Explanation: The system LED shows whether the system is

1.6.4 Module Quiz – Basic Device receiving power and is functioning properly. If the LED is off,
the system is not powered on. If the LED is green, the
Configuration Answers system is operating normally. If the LED is amber, the
system is receiving power but is not functioning properly.
1. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the
command history feature? (Choose two.) 3. What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect
 Set the command history buffer size. one switch to another switch when neither switch
 Recall previously entered commands. supports the auto-MDIX feature?
 View a list of commands entered in a previous session.  rollover
 Recall up to 15 command lines by default.  crossover
 Save command lines in a log file for future reference.  straight-through
 coaxial
Explanation: The history command allows you to view and
reuse previously entered commands stored in the buffer. It is Explanation: A straight-through cable can be used to
also used to manage the of the buffer. connect a computer or a router to a switch. A rollover cable
can be used to access a router or switch console line. A
2. Which statement describes the system LED operation
coaxial cable is not used any longer in Ethernet networks,
on Cisco Catalyst switches?
but can be found in video connections. A crossover cable
 If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on. can be used to connect a switch to a switch, a computer to a
 If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing computer, and a router to a router.
POST.
 If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating 4. What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?
normally.  connection-oriented services
 If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power  more connection lines
but it is not functioning properly.  username and password authentication
 encryption
Explanation: Both Telnet and SSH are used to remotely  Creating an SVI automatically creates an associated
connect to a network device for management tasks. VLAN.
However, Telnet uses plaintext communications, whereas  An SVI is created automatically for each VLAN on a
SSH provides security for remote connections by providing multilayer switch.
encryption of all transmitted data between devices.
Explanation: To allow for remote switch administration, an
5. A network administrator has configured ​ VLAN 99 as SVI is created by default for VLAN 1.
the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP
address and subnet mask. The administrator issues 7. Which prompt is displayed when a network
the show interface vlan 99 command and notices administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on
that the line protocol is down. Which action can change a switch to recover from a system crash?
the state of the line protocol to up?  switch#
 Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.  system#
 Connect a host to an interface associated with  system:
VLAN 99.  switch:
 Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.
Explanation: The boot loader provides access into the
 Configure a default gateway.
switch if the operating system cannot be used because of
Explanation: Once an SVI is configured with an IP address missing or damaged system files. After some steps have
and subnet mask, it can be used for remote management. been completed, the boot loader can be accessed through a
An SVI interface will be active when the SVI VLAN has an console connection, through the switch: prompt.
active port associated with it.
8. Which router bootup sequence is correct?​
6. Which statement describes SVIs?  1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap
 An SVI can only be created for the management program
VLAN. 2 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software
 A default SVI is created for VLAN 1 for switch 3 – locate and load the startup configuration file or
administration. enter setup mode
 1 – perform the POST and load the startup Explanation: The first action to take place when a switch is
configuration file powered on is the POST or power-on self-test. POST
2 – locate and load the bootstrap program performs tests on the CPU, memory, and flash in preparation
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software for loading the boot loader.
 1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter 10. What must an administrator have in order to reset a
setup mode lost password on a router?
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software  access to another router
 1 – perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS  physical access to the router
software  a TFTP server
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter  a crossover cable
setup mode
3 – locate and load the bootstrap program Explanation: Console access to the device through a
terminal or terminal emulator software on a PC is required
Explanation: When a router is powered on, it undergoes a for password recovery.
POST to verify that the hardware is functional, after which it
proceeds by locating and loading the Cisco IOS software 11. When configuring a switch for SSH access, what
and then loading the startup configuration file if one is other command that is associated with the login
present. local command is required to be entered on the switch?
9. What is the first action in the boot sequence when a  login block-
switch is powered on? for seconds attempts number within seconds
 low-level CPU initialization  enable secret password
 load boot loader software  username username secret secret
 load the default Cisco IOS software  password password
 load a power-on self-test program Explanation: The login local command designates that the
local username database is used to authenticate interfaces
such as console or vty.
12. Which command will provide information about the 14. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a
status of all interfaces including the number of giants, Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined?
runts, and collisions on the interface? (Choose two.)
 show interfaces  A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and
 show ip interface brief loaded.
 show history  POST occurred normally.
 show running-config  The boot process was interrupted.
 There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
Explanation: The show interfaces command is the most  The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it
comprehensive in providing information about interfaces. defaulted to ROM.
The show ip interface brief command does not
provide information on giants, runts, or collisions. The show Explanation: The Switch prompt typically occurs after a
history command provides a history of the commands that switch boots normally but does not have or has failed to load
are used. The show running-config command will show a startup configuration file.
configuration information, but not status information. 15. Which two statements are true about using full-
13. Which interface is used by default to manage a Cisco duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)
Catalyst 2960 switch?  Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent
 The FastEthernet 0/1 interface efficiency in both directions.
 The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface  Latency is reduced because the NIC processes
 The VLAN 1 interface frames faster.
 The VLAN 99 interface  Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data
flow.
Explanation: Interface VLAN 1 is the default management  Performance is improved because the NIC is able to
SVI. detect collisions.
 Performance is improved with bidirectional data
flow.
Explanation: In full-duplex operation, the NIC does not  To speed up the boot process
process frames any faster, the data flow is bidirectional, and
there are no collisions. Explanation: The switch boot loader environment is
presented when the switch cannot locate a valid operating
16. Which statement describes the port speed LED on system. The boot loader environment provides a few basic
the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch? commands that allow a network administrator to reload the
operating system or provide an alternate location of the
 If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 operating system.
Mbps.
 If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 18. In which situation would a technician use the show
Mbps. interfaces command?
 If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100
Mbps.  To determine whether remote access is enabled
 If the LED is off, the port is not operating.  To determine the MAC address of a directly attached
network device on a particular interface
Explanation: The port speed LED indicates that the port  When packets are being dropped from a particular
speed mode is selected. When selected, the port LEDs will directly attached host
display colors with different meanings. If the LED is off, the  When an end device can reach local devices, but not
port is operating at 10 Mbps. If the LED is green, the port is remote devices
operating at 100 Mbps. If the LED is blinking green, the port
is operating at 1000 Mbps. Explanation: The show interfaces command is useful to
detect media errors, to see if packets are being sent and
17. What is a function of the switch boot loader? received, and to determine if any runts, giants, CRCs,
interface resets, or other errors have occurred. Problems
 To control how much RAM is available to the switch with reachability to a remote network would likely be caused
during the boot process by a misconfigured default gateway or other routing issue,
 To provide an environment to operate in when the not a switch issue. The show mac address-table command
switch operating system cannot be found shows the MAC address of a directly attached device.
 To provide security for the vulnerable state when the
switch is booting
19. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH  Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a
to connect to a network device for management router.
purposes?  The no shutdown command is required to place this
interface in an up state.
 Telnet does not provide authentication, whereas SSH
provides authentication. Explanation: The loopback interface is a logical interface
 Telnet sends a username and password in plain internal to the router and is automatically placed in an UP
text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and state, as long as the router is functioning. It is not assigned
password. to a physical port and can therefore never be connected to
 Telnet supports a host GUI, whereas SSH supports any other device. Multiple loopback interfaces can be
only a host CLI. enabled on a router.
 Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol, whereas
SSH uses TCP. 21. What two pieces of information are displayed in the
output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose
Explanation: SSH provides security for remote two.)
management connections to a network device. SSH does so
through encryption for session authentication (username and  Interface descriptions
password) as well as for data transmission. Telnet sends a  IPv4 addresses
username and password in plain text, which can be targeted  Layer 1 statuses
to obtain the username and password through data capture.  MAC addresses
Both Telnet and SSH use TCP, support authentication, and  Next-hop addresses
connect to hosts in CLI.  Speed and duplex settings

20. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface Explanation: The show ip interface brief command
on a Cisco IOS router? displays the IPv4 address of each interface, as well as the
operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer
 It is a logical interface internal to the router. 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and
 It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected duplex settings, use the show runningconfig
to other devices. interface command. Next-hop addresses are displayed in
the routing table with the show ip route command, and the least one interface will always be available. For example, it
MAC address of an interface can be seen with the show can be used for testing purposes, such as testing internal
interfaces command. routing processes, by emulating networks behind the router.

22. What type of cable would be used to connect a router 24. You are implementing remote access to the VTY
to a switch when neither supports the auto-MDIX feature? lines of a switch using SSH and the login local line vty
command. Which other command must be entered to
 Coaxial avoid being locked out of the switch?
 Crossover
 Rollover  enable secret password
 Straight-through  password password
 service-password encryption
Explanation: When connecting to switches without the  username username secret password
autoMDIX feature, straight-through cables must be used to
connect to devices such as servers, workstations, or routers. Explanation: When authenticating SSH users with the login
Crossover cables must be used to connect to other switches local command, a username and password pair must be
or repeaters. created and added to the local database. Otherwise,
authentication would never be successful.
23. Which statement regarding a loopback interface is
true?
 It is an internal virtual interface used for testing
purposes.
 It is used to loop back traffic to an interface.
 It must be enabled using the no shutdown command.
 Only one loopback interface can be created on a
device.

Explanation: The loopback interface is useful in testing and

managing a Cisco IOS device because it ensures that at
2.3.2 Module Quiz – Switching Concepts  learns the port assigned to a host by examining the
destination MAC address
Answers
Explanation: A switch builds a MAC address table of MAC
1. Which statement is true about broadcast and collision addresses and associated port numbers by examining the
domains? source MAC address found in inbound frames. To forward a
 The size of the collision domain can be reduced by frame onward, the switch examines the destination MAC
adding hubs to a network. address, looks in the MAC address for a port number
 Adding a switch to a network will increase the size associated with that destination MAC address, and sends it
of the broadcast domain. to the specific port. If the destination MAC address is not in
 Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports except
the collision domain. the inbound port that originated the frame.
 The more interfaces a router has the larger the
3. What is the significant difference between a hub and a
resulting broadcast domain. Layer 2 LAN switch?
Explanation: A switch that receives a broadcast frame will  A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides
forward the frame out all other interfaces, including broadcast domains.
interfaces that connect to other switches. These switches will  Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port
also perform the same forwarding action. By adding more of a switch is a broadcast domain.
switches to the network, the size of the broadcast domain  A switch creates many smaller collision domains,
increases. and a hub increases the size of a single collision
domain.
2. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?
 A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only
 forwards data based on logical addressing packets.
 determines which interface is used to forward a
frame based on the destination MAC address Explanation: Hubs operate only at the physical layer,
 duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every forwarding bits as wire signals out all ports, and extend the
port collision domain of a network. Switches forward frames at
the data link layer and each switch port is a separate  high port density
collision domain, and thus more, but smaller, collision  fast port speed
domains are created. Switches do not manage broadcast  fast internal switching
domains because broadcast frames are always forwarded  frame buffering
out all active ports.
Explanation: The large frame buffers on a switch hold the
4. What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an ingress traffic until such time that the slower egress port can
incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not transmit the data. This reduces the number of dropped
listed in the MAC address table? frames and alleviates network congestion.
 Send the frame to the default gateway address. 6. Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?
 Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the
frame.  broadcast
 Drop the frame.  large frame buffer
 Forward the frame out all ports except the port  store-and-forward
where the frame is received.  cut-through

Explanation: A LAN switch populates the MAC address Explanation: The store-and-forward method performs error
table based on source MAC addresses. When a switch checking on the frame using the frame-check sequence
receives an incoming frame with a destination MAC address (FCS) value before sending the frame. The FCS value is the
that is not listed in the MAC address table, the switch last field in the frame.
forwards the frame out all ports except for the ingress port of
the frame. When the destination device responds, the switch 7. What does the term “port density” represent for an
adds the source MAC address and the port on which it was Ethernet switch?
received to the MAC address table.  the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
 the number of available ports
5. Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network  the speed of each port
congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a  the numbers of hosts that are connected to each
1 Gbps port? switch port
Explanation: The term port density represents the number  Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the
of ports available in a switch. A one rack unit access switch bandwidth.
can have up to 48 ports. Larger switches may support  All modern NICS support both half-duplex and full-
hundreds of ports. duplex communication.

8. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC Explanation: Full-duplex communication allows both ends to
address table information current? transmit and receive simultaneously, offering 100 percent
efficiency in both directions for a 200 percent potential use of
 the source MAC address and the incoming port stated bandwidth. Half-duplex communication is
 the source and destination MAC addresses and the unidirectional, or one direction at a time. Gigabit Ethernet
incoming port and 10 Gb/s NICs require full duplex to operate, and do not
 the source and destination MAC addresses and the support half-duplex operation.
outgoing port
 the destination MAC address and the incoming port 10. Which type of address does a switch use to build the
 the source MAC address and the outgoing port MAC address table?
 the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
 source IP address
Explanation: To maintain the MAC address table, the switch  source MAC address
uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and  destination MAC address
the port that the packets enter. The destination address is  destination IP address
used to select the outgoing port.
Explanation: When a switch receives a frame with a source
9. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and MAC address that is not in the MAC address table, the
full-duplex communications? (Choose two.) switch will add that MAC address to the table and map that
address to a specific port. Switches do not use IP addressing
 Half duplex has only one channel. in the MAC address table.
 Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.
 Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and 11. Which option correctly describes a switching method?
receive simultaneously.
 cut-through: makes a forwarding decision after 13. What is the purpose of frame buffers on a switch?
receiving the entire frame
 cut-through: provides the flexibility to support any mix  They execute checksum values before transmission.
of Ethernet speeds  They provide temporary storage of the frame
 store-and-forward: forwards the frame immediately checksum.
after examining its destination MAC address  They hold traffic, thus alleviating network
 store-and-forward: ensures that the frame is free congestion.
of physical and data-link errors  They provide a basic security scan on received frames.

Explanation: Store-and-forward switching performs an error Explanation: Switches have large frame buffers that allow
check on an incoming frame after receiving the entire frame data waiting to be transmitted to be stored so the data will
on the ingress port. Switches which use this method have not be dropped. This feature is beneficial especially if the
the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds. The cut- incoming traffic is from a faster port than the egress port
through method begins the forwarding process after the used for transmitting.
destination MAC address of an incoming frame is looked up 14. Which network device can be used to eliminate
and the egress port has been determined. collisions on an Ethernet network?
12. Which network device can serve as a boundary to  hub
divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?  firewall
 router  switch
 Ethernet hub  router
 access point Explanation: A switch provides microsegmentation so that
 Ethernet bridge no other device competes for the same Ethernet network
Explanation: Layer 1 and 2 devices (LAN switch and bandwidth.
Ethernet hub) and access point devices do not filter MAC 15. What criteria is used by a Cisco LAN switch to
broadcast frames. Only a Layer 3 device, such as a router, decide how to forward Ethernet frames?
can divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain.
 Destination IP address 17. A switch has received a frame on an ingress port.
 Destination MAC address What will the switch do if the unicast destination MAC
 Egress port address is in the MAC address table?
 Path cost
 It will drop the frame.
Explanation: Cisco LAN switches use the MAC address  It will forward the frame out all ports.
table to make traffic forwarding decisions. The decisions are  It will forward the frame out all ports except the
based on the ingress port and the destination MAC address incoming port.
of the frame. The ingress port information is important  It will forward the frame out of the specified port in
because it carries the VLAN to which the port belongs. the MAC address table.

16. What are two reasons a network administrator would Explanation: If the destination MAC address is in the table,
segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) it will forward the frame out of the specified port.

 To create fewer collision domains 18. A switch has received a frame on an ingress port.
 To create more broadcast domains What will the switch do if the unicast destination MAC
 To eliminate virtual circuits address is not in the MAC address table?
 To enhance user bandwidth
 To isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the  It will drop the frame.
network  It will forward the frame out all ports.
 To isolate traffic between segments  It will forward the frame out all ports except the
incoming port.
Explanation: A switch has the ability to create temporary  It will forward the frame out of the specified port in the
point-to-point connections between the directly-attached MAC address table.
transmitting and receiving network devices.
The two devices have full-bandwidth, full-duplex connectivity Explanation: If the destination MAC address is not in the
during the transmission. Segmenting adds collision domains table, the switch will forward the frame out all ports except
to reduce collisions. the incoming port. This is called an unknown unicast.
19. A switch has received a frame on an ingress port. 21. Which statement about half-duplex and full-duplex
What will the switch do if the destination MAC address is communication is true?
a broadcast address?
 Gigabit Ethernet and 10 Gb/s NICs can operate in full-
 It will drop the frame. duplex or half-duplex.
 It will forward the frame out all ports.  Full-duplex communication is bidirectional.
 It will forward the frame out all ports except the  Half-duplex communication allows both ends to
incoming port. transmit and receive simultaneously.
 It will forward the frame out of the specified port in the  Half-duplex communication is unidirectional, or one
MAC address table. direction at a time.

Explanation: If the destination MAC address is a broadcast Explanation: Full-duplex communication allows both ends to
or a multicast, the frame is also flooded out all ports except transmit and receive simultaneously, offering 100 percent
the incoming port. efficiency in both directions for a 200 percent potential use of
stated bandwidth. Half-duplex communication is
20. Which switching method forwards the frame unidirectional, or one direction at a time. Gigabit Ethernet
immediately after examining the destination MAC and 10 Gbps NICs require full- duplex to operate and do not
address? support half-duplex operation.
 Broadcast
 Cut-though
 Large frame buffer
 Store-and-forward

Explanation: Cut-through switching has the ability to

perform rapid frame switching, which means the switch can
make a forwarding decision as soon as it has looked up the
destination MAC address of the frame in its MAC address
table.
3.6.4 Module Quiz – VLANs Answers 3. An administrator is investigating a failure on a trunk
link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another
1. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN vendor. After a few show commands, the administrator
10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the notices that the switches are not negotiating a trunk.
switch? What is a probable cause for this issue?

