψ2 = 0.3 and that the timber supports a floor with plaster board
ceiling (5Marks)

Merry Christmas and Prosperous 2024

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DESIGN TABLES

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TIMBER DESIGN TABLES

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 With Regard to Bending:

Deflection Deflection

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 Shear Deflection Continued

Compression Perpendicular to the Grain Compression parallel to the grain

Columns subject to Axial Load

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 Lateral Torsion Check

Columns Subject to bending and axial load

Buckling check,

Otherwise where they are both less than 0.3, then:

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© Ndejje University Semester One 2023-2024 Examinations Page 17 of
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 Merry Christmas and Prosperous 2023
© Ndejje University Semester One 2023-2024 Examinations Page 18 of
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 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, NOVEMBER 2023
BACHELOR OF ENGINEERING (CIVIL)
YEAR FOUR

PAPER : QUANTITY SURVEYING II (Estimation and Procurement)

PAPER CODE : CIV4104
DATE : Thursday 29th November 2023
TIME : 09:00 am – 12:00 pm [3 hours]

Instructions:
1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,
2. This examination contains Six questions divided into Section A and B,
3. Attempt question One in Section A (40 marks) and Three questions from Section B (20 marks
each),
4. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,
5. Use of neat sketches is encouraged,
6. Make realistic assumptions where necessary and clearly state thus, and
7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it together
with your answer booklet]. All rough work should be done on the official answer booklet.

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023/2024 Examinations Page 1 of 4

 SECTION A [Compulsory]

Question One [40 Marks]

a) Briefly explain four factors likely to affect the rates for blockwork in the plinth wall?
[8 marks]
b) Madam Anite intends to construct a 200 mm thick perimeter wall of total length 120 meters around her
plot of land at Gayaza out of clay bricks or concrete blocks.

Cost of a 400 x 200 x 200 concrete block delivered to site is Ugx. 5,800/-, Cost of a 200 x 100 x 100 clay brick
delivered to site is Ugx. 250/-, a 50 kg bag of cement delivered to site costs Ugx. 34,500/-, a cubic metre of sand
delivered to site costs Ugx. 101,500/-, labour constants for brickwork are 0.9 unskilled and 1.8 skilled hours;
whereas labour constants for concrete blockwork are 0.55 unskilled and 1.1 skilled hours. Unskilled hours
includes mixing of mortar and moving materials near to skilled labourers. Skilled hours is at a rate of Ugx.
6,580/- and unskilled is at a rate of Ugx. 3,290/-. Use mortar mix of 1:5; and joints of 25 mm and 50 mm for
block and brick works respectively. Allow 25% for profit and overheads, 25% for voids when water is added to
mortar, 1.4 ton/m3 for cement, 1.3 ton/m3 for moist sand, 1.5 ton/m3 for dry sand densities and 5% waste for
cutting of bricks/blocks.

i) Determine the cost of a cubic metre of mortar of the above mix arrangement. [7 marks]
ii) Using the results in i), explain to her in terms of construction costs what the differences would be; to
erect the walls from dpc to a height of 2.00 metres ignoring finishes. [25 marks]

SECTION B [Attempt 3 Questions only]

Question Two [20 Marks]

Given that a 50 kg bag of cement costs Ugx. 34,500/- (inclusive of transport and unloading), sand costs Ugx.
101,500/- per a cubic metre (delivered), aggregate cost Ugx. 68,500/- per ton (delivered), a concrete mixer
takes 1 hour to mix 2 m3 of concrete at the rate of Ugx. 18,750/- per hour, skilled hours is 0.3 at a rate of Ugx.
6,580/- and unskilled is 6 at a rate of Ugx. 3,290/-. Allowing 5% for waste on concrete, 40% for shrinkage of
dry concrete when mixed with water, 25% for profits and overheads, 1.4 ton/m3 for density of cement, 1.3
ton/m3 for density of moist sand, 1.5 ton/m3 for density of dry sand and 1.6 ton/m3 for density of aggregates.

Calculate using volume batching, the unit rate of concrete and prepare a materials delivery list for thirty-two
reinforced concrete columns each of size 500 mm x 250 mm x 3.60 m and concrete strength class C25/30
(1:1.5:3 mix ratio).

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023/2024 Examinations Page 2 of 4

Question Three [20 Marks]

(a) Calculate an hourly plant all-in rate for a truck using the straight-line method and using the following
data and information. [10 marks]
(i) Purchase price: USD 3,500,000
(ii) Scrap value: USD 400,000
(iii) Life of plant: 20,000 hours
(iv) Tax and insurance: 12.5% of hourly depreciation cost
(v) Repairs & maintenance: 12.5% of hourly depreciation cost
(vi) Lubricant oil: 5 liters per 40 hours (USD900 per litre)
(vii) Fuel: 20 litres per 8 hours (USD 117 per litre)
(viii) Tyre lifespan: 10,000 hours
(ix) Cost for tyre: USD 12,500 (4 tyres required for the truck)

(b) A CAT 973 Crawler excavator of bucket capacity 3.5 m3 and cycle time 2 minutes is to be used to excavate
a 30.0 m x 15.0 m x 3.5 m basement and load into 6 m3 Isuzu Forward truck of speed 40 km/hr. and 55
km/hr. loaded and empty respectively. The travel distance from the basement to the dumping site is 6.0
km and the time for manoeuvring at both ends is 2 minutes, tipping time is 2 minutes and waiting time is
1 minute. Job efficiency is 75% and bulking is 25%. Assume 5 days in a week, 8 working hours a day;
bucket fill factor, soil factor and time period for which production is done = 1.

i) Estimate the excavator’s work output in m3 per day, [3 marks]

ii) The contract period in days, [4 marks]

iii) Number of trucks required to match the excavator. [3 marks]

Question Four [20 Marks]

a) Define the following terms as used in estimating and costing [12 marks]

i) Unit Rate ii) Overheads iii) Labour Constant iv) Manhour

v) Scrap and salvage value vi) All-in rates and unit rate

b) Explain the significance of “a final payment certificate” in a building contract [4 marks]

c) Differentiate between Tendering and estimate in building and civil engineering works.
[4 marks]

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023/2024 Examinations Page 3 of 4

Question Five [20 Marks]

a) Differentiate labour from labour constant. [4 marks]

b) State any four causes of variations in labour output. [4 marks]

c) Calculate the unit rate for plaster in cement-lime-sand mix of 1:2:9 to a thickness of 20 mm. First coat to
be 12 mm thick, second coat to be 6 mm thick and finishing coat to be 2 mm (lime-cement, mix 1:10).
Given that 1 m3 of cement-lime-sand plaster of 1:2:9 mix costs Ugx. 407,406/-, Allow: compression of
50% and 20% on the first and second coats respectively, 10% for voids and waste, 20% on profits and
overheads, labour constants are 0.2 unskilled and 0.4 skilled hours. Skilled hours is at a rate of Ugx.
6,580/- and unskilled is at a rate of Ugx. 3,290/-. A cubic metre of cement contains 28 bags each at a cost
of Ugx. 32,500/- (delivered) and a cubic metre of lime contains 28 bags of lime each at a cost of Ugx.
35,500/- (delivered). [12 marks]

Question Six [20 Marks]

a) State four factors considered in estimating for carpentry and joinery work. [4 marks]

b) Compute the unit rate for roofing in Mangalore tiles from Uganda Clays Ltd of size 410 mm x 235 mm with
side laps of 25 mm and end laps of 75 mm if one tile costs Ugx. 2,200/- delivered. The tiles are hooked on 50
mm x 38 mm battens spaced at 335 mm (cut from 150 mm x 50 mm x 3300 mm eucalyptus timber); and
fixed on G32 plain sheets using 76 mm nails spaced at 500 mm. Delivered plain sheets cost Ugx. 11,250/-
per SM, a 76 mm nails costs Ugx. 53/-, a delivered 150 mm x 50 mm x 3300 mm eucalyptus timber costs
Ugx. 11,250/-. Allow 10% for cutting waste on timber, 7½% for waste on tiles, 0.4 hours for both skilled
labour at a rate of Ugx. 6,580/-, 0.4 hours for unskilled labour at a rate of Ugx. 3,290/-, and profit and
overheads at 30%. Unskilled labourer takes 1½ hours to offload and stack 1,000 tiles. What is required for
a roof area of 159 m2? [16 marks]

♥ Merry Christmas & a Prosperous Year 2024 ♥

© Ndejje University Semester One 2023/2024 Examinations Page 4 of 4

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2021
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : QUANTITY SURVEYING II (Estimation and Procurement)

PAPER CODE : CIV4104

DATE : Monday 24th May 2021

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00 Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. This examination contains Six questions divided into Section A and B,
3. Attempt question One in Section A (40 marks) and Three questions from Section B (20
marks each),
4. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

5. Use of neat sketches is encouraged,

6. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet]. All rough work should be done on the official
answer booklet.

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 1 of 4

 SECTION A
Question One [40 Marks]

a) Your construction company has been contacted by Mr. & Mrs. Sekigongo to advise them on
whether to use roofing tiles or corrugated iron sheets on their upcountry home with a total
roof area of 350 m2. Using the information below, advise the couple as an Estimator. [30 mks]

Roofing with tiles, allow side laps of 25 mm, end laps of 75 mm and hooked on a 50 x 38 mm
battens converted from 150 x 50 x 3000 mm pine timber each costing Ugx. 11,500/- delivered to
site. The battens are to be spaced 325 mm and fixed using 76 mm nails each costing Ugx. 50/-
with spacing of 600 mm. Mangalore tiles from Uganda Clays Ltd of size 410 x 235 mm costs
Ugx. 2,000/- each delivered and G32 plain sheets cost Ugx. 1,800/- per SM delivered. Allow
Cutting waste on timber = 10%, waste on tiles = 2.5%, skilled labour = 0.6 hours and unskilled
labour = 0.3 hours.

Roofing with iron sheets, allow side laps of 114 mm and end laps of 150 mm. The iron sheets are
fixed to timber purlins with nails and washers. The roofing nails cost Ugx. 7,500/- per kilogram
having 50 nails. There are 10 nails in a SM of roof surface and the washers cost Ugx. 35/- each.
Corrugated iron sheets of size 3,000 x 750 mm, G28 costs Ugx. 7,600/- per SM delivered. Allow
waste on materials = 5%, skilled labour = 0.3 hours and unskilled labour = 0.3 hours.

Skilled rate = Ugx. 3,224/-, unskilled rate = Ugx. 1,687/- and profits and overheads = 25%.

b) State four factors that are considered in estimating for any carpentry and joinery work.[4 mks]

c) Clearly explain the differences between gross pricing and net pricing when estimating; and
state any advantage of one over the other. [6 marks]

SECTION B
Question Two [20 Marks]

a) Explain the following methods of tendering citing an example in each case where it is
applied:

i) Negotiated tendering [3 marks]

ii) Open tendering [3 marks]
iii) Prequalification [3 marks]
iv) Serial tendering [3 marks]
v) Selective tendering [3 marks]

b) Write short notes on the sources of information for the price of resources in estimating.
[5 marks]

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 2 of 4

Question Three [20 Marks]

Excluding steel and formwork, calculate the cost of casting a 150 mm thick reinforced concrete
slab shown below in concrete mix 1:1½:3 and prepare a materials delivery list.

