01-12-2024

7001CMD303034240006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A disc of mass M and radius R is reshaped in the form of ring of same mass but radius 2R. The
radius of gyration increased by a factor :

(1)
(2) 4
(3)
(4) 2

2) A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is
4/r2. What will be the momentum of the particle ?

(1) 2 m/r
(2)
(3)
(4) 4 m/r

3) A wheel of radius 1.5 m. is rotating at a constant angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2. Its initial

angular speed is rpm. What will be its angular speed at t = 2.0 sec ?

(1) 22 rad/sec
(2) 44 rad/sec
(3) 54 rad/sec
(4) None of these

4) A uniform bar AB of mass m and a ball of the same mass are released from rest from the same
horizontal position. The bar is hinged at end A. There is gravity downwards. What is the distance of
the point from point B that has the same magnitude of acceleration as the ball, immediately after
release?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc
and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1
(3)
(4)

6) Four spheres of diameter 2a and M are placed with their centers on the four corners of a square
of side b. Then the moment of inertia of the system about an axis along one of the side of the square
is :-

(1)
Ma2 + 2Mb2

(2)
Ma2 + 2Mb2

(3)
Ma2

(4)
Ma2 + 4Mb2

7) A particle of mass m moves along line PC with velocity v as shown. What is the angular
momentum of the particle about O ?

(1) mvL
(2) mvl
(3) mvr
(4) zero

8) A symmetrical lamina of mass M consists of a square shape with a semicircular section over each
of the edge of the square as shown. The moment of inertia of the lamina about an axis through the
center of mass and perpendicular to the plane is 1.6 Ma2. The moment of inertia about the tangent
AB in the plane of the lamina is :-
(1) 4.8 Ma2
(2) 2.6 Ma2
(3) 1.8 Ma2
(4) 7.2 Ma2

9) At the 25 cm. and 75 cm. marks of a light wooden meter scale, two masses of 3 kg. and 5 kg. are
placed respectively. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the 50 cm.

mark and perpendicular to the meter scale is :–

(1) 0.5 kg. m2

(2) 1 kg. m2
(3) 2 kg. m2
(4) 3 kg. m2

10) A flywheel rotates about an axis. Due to friction at the axis, it experiences an angular retardation
proportional to its angular velocity. If its angular velocity falls to half while it makes n rotations, how
many more rotations will it make before coming to rest?

(1) 2n
(2) n
(3) n/2
(4) n/3

11) A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates
through an angle θ1 in first one second and through an additional angle θ2 in the next three second.

The ratio is

(1) 4
(2) 15
(3) 8
(4) 3

12) A T-shaped object of uniform thickness & same material with dimensions shown in the figure, is
lying on a smooth floor. A force is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that the object has
only the translation motion without rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C :
(1)

(2) ℓ

(3)

(4)

13) A uniform horizontal circular platform of mass 200 kg is rotating at 10 rpm about a vertical axis
passing through its center. A boy of mass 50 kg is standing at its edge. If the boy moves to the
center of the platform, the frequency of rotation would become :-

(1) 7.5 rpm

(2) 12.5 rpm
(3) 15 rpm
(4) 20 rpm

14) A thin circular ring of mass M and radius 'r' is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through
its centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular velocity w
about the same axis. The final angular velocity of the combination of discs is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) If a ladder weighing 250 N is placed against a smooth vertical wall, the coefficent of friction
between it and the floor is 0.3, then what is the maximum force of friction available at the point of
contact between the ladder and the floor ?

(1) 75 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 25 N

17) A body will not be in equilibrium if :-

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(1) (ii, iii, iv)

(2) (i, ii)
(3) (iii, iv)
(4) (ii, iv)

18) Three parallel forces are acting on a rod at distances of 40 cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively
from one end of the rod (as shown in figure). Assuming no other forces, the rod under the influence

of these forces will :-

(1) be at rest
(2) exhibit rotational motion only
(3) exhibit translational motion
(4) exhibit combined rotational and translational motion

19) A triangular set square of angles 30º, 60º, 90º and of negligible mass is suspended freely from
the right angled corner and weights are hung at the two corners. If the hypotensuse of the set

square sets horizontally, then the ratio of the weights W1/W2 is

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3)
(4)

20) For an ideal level to be in mechanical equilibrium

(1) R = F1 + F2
(2) d1F1 = d2F2
(3) Both (1) and (2) are necessary conditions
(4) None of the above

21) One quarter section is cut from a uniform circular disk of radius R. This section has a mass M. It
is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of original

disk. Its moment of inertia about the Axis of rotation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Four identical rods each of mass m and length ℓ make a square frame in xy plane as shown in

figure. Calculate its moment of inertia about the x-axis :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mℓ2
(4) None of these

23) The moment of inertia of thin square plate ABCD of uniform thickness about an axis
passing through the centre O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is :-
(i) I1 + I2 (ii) I2 + I4 (iii) I1 + I3 (iv) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
Where I1, I2, I3 and I4 are respectively moment of inertia about axes 1,2,3 and 4 which are in the
plane of the plate :-

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (iii)

24) Find moment of inertia of system about diagonal of square :-

(1) 2mℓ2
(2) mℓ2

(3)

(4)

25) Two thin discs, each of mass M and radius r, are attached as shown in fig., to form a rigid body.
The rotational inertia of this body about an axis perpendicular to the plane of disc B passing through
its centre is :-

(1) 2Mr2
(2) 3Mr2
(3) 4Mr2
(4) 5Mr2

26) The uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 1.6 m is pivoted at its end and swings freely in the
vertical plane. Angular acceleration of rod just after the rod is released from rest in the horizontal

position as shown in figure is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged about a point as shown in the fig. Initially the
rod is kept horizontal by a massless string as shown. When string is cut the angular acceleration of
the rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

A uniform rod of mass m and length L is suspended with two massless strings as shown in the
figure. If the rod is at rest in a horizontal position the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2 is:
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 5
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 3

29) A uniform rod of 20 kg is hanging in a horizontal position with the help of two threads. It also
supports a 40 kg mass as shown in the figure. Find the tensions developed in thread A.