 The port creates the VLAN again.  Both switches are in nonegotiate mode.
 The port goes back to the default VLAN.  Switches from other vendors do not support DTP.
 The port automatically associates itself with the native  Both switches are in trunk mode.
VLAN.  DTP frames are flooding the entire network.
 The port becomes inactive.
Explanation: DTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. Non-Cisco
Explanation: If the VLAN that is associated with a port is switches do not support DTP.
deleted, the port becomes inactive and cannot communicate
with the network any more. To verify that a port is in an 4. What is the purpose of the [Link] file on a switch?
inactive state, use the show interfaces switchport command.  It holds the VLAN database.
 It holds the running configuration.
2. In which memory location are the VLAN
 It holds the operating system.
configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a
 It holds the saved configuration.
Catalyst switch?
 flash Explanation: The VLAN database ([Link]) contains
 ROM information about normal range VLANs such as the VLAN
 RAM number, name, and VTP mode.
 NVRAM 5. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN
Explanation: When a normal range VLAN is created the separate from data VLANs?
configuration information of the VLAN is stored in flash in the
[Link] file.
 A separate VLAN should be used to carry Explanation: A native VLAN is used to forward untagged
uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth frames that are received on a Cisco switch 802.1Q trunk port.
contention on data VLANS. Untagged frames that are received on a trunk port are not
 The security of management frames that are carried in forwarded to any other VLAN except the native VLAN.
the native VLAN can be enhanced.
 The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN mnanagement 7. A network administrator is determining the best
traffic only. placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of
 The native VLAN is for routers and switches to point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​
exchange their management information, so it should be (Choose two.)
different from data VLANS.  between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs
Explanation: When a Cisco switch trunk port receives  between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q
untagged frames (unusual in well-designed networks), it NIC
forwards these frames to the native VLAN. When the native  between a switch and a network printer
VLAN is moved away from data VLANs, those untagged  between two switches that share a common VLAN
frames will not compete for bandwidth in the data VLANs.  between a switch and a client PC
The native VLAN is not designed for carrying management Explanation: VLAN trunk links are used to allow all VLAN
traffic, but rather it is for backward compatibility with legacy traffic to propagate between devices such as the link
LAN scenarios. between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q-capable
6. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a NIC. Switches can also utilize trunk links to routers, servers,
802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched and to other switches.
to by default? 8. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs?
 management VLAN ID (Choose three.)
 data VLAN ID  security
 native VLAN ID  a reduction in the number of trunk links
 unused VLAN ID  cost reduction
 end user satisfaction
 improved IT staff efficiency Explanation: Normal range VLANs are stored in a file called
 no required configuration [Link] and located in the flash memory.

Explanation: Security, cost reduction, and improved IT staff 11. Which distinct type of VLAN is used by an
efficiency are all benefits of using VLANs, along with higher administrator to access and configure a switch?
performance, broadcast storm mitigation, and simpler project
and application management. End users are not usually  data VLAN
aware of VLANs, and VLANs do require configuration.  default VLAN
Because VLANs are assigned to access ports, they do not  native VLAN
reduce the number of trunk links.  management VLAN

9. On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN Explanation: A management VLAN is used to remotely
information stored? access and configure a switch. Data VLANs are used to
separate a network into groups of users or devices. The
 running configuration file default VLAN is the initial VLAN all switch ports are placed in
 NVRAM when loading the default configuration on a switch. The
 flash 802.1Q trunk port places untagged traffic on the native VLAN.
 startup configuration file
12. For what reason would a network administrator use
Explanation: Extended range VLANs, 1006 through 4094, the show interfaces trunk command on a switch?
are not written to the [Link] file but are saved in the
running configuration file.  to view the native VLAN
 to examine DTP negotiation as it occurs
10. In which location are the normal range VLANs stored  to display an IP address for any existing VLAN
on a Cisco switch by default?  to verify port association with a particular VLAN