Given that: Cement delivered to site and offloaded costs

Ugx. 30,050/- per 50 kg bag, sand delivered to site costs
Ugx. 108,500/- per CM, coarse aggregates delivered to site
costs Ugx. 164,500/- per CM, labour constants are: 6 hours
unskilled at a rate of Ugx. 1,687/- and 0.3 hours skilled at a
rate of Ugx. 3,224/- per 1 CM of concrete. Cot Services
hires out concrete mixer of capacity 2 m3/hour at a rate of
Ugx. 85,000/- per day (inclusive of transport, fuel and
operation) and a porker vibrator at Ugx. 30,000/- per day
(inclusive of transport, fuel and operation). Densities of
materials are; 1.4 ton/m3 for cement, 1.3 ton/m3 for moist
sand, 1.5 ton/m3 for dry sand and 1.6 ton/m3 for
aggregates. Allow 5% for waste on concrete and 25% for profits and overheads. Dry concrete
shrinks by 40% when mixed with water. [20 marks]

Question Four [20 Marks]

a) i) State any five factors that affect excavation rates. [5 marks]

ii) Explain four factors that are considered in the choice of the method to use in excavation
and earthwork [4 marks]

b) Calculate the cost of surface excavation to remove vegetable soil to an average depth of 150
mm and deposit 200 m away from a site measuring 30.0 m by 30.0 m given the labour
constant in the table below. Unskilled hourly rate is Ugx. 1,687/- and Contractor’s profit and
overheads is 25%. [6 marks]
Description Unit Unskilled hours
Exc. veg. soil av. 150 mm deep SM 0.35
Wheeling exc. material by barrow per 100 linear m as dug CM 1.00

c) State five costs to consider when purchasing a mechanical plant for use in excavation and
earthwork. [5 marks]

Question Five [20 Marks]

a) What is estimating as applied in construction? Give any two parties involved in estimating
with examples of where and when they use the estimates. [6 marks]

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 3 of 4

b) Explain any three techniques (methods) used in estimating. [6 marks]

c) Differentiate project overheads from general overheads. [4 marks]

d) Explain what is meant by estimate adjudication. [4 marks]

Question Six [20 Marks]

A 230 mm thick perimeter wall of total length 114.30 meters is to be constructed around a
residence out of clay bricks or concrete blocks. Explain to the client in terms of construction
costs what the differences would be to erect the walls from dpc to a height of 2.4 m ignoring
finishes. Cost of each 300 x 230 x 150 concrete block delivered to site is Ugx. 1,850/-, Cost of
each 230 x 125 x 125 clay brick delivered to site is Ugx. 350/-, a 50 kg bag of cement delivered
to site costs Ugx. 30,050/-, 1 cubic metre of sand delivered to site costs Ugx. 101,500/-, a cubic
metre of cement contains 28 bags of cement, 1 cubic metre of mortar of mix 1:4 cement:sand
costs Ugx. 346,975/-, labour constant for standard bricks are 6 unskilled and 3 skilled hours
whereas labour constants for concrete block work are 4 unskilled and 2 skilled hours, Unskilled
hours includes mixing of mortar and moving materials near to skilled labourers, Skilled hours is
at a rate of Ugx. 3,224/- and unskilled is at a rate of Ugx. 1,687/-, Use mortar joints of 25 mm for
both brick and block works, Allow 20% for profit and overheads, 25% for voids when water is
added to mortar, and 1.5 ton/m3 for dry sand. Allow waste for cutting of bricks/blocks = 5%.
[20 marks]

~ End ~
Good luck

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 4 of 4

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER II EXAMINATIONS, MAY-JUNE 2022
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR

PAPER : CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT II

PAPER CODE : CIV4201

DATE : Wednesday 25th May, 2022

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of five questions on four pages each of which carries the same marks;
attempt any Four questions of your choice for full marks.
3. No marks for any extra question attempted.
4. You must have good handwriting
5. Do not write on the question paper
6. Start each question attempted on a fresh page.
7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 1 of 4

 Question One [25 Marks]

a) What do you understand by the term Construction Management and how is it different
from other types of management? (2 Marks)
b) Briefly explain the factors that define the construction project scope. (6 Marks)
c) You are the Project Manager of AZF Construction Company; you are tasked with
developing a Project Organization structure;
i) State the seven general principles that should be observed in establishing an
organization structure. (7 Marks)
ii) Further, with an aid of a diagram, explain the Project Organization Structure,
stating at least its four advantages. (10 Marks)

Question Two [25 Marks]

a) The object of planning is to determine how the project objectives will be achieved. In a
table form, explain the project planning process and techniques of a construction
project. (10 Marks)
b) Define a Project Work Breakdown and further explain using an example the different
categories that make up a Project Work Break. (10 Marks)
c) You are the Engineer in charge of the construction of a Residential building, what
information will you need to estimate the duration for the concreting activity. (5 Marks)

Question Three [25 Marks]

a) What is the difference between Cost purpose and Cost Classification? (2 Marks)
b) Project Network Analysis is the network technique used for planning, scheduling and
controlling of projects. Explain the three commonly used techniques. (3 Marks)
c) Motion oil Company has undertaken a major renovation project in Monroe County,
modernizing every station and creating mini-markets. The associated activities, with their
immediate predecessors, times and costs, are shown in the following table 3.1.

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 2 of 4

 Table 3.1

Activity Description Immediate Activity Activity Cost

Duration $
Predecessor
(weeks)

A Remove - 3 500
pumps
B Renovate - 7 3,000
office
C Excavate A 5 1,000

D Remove C 2 500
tanks
E Install C 3 900
footings
F Install new D 2 4,750
tanks
G Install E 5 3,800
structural
steel
H Put up new E 1 4,500
sign
I Install roof G 5 1,400

J Wiring/lights I 4 1,500

K Install pump G,B 3 2,800

controls
L Fill and pave F,J,K 7 3,200

M Install new L 2 9,000

pumps
N Landscape L 6 1,500

i) Construct CPM network. (5 Marks)

ii) Solve this problem, determining project start and completion times for all activities.
(10 Marks)
iii) Construct a graph of the budget demands versus time. (5 Marks)

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 3 of 4

 Question Four [25 Marks]

a) With the aid of an illustration, explain project management in the environment.

(10 Marks)
b) Briefly explain the project communication plan that can be applied on Construction
Projects. (5 Marks)
c) Barrett DJ defines communication as “the transmission of meaning from one person to
another or many people, whether verbally or non-verbally”. Discuss the different types of
communication in Construction Projects. (10 Marks)

Question Five [25 Marks]

a) Define the following terms in transportation;

i) Feasible Solution
ii) Degenerated Basic Feasible Solution
iii) Optimum Solution (3 Marks)

b) Given a transportation problem with the following costs, supplies and demands;

To

From A B C D SUPPLY

1 21 16 15 13 11

2 17 18 14 23 13

3 32 27 18 41 19

DEMAND 6 10 12 15

Find the Initial Basic solution using;

i) North- West Corner Method.
ii) Column Minima Method
iii) Matrix Method
iv) Unit- Cost Method (3
Marks@)
c) Maximize the Solution using the Stepping Stone Method. (Hint: Unit Cost Method Solution)
(10 Marks)

~ End ~

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 4 of 4

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER II EXAMINATIONS, MAY - JUNE 2022
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : MAINTENANCE OF CIVIL ENGINEERING WORKS

PAPER CODE : CIV4206

DATE : Tuesday 31st May, 2022

TIME : 9:00 Pm – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of seven questions on three pages each of which carries the same marks;
attempt any five questions of your choice for full marks.
3. No marks for any extra question attempted.
4. You must have good handwriting
5. Do not write on the question paper
6. Start each question attempted on a fresh page.
7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 1 of 4

 QUESTION ONE (20 Marks)

a) Water management is key in ensuring that civil engineering infrastructure have a long service life.
Explain why is it important to properly manage water that comes in contact with your structure.
Further highlight three ways how water can be managed when it comes in contact with your
structure using examples. (5 Marks)
b) When planning for maintenance works, it is important to know the main components and sub
components of the civil engineering structure under consideration. Highlight the key components
and sub components of a bridge structure. (5 Marks)
c) Explain the principle that should be adopted when carrying out maintenance of bridges and
highlight its objectives. (4 Marks)
d) Discuss any three major maintenance and rehabilitation activities that can be carried out during the
life of a bridge. (6 Marks)

QUESTION TWO (20 Marks)

A building structure has a number of components that are divided into the substructure and
superstructure. These components include foundations, walls, structural frame work, floors, staircases,
roofs, finishes (e.g. floorings, walls cladding, e.t.c.), fittings (e.g. electrical and gas, plumbing, sanitary,
doors, windows e.t.c). Discuss the need for maintenance and how it can be achieved for each of those
components. (20 marks)

QUESTION THREE (20 Marks)

a) Workers house is one of the biggest buildings in Kampala. In 2019, the optical survey method was
used to monitor its settlement and the results of the survey indicated that it has settled beyond the
allowable value. As a civil Engineer with the knowledge of building maintenance, suggest the
possible causes of the settlement, state the possible corrective maintenance activity that should be
employed and further discuss the step by step procedure of rectifying the defect using the stated
corrective action. (10 Marks)

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 2 of 4

 b) Settlement noted above will most likely affect the structural integrity of the building. Highlight
your understanding of structural integrity and explain step by step how you assess the integrity of
the Workers house with examples. (10 Marks)

QUESTION FOUR (20 Marks)

a) Identify any five defects that occur in flexible paved roads and propose solutions to these defects.
(10 Marks)
b) One of the biggest problems faced in maintenance of infrastructures in Uganda is inadequate funds.
Explain any five ways how this problem can be addressed so as to improve maintenance of
infrastructures in Uganda. (5 Marks)
c) Discus any other five strategies that can be used to improve maintenance. (5 Marks)

QUESTION FIVE (20 Marks)

a) In order for a certain civil engineering infrastructure to become usable, it goes through a number of
stages. What is involved in maintenance as far as these different stages are concerned? (5 Marks)
b) Maintenance has been observed to be important at all stages/phases of a civil engineering
infrastructure. Discuss with examples how maintenance is achieved during the
construction/implementation stage of a civil engineering infrastructure. (15 marks)

QUESTION SIX (20 Marks)

a) For maintenance to be effective, a good maintenance plan must be developed and it will consist of
a blend of strategies. Discus these maintenance strategies. (10 Marks)
b) Discus the factors you would consider while determining whether the maintenance plan developed
for a given infrastructure is sufficient or not. (5 Marks)
c) Explain the different factors which affect maintenance costs. (5 Marks)

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 3 of 4

 QUESTION SEVEN (20 Marks)

Having completed your four year training in engineering and excelled, you are immediately appointed
as a maintenance engineer in Isingiro district Local government. Ministry of Water and Environment
has just complete Kagango water supply system and handed it over to the Isingiro district. This water
supply system was designed and constructed but no maintenance plan was developed.

