22-04-2026

7101CMD303021260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A point object is palced 60 cm from pole of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm on the principal
axis. If object is shifted 1 mm towards the mirror along principal axis. Find the shift in image ?

(1)
mm

(2)
mm

(3)
mm

(4)
mm

2) Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a galvanometer coil retraces backwards as
shown in figure. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5° of the mirror. What is the

displacement of reflected spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m away ?

(1) 10.5 cm
(2) 18.31 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 3 cm

3) The focal length of a spherical mirror is :

(1) Maximum for red light

(2) Maximum for blue light
(3) Maximum for white light
(4) Same for all lights

4) Two plane mirrors are kept at an angle α. A light ray striking the two mirrors successively suffers
a deviation of 5π/6. The value of a is:-

(1) π/9

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Double-convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both
faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the focal length is
to be 20 cm ?

(1) ∞
(2) 5 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 22 cm

6) A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144 cm and an eye piece of focal length 6
cm. Find the magnifying power and separation between the objective and the eye piece :-

(1) +24, 148 cm

(2) –24, 150 cm
(3) 10, 138 cm
(4) 3, 75 cm

7) Total internal reflection occurs in waves, when wave enters :

(1) Glass from air

(2) Air from vaccum
(3) Water from air
(4) Air from water

8) A man runs towards stationary plane mirror at a speed of 15 m/s. What is the speed of his image
with respect to mirror :-

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 45 m/s

9)
Position of 5th image of given object in mirror M2 is :-
(1) 65 cm from mirror M2
(2) 145 cm from mirror M2
(3) 170 cm from mirror M2
(4) 135 cm from mirror M2

10) A thin prism P1 with angle 5° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.92 to produce dispersion without deviation.
The angle of prism P2 is: -

(1) 5.33°
(2) 4°
(3) 5°
(4) 2.9°

11) One face of a prism with a refractive angle of 30° is coated with silver. A ray incident on another
face at an angle of 45° is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face and retraces its path.
What is the refractive index of the prism ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance of the bubble
is 12 cm. When viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as 4
cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the refractive index of the ice cube is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In a compound microscope, the image formed by the objective lens is

(1) Real, inverted and magnified
(2) Real, erect and magnified
(3) Virtual, erect and magnified
(4) Virtual, inverted and magnified

14) Figure shows a plane mirror on which a light ray is incident. If the incident light ray is turned by
10° and the mirror by 20° as shown, find the angle turned by the reflected ray?

(1) 40° CW
(2) 30° CW
(3) 50° CW
(4) 30° ACW

15) A point source of light, S is placed at a distance L in front of the centre of plane mirror of width
d which is hanging vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the
mirror, at a distance 2L as shown [Link] distance over which the man can see the image of the

light source in the mirror is :

(1) 3d

(2)

(3) d
(4) 2d

16) A bird is flying at a height h above the water surface. Bird sees an object placed at a depth 2h
from water surface. If the refractive index of water is µ, then find the apparent distance of the object
as seen by the bird-

(1) 3h

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) Angle of a prism is 30° and its refractive index is and one of the surface is silvered. At what
angle of incidence, a ray should be incident on one surface so that after reflection from the silvered
surface, it retraces its path

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4)

18) A virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by

(1) Concave mirror

(2) Convex mirror
(3) Plane mirror
(4) None

19) The minimum distance between the object and its real image for concave mirror is

(1) ƒ
(2) 2ƒ
(3) 4ƒ
(4) Zero

20)

The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be :-

(1) 2.0 cm above P

(2) 1.5 cm above P
(3) 2.0 cm below P
(4) 1 cm above P

21) A bucket of total height 60 cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 1.5 and half with
another liquid of refractive index 2. The apparent depth of the bucket for an observer directly above
the bucket–

(1) 45 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 35 cm
(4) 40 cm

22) A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the bank of a lake. To what
height the image of the fish is raised.

(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 3.8 cm
(4) 3 cm

23) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself? (Focal

lengths of the lenses are as given in the figure).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) None of these

24) Non-paraxial ray parallel to principal axis incident at an angle 30° from normal, then focal length

for this ray will be :

(1) 3 cm

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Read the given statements carefully for the image of object O formed by two plane mirrors
inclined as shown, and state which statements are correct? (i) No. of
images formed will be 5.
(ii) No. of images formed will be 6.
(iii) Object and all the images will lie on circle.
(iv) Object and all the images will be equispaced.