(1) 200 N
(2) 400 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 500 N

30) ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. and represent three forces acting
along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero then the magnitude of

is :-

(1)

(2) 2(F1 + F2)

(3) F1 + F2
(4) F1 – F2

31) The angular momentum of a projectile projected at an angle θ with the horizontal with speed
u about the point of projection when it is at the highest point of its trajectory is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from A0 to
4A0 in 4 seconds. The magnitude of this torque is :-

(1) 3A0/4
(2) A0
(3) 4A0
(4) 12A0

33) A pulley with a radius of 3.0 cm and a rotational inertia of 4.5 × 10–3 kg. m2 is suspended from
the ceiling A rope passes over it with a 2.0-kg block attached to one end and a 4.0-kg block attached
to the other. The rope does not slip on the pulley. When the speed of the heavier block is 2.0 m/s the
kinetic energy of the pulley is :-

(1) 0.15 J
(2) 0.30 J
(3) 1.0 J
(4) 10 J

34) A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm rotates about its axis with a angular speed 100
rad/sec . The angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis is :

(1) 40
(2) 400
(3) 20
(4) 200

35) A particle of mass is moving in east direction with velocity 2 m/s. Find angular momentum
of the particle about point P when it reaches at point Q. Point P is at 10 m South-East of point Q.

(1) 20 kg m2/s
(2) 40 kg m2/s
(3) 60 kg m2/s
(4) 10 kg m2/s

SECTION-B

1)

A charged oil drop of mass 'm' and charge q is suspended in air above another stationary charge Q.
Find the height 'h' from Q :-

(1)
h=

(2)
h=
(3)

(4) None of these

2) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at eqilibrium which of the

following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

3) Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating string.
The length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric charges +q on one end and +4q on
the other. Which of the following diagrams best show the resulting positions of spheres ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In showing fig. A and B, – q charge is balanced under influcence of electric & gravitation forces. If
– q is shifted up or down, then true statement about – q is:-

(1) In A, stable equilibrium & in B unstable equilibrium

(2) Both has stable equilibrium
(3) Both has unstable
(4) In A, unstable & in B, stable

5) Two identically charged balls of charge q & mass m each are suspended
from a common point 'S' by means of two massless strings of length l (each) one ball is supported by
vertical wall as shown in figure other string makes 'q' angle with vertical in equilibrium. Find tension
in this string :-

(1)
T=
(2) T = mg
(3) T = 2 mg

(4)
T=

6) Let ‘e’ be charge of an electron. Let point charges be present at vertices of a cube of side ‘a’ & let
‘F’ be magnitude of force between two electrons separated by distance ‘a’. Which of the following
cannot be the force exerted by any of the charge on any other charge present on vertices of the
cube.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

7) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force
that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

8) The magnitude of electric field strength E such that an electron placed in it would experience
force equal to its weight is given by :

(1) mge
(2) mg/e
(3) e/mg
(4) e2g/2m

9) A uniformly charged and infinitely long line having a linear charge density 'λ' is placed at a
normal distance y from a point O. Consider a sphere of radius R with O as centre and R > y. Electric
flux through the surface of the sphere is-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two positively charged particles each having charge Q are d distance apart. A third charge is
introduced in midway on the line joining the two. Find nature and magnitude of third charge, so that
the system is in equilibrium :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A charge Q is divided in two parts Q1 and Q2 and these charges are placed at a distance R. There
will be maximum repulsion between them when :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

Q1 = Q2 =
(4)

12) Consider the electric charges A, B, C shown in the figure below, where q is a positive number.
Which answer correctly describes the magnitude of the net force experienced by the charges ?

(1) FA > FB > FC

(2) FA > FC > FB
(3) FB > FA > FC
(4) FA = FB = FC

13) Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = –a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m

and charge is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y << a) along
the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is porportional to :-

(1) y
(2) –y

(3)

(4)
–

14) Two charged identical metal sphere repel each other with force F. Now they bring in contact

then separated by same distance. If new force between them is F then find ratio of initial charges
in two spheres :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) If in Millikan's oil drop experiment charges on drops are found to be 8µC, 12µC, 20µC, then
quanta of charge is :-

(1) 8µC
(2) 4µC
(3) 20µC
(4) 12µC

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following reactions is there a change in oxidation number of nitrogen atoms :

(1) 2NO2 → N2O4

+
(2) NH3 + H2O → NH4 + OH¯
(3) N2O5 + H2O → 2 HNO3
(4) None

2) Which reaction does not represent auto redox or disproportionation :

– – –
(1) Cl2 + 6OH → Cl + ClO3 + 3H2O
(2) 2H2O2 → H2O + O2
(3) 2Cu+ → 2Cu2+ + Cu
(4) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