a) As a maintenance engineer, you have three options to choose from that is renovation,
rehabilitation and corrective and preventive maintenance. Which options would you choose and
why? Give reasons why the other options will not work and in what situations can they be used.
(5 Marks)
b) Explain the different types of system integrity that you would be interested in as the civil
engineer in charge of Kagango water supply system. (5 Marks)
c) To be able to carry out a realistic assessment of the infrastructure, you must know the main
components of a water supply system. Briefly explain the main components of a water supply
system. (4 Marks)
d) Develop a maintenance plan for this water system and using your acquired knowledge as a civil
engineering student studying maintenance ensure that the plan is sufficient. (6 Marks)

~ End ~

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester Two 2021/2022 Examinations Page 4 of 4

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY 2022
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : ENGINEERING LAW AND ETHICS

PAPER CODE : ENG 4101

DATE : Friday 21st January 2022

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

i. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

ii. This paper consists of five (5), attempt any Four (4) questions for full marks, note that each
question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you are advised to appropriate your time
wisely.

iii. QUESTION 1 IS COMPULSORY

iv. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

v. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].
Question One [25 Marks]
NOTE: NUMBERS 1-8, START YOUR ANSWER WITH YES/ NO.
NUMBERS 9- 25, ANSWER WITH TRUE/ FALSE
1. X, in Kabala, wrote a letter in Kampala, a letter containing an offer, to remain open 5
days from the receipt of the letter. Y wired an acceptance on the 5th day, it was received
by X on the following day. Does the receipt of the telegram of the acceptance create a
contract?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
2. A and B entered into a contract providing that B would not compete A within a radius of
a half mile for 5 years. Is this contract illegal?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
3. A entered into a contract to purchase land, relying on the statement of the seller, B, that
he (B) would make valuable improvements on the neighboring lots, thereby, increasing
the value of A’s lot. Actually, B had no such intention. A now refuses to go through with
the transaction. Can B recover the contract price from A?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
4. A contracted to deliver certain goods to B for 200,000/-. When called upon to deliver, A
refuses to do so unless he was paid an extra 120,000/-. B promised to pay the extra
money. After A delivered, B refused to pay the extra money. Can A recover the
additional 120,000/-?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
5. Defendants, who were architects and builders, prepared plans and specifications for a
building for plantiff and contracted to erect the building according to plans and
specifications, for a specified price. After two attempts at building according to plans and
specifications, for a specified price. After two attempts at building the structure, ending
each time in collapse of the partly completed building, defendants gave up. They claim
it’s impossible to erect the building according to the plans and specification, because of
defects in the soil. Plantiff sues for damages for breach of contract. Is defendant excused
by impossibility of performance?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
6. The owner of a house entered into a contract requiring contractor to brick-veneer a
building in a manner which violated the municipal building code. Could the owner avoid
paying the contract price for the work done?
 ________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
7. In a contract for the construction of a bridge, the owner ordered changes in the piling
work, which required much longer piles which had to be transported a greater distance at
a greater cost to the contractor. The changes resulted in an eight week delay in
completing the job. The contract specifically provided that there was no guarantee by the
owner that depth and conditions would turn out as anticipated. Could the contractor
recover for his additional costs, overheads and profits?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
8. A, an engineer has to license and was in contact with B; The engineer built the
foundation of the building belonging to B, but due to continuous defects which were not
corrected by A, the foundation collapsed and the engineer suspended the works. Can B
recover the damages?
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
9. Recognizances are written acknowledgement of a debt owning to state which is made
before a judge or any authorized officer and enrolled in the court records. ________
10. Voidable contracts are not contracts at all but mean that there was an attempt which was
not achieved due to some material defect. __________
11. Murphy’s Law states that “if something goes wrong, it does go wrong.”________
12. Explicit law is contractual terms expressed by a professional whose major product is
more of words. _________
13. Whistleblowing is the act of reporting unethical conduct in a legal situation.________
14. Determination refers to a situation where the law gives the right to one party to end the
contract when the misconduct is very serious._________
15. The principle of restitution states that “if you confer a benefit to someone by his request
then you are entitled to payment in re-imbursement to that value.”_________
16. If an agreement produces no legal obligation it’s sometimes said to be a “voidable
contract”__________
17. There must be an intention to create legal relations i.e. a binding agreement is usually in
the nature of a commercial bargain involving some exchange of goods or services for a
price. This is one of the conditions of validity of Parol contracts.__________
18. The first thing which must be said about Contract implied in law is that it’s a contract but
that it is treated as so for procedural purposes in court in a manner somewhat similar to that
used in contract cases._________
19. The invitation to tender carries legal obligation. The contractors makes an offer (tender)
and the client chooses. After the choice is made then the contract comes into effect._____
20. Under fixed price arrangements, the employer takes the risk of the final price being
different from the estimate keeping any saving and paying for any increase.________
 21. It’s absolutely fundamental to any study of building contracts to understand that
contractual clauses are intended to avoid risks._________
22. Consultants carefully consider the balance of risks within a project and decide that they
already lie with those parties who best can control them and choose to do nothing.________
23. The last version of these codes state that “Engineers shall hold paramount the safety,
health and welfare of the public in the performance of their legal duties”.________
24. The 5th Fundamental canon states that, “Engineers shall associate only with reputable
persons or organizations”.____________
25. The 2nd Fundamental canon state that “Engineers shall act in professional matters for
each employer or clients as faithful agents or trustees, and shall avoid conflicts of interest
or the appearance of conflicts of interest.”___________

Question Two [25 Marks]

a) What is the difference between Morality and Professional Ethics? (2 Mark)
b) Make a list of business practices that signal whether an organization is an ethical
corporation. What role does the CEO of the corporation play in this? (8 Marks)
c) Define the following using relevant examples:
i) Negligence,
ii) Misinterpretation
iii) Product Liability
iv) Nuisance.
v) Professional indemnity
Define each virtue broadly and give examples of ethical behavior for each virtue.
(3 Marks@)
Question Three [25 Marks]
a) What do you understand by the term “contract claim” (1Mark)
b) What are “Quantum Meruit” claims and why are they important? (3 Marks)
c) Explain atleast five essential requisites of a valid simple contract. (5 Marks)
d) Using examples to illustrate your answer, briefly explain the situations in construction contracts
where a contractor maybe entitled to extension of time & compensation for loss and/or
expenses. (6 Marks)
e) P asked for bids which included the construction of a floor, among other items. D submitted a
bid of $5,937 by error omitting the cost of the floor $1,600. A long with his bid, he gave a bond
of $1,500, to guarantee performance if his bid were accepted. After the bid was accepted, D
tried to withdraw his bid because of the mistake, but P threatened to forfeit the bond. D
therefore signed the contract, performed the work, & now D wants to sue P for the reasonable
value of the floor, $1,600, claiming he signed the contract under duress. If you were, selected to
be the mediator of such a case;
i) Explain the procedure , advantages and disadvantage of mediation (5 Marks)
ii) Make recommendations based on your findings on the possible solution of this case. (5
Marks)

Question Four [25 Marks]

a) In order to provide guidance on how to behave in situations with ethical implications, each
engineering professional society has published a code of ethics. Explain the Code of Ethics
for the American Society of Engineers. Further, what should you do when confronted by
an ethical conflict where it is obvious that you have competing value responsibilities?
(17 Marks)
b) With the aid of a diagram, explain the four Legal and Ethical domains in Engineering. (8
Marks)

Question Five [25 Marks]

a) Define the following terms (2 Marks@)
i) Past Consideration
ii) Recognizances
iii) Performance Bond
iv) Surety
v) Moral Consideration
vi) Claimsmanship
b) Giving 4 examples of records, explain the reasons why it’s a requirement by a
construction company to keep certain types of records. (5 Marks)
c) Apart from Traditional Procurement System, with the help of diagrams, describe at least
two different generic procurement Systems and indicate clearly the contractual
relationships they seek to establish. (8 Marks)

END
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2021
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : ENGINEERING LAW AND ETHICS
PAPER CODE : ENG4101

DATE : Thursday 27th May 2021

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. This paper consists of Six(6), attempt any five (5) questions for full marks
3. Question ONE is compulsory
4. Each Question Carries 20 Marks.
5. Marks for each question are indicated in parentheses.
6. Indicate the attempted questions on the top page of the answer booklet provided.
7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 1 of 4

QUESTION 1 (Answer TRUE/ FALSE) COMPULSORY 20 MARKS
1. A tort is a legal wrong that involves damage committed against a person or his or her
property.
2. Misrepresentation is a false statement by a person of a fact that is known to be true.
3. Nuisance concerns the annoyance of a person such that the use of property becomes
physically uncomfortable.
4. Negligence is the failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by the
considerations that regulate human affair would do.
5. The Principle of restitution states that “if you confer a value to someone by his request
then you are entitled to that value.”
6. Specialties are promises contained under a deed.
7. Voidable contracts are not contracts but means that there was an attempt which was not
achieved due to some material defect.
8. A unilateral contract is one on which the promisee doesnot receive a promise as
consideration for her promise but instead agrees to pay if she receives an act or service.
9. Murphy’s Law states that “if something will go wrong, it shall automatically go wrong”.
10. Altruism is a form of moral behavior in which individuals act for their own advantage.
11. A Unilateral contract is one in which the promisor does not receive a promise as
consideration for her promise but instead agrees to pay if she receives an act or service.
12. Whistleblowing is the act of reporting on unethical conduct within an organization to
someone outside of the organization in an effort to discourage the organization from
continuing the activity.
13. Judgment is a written acknowledgement of a debt, owing to the state which is made
before a judge.
14. The Third quadrant of the ethical domain, the main goal is to explain how to identify
unethical behavior and to learn what to do about it when it occurs.
15. Quasi- Contracts are “contracts implied in law”.
16. Whistleblowing is the act of reporting illegal conduct within an organization to someone
outside the organization.
17. Cost-Plus contracts is where in determining who is the lowest bidder, the cost prices are
multiplied by the estimated quantities and the products added together to determine the
estimated total cost.
18. Egoism is a form of moral behavior in which individuals act for the sake of other
people’s interests.
19. Product liability refers to the legal actions by which an injured party seeks to recover
damages for personal injury or property from the producer or seller.
20. Legal and unethical sector is a relatively rare event.