(1) Only (i) is correct.

(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(3) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

26) For a prism, graph between angle of deviation (δ) and angle of incidence will be

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for

(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) Yellow
(4) Violet

28) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object

placed on its axis, the number of images formed are

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

29) Deviation of emergent ray is :-

(1) 120
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 90

30) Angle of prism is 30° and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence
60° on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered
surface. Refractive index of the material of prism is :-
(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) For concave mirror which of the statement is wrong:-

(1) Real object forms real image

(2) Real object form virtual image
(3) Virtual object forms real image
(4) Virtual object forms virtual image

32) A thin prism P1 with angle 4° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another this prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of prism P2 is

(1) 5.33°
(2) 4°
(3) 3°
(4) 2.6°

33) When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror, the image is formed at a
distance of 10 cm. If the object is moved with a speed of 9 ms–1 , the speed with which image moves
is

(1) 10 ms–1
(2) 1 ms–1
(3) 9 ms–1
(4) 0.9 ms–1

34) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cms and the final image is formed at
infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye piece are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) An object is at a distance of 0.5m in front of a plane mirror. Distance between the object and
image is

(1) 0.5 m
(2) 1m
(3) 0.25m
(4) 1.5m
36) The critical angle for total internal reflection depends on:

(1) Medium's density

(2) Refractive index
(3) Wavelength
(4) Incident angle

37) What is the characteristic of a virtual image?

(1) Inverted
(2) Real
(3) Magnified
(4) Cannot be captured on a screen

38) The phenomenon of total internal reflection occurs when:

(1) Light travels from denser to rarer medium

(2) Light travels from rarer to denser medium
(3) The angle of incidence is less than the critical angle
(4) None of these

39) If 4 cm and 2 cm be the sizes of the images respectively for the two positions of the lens in the
displacement method, then the size of the object given by :

(1) cm
(2) cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 8 cm

40) If the central position of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure.

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining position of the lens.

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright.
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing.
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens.

41) The speeds of light in two media I and II are 2.2 × 108 m/s and 2.4 × 108 m/s respectively. The
critical angle for light refracting from I to II medium will be :-

(1)
sin–1
(2)
sin–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

42) The radii of curvature of the two surface of a lens are 20 cm and 30 cm and the refractive index
of the material of the lens is 1.5. If the lens is concavo-convex, then the focal length of the lens is :

(1) 24 cm
(2) –24 cm
(3) –120 cm
(4) 120 cm

43) The velocity of light in a medium is half its velocity in air. If a ray of light emerges from such a
medium into air, the angle of incidence, at which it will be totally internally reflected, is

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

44) Which of the following can be correct image of object shown.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) An object approaches a convex mirror of focal length 25 cm with speed 20 m/s what will be
velocity of image when object is 25 cm from the mirror:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Calculate emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place:-

Given: , ,
log2 = 0.3)

(1) 1.05V
(2) 0.912V
(3) 1.19 V
(4) 2.05V

2) The emf of the cell, Zn|Zn2+ (0.01M)||Fe2+(0.001M)|Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 V then the value of
equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is :

(1) e0.32/0.0295
(2) 100.32/0.0295
(3) 100.26/0.0295
(4) 100.32/0.0591

3) Calculate of (at 298 K),

given that
(1) 1.1 V
(2) 1.8 V
(3) 2.7 V
(4) 3.5 V

4) The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if :

+
(1) P(H2) = 1 atm and [(H )] = 1M
+
(2) P(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 1M
+
(3) P(H2) = 2 atm and [H ] = 2M
+
(4) P(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 2M

5) Statement - 1 : The SRP of three metallic ions A, B, C are -0.3, -0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so
oxidizing power of ions is C > A > B.
Statement - 2 : Higher the SRP, higher the oxidizing power.

(1) If both the statements are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
(2) If both the statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1
(3) If statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) If statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

6) Consider the cell :

Pt|H2(P1 atm) | H+(x1M) || H+(x2M) |H2 (P2 atm) | Pt.
The cell reaction will be spontaneous if -

(1) P1 = P2 and x1 > x2

(2) P1 = P2 and x1 = x2
(3) x1 = x2 and P1 > P2
(4) x1 = x2 and P1 < P2

7) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt|H2(g,P1)|H+(aq.)(1M)||H+(aq.)(1M)|H2(g,P2)|Pt

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard emf of the cell is found to be
0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25°C will be :-

(1) 1 × 10–10
(2) 29.5 × 10–2
(3) 10
(4) 1 × 1010

9) The value of equilibrium constant Kc at 25°C for the reaction :-

0
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq.) Cu2+(aq.) + 2Ag(s) ; E cell = 0.46 V.