3) Strongest reductant is :

4–
(1) P2O6
(2) H3PO4
–
(3) H2PO2
4–
(4) P2O7

4) Oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is :

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) +4

5) The oxidation number of H in KH, MgH2 and NaOH are respectively :-

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) +1, +1, +1
(3) +2, +11, –2
(4) –2, –3, –1

6) On the basis of structure the oxidation state of two Cl atoms in CaOCl2 respectively are :-

(1) –1 and +1
(2) +2 and –2
(3) –2 and +2
(4) –1 and +3

7) The incorrect order of decreasing oxidation number of S in compounds is :-

2
(1) H2S2O7 > Na2S4O6 > Na2S O3 > S8
(2) H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S
(3) SO3 > SO2 > S8 > H2S
(4) H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8

8) Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists :-

Code (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 1 2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which of the following is a redox reaction :-

2– + 2–
(1) 2CrO4 + 2H → Cr2O7 + H2O
(2) CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(3) 2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
2– – 2–
(4) Cr2O7 + 2OH → 2CrO4 + H2O
10) In the following reaction, As2S3 + H+ + NO3– —→ NO + H2O + AsO43– + SO42–, the equivalent
weight of As2S3 is related to its molecular weight by :-

(1) M/2
(2) M/4
(3) M/24
(4) M/28

11)

Which of the following is not correct about the reaction in

VO + Fe2O3 —→ FeO + V2O5

(1) Stoichiometric balanced form co-efficient of VO and Fe2O3 are 2 and 3 respectively
(2) V changes from +2 to +5 state
(3) Fe is reduced to +2 state
(4) V is reduced to +5 state

12) For the reaction

Br2 + 2NaOH —→ NaBrO3 + NaBr + H2O
the n-factor of Br2 is:-

(1) 11
(2) 28
(3) 61
(4) 5/3

13) HNO2 acts both as reductant and oxidant, while HNO3 acts only as oxidant. It is due to:

(1) Solubility ability

(2) Maximum oxidation number of N
(3) Minimum oxidation number of N
(4) Minimum number of valence electrons

14) Which relation is correct?

(1) Molar conductance = conductivity × concentration

(2)

(3)

(4) Conductance = specific conductivity × cell constant

15) In the equation Λ = sp. cond. × V, If V is the volume in cc containing 1 equivalent of the

electrolyte then V for a solution will be :

(1) 10 c.c.
(2) 100 c.c.
(3) 1000 c.c.
(4) 10,000 c.c.

16)

Column-I Column-II
Limiting molar
(a) (p)
conductance

(b) Molar conductance (Λm) (q)

(c) Specific conductance (κ) (r)

Degree of ionization of
(d) (s)
weak electrolyte

Which of the following option show correct matches

(1) (a – r), (b – p), (c – q), (d – s)
(2) (a – s), (b – p), (c – q), (d – r)
(3) (a – r), (b – s), (c – q), (d – p)
(4) (a – p), (b – s), (c – q), (d – r)

17) Relation between molar conductance and equivalent conductance :-

(1) Λm = Λeq × VF
(2) Λeq = Λm × VF
(3) Λeq × Λm = VF
(4) None of these

18) Which of the following statement is correct about following compounds :-

[Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 (yellow) and
[Co(NH3)5(–ONO)]Cl2 (red)

(1) They are linkage isomerism

(2) They are coordination isomers
(3) Both can show ionisation isomerism
(4) (1) & (3) both are correct

19) Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

(1) K2[PtCl6]
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]

20) Which of the following is true?

(1) will exist in cis and trans form
(2) is an optically active compound
(3) The brown ring complex
(4) All the above are true

21) The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Number of metal -metal bonds in [CO2(CO)8] will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

23) Which of the following solution is non-electrolyte ?

(1) CoCl2.6H2O
(2) CoCl3.3H2O
(3) CoCl3.5NH3.H2O
(4) CoCl3.6NH3

24) Electronic configuration of d6 system if :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral (Δ0) and tetrahedral (Δt) complexes is related to -

(1)

(2)

(3) (Δ0) = 2Δt

(4)

26) Which of the following is not an organo metallic compound?

(1) (C2H5)2Zn
(2) CH3B(OCH3)2
(3) B(OCH3)3
(4) Ni(CO)4

27) Which of the following ligand form 6 membered chelate ring :-

(1) dmg
(2) EDTA
(3) acac
(4) dipyridyl

28) Which complex form 2 mole AgCl by the reaction with excess AgNO3:-

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

29) The oxidation number of Co in the complex ion is :

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +6

30) Which of the following does not follow EAN rule?

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) [Mn(CO)5]

31) The most stable complex among the following is :-

(1) K3[Al(C2O4)3]
(2) [Pt(en)2]Cl2
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(4) K2[Ni(EDTA)]

32) Which of the following complex is homoleptic?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e) .

(1) only a and b

(2) only b, c and d
(3) only a, b and c
(4) only a, c and e

33) Which of the following is incorrect statement

+ +
(1) [Ag(NH3)2] is linear with sp hybridised Ag ion
2– 3– –
(2) NiCl4 , VO4 and MnO4 have tetrahedral geometry
2+ 2+ 2– 3
(3) [Cu(NH3)4] , [Pt(NH3)4] and [Ni(CN)4] have sp hybridisation of the metal ion
(4) All are correct

34) Among the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism ?