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 2 of 4

Question TWO
a) Explain the meaning of law and its origin of Laws? Further explain at least 3 types of laws
you know. (9 Marks)
b) Explain the types of Contracts you know. Further differeciate between bilaterial and
unilateral contracts. (4 Marks)
c) Explain the circumstances under which Offers maybe terminated. (5 Marks)
d) Giving examples, briefly explain the Contracts of Record that you know. (2 Marks)

QUESTION 3
a) State the Principle of Restitution. (2 Mark)
b) Murphy’s Law states that “if a thing can go wrong, it will go wrong”. You are a Contracts
Manager of a Construction Project in Kampala, you have been asked to prepare a Risk
Management System for the Construction Project. (18 Marks)

QUESTION 4
a) Briefly explain the extremes of Ethical behavior in Engineering ethics and law.
(2 Marks)
b) In case you are faced with an ethical dilemma in your company/ organization, help solve
step by step the procedures you will use to solve that ethical Conflicts.
(5 Marks)
c) Giving examples, explain the difference between Morality and Professional ethics.
(1 Marks)
d) Codes of Ethics provide guidance on how to behave in situations affected by Ethical
dilemmas. In a table form, State the Codes of Ethics for the American Society of Engineers.
(12 Marks)
QUESTION 5
a) Briefly explain the meaning of Tort law? Further explain the following tort suits involving
engineers; (1 Marks)
i. Misinterpretation
ii. Nuisance
iii. Negligence
iv. Product liability.
v. Fraud (10 Marks)
b) Explain the process of Claim Identification and Claim Notification. (5 Marks)
c) Discuss the procedures of the following methods of Non Litigious Dispute Resolution.
i) Quasi- conciliation

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 3 of 4

 ii) Mediation (4 Marks)

QUESTION 6
a) Using diagrams, compare Management contracting to Construction Management
Procurement Methods stating their contractual networks (8 Marks)
b) Discuss determination of a contract, indicating the grounds, procedures and consequences
of Employer’s employment. (8 Marks)
c) You are a design engineer for the Ajax Manufacturing Co., a large multiplant producer of
plastic parts. As part of your employment, you were required to sign a secrecy agreement
that prohibits divulging information that the company considers proprietary. Ajax has
modified a standard piece of equipment that greatly increases the efficiency in cooling
viscous plastic slurries. The company decides not to patent the development but instead to
keep it as a trade secret. As part of your regular job assignment, you work with this
proprietary equipment and become thoroughly familiar with its enhanced capabilities. Five
years later you leave Ajax and go to work for a candy manufacturer as chief of production.
Your new employer is not in any way in competition with Ajax. You quickly realize that
Ajax’s trade secret can be applied with great profit to a completely different machine used
for cooling fudge. You order the change to be made.
i. Discuss the ethics. (2 Marks)
ii. If Ajax Manufacturing Company is to investigate using Private Inquiry method,
explain the procedure. (2 Marks)

End
Success

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 4 of 4

 NDEJJE UNIVERSITY

DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

ENG:4101 ENGINEERING LAW AND ETHICS
LECTURER: MS NAMULAWA HAAWA

Qn1

(i) a(i) Explain in details the importance &application of studying engineering ethics
(ii) (ii) How do ethical issues affect the practice of engineering designs hence what is
the difference between morality & professional ethics
(iii) (iii) Give reasons as to why its important for engineers to have basic understanding
of contract law
b(elaborate on the following
(i)Recognizances
(ii)Void contracts (25marks)
(iii)Quasi-Contract
(ix)Judgment

b (ii) Explain the roles of the contract administrator as the employers agent & as an independent
adjudicator

Qn 2
Engineer Magembe, a principal in Horis Engineering, an environmental engineering firm,
submits qualifications and a proposal to a local municipality to be considered as the consultant
for the research and analysis of a former dump site which is being considered for reclamation as
a wetland. The dump has been closed for many years after being used for several decades for
commercial waste disposal, possibly without any regulation or control. In a meeting with James,
the municipality indicates the possibility that there could be hazardous and toxic wastes
encountered in the dump. Upon being awarded the contract, James is informed by the city that,
as part of the contract, a confidentiality clause must be signed which precludes James from
disclosing any results or information concerning the project without the city's written
permission. James signs the contract and the clause. Preliminary research by James confirms
that the dump site is not closed according to the hazardous and solid waste regulations of the
state. Tests of the surface soils on the site are inconclusive but reveal a possibility that very high
contaminant levels of hazardous and toxic waste could, over time, become exposed at the
surface, due to erosion of the cover, and even washed into a river that flows immediately
adjacent to the site. The city is considering plans to build a children's park, recreation and
picnic area, bike/jogging trail, and parkway near the reclaimed areas, and the river is used for
drinking water intake for cities on the other side of the river and downstream. Upon receiving
the initial data, the city terminates the contract, saying that the development will be moved to
another site, citing the political ramifications of revealing the findings and the economics of
having to clean up the property as its reasons for not continuing. James responds that the city
has a responsibility to the public to proceed to remediation, even if the development is moved
elsewhere, but the city refuses and reminds James of its confidentiality clause and the legal con
sequences of going public with the confidential information. James decides not to inform the
appropriate authorities.
1. Discuss the issues and comment on James ‘conduct with reference to relevant sections of the
Professional Conduct and Ethics rules where applicable. (15 marks)

Was it ethical for James not to inform the appropriate regulatory agencies of the engineer's
findings and the potential dangers to the public health and the environment? (2 marks)
Did James behave ethically in signing the confidentiality clause restricting him from revealing
information concerning dangers to the public health and the environment, after being informed
by the city that there was a possibility that the site could contain hazardous and toxic wastes? (3
marks)
How can this ethical dilemma be resolved? (5marks)

Qn3
What are contract claims?
Explain the sources of claims in project execution & list ways how they can be
avoided(10marks)
Record keeping is a key importance of handling projects explain any four sets of record
keeping(5marks)
Thus office record & project site records & explain any 2 rule of managing these
records(4marks)
Give brief notes about the following contract documents
1- Agreement
2- Specifications
3- Bonds (6marks)

QUESTION 4

Explain the difference between technical contracts & ordinary contracts (2)
Explain the deference between a lamp sum & unit price contract in details, giving examples,
there advantages & disadvantages (8marks)

Differentiate between a Bond and Insurance& Explain the 2 types of Bonds you know(5marks)
What is Insurance? Explain the types of Insurances used on construction projects. (10marks)

Qn5
Explain the natures of disputes in technical contracts
In brief explain how these disputes arise & give any four ways how they can be resolved
Explain the importance of identifying the risks on a project
How can they be identified? & avoided (25 marks)

Qn6
A newly formed energy company ("NEWCO") decided to investigate the possibility of developing
a liquefaction process to convert coal deposits into oil. NEWCO entered into a contract with a
large engineering firm pursuant to which the engineering firm was to carry out a feasibility
study to determine, over a period of eight months and by a specified date, the feasibility of the
proposed liquefaction process. The contract between NEWCO and the engineering firm
expressly provided that should the feasibility study be completed by the deadline date specified
and should the results of the study indicate that the liquefaction process proposed by the
engineering firm would meet the specified quality and volumes of liquefied oil output, then the
engineering firm would be authorized to carry out further work to develop the liquefaction
process to operate on a commercial basis, all on terms and conditions clearly set out in the
contract between NEWCO and the engineering firm. The engineering firm undertook the
feasibility study and, although the results of the feasibility study appeared promising and in
compliance with the parameters specified in the contract with NEWCO, the engineering firm
found that it would be unable to complete the feasibility study by the date specified. The
president of the engineering firm explained to the president of NEWCO that the engineering firm
would not be able to fulfill all aspects of the feasibility study as required by the specified date.
The president of the engineering firm emphasized that whereas the engineering firm would likely
be two weeks late in completing its feasibility study obligations, the result of the feasibility study
indicated that the liquefaction process would very likely meet NEWCO's requirements for
commercial production as specified. The president of NEWCO indicated to the president of the
engineering firm, verbally, that the time for completion of the feasibility study would be
extended. The engineering firm completed the feasibility within two weeks after the date
specified in the contract. Subsequently, NEWCO took the position that the engineering firm had
not completed the feasibility study in time and, accordingly, that NEWCO was not obligated
under the wording of the contract to authorize the engineering firm to carry out further work to
develop the liquefaction process on a commercial basis. Instead, NEWCO issued a request for
proposals from several firms for the development of the liquefaction process to operate on a
commercial basis. NEWCO selected another firm that was prepared to undertake the
development of the process for a fee substantially lower than the fee that was to have been paid
to the original engineering firm had it completed the feasibility study by the date specified in the
contract.
Actions taken:
NEWCO has a contract with a large engineering firm for a feasibility study with a deadline
Date which, if achieved, would give LargeEng an option.
The engineering firm indicated that the deadline could not be met.
The president of NEWCO gave a gratuitous promise that the deadline would be extended.
(i). Was NEWCO entitled to deny the engineering firm's right to develop the liquefaction process
to operate on a commercial basis? (10 marks)
(ii). Identify the contract aw principals that apply, and explain the basis of such principles and
how they may apply to the positions taken by NEWCO and by the engineering firm (15marks)
Qn7
(a)Briefly make a comparison between ethics & morals by giving examples in terms of the
following
What they are
Where they come from
Why we do it
There flexibility
Acceptability

(b) Give the two ways in which a contract can be brought to an end
Explain by giving examples as to why a contract can be terminated
(c) Explain about the following terms
i) Promises as consideration
ii) Past Consideration
iii) Moral Consideration
iv) Quasi- conciliation
v) Adjudication
 DEJJE UNIVERSITY
FACULTY OF ENGINEERING
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
End of Semester I 2023/2024 Examinations
ENG4101: ENGINEERING LAW AND ETHICS
Tuesday, …., December, 2023
Duration: 3.0 Hours (0900 – 1200 Hours)
Instructions:
• The Examination paper contains Seven (7) Questions.
• Attempt any Five (5) questions.
• Question ONE is compulsory
• Each Question Carries 20 Marks.
• Marks for each question are indicated in parentheses.
• Indicate the attempted questions on the top page of the answer booklet provided.
• Begin each question on a fresh page.

QUESTION 1 (Answer TRUE/ FALSE) COMPULSORY 20 MARKS

1. A tort is a legal wrong that involves damage committed against a person or his or her
property.
2. Misrepresentation is a false statement by a person of a fact that is known to be true.
3. Nuisance concerns the annoyance of a person such that the use of property becomes
physically uncomfortable.
4. Negligence is the failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by the
considerations that regulate human affair would do.
5. The Principle of restitution states that “if you confer a value to someone by his request
then you are entitled to that value.”
6. Specialties are promises contained under a deed.
7. Voidable contracts are not contracts but means that there was an attempt which was not
achieved due to some material defect.
8. A unilateral contract is one on which the promisee does not receive a promise as
consideration for her promise but instead agrees to pay if she receives an act or service.
9. Murphy’s Law states that “if something will go wrong, it shall automatically go wrong”.
10. Altruism is a form of moral behavior in which individuals act for their own advantage.
11. A Unilateral contract is one in which the promisor does not receive a promise as
consideration for her promise but instead agrees to pay if she receives an act or service.
12. Whistleblowing is the act of reporting on unethical conduct within an organization to
someone outside of the organization in an effort to discourage the organization from
continuing the activity.
13. Judgment is a written acknowledgement of a debt, owing to the state which is made
before a judge.
14. The Third quadrant of the ethical domain, the main goal is to explain how to identify
unethical behavior and to learn what to do about it when it occurs.