(1) 3.7 × 1015

(2) 1 × 1010
(3) 3.9 × 106
(4) 2 × 103

10)

Find the EMF of cell at 25°C

[Given : P1 = 600 mm, P2 = 420 mm, = 0.06, log 7 = 0.85]

(1) – 0.0045 V
(2) – 0.0 V
(3) + 0.0045V
(4) + 0.0015 V

11) The emf of the cell reaction

Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag at 298 K is :-

(1) 0.0059 V
(2) 0.059 V
(3) 5.9 V
(4) 0.59 V

12) The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 is :-

(1) 0.0V
(2) –0.059 V
(3) –0.591 V
(4) 0.591 V

13) Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell :

(a) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)
(b) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(c) emf of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(d) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (a)

14)

Standard reduction potential at 25ºC for Li+/Li, Ba2+ / Ba, Na+ / Na and Mg2+ / Mg are –3.05;

–2.90, –2.71 and –2.37 V respectively. Which one of the following is the strongest reducing agent ?
(1) Na
(2) Li
(3) Ba
(4) Mg

15) Which of the following is function of salt bridge ?

It completes the electrical circuit with electrons flowing from one electrode to other through
(1)
external wires and a flow of ions between the two compartments through salt bridge
(2) It prevents the accumulation of the ions
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

16) The direction of current in the Daniell cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is

(1) From Cu to Zn in the cell

(2) From Cu to Zn out side the cell
(3) From Zn to Cu outside the cell
(4) In any direction in the cell

17) A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cell potential and ΔrG are respectively:

(1) Positive and negative

(2) Negative, negative
(3) Zero, zero
(4) Positive, zero

18) For a cell given below :

,
The value of is :
(1) x + 2y
(2) 2x + y
(3) y - x
(4) y - 2x

19) Given:
The potential for the cell
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe, is:

(1) 0.339 V
(2) –0.339 V
(3) –0.26 V
(4) 0.26 V

20) Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K

(Given that at 298 K)

(1) 1.05 V
(2) 1.0385 V
(3) 1.385 V
(4) 0.9615 V

21) The standard electrode potential (Eo) for OCI-/CI- and Cl- /½ Cl2 respectively are 0.94 V and 1.36
V. The Eo value of OCI- / 1½ Cl2 will be:

(1) -2.20 V
(2) -0.42 V
(3) 0.52 V
(4) 1.04 V

22) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : In electrochemical cells, Gibbs energy of spontaneous redox reaction is converted
into electrical work.
Statement-II : Gibb’s energy can be calculated by using ΔG = –nFE & it is an intensive property.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

23) The standard reduction potential value of the metals A, B and C are 0.68, –2.50 and 0.50 V
respectively. The order of their reducing power is :
(1) A > B > C
(2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A
(4) B > C > A

24) The reduction potential values are given below:

Al3+ / Al = –1.67 volt, Mg2+ / Mg = –2.34 volt
Cu2+ / Cu = + 0.34 volt,I2 / 2I– = + 0.53 volt
Which one is the best reducing agent ?

(1) Al
(2) Mg
(3) Cu
(4) I2

25) Consider the following reduction processes :

Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn(s); E° = – 0.76 V
2+ –
Ca + 2e → Ca(s); E° = – 2.87 V
Mg2+ + 2e– → Mg(s); E° = – 2.36 V
Ni2+ + 2e– → Ni(s); E° = – 0.25 V
The reducing power of the metals increases in the order :

(1) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni

(2) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
(3) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca
(4) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni

26) Given :

Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Cr

27) If the for a given reaction has a positive value, then which of the following gives the correct
relationship for the values of ΔG° and Keq:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Pt |H2(1atm)|H+ (0.001M)||H+ (0.1M)|H2 (1atm)|Pt

what will be the value of Ecell for this cell

(1) 0.1182 V
(2) – 0.1182 V
(3) 0.0591 V
(4) – 0.0591 V

29) Given the standard electrode potentials,

K+/K = –2.93V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80V,
Hg2+/Hg = 0.79V
Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V, Cr3+/Cr = –0.74V
Arrange these metals in their correct order of reducing power.