 RAM Explanation: The show interfaces trunk command displays

 flash memory the ports that are trunk ports, the trunking mode, the
 startup-config encapsulation type, the trunk status, the native VLAN, and
 running-config the allowed VLANs on the link.
13. Where is the [Link] file stored on a switch? 15. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with
VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the
 in NVRAM effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30
 in flash memory command on Fa0/5?
 in RAM
 on the externally attached storage media or internal  It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on
hard drive Fa0/5.
 It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
Explanation: Normal range VLAN configurations are stored  It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
within a VLAN database file, called [Link], which is located  It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
in the flash memory of the switch.
Explanation: The switchport trunk allowed vlan 30
14. If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP command allows traffic that is tagged with VLAN 30 across
phones in its network, what design feature must be the trunk port. Any VLAN that is not specified in this
considered to ensure voice quality? command will not be allowed on this trunk port.
 Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN. 16. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN
 A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic. types? (Choose three).
 Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk
links between switches.  A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data
 Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP and user-generated traffic.
phones are required.  A management VLAN is any VLAN that is
configured to access management features of the
Explanation: A PC commonly connects to an IP phone and switch.
the IP phone, in turn, connects to a switch. The phone does  After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all
not require a separate port. Because voice traffic cannot ports are members of the default VLAN.
tolerate much packet delay, it needs to be in a separate  An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned,
VLAN. The voice VLAN can be configured to provide quality supports both tagged and untagged traffic.
of service (QoS), which will ensure that the voice traffic has a  Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and
higher priority than data traffic. email traffic on a network.
 VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN. Explanation: Cost reduction and improved IT staff efficiency
are all benefits of using VLANs, along with higher
Explanation: A management VLAN is a VLAN that is performance, broadcast storm mitigation, and simpler project
configured to manage features of the switch. By default, all and application management. End users are not usually
ports are members of the default VLAN. An 802.1Q trunk aware of VLANs, and VLANs do require configuration.
port supports both tagged and untagged traffic. Because VLANs are assigned to access ports, they do not
reduce the number of trunk links. VLANs increase security
17. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which by segmenting traffic.
traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?
 Data 19. Which command displays the encapsulation type,
 Default the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the
 Native Fa0/1 interface?
 Management  show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
 VLAN 1  show interfaces trunk
 show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
Explanation: A native VLAN is the VLAN that does not  show vlan brief
receive a VLAN tag in the IEEE 802.1Q frame header. Cisco
best practices recommend the use of an unused VLAN (not Explanation: The show interfaces switchport command
a data VLAN, the default VLAN of VLAN 1, or the displays the following information for a given port: Switchport,
management VLAN) as the native VLAN whenever possible. Administrative Mode, Operational Mode, Administrative
Trunking Encapsulation, Operational Trunking Encapsulation,
18. What are two primary benefits of using VLANs? Negotiation of Trunking, Access Mode VLAN, Trunking
(Choose two.) Native Mode VLAN, Administrative Native VLAN tagging,
 A reduction in the number of trunk links Voice VLAN.
 Cost reduction
 Improved IT staff efficiency 20. What must the network administrator do to remove
 No required configuration FastEthernet 0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
 Reduced security
 Enter the no shutdown interface config command on Explanation: To restore a Catalyst switch to its factory
Fa0/1. default condition, unplug all cables except the console and
 Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 global config power cable from the switch. Then enter the erase startup-
commands. config privileged EXEC mode command followed by
 Enter the switchport access vlan 3 interface config the delete [Link] command and reboot the switch.
command on Fa0/1.
 Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 interface 22. Which two characteristics match extended range
config command on Fa0/1. VLANs? (Choose two.)

Explanation: Entering the switchport access vlan  CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.
3 interface config command on Fa0/1 replaces the current  They are commonly used in small networks.
port VLAN assignment from VLAN 2 to VLAN 3.  They are saved in the running-config file by
default.
21. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support  VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise  VLANs are initialized from flash memory.
network. The network technician finds it necessary to
clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to Explanation: Extended range VLANs are stored in the
incorporate a new network design. What should the running-configuration file by default and must be saved after
technician do to accomplish this task? being configured. Extended VLANs use the VLAN IDs from
1006 to 4094.
 Delete the IP address that is assigned to the
management VLAN and reboot the switch. 23. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to
 Delete the startup configuration and the [Link] which they are assigned is deleted?
file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the  The ports are assigned to VLAN 1, the default VLAN.
switch.  The ports are disabled and must be re-enabled using
 Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch. the no shutdown command.
 Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.  The ports are placed in trunk mode.
 The ports stop communicating with the attached
devices.
Explanation: Any ports that are not moved to an active
VLAN cannot communicate with other hosts after the VLAN
is deleted. They must be assigned to an active VLAN or their
VLAN must be created.

24. You must configure a trunk link between a Cisco

Catalyst 2960 switch to another vendor Layer 2 switch.
Which two commands should be configured to enable
the trunk link? (Choose two.)
 switchport mode access
 switchport mode dynamic auto
 switchport mode dynamic desirable
 switchport mode trunk
 switchport nonegotiate

Explanation: To enable trunking from a Cisco switch to a

device that does not support DTP, use the switchport mode
trunk and switchport nonegotiate interface configuration
mode commands. This causes the interface to become a
trunk, but it will not generate DTP frames.
4.5.4 Module Quiz – Inter-VLAN Routing  configuring static routes on a Layer 2 switch device
 connecting a router interface to a switch port that is
Answers configured in trunk mode to route packets between
VLANs, with each VLAN assigned to a router
1. A PC is to access a web server on another network.
subinterface
Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest
 connecting each physical router interface to a different
bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway
physical switch port, with each switch port assigned to a
for the PC?
different VLAN
 multilayer switch with routing enabled
 router on a stick Explanation: Layer 2 switches are able to perform static
 trunked interface between the router and the switch routing, but this method is inefficient with a large number of
 multiple physical interfaces on the router, all VLANs. Multilayer switching is more scalable than any other
connected to a Layer 2 switch inter-VLAN routing implementation, with traffic being routed
internally to the switch device. In router-on-a-stick inter-
Explanation: A router-on-a-stick design is the same as VLAN routing, where a single physical interface routes traffic
having a trunked interface between the router and the switch. among multiple VLANs on a network, there is no practical
This design works, but does not scale well because all scalability. The legacy inter-VLAN routing is very inefficient
VLANs must traverse the one connection between the router and is no longer used in switched networks, because each
and the switch. Multiple physical interfaces on the router VLAN requires a physical router interface that is connected
would be faster than the router-on-a-stick design, but a to a different physical switch port.
router has a limited number of physical interfaces. Layer 3
switches with routing enabled have more Ethernet ports as 3. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-
well as the ability to route. stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP
address be assigned?
2. Which scalable method must be implemented in order
 to the subinterface
to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network
 to the interface
with more than 1000 VLANs?
 to the SVI
 routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device  to the VLAN
Explanation: The IP address and the encapsulation type  Multilayer switches are more expensive than
should be assigned to each router subinterface in a router- router-on-a-stick implementations.
on-a-stick inter-VLAN topology.  Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3
routing.
4. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom  Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement
network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is routing on a multilayer switch.
needed to enable communication between these two  Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for
VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing? Layer 3 routing.
 Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports Explanation: The main disadvantage of the multilayer
that are configured for one VLAN. switches is their higher cost. Because both routing and
 A router with at least two LAN interfaces should switching are done in hardware, multilayer switches are
be used. faster than router-on-a-stick.
 A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect
to the SVI on a switch. 6. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design
 A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?
needed to connect to a router.
 router on a stick
Explanation: With legacy inter-VLAN routing, different  routing for the management VLAN
physical router interfaces are connected to different physical  routing via a multilayer switch
switch ports. The switch ports that connect to the router are  legacy inter-VLAN routing
in access mode, each belonging to a different VLAN.
Switches can have ports that are assigned to different Explanation: The router-on-a-stick design always includes
VLANs, but communication between VLANs requires routing subinterfaces on a router. When a multilayer switch is used,
function from the router. multiple SVIs are created. When the number of VLANs
equals the number of ports on a router, or when the
5. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches management VLAN needs to be routed, any of the inter-
for inter-VLAN routing? VLAN design methods can be used.
7. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick 9. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer
inter-VLAN routing? switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport
command on an interface that is connected to another
 does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs switch. What is the purpose of this command?
 requires the use of more physical interfaces than
legacy inter-VLAN routing  to create a switched virtual interface
 requires the use of multiple router interfaces  to create a routed port for a single network
configured to operate as access links  to provide a static trunk link
 does not support VLAN-tagged packets  to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