© Ndejje University Examinations Semester One 2023/24 Page 1

 15. Quasi- Contracts are “contracts implied in law”.
16. Whistleblowing is the act of reporting illegal conduct within an organization to someone
outside the organization.
17. Cost-Plus contracts is where in determining who is the lowest bidder, the cost prices are
multiplied by the estimated quantities and the products added together to determine the
estimated total cost.
18. Egoism is a form of moral behavior in which individuals act for the sake of other
people’s interests.
19. Product liability refers to the legal actions by which an injured party seeks to recover
damages for personal injury or property from the producer or seller.
20. Legal and unethical sector is a relatively rare event.

Question TWO
a) Explain the meaning of law and its origin of Laws? Further explain at least 3 types of
laws you know. (10 Marks)
b) Explain the types of Contracts you know. Further differeciate between bilaterial and
unilateral contracts. (4 Marks)
c) Gary Smith is a district salesman for Zip-R Engineering Co., manufacturers of
automation equipment. He has submitted a proposal to ABC Manufacturing Co. for 20
specialized robots, in response to their request for bids. The next day, Gary was talking
with Joe Clark, purchasing agent for ABC. In the course of the phone conversation Joe
told Gary, “Congratulations, you are a lucky guy” Gary took this as a signal that he had
won the contract, and that a written agreement would be entered into later. Because it was
close to the end of the quarter, and he needed this job to make his sales quota, Gary
booked the job. Because Zip-R’s backlog was low, they started to work on the order
immediately. One week later, ABC’s VP of Manufacturing decided to buy the robots
from another company because of their reputation for requiring low maintenance.
i) Can Zip-R recover damages for breach of contract? Explain (2 Marks)
ii) What’s difference between discharge and breach of a contract? (4 Marks)

QUESTION 3
a) Using examples, briefly define the following terms;
i. Principle of Restitution
ii. Quasi- contracts
iii. Null and void contract
iv. Recognizances
v. Past consideration
vi. Claimsmanship
vii. Moral consideration (2 Marks@)
b) Defendants, who were architects and builders, prepared plans and specifications for a
building for the plaintiff and contracted to erect the building according to the plans and
specifications, for a specified price. After two attempts at building the structure, ending
each time in collapse of the partly completed building, defendants gave up. They claim it
is impossible to erect the building according to the plans and specifications, using the
specified footings, because of defects in the soil. Plaintiff sues for damages for breach of
contract.
i) Is defendant excused by the impossibility of performance? (2 Marks)

© Ndejje University Examinations Semester One 2023/24 Page 2

 ii) Would the result be the same if the plans and specifications had been prepared by
a third party instead of the defendant? (2 Marks)
iii) If you were the adjudicator in this case, what recommendations would you make?
(2 Marks)

QUESTION 4
a) Briefly explain the extremes of Ethical behavior in Engineering ethics and law.
(2 Marks)
b) Using relevant examples and illustrations, explain the legal and ethical domains in
Engineering. (8Marks)
c) A contracted to deliver certain goods to B for $2000. When called upon to deliver, A
refused to do so unless he was paid an extra $1200. B promised to pay the extra money.
After A delivered, B refused to pay the extra money. Can A recover the additional
$1200? Explain. (2 Marks)
d) P agreed in writing to drill a well for D for a specified price per foot and D agreed “to pay
for all casing necessary to be used in said well” Nothing was said in writing about the
furnishing of a pump and tubing. Oral evidence was offered to show that the casing was
to be 5-inch; also, that P was to pay for a pump and tubing.
i. Were these items admissible as evidence? (2 Marks)
ii. Explain the terms “Specialties” and Judgment in law (4 Marks)

QUESTION 5
a) Briefly explain the meaning of Tort law? Further explain the following tort suits
involving engineers; (2 Marks)
i. Misinterpretation
ii. Nuisance
iii. Negligence
iv. Product liability. (8 Marks)
b) Mention & explain atleast 5 different documents that make up the entire construction
contract. (5 Marks)
c) You have been on the job for nine months as an assistant research engineer working with
a world-famous authority on heat transfer. It is an ideal job, because you are learning a
great deal under his sympathetic tutelage while you pursue an advanced degree part-time.
You are asked to evaluate two new flame-retardant paints A and B. Because of late
delivery of some constituents of paint A, the test has been delayed and your boss has
been forced to make a tentative recommendation of paint A to the design group. You are
asked to make the after-the-fact tests “for the record.” Much to your surprise, the tests
show that your boss was wrong and that formulation B shows better flame resistance.
However, a large quantity of paint A already has been purchased. Your boss asks you to
“fudge the data” in favor of his original decision, and since there is reasonable possibility
that your data were in error, you reluctantly change them to favor his decision. Discuss
the ethics. How would you solve this? (5 Marks)

© Ndejje University Examinations Semester One 2023/24 Page 3

QUESTION 6
a) Differentiate between Suspension, Repudiation and Determination in Engineering
contracts (6 Marks)
b) Explain the role of a Contract Administrator as Employer’s agent and as an independent
Adjudicator in construction contracts. (8 Marks)
c) You are a design engineer for the Ajax Manufacturing Co., a large multiplant producer of
plastic parts. As part of your employment, you were required to sign a secrecy agreement
that prohibits divulging information that the company considers proprietary. Ajax has
modified a standard piece of equipment that greatly increases the efficiency in cooling
viscous plastic slurries. The company decides not to patent the development but instead
to keep it as a trade secret. As part of your regular job assignment, you work with this
proprietary equipment and become thoroughly familiar with its enhanced capabilities.
Five years later you leave Ajax and go to work for a candy manufacturer as chief of
production. Your new employer is not in any way in competition with Ajax. You quickly
realize that Ajax’s trade secret can be applied with great profit to a completely different
machine used for cooling fudge. You order the change to be made.
i. Discuss the ethics. (3 Marks)
ii. If Ajax Manufacturing Co. is to investigate using Private Inquiry method, explain
the procedure. (3 Marks)

QUESTION 7
a) Explain the meaning of Construction Procurement in Engineering Law & Ethics. (4
Marks)
b) Discuss the four types of Procurement systems used in the procurement of Uganda
Engineering projects. And further explain when each of the types is best used. (16
Marks)

End
Success
Happy New Year 2024

© Ndejje University Examinations Semester One 2023/24 Page 4

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2021
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING 2

PAPER CODE : CIV4101

DATE : Saturday 15th May 2021

TIME : 9:00 am – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of Four questions, attempt all the questions.
3. You are advised to appropriate your time wisely when attempting each of the questions.
4. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
5. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,
6. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 1 of 6

Question One [40 Marks]

a) Chenge Municipality which recently attained City status acquired 3 additional sub counties
within the City. With this new development, at least 6000 inhabitants who were previously
part of the peri urban areas of these Sub counties are now part of the City. Two of the
previous sub counties form Division A in the newly formed City and could benefit from
River X that crosses through the Divisions. At preliminary level, it is envisioned that River
X could be a source of water for these fast urbanizing areas within City Q. Giving a specific
context, examples where applicable and justification, describe how you would plan a water
supply system for the newly formed Division A. (20marks)

b) Design an appropriate water supply system for the 3rd Sub-county which is now part of
City Q. This Sub-county has at least 1000 households, 10 institutions of learning consisting
of 200 students each and 5 industries that heavily depend on water for daily operation. In
designing your water supply system, the design volume and treatment provisions for the
water if necessary should be taken into consideration. Clearly state any assumptions made.
Hint (Give supporting background information, baseline conditions, situation analysis that
inform the system designed) (20 marks)

Question Two [20 Marks]

a) Water transmission conduits, whether free-flow or under pressure usually require a

considerable capital investment which account for more than 65 % the capital investments
in the water industry. Due to such investment requirements, most water utilities insist on
standardization of various components/materials used in water transmission and
distribution. Citing the types of materials often used in Ugandan water systems, explain
the benefits of standardization of the some of these components. (6marks)

b) With supporting schematic illustration, design a water transport and distribution system for
a community which is sectioned in to 5 categories including the slums, housing estates,
upscale mansions and institutional/commercial section. Describe the major components of
the network designed explaining why the various design considerations were taken into
account. (14 marks)

Question Three [20 Marks]

a) Water quality is impacted by both anthropogenic and natural pollutants resulting in raw
water which often the case may be treated to ensure consumers have access to portable
water. Briefly discuss some of the factors that influence groundwater composition.
(4marks)

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 2 of 6

 b) Using diagrammatic illustration, describe the mode of operation of driven wells. (4marks)
c) Coagulation is one of the treatment measures adopted in treatment of water to remove
suspended matter, describe the coagulation mechanism. (4marks)
d) Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters:-10 m, 10 m, 10-3m, 10-1m;
-6 -4

given that the water temperature is 10oC, g = 9.81m/s2 and S=2000Kg/m3 assuming the
flow of water in the pipes is laminar. (2marks)
I. Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters 10-2mm, 10mm; at
temperatures of 0, 20 and 400C respectively. (2marks)
II. Of the two parameters, particle size or temperature which do you consider to
significantly influence settling velocity of the particles? (2marks)
e) List at least two (2) types of coagulants commonly used and cite any limitations associated
with coagulant use. (2marks)

Question Four [20 Marks]

a) A water supply company has delivered an annual quantity of 80,000,000 m3 to a city of 1.2
million inhabitants.
I. Find out the specific demand in the distribution area. (2marks)
II. Calculate the domestic consumption per capita given that leakages from the system
were estimated at 13% of the total supply, and billed non-domestic consumption of
20,000,000 m3/y (2marks)
b) In a housing estate in Municipality X, it was identified that water supply at certain times
of the day was insufficient since the estate is located in a hilly terrain and water supply
considered intermittent. As an expert, you are requested to determine the actual water
demand for the residents so that alternative provisions can be suggested. Your assessments
showed that the demand registered during a particular hour was 150 m3 and for the whole
day the total demand was 3000 m3. What is the peak factor for the hour? (3marks)
c) Define the following terms as used in wastewater collection, treatment and transportation;

I. Brown water
II. Sanitary sewage
III. Sullage
IV. Infiltration (4marks)

d) Differentiate between combined and partially combined or partially separate sewerage

systems citing two advantages and disadvantages of the systems. (4 marks)

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 3 of 6

 e) Tembe University in town X is among the few institutions in the town with an own
activated sludge wastewater treatment plant. To appreciate the working principle of the
plant, the 3rd year students of the University pursuing Civil Engineering were asked to visit
the plant. As the operator of Activated Sludge Wastewater Treatment plant, you are
requested by a lecturer to explain the operating principle of the plant. (5 marks)

Relevant formulae and information

No. Formulae Remark

1 Population projections

2 Reynolds number

3 Kinematic viscosity

4 Inertial losses

5 Loss of pressure head

8 Upward directed force

9 Drag coefficient

Relevant tables

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 4 of 6

 ~ End ~
Good luck
Merry Christmas and Prosperous 2021

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 5 of 6

© Ndejje University Semester One 2020-2021 Examinations Page 6 of 6
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY 2022
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II

PAPER CODE : CIV4101

DATE : Thursday 20th January 2022

TIME : 9:00 Am – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

i. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

ii. This paper consists of Six (6), attempt any Five (5) questions for full marks, note that each
question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you are advised to appropriate your
time wisely.

iii. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
iv. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

v. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

1
QUESTION ONE (20 marks)
a) Simon needs to disinfect water for his education facility using chemical disinfectant.
As civil Engineer who has studied environment engineering, what advise do you give
before he goes to purchase a chemical disinfectant. And which other disinfection
methods would you give him as alternatives.
b) Which organisms does chlorine remove up to 99% from water? Discuss the effect of
the product of the concentration of chlorine at PH (6-7).
c) and the contact time (t) on the die-off of pathogens.