3+
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]
2+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]
2+
(4) [Zn(H2O)6]

35) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer with respect to hybridisation
using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II
(Complex) (Hybridisation)

(I) [PtCl4]–2 (p) dsp2 hybridisation

(II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3 hybridisation

(III) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (r) sp3d2 hybridisation

(IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (s) d2sp3 hybridisation

Codes:
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) q p r s

(2) p q s r

(3) p q r s

(4) q p s r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) When a concentrated solution of an electrolyte is diluted ?

(1) its specific conductance increases

(2) its equivalent conductance decreases
(3) its specific conductance decreases and equivalent conductance increases
(4) both specific and equivalent conductance increases

2) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and . Correct match is:

(1) I (NaCl), II (HCl), III (NH4OH)

(2) I (HCl), II (NaCl), III (NH4OH)
(3) I (NH4OH), II (NaCl), III (HCl)
(4) I (NH4OH), II (HCl), III (NaCl)

3) (NaCl) = 126.5 S cm2/eq.

(KCl) = 150.0 S cm2/eq.
(KBr) = 151.5 S cm2/eq.
(Br–) = 78 S cm2/eq., then calculate (Na+) :-

(1) 128 S cm2/eq

(2) 125 S cm2/eq
(3) 49 S cm2/eq
(4) 50 S cm2/eq

4) If the specific resistance of a solution of concentration C g eq L–1 is R, then its equivalent

conductance is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) Which conductance shows decreases in its value on increasing temperature of an electrolyte
solution ?

(1) Specific conductance

(2) Molar conductance
(3) Equivalent conductance
(4) None of the above

6) What is the molar conductivity of 0.1 M NaCl if it's conductivity is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) If resistivity of 0.8M KCl solution is .

Calculate molar conductivity of solution?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is

1.4 S m-1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of
0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol-1 is :

(1) 5 × 103
(2) 5 × 102
(3) 5 × 10-4
(4) 5 × 10-3

9) The magnetic moment of complexes given below are in the order :

(I) [Ni(CO)4] (II) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [CoF6]3–

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV > III > I > II
(4) IV > II > I > III

10)

Which of the following complex compound having configuration ?

(At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

 2+
(1) [Zn (NH3)6]
3+
(2) [Ti(NH3)6]
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

11) Which of the following complexes has lower Δ0 (splitting energy) than pairing energy :

3–
(1) [RhF6]
2+
(2) [Fe(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Co(OX)3]
3+
(4) [Ir(NH3)6]

12) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

3– 3+
(1) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are paramagnetic complexes.
3– 3+
(2) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are high spin complexes.
3– 3+
(3) [CoF6] is octahedral while [Co(NH3)6] has a pentagonal pyramid shape.
3– 3+
(4) [CoF6] is outer orbital complex while [Co(NH3)6] is inner orbital complex.

13) Assertion : Geometrical isomerism is not possible in tetrahedral complexes having two different
types of unidentate ligands coordinated with central metal ion
Reason :Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism because the relative positions of
the unidentate ligands attached to the central metal atom are the same with respect to each other.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

14) From the stability constant which one is strongest ligand?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(1) NH3
(2) CN–
(3) en
(4) H2O

15) Which complex can absorb visible light :-

(1) [Zn(NH3)6]SO4
(2) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]Cl3
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(4) All above

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following plant is dioecious ?

(1) China rose

(2) Date palm
(3) Coconut
(4) Maize

2)

Match the column-I with column-II and select the right option:-

Column-I Column-II

A Male gametophyte (i) Embryosac

Pollen
B Megasporangium (ii)
grain

C Megasporophyll (iii) Ovule

D Female gametophyte (iv) Pistil/carpel

A B C D (1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) ii iii iv i (4) ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Match column I with column II and select the correct option.

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)

4) How many plants in the list given below are polycarpic? Wheat, rice, maize, bamboo, mango,
apple. guava, lemon, orange

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

5) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

6) Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Main plant body of angiosperm is a gametophyte.
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot.
(iii) Nodes and Internodes are absent on thalamus. (iv) Wheat is an annual and monocarpic plant.

(1) i, iii
(2) Only ii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

7) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers, prevents :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

8) Which of the following statement for flower is wrong?

(1) Morphological and embryological marvels in angiosperms.

(2) Sites of sexual reproduction.
(3) Objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural value.
(4) Calyx and gynoecium are essential whorls.

9) Which one of the following hydrophyte shows entmophily ?

(1) Nymphaea
(2) Vallisnaria
(3) Hydrilla
(4) Zostera

10) Choose correct option with regarding above diagram:-

A-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Michelia B-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-

(1)
Papaver
A-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-Papaver B-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-
(2)
Michelia
A-Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium-Papaver B-Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium-
(3)
Michelia
A-Multicarpellary apocaspous gynoecium-Papaver B-Multicarpellary apocaspour gynoecium-
(4)
Michelia

11) Which part of the reproductive structure produces both enzyme & hormone

(1) Archesporium
(2) Middle layer
(3) Tapetum
(4) Endothecium

12) Select the odd one :

(1) Dicliny
(2) Dichogamy
(3) Heterostyly
(4) Bud pollination

13) If a typical angiosperm anther has 50 microspore mother cells in its each sporangium. Calculate
the total number of microspore tetrads, pollen grains and male gametes respectively produced by
the anther?