Explanation: Router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing does not Explanation: When a Layer 2 interface on a multilayer
scale beyond 50 VLANs. The router can receive VLAN- switch is configured with the no switchport command, it
tagged packets and send VLAN-tagged packets to a becomes a routed port. A routed port is configured with an IP
destination. Router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing can utilize address for a specific subnet.
a single router interface as a trunk link to receive and
forward VLAN traffic and does not require multiple interfaces. 10. A network administrator enters the following
command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the
8. What is the meaning of the number 10 in the purpose of these commands?
encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface
command?​ Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/1
 the subinterface number
 the interface number
 the VLAN ID Switch(config-if)# no switchport
 the subnet number
 to enable the Gi0/1 port as a switch virtual interface
Explanation: The administrator can use the encapsulation  to enable the Gi0/1 port as a bridge virtual interface
command to specify the encapsulation type (IEEE 802.1Q or  to make the Gi0/1 port a routed port
ISL), the VLAN ID, and optionally the native VLAN.  to shut down the Gi0/1 port
Explanation: By default, the physical ports on a 3560 switch 13. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a
are Layer 2 interfaces. To make them routed ports, the multilayer switch?
interface command no switchport should be used. The other
options do not describe the purpose of this command.  Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.
 Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.
11. What operational mode should be used on a switch  Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.
port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-  Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.
VLAN routing?
Explanation: Multilayer switches can perform inter-VLAN
 dynamic auto routing by the use of internal VLAN interfaces. External
 trunk physical interfaces can receive traffic but are not necessary
 access for routing functions. When routing between VLANs, any
 dynamic desirable broadcast traffic that is received on a VLAN would remain on
ports that are members of that VLAN. Subinterfaces are not
Explanation: Routers do not support Dynamic Trunking usable for inter-VLAN routing on multilayer switches.
Protocol, and access mode is used to connect hosts.
14. What is required to perform router-on-a-stick inter-
12. Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter- VLAN routing?
VLAN routing method?
 a multilayer switch
 Subinterfaces have to be created.  a router that is configured with multiple
 A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is subinterfaces
created.  a router with multiple physical interfaces
 An SVI is needed for each VLAN.  a Layer 2 switch that is configured with multiple trunk
 The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI. ports
Explanation: In order to create SVI inter-VLAN routing on a Explanation: With router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, a
Layer 3 switch, the VLAN must exist in the database and the single physical router interface is used to route packets
SVI must be explicitly created. The only exception is VLAN1, between multiple VLANs if the interface is configured with
which is created by default. multiple subinterfaces. A separate subinterface is needed for
each VLAN that will be routed. Because the router is physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing
performing all routing functions, a multilayer switch is not network performance?
required.
 Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
15. An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-  Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
stick topology and concluded that the problem was  Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional
related to the configuration of VLANs on the router FastEthernet interfaces.
subinterfaces. Which two commands can the  Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a
administrator use in the router to identify the problem? FastEthernet interface on the router.
(Choose two.)
Explanation: Using legacy inter-VLAN routing to
 show ip interface interconnect four VLANs would require four separate
 show ip protocols physical interfaces. Therefore, the best router-based solution
 show controllers is to configure a router-on-a-stick.
 show running-config
 show vlan 17. What distinguishes traditional legacy inter-VLAN
routing from router-on-a-stick?
Explanation: The show ip interface and show
 Traditional routing is able to use only a single switch
running-config commands can be useful in
interface, whereas a router-on-a-stick can use multiple
troubleshooting routing issues like wrong VLAN IDs that are
switch interfaces.
assigned to subinterfaces. The show
 Traditional routing requires a routing protocol,
controllers and show ip protocols commands do whereas a router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly
not display any information about VLANs. The show connected networks.
vlan command is not useful to show information about the  Traditional routing uses one port per logical
router subinterfaces. network, whereas a router-on-a-stick uses
subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to
16. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs a single router port.
to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can  Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router
this be accomplished using the fewest number of and therefore requires STP, whereas router-on-a-stick
 does not provide multiple connections and therefore  The physical interface must have an IP address
eliminates the need for STP. configured.
 The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID
Explanation: Router-on-a-stick requires one interface number.
configured as subinterfaces for each VLAN.
Explanation: host must have a default gateway configured.
18. Subinterface G0/1.10 on R1 must be configured as Hosts on VLANs must have their default gateway configured
the default gateway for the VLAN 10 [Link]/24 on a router subinterface to provide inter-VLAN routing
network. Which command should be configured on the services.
subinterface to enable inter-VLAN routing for VLAN 10?
20. What are the steps that must be completed in order
 encapsulation dot1q 10 to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
 encapsulation vlan 10
 switchport mode access  Configure the physical interfaces on the router and
 switchport mode trunk enable a routing protocol.
 Create the VLANs on the router and define the port
Explanation: The subinterface must be assigned to VLAN membership assignments on the switch.
10 using the encapsulation dot1q 10 command.  Create the VLANs on the switch to include port
The encapsulation vlan 10 option is not a valid command membership assignment and enable a routing protocol
and the switchport mode options are switch configuration on the router.
commands.  Create the VLANs on the switch to include port
membership assignment and configure
19. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.
subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN
routing? Explanation: The switch port must be configured as a trunk,
 The IP address of each subinterface must be the and the VLANs on the switch must have users connected to
default gateway address for each VLAN subnet. them.
 The no shutdown command must be given on each 21. What two statements are true regarding the use of
subinterface. subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
 Fewer router Ethernet ports required than in 23. What are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-
traditional inter-VLAN routing stick inter-VLAN routing method in a large network?
 Less complex physical connection than in (Choose two.)
traditional inter-VLAN routing
 More switch ports required than in traditional inter-  A dedicated router is required.
VLAN routing  It does not scale well.
 Simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional  It requires multiple physical interfaces on a router.
inter-VLAN routing  It requires subinterfaces to be configured on the same
 Subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth subnets.
 Multiple SVIs are needed.
Explanation: Legacy (traditional) inter-VLAN routing would
require more ports, and the configuration can be more Explanation: The router-on-a-stick method requires one
complex than a router-on-a-stick solution. physical Ethernet router interface to route traffic between
multiple VLANs on a network. The router interface is
22. Which router-on-a-stick command and prompt on R1 configured using software-based virtual subinterfaces to
correctly encapsulates 802.1Q traffic for VLAN 20? identify routable VLANs. Modern, enterprise networks rarely
use router-on-a-stick because it does not scale easily to
 R1(config-if)# encapsulation 802.1q 20 meet requirements, and multiple subinterfaces may impact
 R1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 20 the traffic flow speed. In these very large networks, network
 R1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q 20 administrators use Layer 3 switches to configure inter-VLAN
 R1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 routing.
Explanation: The encapsulation 24. What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3
dot1q vlan_id [native] command configures the subinterface switch? (Choose two.)
to respond to 802.1Q encapsulated traffic from the
specified vlan-id. The native keyword option is only  It requires the switchport mode access interface
appended to set the native VLAN to something other than config command.
VLAN 1.  It requires the no switchport interface config
command.
 It requires the switchport access vlan vlan-id interface
config command.
 It supports trunking.