QUESTION TWO (20 marks)

a) Discuss why slow sand filters are also called biofilters.
b) A slow sand filter (SSF) has an initial filter bed thickness of 1.1m, and the depth of
overlying water is 1.5m. The coefficient of permeability is 1.75 m/h and the filtration
rate is 0.2 m/h. The water level above the crest of the fixed weir in the effluent line is
maintained at 0.1 m above the initial top of the filter bed.
a) Give two (2) reasons why a weir is usually present in the effluent line of an SSF.
b) Explain why the coefficient of uniformity of the filter sand in an SSF is greater than
that of the sand in a rapid gravity (sand) filter (RGF).
c) Give three (3) criteria used to determine when a filter run should be terminated.
d) What is the maximum possible head loss for this SSF?
QUESTION THREE (20 marks)
a) Outline 5 differences between slow sand filtration and rapid sand filtration.
b) The effluent of a sedimentation tank is treated by rapid filtration at a rate of 8 m/h.
The total capacity is 0.65m3 /s. The filter bed has a thickness of 1.1 m and is
composed of sand with 0.80 mm diameter. The depth of the supernatant water is 1.5
m. Initial porosity = 0.4. The temperature is 20oC.
i. Selecting a suitable filter area, determine the number of filters to be used. State any
assumptions.
ii. What is the initial head loss?
iii. What is the maximum filter resistance?
iv. Why is the limitation in (iii) considered?
v. Sketch the Lindquist diagram for this system, showing the head loss for the clean bed
and at the end of the filter run. State any assumptions.

QUESTION FOUR (20 MARKS)

a) Discuss the mechanism of sedimentation as one of the methods used in treatment of
water.
b) Explain the three types of settling.

2
 c) Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters: - 10-6m, 10-4m, 10-3m,
10-1m; given that the water temperature is 10oc, g = 9.81m/s2 and ρS=2000Kg/m3.
What are your conclusions as far as settling out these particles in a tank of 4m depth is
concerned?
d) Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters 10-2mm, 10mm; at
temperatures of 0, 20 and 40oc respectively.
e) What do you find to be a more significant influence on settling velocities: particle size
or temperature?
QUESTION FIVE (20 marks)
a) Explain the difference between coagulation and flocculation. List five chemicals used
as flocculants.
b) Discuss the two principles that are applied in separation of solids from water. Explain
the importance of coagulation and flocculation in the treatment of water.
c) Explain the mechanisms of destabilization.
d) Explain the optimisation of coagulant dose.
e) Aeration aims at maximising the opportunity of interfacial contact between the gas
phase and the liquid phase. Discuss in detail the four types of aerators in practice.

QUESTION SIX (20 marks)

a) The composition of groundwater is dependent on many factors, list them down
briefly. Distinguish the different types of groundwater due to the presence of
Oxygen.
b) What are the objectives of treating water for drinking? Explain the different
design considerations of water supply system and waste water management
system.
c) Explain in detail an overview of water treatment processes.

END

3
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY 2022
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II

PAPER CODE : CIV4101

DATE : Thursday 20th January 2022

TIME : 9:00 Am – 12:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

i. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

ii. This paper consists of Six (6), attempt any Five (5) questions for full marks, note that each
question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you are advised to appropriate your
time wisely.

iii. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
iv. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

v. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

1
QUESTION ONE (20 marks)

a) Simon needs to disinfect water for his education facility using chemical disinfectant.
As civil Engineer who has studied environment engineering, what advise do you give
before he goes to purchase a chemical disinfectant. And which other disinfection
methods would you give him as alternatives.
b) Which organisms does chlorine remove up to 99% from water? Discuss the effect of
the product of the concentration of chlorine at PH (6-7).
c) and the contact time (t) on the die-off of pathogens.

QUESTION TWO (20 marks)

a) Discuss why slow sand filters are also called biofilters.

b) A slow sand filter (SSF) has an initial filter bed thickness of 1.1m, and the depth of
overlying water is 1.5m. The coefficient of permeability is 1.75 m/h and the filtration
rate is 0.2 m/h. The water level above the crest of the fixed weir in the effluent line is
maintained at 0.1 m above the initial top of the filter bed.
a) Give two (2) reasons why a weir is usually present in the effluent line of an SSF.
b) Explain why the coefficient of uniformity of the filter sand in an SSF is greater than
that of the sand in a rapid gravity (sand) filter (RGF).
c) Give three (3) criteria used to determine when a filter run should be terminated.
d) What is the maximum possible head loss for this SSF?
QUESTION THREE (20 marks)

a) Outline 5 differences between slow sand filtration and rapid sand filtration.
b) The effluent of a sedimentation tank is treated by rapid filtration at a rate of 8 m/h.
The total capacity is 0.65m3 /s. The filter bed has a thickness of 1.1 m and is
composed of sand with 0.80 mm diameter. The depth of the supernatant water is 1.5
m. Initial porosity = 0.4. The temperature is 20oC.
i. Selecting a suitable filter area, determine the number of filters to be used. State any
assumptions.
ii. What is the initial head loss?
iii. What is the maximum filter resistance?
iv. Why is the limitation in (iii) considered?
v. Sketch the Lindquist diagram for this system, showing the head loss for the clean bed
and at the end of the filter run. State any assumptions.

QUESTION FOUR (20 MARKS)

a) Discuss the mechanism of sedimentation as one of the methods used in treatment of
water.
b) Explain the three types of settling.

2
 c) Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters: - 10-6m, 10-4m, 10-3m,
10-1m; given that the water temperature is 10oc, g = 9.81m/s2 and ρS=2000Kg/m3.
What are your conclusions as far as settling out these particles in a tank of 4m depth is
concerned?
d) Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters 10-2mm, 10mm; at
temperatures of 0, 20 and 40oc respectively.
e) What do you find to be a more significant influence on settling velocities: particle size
or temperature?
QUESTION FIVE (20 marks)

a) Explain the difference between coagulation and flocculation. List five chemicals used
as flocculants.
b) Discuss the two principles that are applied in separation of solids from water. Explain
the importance of coagulation and flocculation in the treatment of water.
c) Explain the mechanisms of destabilization.
d) Explain the optimisation of coagulant dose.
e) Aeration aims at maximising the opportunity of interfacial contact between the gas
phase and the liquid phase. Discuss in detail the four types of aerators in practice.

QUESTION SIX (20 marks)

a) The composition of groundwater is dependent on many factors, list them down

briefly. Distinguish the different types of groundwater due to the presence of
Oxygen.
b) What are the objectives of treating water for drinking? Explain the different
design considerations of water supply system and waste water management
system.
c) Explain in detail an overview of water treatment processes.

END

3
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, NOVEMBER 2022
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II

PAPER CODE : CIV4101

DATE : Monday 7th November, 2022

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00 Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of Six questions each carrying the same marks(20marks);
3. Question One (1) is compulsory
4. Attempt any additional Four questions of your choice for full marks.
5. No marks for any extra question attempted.
6. Do not write on the question paper
7. Start each question attempted on a fresh page in readable handwriting.
8. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 1 of 8

 QUESTION ONE

(a) Circle the correct answer. (Each question carries 1 mark)

1. Constituents of ground water are;
A. Dissolved gases
B. Plant nutrients
C. Retention time
D. Storm runoff
2. The continuous circulation of water within the Earth's hydrosphere driven by solar radiation is;
A. Ground water
B. Hydrological cycle
C. Raw water
D. Hydrosphere cycle
3. The addition of a chemical or coagulant that can destabilize the surface charges of colloids and
enhance agglomeration
A. Agglomeration
B. Flocculation
C. Coagulation
D. Stabilization
4. Which coagulant is most commonly used in Uganda?
A. Sodium Aluminate
B. Aluminum sulfate
C. Ferric sulfate
D. Quick Lime
5. What is range of design velocity of flocculation tank.
A. (1.0 – 3.0) m/s
B. (0.1 – 0.4) m/s
C. (0.2 – 0.3) m/s
D. (0.1 – 0.3) m/s

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 2 of 8

 6. Define a system?
A. A sequence of anticipated actions that are to be executed for a purpose.
B. A series of related processes which achieve a certain end.
C. Decisions and actions, which govern the working of a system.
D. A series of actions governed by objectives, targets, methodologies, implementation, operation,
maintenance and evaluation
7. Which year is considered normally used for designing water supply scheme.
A. Design year
B. Ultimate year
C. Initial year
D. Future year
8. Below are criteria that can be used to establish the quality and level of service of water supply
systems. Which one is not?
A. Coverage,
B. Continuity,
C. Quantity.
D. Workmanship
9. What is the formular for determining the projected future population.
𝑛 𝑟
A. 𝑃𝑖 (1 + )
100

𝑛 𝑟
B. 𝑃𝑖 (𝑟 + 100)
1 𝑟
C. 𝑃𝑖 (𝑟 + 100)
𝑟 𝑛
D. 𝑃𝑖 (1 + 100)

10. ______is defined as the parameters, which are used in the determination of the design/future
demand/ volume.
A. Design volume
B. Basis of volume
C. Ultimate volume
D. Per capita volume

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 3 of 8

 11.

a. Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters: - 10-2 m, 10-4 m, 10-3 m, 10-1m;
given that the water temperature is 100C, g = 9.81m/s2 and ρs =2000Kg/m3. (3 marks)
b. What are your conclusions as far as settling out these particles in a tank of 4m depth is
concerned? (2 marks)
c. Calculate the settling velocities for particles with diameters 10-2 mm, 10-1mm 10mm; at
temperatures of 0, 20 and 400C respectively. (3 marks)
d. What do you find to be a more significant influence on settling velocities: particle size or
temperature? (2 marks)

QUESTION TWO

a) Water transmission conduits, whether free-flow or under pressure usually require a considerable
capital investment which account for more than 65 % the capital investments in the water
industry. Due to such investment requirements, most water utilities insist on standardization of
various components/materials used in water transmission and distribution. Citing the types of
materials often used in Ugandan water systems, explain the benefits of standardization of the
some of these components. (4 marks)

b) With supporting schematic illustration, design a water transport and distribution system for a
community which is sectioned in to 5 categories including the slums, housing estates, upscale
mansions and institutional/commercial section. Describe the major components of the network
designed explaining why the various design considerations were taken into account. (10 marks)

c) The gravity distribution system is schematized into a 3000m long transmission main of
400mm diameter (k=0.2mm). The water pressure at the end of the main should not drop below
35m above the datum. The reservoir that feeds the transmission main has a constant water
level of 43m above datum.