(1) 200, 400, 800

(2) 200, 800, 1600
(3) 800, 1600, 3200
(4) 400, 800, 1600

14) In geitonogamy pollen grains are transferred to:-

(1) Genetically different flower

(2) Genetically similar flower
(3) Stigma of another flower of a different plant
(4) Stigma of the same flower

15) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

16) In about 40% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3 celled stage, these 3 cells are:

(1) Vegetative cell, tube cell and generative cell.

(2) One generative cell and two tube cells.
(3) One vegetative cell and two male gametes.
(4) One generative cell and two male gametes.

17) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

18) Select the option which correctly depicts the functions of parts X and Y:-

X (Grana) Y (Stroma)

(a) Dark reaction Light reaction

(b) Light reaction Carbohydrate synthesis

(c) Light reaction Carbohydrate storage

(d) Carbohydrate synthesis Carbohydrate storage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
19) How many ATP are gained by complete oxidation of one molecule of Acetyl CoA :

(1) 15 ATP
(2) 12 ATP
(3) 24 ATP
(4) 30 ATP

20) In Kreb's cycle number of CO2, NADH2, FADH2 and ATP produced from one glucose molecule is:-

(1) 6 CO2, 8 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

(2) 6 CO2, 6 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
(3) 4 CO2, 6 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
(4) 4 CO2, 6 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP

21) What will be the RQ for the following equation.

(C51H98O6) + O2 → CO2 + H2O + Energy

(1) 0.9
(2) 1
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.7

22) Engelmann's experiment with Cladophora demonstrated that :-

(1) The full spectrum of sunlight is equally effective for photosynthesis

(2) Only red wavelengths are effective in causing photosynthesis
(3) Only blue wavelengths are effective
(4) Both blue and red wavelengths are more effective

23) Which of the following is not a natural occuring plant hormone?

(1) 2,4-D
(2) GA2
(3) Gibberellin
(4) I.A.A

24) Auxin is mainly produced by :-

(1) Apical root meristem

(2) Root cambium
(3) Apical shoot meristem
(4) Phloem in shoot tip

25) Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the
following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce
female flowers in the plants :-
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) ABA

26) Cells/tissues arising out of the same meristem have different structures at maturity, this
phenomenon in plants is called :-

(1) Open growth

(2) Open differentiation
(3) Indeterminate growth
(4) Determinate differentiation

27) The phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitorically during
plant tissue culture is called as :-

(1) Differentiation
(2) Dedifferentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) Secondary growth

28) Arithmetic growth is related to :-

rt
(1) Lt = L0e
rt
(2) Wt = W0e
(3) Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(4) L0 = Lte

29) Which of the following is correct about photorespiration?

(1) Wasteful process

(2) ATP is utilized
(3) Release of CO2
(4) All of these

30) During photorespiration

(1) RuBisCO binds with O2

(2) Phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate is formed
(3) Sugar is not synthesized
(4) All the above

31) Which of the following cycle shows oxaloacetic acid as the first stable product?

(1) Calvin cycle

(2) Hatch and Slack cycle
(3) C2 cycle
(4) None of these

32) Kranz type of anatomy is found in

(1) C2 plants
(2) C3 plants
(3) C4 plants
(4) CAM plants

33) 1 molecule of glucose on glycolysis produces

(1) 2 molecule of pyruvic acid

(2) 1 molecule of pyruvic acid
(3) 2 molecule of CO2
(4) 2 molecule of O2

34) Which one of the following generally acts an an antagonist to gibberellins?

(1) Ethylene
(2) ABA
(3) IAA
(4) Zeatin

35) During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) ABA
(4) Gibberellin

SECTION-B

1) Most common abiotic pollinating agent in plant is :-

(1) Anemophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Entomophily
(4) Zoophily
2) The above diagram is an enlarged view of transverse section of anther.
Identify A, B, C:

(1) A – Epidermis, B – Middle layers, C – Microspore mother cell.

(2) A – Endothecium, B – Tapetum, C – microspore mother cell.
(3) A – Endothecium, B – Microspore mother cell, C – Tapetum.
(4) A – Endothecium, B – Middle layers, C – Tapetum.

3) Which of the following is monocarpic plant :-

(1) Shisham
(2) Mango
(3) Pinus
(4) Bamboo

4) Assertion : Angiospermic male gametophyte is highly reduced.

Reason : It consists of only 3 cells.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) The two cells at which pollen grains are discharged are :-

(1) Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell

(2) Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
(3) Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
(4) Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

6) How many of the following are Krebs cycle compounds ? OAA, Malic acid, PEP, -ketoglutamic
acid, Fructose-1,6-Bis-P, succinyl CoA, 3-PGA, citric acid.

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

7) How many ATP molecules formed during complete oxidation of one molecule of fructose 1, 6
biphosphate in bacteria :-

(1) 20
(2) 38
(3) 40
(4) 80

8) Variegated leaf experiment proves that ........ is essential for photosynthesis :-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Soil

9) Apical dominance means :-

(1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by axillary buds

(2) Suppression of growth of axillary buds by the presence of apical bud.
(3) Stimulation of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud
(4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud.