Explanation: A routed port is created on a Layer 3 switch by

disabling the switchport feature on a Layer 2 port using
the no switchport interface configuration command. Then
the interface can be configured with an IPv4 configuration to
connect to a router or another Layer 3 switch. Only Layer 2
ports can be assigned to a VLAN or support trunking.

25. What are two advantages of using a Layer 3 switch

with SVIs for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
 A router is not required.
 It switches packets faster than using the router-
on-a-stick method.
 SVIs can be bundled into EtherChannels.
 SVIs can be divided using subinterfaces.
 SVIs eliminate the need for a default gateway in the
hosts.

Explanation: Modern, enterprise networks rarely implement

inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick method.
Instead, they use faster Layer 3 switches because they use
hardware-based switching to achieve higher-packet
processing rates than routers. Layer 3 switches provide a
much more scalable method to provide inter-VLAN routing.
5.4.2 Module Quiz – STP Answers Explanation: After the election of a root bridge has occurred,
each switch will have to determine the best path to the root
1. Which port state will switch ports immediately bridge from its location. The path is determined by summing
transition to when configured for PortFast? the individual port costs along the path from each switch port
 forwarding to the root bridge.
 blocking
3. Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco
 listening
Catalyst switches?
 learning
 MST
Explanation: PortFast allows a switch port to bypass the  PVST+
listening and learning states and transition immediately to  Rapid PVST+
the forwarding state.  MSTP
2. After the election of the root bridge has been  RSTP
completed, how will switches find the best paths to the Explanation: Cisco switches running IOS 15.0 or later run
root bridge? PVST+ by default. Cisco Catalyst switches support PVST+,
 Each switch will analyze the port states of all Rapid PVST+, and MSTP. However, only one version can be
neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic active at any time.
to the root.
4. What value determines the root bridge when all
 Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs
switches connected by trunk links have default STP
to reach the root and use the path with the lowest
configurations?
cost.
 Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach  VLAN ID
the root and use the path with the fewest hops.  MAC address
 Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to  extended system ID
reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID  bridge priority
neighbors.
Explanation: When all switches are configured with the intended never to be used to connect to another switch?
same default bridge priority, the MAC address becomes the (Choose two.)
deciding factor for the election of the root bridge. All links on
the same VLAN will also have the same extended system ID  bridge ID
so this will not contribute to determine which switch is the  PortFast
root for that VLAN.  edge port
 extended system ID
5. During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol,  PVST+
all switches are rebooted by the network administrator.
What is the first step of the spanning-tree election Explanation: The RSTP edge port concept corresponds to
process? the PVST+ PortFast feature. An edge port connects to an
end station and assumes that the switch port does not
 All the switches send out BPDUs advertising connect to another switch. RSTP edge ports should
themselves as the root bridge. immediately transition to the forwarding state, thereby
 Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic. skipping the time-consuming 802.1D listening and learning
 Each switch determines what port to block to prevent port states. PVST+ is the default spanning-tree configuration
a loop from occurring. for a Cisco Catalyst switch. The bridge ID (BID) is used to
 Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will determine the root bridge on a network and includes the
not send BPDUs. bridge priority, the extended system ID, and the MAC
address.
Explanation: After a Cisco switch boots, it will send out
BPDUs containing its individual BID and the root ID for the 7. Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+?
network. By default, the initial root ID at bootup will be the ID (Choose three.)
of that individual switch. After a root bridge is elected, port
states and paths are chosen.  listening
 blocking
6. Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is  trunking
intended to have only end devices attached and  learning
 forwarding
 discarding
Explanation: The Rapid PVST+ port states are discarding, Explanation: The root port is the port with the lowest cost to
learning, and forwarding. reach the root bridge.