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 4 of 8

 I. What is the maximum discharge that can be supplied from the reservoir while
satisfying the pressure condition? (2 marks)
II. What should the diameter of the additional pipe (in parallel to the existing one) if the
discharge is increased to 600 m3/hr (k=0.2mm) (2 marks)
d) Describe any four factors that influence the selection of suitable pipe material necessary for
water distribution and transmission. (2 marks)

QUESTION THREE

(a) Describe gas transfer phenomenon and give the aims of aeration in water treatment. (5 marks)
(b) Describe the different types of aerators. (4 marks)
(c) Explain the 5 principles of aeration. (5 marks)
(d) A spray aerator was found to remove 10g/𝑚3 of 𝐶𝑂2 at an initial carbon dioxide content of
22g/𝑚3 𝐶𝑂2.

Determine:

i. The efficiency coefficient K. (3marks)

ii. The effluent concentration of raw water containing 38 g/ 𝑚3 of carbon dioxide when
sprayed under the same hydraulic conditions. (Assume a saturation concentration Cs = 1.0g/
𝐶𝑂2 / 𝑚3 ) (3 marks)

QUESTION FOUR

(a) Define “planning”. (2 marks)

(b) Describe the six aspects of planning water supply system. (6 marks)
(c) Describe in detail the 3 steps of planning a water supply or waste water management system.
(6 marks)
(d) Define ozonation and state its advantages and disadvantages. (6 marks)

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 5 of 8

 QUESTION FIVE

(a) Define “peaking factor”. And list five types of water demand. (7 marks)
(b) In the design of a water supply scheme, the „Ultimate‟ year total population and “Maximum
Day Demand” for an isolated village have been projected by the local water engineers to be 75
persons and 1,500 liters/day respectively. Determine the “Peak Hour Demand” flow to be used
in sizing the distribution main serving the village. (5 marks)
(c) Define the following terms (8 marks)
i. Water delivery;
ii. Water production;
iii. Water consumption;
iv. Water leakage;

QUESTION SIX

a) Differentiate between combined and partially combined or partially separate sewerage systems
citing two advantages and disadvantages of the systems. (4 marks)
b) Discuss any four factors that influence the estimation of wastewater flows. (4marks)
c) A private investor has identified that City P only has limited wastewater and water supply
treatment plants. After carrying out a needs assessment and relevant studies, the consultant hired
by Chelon, a private investor recommended that an activated sludge treatment plant could be
installed to solve the wastewater treatment challenge. The consultant also recommended that a
slow sand filter unit could be installed as one of the units in the water treatment process of the
new plant.
I. Using diagrammatic illustrations, describe the working principle of the two systems
(activated sludge and slow sand filters) (8 marks)
II. The consultant also recommended that chlorination of effluent from the wastewater
treatment plant and treated water from the slow sand filter be carried out as a final
process in the respective systems. Briefly explain the purpose of chlorination and action
process involved during chlorination. (4marks)

GOOD LUCK

~ End ~

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 6 of 8

 No. Formulae Remark

1 Population projections

2 Reynolds number

3 Kinematic viscosity

4 Inertial losses

5 Loss of pressure head

8 Upward directed force

9 Drag coefficient

10 Terminal velocity

Net gravitational pull

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 7 of 8

 Other formulae

@30 Years of Ndejje University Semester One 2022/2023 Examinations Page 8 of 8

 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, JANUARY 2022
[Link]. CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR
PAPER : HYDROLOGY II
PAPER CODE : CIV4105
DATE : Tuesday 18th January 2022
TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:
i. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,
ii. This paper consists of Seven (7), attempt any Five (5) questions for full marks, note that
each question should be attempted within 30 to 45 minutes; you are advised to
appropriate your time wisely.

iii. Question 1 is compulsory

iv. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
v. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,

vi. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].

Page 1 of 6
Question One (20 Marks) Compulsory.
i) The science and practice of water flow measurement is known as
(a) Hypsometry (b) Hydro-meteorology (c) Fluvimetry (d) Hydrometry
ii) The following is not a direct stream flow determination technique
(a) Dilution method (b) Ultrasonic method (c) Area-velocity method (d) Slope-area
method
iii) In the moving-boat method of stream-flow measurement, the essential measurements are:
(a) the velocity recorded by the current meter, the depths and the speed of the boat.
(b) the velocity and direction of the current meter, the depths and the time interval
between depth readings
(c) the depth, time interval between readings, speed of the boat and velocity of the stream
(d) the velocity and direction of the current meter and the speed of the boat.
iv) Direct runoff is made up of
(a) Surface runoff, prompt interflow and channel precipitation
(b) Surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration
(c) Overland flow and infiltration
(d) Rainfall and evaporation
v) In the standard SCS-CN method of modelling runoff due to daily rainfall, the maximum
daily rainfall that would not produce runoff in a watershed with CN = 50 is about
(a) 65 mm (b) 35 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 25 mm

vi) Virgin flow is

(a) the flow in the river downstream of a gauging station
(b) the flow in the river upstream of a gauging station
(c) the flow unaffected by works of man
(d) the flow that would exist in the stream if there were no abstractions to the
precipitation
vii) The basic assumptions of the unit-hydrograph theory are
(a) nonlinear response and time invariance
(b) time invariance and linear response
(c) linear response and linear time variance
(d) nonlinear time variance and linear response.
viii) A culvert is designed for a peak flow Qp on the basis of the rational formula. If a
storm of the same intensity as used in the design but of duration twice larger occurs the
resulting peak discharge will be
(a) Qp (b) 2Qp (c) Qp/2 (d) Q2p
ix) A rectangular parking lot, with direction of overland flow parallel to the larger side, has a
time of concentration of 25 minutes. For the purpose of design of drainage, four rain- fall
patterns as below are to be considered.
A = 35 mm/h for 15 minutes, B = 45 mm/h for 10 minutes, C = 10 mm/h for 60 minutes,
D = 15 mm/h for 25 minutes, the greatest peak rate of runoff is expected in the storm
Page 2 of 6
 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
x) In a triangular channel the top width and depth of flow were 2.0 m and 0.9 m
respectively. Velocity measurements on the centre line at 18 cm and 72 cm below water
surface indicated velocities of 0.60 m/s and 0.40 m/s respectively. The discharge in the
channel (in m3/s) is (a) 0.90 (b) 1.80 (c) 0.45 (d) none of these

Question Two (20 Marks)

a) Briefly define a hydrological model. [2]
b) Giving relevant examples, discuss the three types of deterministic hydrological models
[8]

c) With relevant explanation, provide a schematic showing the critical components of a

River basin system. (10marks)

Question Three (20 Marks)

a) State any four methods used in determination of River discharge. [2]

b) The following are the data of gauge and discharge collected at a particular section of River
Siit by stream gauging operation.
i) Develop a gauge-discharge relationship for this stream at this section for use in
estimating the discharge for a known gauge reading. [10]
ii) What is the coefficient of correlation of the derived relationship? Use a value of 𝐻𝑜 =
7.50 m for the gauge reading corresponding to zero discharge. (4marks)
iii) Estimate the discharge corresponding to a gauge reading of 10.5 m at this gauging
section. [4]

Gauge reading (m) Discharge (m3/s) Gauge reading (m) Discharge (m3/s)
7.65 15 8.48 170
7.70 30 8.98 400
7.77 57 9.3 600
7.80 39 9.5 800
7.90 60 10.50 1500
7.91 100 11.10 2000
8.08 150 11.7 2400

Question Four (20 Marks)

a) Explain the rational method of computing the peak discharge of a small catchment.
Where is this method commonly used? (6marks)
b) What is the importance of time of concentration of a catchment in the estimation of flood
by rational formula? [2]
c) Information on the 50-year storm is given below

Page 3 of 6
 Duration (minutes 15 30 45 60 180
Rainfall (mm) 40 60 75 100 120

A culvert has to drain 200 ha of land with a maximum length of travel of 1.25 km.
The general slope of the catchment is 0.001 and its runoff coefficient is 0.20.
Estimate the peak flow by the rational method for designing the culvert for a 50-year flood.
[6]
d) A 200 g/l solution of common salt was discharged into a stream at a constant rate of 25
l/s. The background concentration of the salt in the stream water was found to be 10 ppm.
At a downstream section where the solution was believed to have been completely mixed,
the salt concentration was found to reach an equilibrium value of 45 ppm. Estimate the
discharge in the stream. [6]

Question Five (20 Marks)

a) Urban storm water management aims to meet multiple objectives, state any four of these
objectives? (4marks)
b) What are the key contaminants in urban storm water (4marks)
c) List three non-structural best management practices (BMP) and provide an example of
each? (6 marks)
d) Draw ,label and describe pollutant transportation using pollutographs (6marks)

Question Six (20 Marks)

a) Describe the main changes you would expect in the runoff pattern (in terms of quantity,
flow rates and quality) following the conversion of open grassland into high density
urban areas? Give reasons for your answers. (5marks)
b) Briefly discuss what you understand by global change pressures and how they will
impact urban water systems?(5marks)
c) A paved highway drainage channel has the geometry shown in Figure below. The
maximum allowable flow depth is 0.23 m (to prevent flow from encroaching on traffic)
and the Manning’s n-value is 0.018 for the type of pavement used. What is the capacity
of the channel given a 2% longitudinal slope?[10 marks]

Page 4 of 6
Question Seven (20 Marks)

a) Briefly discuss what you understand Climate change and its anticipated impacts on an urban
drainage system. (5 marks)
b) Differentiate between GCM and RCM (3 marks)
c) As a Hydrologist and climate change expert, describe what you understand by Climate change
adaptation and mitigation. (3 marks)
d) In 2000 a small water shed consists of 2 km2 of forest area (C=0.1), 1.2 km2 of cultivated
area (C=0.2) and 1 km2 under grass cover (C=0.35). A water course falls by 20m in a length of
2km. The IDF relation for the area may be taken as

The coefficient of runoff for the above area has increased by 30% due to urbanization 15 years
after in 2015. Assess whether a planned 900mm diameter culvert is suitable to safely carry the
runoff across the road for a 25 year return period. (9 marks)

Page 5 of 6
 APPENDIX
Formulae

5 1
1 𝐴3 2
; 𝑄=𝑛 2 𝑆0
𝑃3
Stage discharge relationship equations
𝑄 = 𝑎(𝐻 − 𝐻𝑜 )𝑏
𝑌 = 𝑏𝑥 + 𝐶
𝑁(∑ 𝑋𝑌) − (∑ 𝑋). (∑ 𝑌)
𝑏= 2
𝑁(∑ 𝑋 2 ) − (∑ 𝑋)
∑ 𝑌 − 𝑏(∑ 𝑋)
𝐶=
𝑁
𝑁𝑁(∑ 𝑋𝑌) − (∑ 𝑋). (∑ 𝑌)
𝑟=
√[𝑁(∑ 𝑋 2 ) − (∑ 𝑋)2 ] [𝑁(∑ 𝑌 2 ) − (∑ 𝑌)2 ]