10) Which of the following induces femaleness in plants?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Ethanol
(3) ABA
(4) Gibberellin

11) Bolting hormone is :-

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

12) How does pruning help in making the hedge dense

(1) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

(2) It releases wound hormones
(3) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
(4) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

13) ETS is present in

(1) Stroma
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(4) Outer membrane of mitochondria

14) 1 molecule of NADH gives rise to ________ molecules of ATP, while 1 molecule of FADH2 gives
_________ molecule of ATP

(1) 3, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 2, 2
(4) 3, 3

15) To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with

(1) IAA
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Ethylene

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Birds and mammals share one of the common feature

(1) Vivipary
(2) Pigmented skin
(3) Warm blooded
(4) Alimentary canal with some modification

2) Which of the following pairs of Animals non glandular skin ?

(1) Snake and Frog

(2) Chameleon and Turtle
(3) Frog and Pigeon
(4) Crocodile and Tiger

3) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilagenous, circulation is closed type, members are marine.
Identify the correct pair with respect to above characters.

(1) Hipocampus, Trygon

(2) Labeo, Petromyzon
(3) Myxine, Scoliodon
(4) Myxine, Exocoetus

4) Post anal tail is present in ?

(1) Ctenophores
(2) Chordates
(3) Cnidaria
(4) All of the above

5) Monocondylic skull is found in :-

(1) Mammals
(2) Amphibian
(3) Fish and Mammals
(4) Reptiles and Birds

6) Identify the organism and their respective classes correctly :-

(A) (B) (C)

Scoliodon Pristis Petromyzon

(1)
Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata Osteichthyes

Pristis Scoliodon Petromyzon

(2)
Osteichthyes Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata

Hippocampus Pristis Scoliodon

(3)
Osteichthyes Chondrichthyes Chondrichthyes

Scolidon Pristis Petromyzon

(4)
Chondrichthyes Chondrichthyes Cyclostomata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which statement is false ?

(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(2) In urochordata notochord extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life
(3) The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embyronic period
(4) Phylum chordata is divided into urochordata, cephalochordata and vertebrata.

8) 3-chambered heart is not present in :

(1) Bufo
(2) Rana
(3) Salamandra
(4) Clarias

9) What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo ?

(1) Oviparity
(2) Internal fertilization
(3) Toothless jaws
(4) Viviparity

10) Jawless fishes are included in :-

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Lung fishes

11) Select the right option :-

Animal Common name Class

1 Naja Viper Reptilia

2 Salamandra Salamander Reptilia

3 Crocodilus Crocodile Mammalia

4 Chelone Turtle Reptilia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match the following columns correctly :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) These possess electric organs (1) Trygon
(B) Animals of this class are poikilothermous (2) Cyclostomata
(C) These possess poison sting (3) Torpedo
(D) These migrate for spawning to freshwater (4) Chondrichthyes
(5) Petromyzon
(6) Exocoetus
(1) A-6 B-1 C-3 D-2
(2) A-1 B-4 C-6 D-5
(3) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-5
(4) A-3 B-4 C-3 D-2

13) Identify the correctly matched option:

(1) Frog - Two chambered heart
(2) Fish - Warm blooded animals
(3) Toad - Three chambered heart
(4) Hyla - Limbless amphibian

14)

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Protochordates - Branchiostoma
(B) Amniotes - Pteropus, Aptenodytes, Chelone, Elephas
(C) Cartilaginous Fishes - Scoliodon, Trygon, Sea horse

(D) Tunicates - Salpa, Doliolum, Ascidia

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) Only A and B

15) Which of the following animal is without mammary gland ?

(1) Pteropus
(2) Felis
(3) Elephas
(4) Neophron

16) Which of the following represents the correct combination?

Characteristics Class
6-15 Pairs gill slits, Endoparasites, Sucking and circular mouth, Closed circulatory
(1) Cyclostomata
system
Cartilagenous endoskeleton, Ventral mouth, Air bladder absent, External
(2) Chondrichthyes
fertilization
(3) All marine, Terminal mouth, Operculum present, Cold blooded Osteichthyes
(4) Scale-less body, Two pairs limbs, 3-chambered heart, External fertilization Amphibia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Read following statements and choose correct one from them :-

(1) All chordates are vertebrates but all vertebrates are not chordates
(2) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(3) Notochord is extended upto head to tail in Herdmania
(4) Amphibians are chordates and their life mostly depends on land for reproduction

18) Select the correct option in respect of characteristics of each group :-

 Cyclostomes Chondrichthyes Osteichthyes

Marine, Fresh
(i) Marine Marine
water

Sucking
(ii) Ventral mouth Terminal mouth
mouth

6-15 Pairs of
(iii) 5-7 Pairs of Gills 4 Pairs of Gills
Gills

Ctenoid/Ganoid
iv Placoid scales Cycloid Scales
scales
(1) (i), (ii) are correct
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(3) (ii), (iii) are correct
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

19)

Which of the following statement is/are not true ?