8. When PVST is running over a switched network, 10. Which two statements describe a switch port that is
which port state can participate in BPDU frame configured with PortFast? (Choose two.)
forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not
forward data frames?  The switch port immediately transitions from the
listening to the forwarding state.
 disabled  The switch port immediately transitions from
 forwarding blocking to the forwarding state.
 listening  The switch port sends DHCP requests before
 blocking transitioning to the forwarding state.
 The switch port immediately processes any BPDUs
Explanation: Ports in the blocking state are nondesignated before transitioning to the forwarding state.
ports and do not participate in frame forwarding. Ports in the  The switch port should never receive BPDUs.
listening state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding
according to received BPDU frames, but do not forward data Explanation: A port that is configured with PortFast will
frames. Ports in the forwarding state forward data frames immediately transition from blocking to the forwarding state.
and send and receive BPDU frames. Ports in the disabled PortFast should only be configured on switch ports that
state are administratively disabled. support end devices, so no BPDUs should ever be received
through a port that is configured with PortFast. Configuring a
9. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if port with PortFast supports DHCP because PortFast will
there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge? speed up the transition from blocking to forwarding. Without
 designated port PortFast, an end device may begin to issue DHCP requests
 alternate before the port has transitioned to the forwarding state.
 disabled port 11. What is one way to correct a spanning tree failure?
 root port
 Replace the cables on failed STP links.
 Manually remove redundant links in the switched  show spanning-tree
network.  show running-config
 Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.  show vlan
 Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.  show startup-config

Explanation: An action that can be taken when there is a Explanation: Of all the commands that are listed, only the
spanning tree failure in a Layer 2 network is to remove all correct option, show spanning-tree, displays STP root
redundant links in the failed segment of the network. This will bridge information.
eliminate the loops in the topology allowing for a
normalization of the traffic and CPU loads. The next step 14. What is an accurate description of redundancy?
would be to investigate the failure of STP on the redundant
 designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to
links and fix these issues prior to restoring these links.
ensure that all traffic uses the best path through the
12. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit internetwork
extended system ID of a BPDU?  configuring a router with a complete MAC address
database to ensure that all frames can be forwarded to
 port ID the correct destination
 MAC address  designing a network to use multiple paths
 IP address between switches to ensure there is no single point
 VLAN ID of failure
 configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that
Explanation: The BPDU has three fields; the bridge priority, all traffic forwarded through an interface is filtered
the extended system ID, and the MAC address. The
extended system ID contains 12 bits that identify the VLAN Explanation: Redundancy attempts to remove any single
ID. point of failure in a network by using multiple physically
cabled paths between switches in the network.
13. An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and
wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can 15. Which three components are combined to form a
be used to do this? bridge ID? (Choose three.)
 Bridge priority 17. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC
 Cost addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network?
 Extended system ID (Choose two.)
 IP address
 MAC address  Blocking
 Port ID  Disabled
 Forwarding
Explanation: The three components that are combined to  Learning
form a bridge ID are bridge priority, extended system ID, and  Listening
MAC address.
Explanation: Switches learn MAC addresses at the learning
16. What is an advantage of PVST+? and forwarding port states. They receive and process
BPDUs at the blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding
 PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through port states.
automatic selection of the root bridge.
 PVST+ optimizes performance on the network 18. What two features does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
through load sharing using multiple root bridges. provide to ensure proper network operations? (Choose
 PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to two.)
traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
 PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches  Implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
in the network.  Link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant
routes
Explanation: PVST+ results in optimum load balancing.  Redundant links between Layer 2 switches
However, this is accomplished by manually configuring  Removing single points of failure with multiple
switches to be elected as root bridges for different VLANs on Layer 2 switches
the network. The root bridges are not automatically selected.  Static default routes
Furthermore, having spanning tree instances for each VLAN
actually consumes more bandwidth, and it increases the Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is required to
CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. ensure correct network operation when designing a network
with multiple interconnected Layer 2 switches or using
redundant links to eliminate single points of failure between Explanation: STP allows redundant physical connections
Layer 2 switches. Routing is a Layer 3 function and does not between Layer 2 devices without creating Layer 2 loops by
relate to STP. VLANs do reduce the number of broadcast disabling ports that could create a loop.
domains but relate to Layer 3 subnets, not STP.
21. Which two statements regarding a PortFast enabled
19. Which PVST+ feature ensures that configured switch switch port are true? (Choose two.)
edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is
mistakenly connected to another switch?  The port immediately transitions from blocking to
forwarding state.
 BPDU guard  The port immediately transitions from listening to
 Extended system ID forwarding state.
 PortFast  The port immediately processes any BPDUs before
 PVST+ transitioning to the forwarding state.
 The port sends DHCP requests before transitioning to
Explanation: If switch access ports are configured as edge the forwarding state.
ports using PortFast, BPDUs should never be received on  The port should never receive BPDUs.
those ports. Cisco switches support a feature called BPDU
guard. When it is enabled, BPDU guard will put an edge port Explanation: PortFast-enabled ports immediately transition
in an error-disabled state if a BPDU is received by the port. from blocking to forwarding state. PortFast should be
This will prevent a Layer 2 loop occurring. enabled only on access ports connecting end devices. No
BPDUs should ever be received through a port that is
20. What is an advantage of using STP in a LAN? configured with PortFast.
 It combines multiple switch trunk links into a logical
port channel link to increase bandwidth.
 It decreases the size of the failure domain.
 It provides firewall services to protect the LAN.
 It temporarily disables redundant paths to stop
Layer 2 loops.