(𝑃 − 0.2𝑆)2
𝑄=
(𝑃 + 0.8𝑆)
1000
𝑆 = 25.4 ( − 10)
𝐶𝑁

𝑄𝑡 (𝐶1 − 𝐶2 )
𝑄=
𝐶2 − 𝐶0

1
𝑄𝑃 = 𝐶𝐼𝐴
3.6
𝑇𝑐 = 0.01947 𝐿0.77 𝑆 −0.385

End
---------- Good luck ----------

Page 6 of 6
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER I EXAMINATIONS, 2021
[Link]. (CIVIL)

YEAR FOUR

PAPER : HYDROLOGY II

PAPER CODE : CIV4105

DATE : Tuesday, 11th May 2021

TIME : 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. Do not open this paper until you are told to do so,

2. The paper consists of five questions on four pages each of which carries the same marks;
attempt question one and any other Three questions of your choice for full marks. You are
advised to appropriate your time wisely.
3. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
4. Start each question attempted on a fresh page,
5. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit
it together with your answer booklet].
Question One (Compulsory number) (40 marks)
1.1 Define a unit hydrograph [4]
1.2 Brief describe the steps followed to derive the unit hydrograph [6]
1.3 Estimate the runoff of a catchment resulting from the rainfall given below assuming the
catchment has a phi-index of 1.5 mm/hr. The 30-minute unit hydrograph of the catchment is
given below. [10]

Time (min) 0 30 60 90

Rainfall (mm) 0 10 63 22

Time 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300

30min UH
m3/s/ mm 0 0.005 0.173 0.64 2.21 4.17 4.8 2.95 1.31 0.414 0

1.4 What are hydrological models and why do we need them? [6]
1.5 With relevant examples, distinguish an empirical and conceptual model? [4]
1.6 Rainfall of magnitude 3.8 mm and 2.8 mm occurring on two consecutive 4-hr durations on a
catchment area 27 km2 produced the following hydrograph of flow at the outlet of the catchment.
1.7 Estimate the phi-index and plot the excess rainfall hyetograph [10].

Time from -6 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60 66
start of
rainfall (h)

Flow (m3/s) 6 4.5 13 26 21 16 12 9 7 5 5 4.5 4.5

Question two: (20 Marks)

2.1 Define the following terms as used in hydrology [6 points]
a. Variable
b. random variable
c. time series

2.2 The annual peak precipitation (in mm) of a certain region is summarized in a frequency table
below.
Given the following discharge data:

Discharge Discharge
(m3/s) (m3/s)
1.537 1.881
 1.182 1.038
0.434 1.447
0.452 1.42
1.822 2.223
1.47 1.797
2.07 1.803
1.368 1.845
4.018 1.539
2.853 1.087
1.424 1.658
1.957 3.534
1.77

(a) Using ungrouped data

(i) Estimate the mean, median, and variance for the data above. [4]

(b) Using grouped data

(ii) Prepare a frequency table for the data. Choose class width of 0.6m3/s [4]
(iii) Plot a histogram using absolute frequencies for the data you have prepared [2]
(iv) Use the histogram to construct a frequency polygon. Is the frequency polygon
normally distributed? [1]
(v) Calculate the mean, standard deviation and median of the grouped data. [3]

Question three: (20 Marks)

3.1 Give at least 4 reasons why we need water quality models [4]
3.2 A water quality model is defined by principally two (2) processes. Describe these processes
[6]

3.3 A wastewater treatment plant discharges untreated wastewater at a rate of 100 m3/d into a
small stream. The base flow in the stream is 6m3/min. The maximum acceptable BOD level
in the stream is 30 mg/l. Given the following information:
• BOD of the wastewater = 2000 mg/l
• Upstream BOD in the stream = 10 mg/l,

Determine:
(a) The BOD concentration in the stream after having the sewage discharge into it. State any
assumptions made. [5]
(b) The required treatment efficiency to meet the acceptable BOD concentrations in the
stream. [5]

Question four: (20 Marks)

4.1 What is climate change? Provide four examples of evidence of climate change in Uganda [5]
4.2 What are the CMIP5 experiments and their relevance to climate change impact studies? [5]
4.3 Describe the two types of climate change models and give 2 examples of each
[5]
4.4 What do you understand by climate change scenarios? RCP scenarios are currently used in
climate change impact studies. Briefly describe the scenarios. [5]
Question Five
5.1 Give four reasons why infiltration is considered to be an important component of the
hydrological cycle [4 marks]

5.2 If Infiltration capacity is designated fc , actual rate of infiltration as ,f; and the rainfall intensity
as , i, which of the following statement is true: [4 marks]
(i) f = fc when i ≤ fc ,
(ii) f = i when i ≤ fc +
(iii) f = fc when i ≤ fc
(iv) f = i when i ≥ fc
5.3 The infiltration capacities of an area at different intervals of time are indicated in Table below.
Find the equation for the Horton’s infiltration capacity in the exponential form. [6 marks]

Time in hours 0 0.25 0.50 0.75 1.00 1.25 1.50 1.75 2.00
Infiltration capacity i (cm/h) 10.4 5.6 3.2 2.1 1.5 1.2 1.1 1.0

5.4 Use the Horton's infiltration equation above to estimate the direct runoff depth that would occur
from a storm below [6 marks]

Time from start of storm (hr) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Incremental rainfall in each hour (cm) 0.45 0.70 1.83 2.50 3.36 2.70 0.97 0.59
 FACULTY OF ENGINEERING AND SURVEY
SEMESTER II EXAMINATIONS, MAY 2024
DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING
YEAR FOUR

PAPER NAME WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II

PAPER CODE CIV 4207

DATE MONDAY 6TH MAY, 2024

TIME 2:00 Pm – 5:00Pm [3 Hours]

Instructions:

1. The paper consists of Six questions each of which carries the same marks; attempt any
four (4) questions for full marks. You are advised to appropriate your time wisely.
2. State any reasonable assumptions made where information given seems insufficient,
3. Start each question attempted on a fresh page.
4. Any form of cheating will be thoroughly investigated.

5. Do not write on the question paper

6. Start each question attempted on a fresh page.
7. DO NOT carry any section of this Question paper out of the Examination Room [Submit it
together with your answer booklet].

© Ndejje University Semester Two 2023-2024 Examinations Page 1 of 4

QUESTION ONE (25 Marks)

a) Describe the main components of a run-off- river Hydropower plant (6 marks).

b) Discuss at least six environmental and social impacts of hydropower development. (6 marks)
c) Plot a flow duration curve for the given river flows. Estimate Qmin and Q50. Given that the net
head available is 100 m, calculate this river's minimum and medium power potential. Assume
a turbine efficiency of 80%. (13 Marks)

Discharge (m3/s)
1130 5350
1330 4250
1440 3500
2570 3120
2870 3250
2300 3110
1960 2730
1870 2730
2730 4680
4100 4130
5970 3260
5060 2740
6860 2370
7590 2120
6600 1940
5910

QUESTION TWO (25 MARKS)

a) Explain the meaning of the following terms with reference to GIS;
i. Attribute data (2marks)
ii. Spatial data (2marks)
iii. Remote sensing (2marks)
b) Define the term ‘projection.’ (2marks)
c) Identify the two types of queries performed on GIS attribute data with examples. (4marks)
d) NDVI is important in remote sensing; state its formula for Landsat 8 and clearly state its
main purpose.
(5marks)
e) Describe three important data formats for storing digital data using suitable examples (3
marks)

© Ndejje University Semester Two 2023-2024 Examinations Page 2 of 4

 f) Image classification is one of the steps used to interpret remotely sensed images.
Distinguish between supervised and unsupervised image classification. (5 marks)

QUESTION THREE (25 MARKS)

a) What do you understand by a rainwater harvesting system (RWHS)? What are the
advantages and disadvantages of rainwater harvesting?
(6 marks)
b) A watershed has a drainage area of 1000 ha. The annual rainfall is 927 mm. The expected
evaporation loss is 292 mm per year. The estimated loss to groundwater is 89 mm
annually. Estimate the amount of water stored in a reservoir/lake and how many people
can be served, assuming 200 L/(c d) is needed. (10 marks)
c) Discuss factors that affect the quality of rainwater. Explain how the quality of RWHS can
be improved. (4 marks)
d) Explain surface geophysical survey methods that are used to locate groundwater (6
Marks)

QUESTION FOUR (25 MARKS)

a) List the methods of estimation of consumptive use. (2 marks)
b) What are the non-structural measures for reducing water logging? (2
marks)
c) What are the main functions of a cross-regulator (4 marks)
d) The actual evapotranspiration (𝐸𝑇𝑐 ) of a crop can be estimated from reference
evapotranspiration (𝐸𝑇𝑂 ) using the crop coefficient approach 𝐸𝑇𝑐 = 𝐾𝑐 . 𝐸𝑇𝑂 where 𝐾𝑐 = Crop
coefficient. List four principal characteristics of a crop that affect 𝐾𝑐 . (4 marks)
e) Given the following information: Growth stages of onions: initial stage = 20 days,
development stage = 30 days, mid-stage = 75 days and late-stage = 45 days, Crop
coefficients: 𝐾𝑐 , initial = 0.75, mid= 1.15 and: 𝐾𝑐 end = 0.85 𝐸𝑇𝑂 during the entire growing
season = 10 mm/d. Calculate the crop water requirements for the whole of the growing
season of onions in mm. (4 marks)
f) A 12-hectare field is to be irrigated with a sprinkler system. The root zone depth is 0.9m,
and the field capacity of the soil is 28%, while the permanent wilting point is 17% by
weight. The soil bulk density is 1.36 g/cm3 and the water application efficiency is 70%.
The soil will be irrigated when 50% of the available water is depleted. Using the above
crop water requirement (mm/day) as the peak evapotranspiration, determine the system
capacity if the system is meant to run for 10 hours a day. (9 Marks)
Hint: Formula for the system capacity, Qc = (A. d)/ (F. H. Ea)

© Ndejje University Semester Two 2023-2024 Examinations Page 3 of 4

QUESTION FIVE (25 MARKS)
a) Define IWRM (2 marks)
b) Explain the 4 Dubin principals. The conference developed four guiding principles for IWRM
(Dublin principles). (4 marks)
c) What six main characteristics make water a special economic good? (6 marks)
d) The Directorate of Water Resources Management (DWRM) is mandated to: “Promote and
ensure the rational and sustainable utilization and development, and the effective
management and safeguarding of water resources of Uganda for social and economic welfare
and development," State the four Water management zones (WMZs) under DWRM. (4 marks)
e) State any four functions of the of WMZs? (4 marks)
f) Explain at least five issues affecting IWRM in Uganda. (5 marks)

Question Six (25 marks)

a) State the four types of flow. (4 marks)

b) Explain the three primary states of flow (3 marks)
c) River training works are important to control and manage sedimentation, control bank
erosion, siltation, flooding, and changes in flows. Give six examples of such works. (6
Marks)
d) What do you understand by River model? (2 marks)
e) Give two types of river models normally used. (4 marks)
f) State at least 3 limiting factors for selection of each of the type of models stated (6 marks)

~ End ~
Good luck

© Ndejje University Semester Two 2023-2024 Examinations Page 4 of 4