(A) In urochordata, notochord is present only in tail of larva
(B) In cephalochordata, notochord extend from head to tail region
(C) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata
(D) Only one class of living member, class cyclostomata represent the Agnatha

(1) C only
(2) A and D only
(3) C and D only
(4) A, B and D only

20) Cockroach is.................:-

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Ammonotelic
(3) Proteinotelic
(4) Uricotelic

21) On an average, female cockroach produce A oothecae with B mm; contain C eggs :-

A B C

(1) 9-10 3/8 14-16

(2) 9-10 8 14-16

(3) 13-14 6 5-6

(4) 14-16 3 9-10

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) A ring of A blind tubules called B is present at the junction of foregut and mid gut Which secrete
digestive juice. At junction of midgut and hind gut is present another ring of C filamentous D :-

A B C D

Malpighian Hepatic
1 6-8 100-150
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
2 100-150 6-8
tubules caecae

Malpighian
3 100-150 Hepatic caecae 6-8
tubules

Malpighian
4 6-8 Hepatic caecae 100-150
tubules
1
(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) In the following diagram, identify and label the structures A, B, C and D :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

(2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Mandible Labrum Labium

(4) Maxilla Labrum Mandible Labium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) The Forewings of Cockroach are also known as :

(1) Elytra
(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Both (1) and (3)

25) Identify the labelled structures A, B, C and D in the following diagram :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Seminal Phallic Ejaculatory

(1) Testis
vesicle gland duct

Phallic Seminal Ejaculatory

(2) Testis
gland vesicle duct

Ejaculatory Phallic Seminal

(3) Testis
duct gland vesicle

Phallic Seminal Ejaculatory

(4) Testis
gland vesicle duct
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Recognise the figure and find out the corect matching :-

(1) b-vestibulum, a-genital chamber,c-spermathecae, d-gonapophyses

(2) a-vestibulum, b-genital chamber, d-spermathecae, c-gonapophyses
(3) d-vestibulum, c-genital chamber, a-spermathecae, b-gonapophyses
(4) c-vestibulum, d-genital chamber, b-spermathecae, a-gonapophyses

27) In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by :-

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna

(2) 7th sternum, and 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th and 10th terga, and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum

28) Right auricle of frog contains ___(A)___ blood and it receives the blood from ___(B)___. Identify A
and B :

(1) A – Oxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

(2) A – Deoxygenated, B – Conus arteriosus
(3) A – Oxygenated, B – Truncus arteriosus
(4) A – Deoxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

29) Vocal sac are found in

(1) Male frog

(2) Female frog
(3) Tadpole larva
(4) Both 1 & 2

30) Assertion :– The head of cockroach shows great mobility in all directions.
Reason :– Cockroach is uricotelic.

(1) If both assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason is true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason is false.

31)

How many ova a mature female frog lays at a time ?

(1) 2000-3000
(2) 2500-3000
(3) 1000-2000
(4) 500-1000

32) Excretory waste of frog ?

(1) Urea
(2) Ammonia
(3) Uric acid
(4) Guanine

33) What is the membrane that joins sclerites in cockroach?

(1) Arthroidal membrane

(2) Arthropodal membrane
(3) Vesicular membrane
(4) Capillary membrane

34) How many animals belong to sub phylum urochordata ? Lamprey, Hippocampus, Salpa,
Lancelet, Ascidia, Saccoglossus

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6

35) Four chambered heart, homoiothermous, monocondylic skull, internal fertilisation are
feature associated with

(1) Amphibia (Salamander)

(2) Reptilia (Calotes)
(3) Aves (Psittacula)
(4) Mammalia (Canis)

SECTION-B

1) Choose the odd pair amongst the following :-

(1) Ornithorhynchus – Platypus

(2) Pteropus – Flying fox
(3) Neophron – Vulture
(4) Delphinus – Common dolphin

2) For the following figure which one is correct:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D is animal with 3 chambered Heart

(2) C is cold blooded animal in which fertilization is external
(3) A is marine and gills not covered with operculum
(4) B is oviparous with external fertilization

3) Examine the figures A,B,C and D. In which one of four options all the items A,B,C and D are

correct ?

A-Petromyzon, B-Scoliodon,
(1)
C-Pristis, D-Catla
A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(2)
C-Hippocampus, D-Catla
A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(3)
C-Hippocampus, D-Labeo
A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(4)
C-Hippocampus, D-Clarias

4)

How many animals in the list given below are birds.

Neophron , Macropus, Pteropus, Aptenodytes, Struthio, Psittacula, Delphinus, Columba, Canis,

Calotes
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

5) Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by both birds and mammals ?

(1) Ossified endoskeleton

(2) Breathing using lungs
(3) Viviparity
(4) Warm blooded nature

6) How many among following characteristics are common in between reptiles and birds ?
(a) Four-chambered heart.
(b) Homeothermous (warm-blooded).
(c) Dioecious and internal fertilisation.
(d) Ovipary and direct development.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

7) Four chambered heart is not found in :-

(1) Camelus
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Hemidactylus

8) Four chambered heart found in :-

(1) Camelus
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Crocodilus
(4) All of above

9) Choose correct option from the following :

(A) Aptenodytes – Pigeon
(B) Canis – Cat
(C) Delphinus – Common dolphin
(D) Neophron – Vulture

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

10)

Read the following statements carefully about frog :-

(A) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence of mucus.
(B) Body is divisible into head, trunk and tail.
(C) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs are present only in male frog.
(D) Frogs do not exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(E) The Indian bull frog, Rana tigrina is the common frog found in India.

Find out correct option :-

(1) only A, C, D are correct statements
(2) only B, C, D are incorrect statements
(3) only A, E are incorrect statements
(4) All are correct statements

11) How many digits are found in each forelimbs & hind limbs of frog respectively ?

(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4, 5

12) Alimentary canal of frog is short due to ?

(1) Carnivores nature

(2) Omnivores nature
(3) Herbivores nature
(4) Frugivores nature

13) Which term can't be used for frog ?

(1) Poikilothermic
(2) Amphibian
(3) Homoiothermic
(4) Camouflage

14) Total number of ganglia present in nervous system of cockroach ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 13

15) What external changes are visible after completion of moultings in nymphal stage of cockroach ?

(1) Anal cerci develop

(2) Mandibles develop
(3) Both forewing and hind wing develop
(4) Labium develop
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 1 1 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 4 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1 2 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 2 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 4 2 3 1 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 3 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 2 4 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Moment of inertia of the disc of mass M and radius R

⇒
And for the ring of same mass but radius 2R,
= M(2R)2
⇒ k2 = 2R

Thus,

2) ⇒ ⇒

so P = mv

3)

ωf = ωi + αt

= + [10 × (2)]
= 2 + 20 = 22 rad/s

4) mg = mL2α ∴ α = and ax = g ⇒ x=g∴x=

∴ distance from B =
6)

I1 = Ma2 = M.I. of sphere 1 about AB axis

I2 = Ma2 = M.I. of sphere 2 about AB axis

I3 = Ma2 + Mb2 = M.I. of sphere 3 about AB axis

I4 = Ma2 + Mb2 = M.I. of sphere 4 about AB axis

M.I of system about axis AB
Isystem = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4

= Ma2 + 2Mb2

12) For pure translationary motion of object, the force should act at the centre of mass.

16)
:N1 = 250 N
fmax = μN1 = 0.3 × 250 = 75 N

18) Σ = 0, Σ=0

19)

Taking torque about D.

W2(BD) = W1(AD)
21)

For complete disc with mass 4 M, moment of inertia about given axis

Hence, by symmetry for the given quarter of the disc

22)

24)
= mℓ2

26) Initial velocity of each point on the rod is zero so angular velocity of rod is zero.
Torque about O
τ=Iα

20g (0.8) =

⇒ 20g (0.8) =

⇒ = a = angular acceleration ⇒α=

31)
At heighest point v = u cos θ

34) L = Iω

=
= 40
35)

=20 kg m2/s

36)

For equilibrium - FE = qE = mg

41) For cube distance between two charges can be a, ,

so force can be
Here q1 = n1e, q2 = n2e & n1, n2 will be integer

and ,

F2 = (n1, n2)

so, denominator can't be 4

42)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

45)
For system to remain in equilibrium

⇒ q=
∵ Fq is attractive

46)
 For Fmax ⇒ ⇒

Q = 2x ⇒

So,

49)

F= ...(1)

= ...(2)

From eq(1) & (2) =

⇒ =

2x + +4=9

Let
2x2 – 5x + 2 = 0 ⇒ (x = 2, 1/2)

50)

HCF of 8µC, 12µC, 20µC is 4µC.

CHEMISTRY

62)
n1 = 2[5 – 0] = 10
n2 = 2[0 – (–1)] = 2

n=

79)

Refer Notes / Module

 82) Homoleptic complexes are the complexes, having all the ligands identical.
All the given complexes are homoleptic.

85) NCERT Pg # 254

(VBT Concept)

87)

Ionic molar conductivity of H+ is very high and NH4OH is a weak electrolyte.

88) = + –

97) sp3d2 and d2sp3.

98)

Ncert , Class12th , Part-I , [Link] , Edition-2023-2024.

BOTANY

101) NCERT XII (E) Pg # 11, II para

104) Mango, Apple, Guava, Lemon, Orange

105)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E), 25(H)

107)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11-12

110) NCERT Pg. # 25(E) & 26(H)

113) Allen module

A typical angiospermic anther is tetrasporangiate, thus 4 x 50MMC’s = 200
MMc’s ; 200MMc’s = 200 tetrads
200 tetrads = 200 X 4 microspores = 800 pollen grains (each pollen grain produces 2 male
gametes) ; 800 X 2 = 1600 male gametes

114) NCERT pg.# 28

 115)

NCERT, Pg. # 8

117) NCERT XII pg. 25, Figure 2.7

119) NCERT, Pg # 159

120) Ncert Page 232.

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 208

136) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

137) NCERT Pg. # 22(E) & 23(H)

140) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 03

ZOOLOGY

153) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56

156) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56

157) NCERT XIth Pg.#55

158) NCERT XIth Pg.#57

161) NCERT Pg.# 58

163) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 118

164)

Scoliodon, Trygon, Pristis, Carcharodon → Cartilaginous fishes.

Hippocampus (Sea horse), Katla → Bony fishes.

165) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 59-60

168)

NCERT Pg # 56, 57

169)

NCERT XI Pg. # 55

170) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

171) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114, 115

172) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

173) NCERT XII Pg. # 112, Figure 7.15(b).

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

175) NCERT XI Pg. # 115, Figure 7.18(a).

176)

NCERT Pg No. 115

177) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 112

178) Module Pg.# 159

179) NCERT Pg. # 116

181)

NCERT Pg No. # 120

182) NCERT Pg. # 82

183) NCERT Pg. # 116

184) NCERT Pg. # 55

187) NCERT Pg. # 57, 58, 59
fig.4.20(a), 4.21(b), 4.23(b), 4.22(b)

189) NCERT Pg.# 58, 59, 60

190)

Ncert page 49 and 50.

192) NCERT Pg. # 59

193)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 60

195) NCERT Pg.# 116,121

197) NCERT Pg. # 116

198) NCERT Pg. # 116

199) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114