(1) K > Cr > Hg > Ag > Mg

(2) K > Hg > Ag > Cr > Mg
(3) K > Mg > Cr > Hg > Ag
(4) K > Mg > Cr > Ag > Hg

30) Given :
(i) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, E° = 0.337 V
(ii) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° = 0.153 V
Electrode potential, E° for the reaction, Cu+ + e– → Cu, will be :-

(1) 0.38 V
(2) 0.52 V
(3) 0.90 V
(4) 0.30 V

31) Specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver hydroxide is k [Link]–1. Limiting ionic
conductivity of Ag+ and Br– are x & y respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in gm. litre–1 is :-
(AgBr = 188)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Parameter) (Unit)

(a) Cell constant (i) S cm2 mol–1

 (b) Molar conductivity (ii) Dimensionless

(c) Conductivity (iii) m–1

Degree of dissociation
(d) (iv) Ω–1 m–1
of electrolyte
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

33) The conductivity of 0.01 M solution is 10–4 Ω–1 cm–1. Find its molar conductance (in terms of Ω–1
cm2 mol–1) :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–2
(3) 102
(4) 10–1

34) Ionic conductance at infinite dilution of Al3+ and SO42– ions are 189 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and 160
ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 respectively. Limiting conductance of Al2 (SO4)3 in ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 will be :-

(1) 349
(2) 679
(3) 858
(4) 538

35) The resistance of 1 N solution of CH3COOH is 250 Ω, when measured in a cell of cell constant
1.15 cm–1. The equivalent conductivity will be

(1) 4.6 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

(2) 9.2 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1
(3) 18.4 Ω–1cm2eq–1
(4) 0.023 Ω–1cm2eq–1

36) Molar conductivity of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl at infinite dilutions are x1, x2 and x3, respectively.
Equivalent conductance of BaSO4 at infinite dilution will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 (x1 + x2 – 2x3)

(4)
37) The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is 25 × 10–6 while the equivalent conductivity of its
0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm2 eq–1. The equivalent conductivity of the electrolyte at infinite dilution
(in S cm2 eq–1 ) will be

(1) 39.2
(2) 78.4
(3) 392
(4) 196

38)

When its concentration is 0.1 M then pick the correct option :

(1)

(2)

(3)
Ka = 0.1

(4)

39) The molar conductivity of 0.02 M HCOOH is 40.4 S cm2 mol–1, If = 350 S cm2 mol–1 and
= 54 S cm2 mol–1 then dissociation constant of HCOOH is –

(1) 2.22 × 10–3

(2) 2.22 × 10–4
(3) 2.22 × 10–5
(4) 1.22 × 10–2

40) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : For strong electrolytes, increases slowly with dilution and can be represented by
the equation :
Statement-II : NaCl and MgSO4 have same value of constant "b" in above statement.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

41) Given below are two statements. Identify the correct choice from the following.
Statement I : Molar conductivity increases with decreases in concentration for weak electrolytes.
Statement II : Number of ions increases and number of ions per unit volume decreases due to
dilution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is correct but not the correct explanation of Statement-
(2)
I.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

42) Molar conductance of an electrolyte increase with dilution according to the equation:

Which of the following statements are true?

(A) This equation applies to both strong and weak electrolytes.
(B) Value of the constant A depends upon the nature of the solvent.
(C) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2 and MgSO4
(D) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2 and Mg(OH)2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

43) The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm–1 cm–1 and the resistance of
the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of cell constant is -

(1) 3.28 cm–1

(2) 1.26 cm–1
(3) 3.34 cm–1
(4) 1.34 cm–1

44) Limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH (i.e. ) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The resistance of conductivity cell containing 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 ohm. What
is the cell constant if the conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10–3 S cm–1

(1) 0.419 cm–1

(2) 0.219 cm–1
(3) 0.45 cm–1
(4) 0.75 cm–1

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is correct

Angiospermic flower shows an amazing range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end
(1)
products of sexual reproduction the fruits and seeds.
(2) Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
(3) All fertile flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(4) All of these

2)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

3) How many microspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 microspores in
Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80

4) Regarding to viability of pollen grains select out the odd one :-

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Cereals
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Solanaceae

5) The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. They extend ............... all through
the length of an anther and are packed with pollen grains.

(1) Transversely
(2) Longitudinally
(3) Horizontally
(4) Obliquely

6) The provided figure represents cross section of an

unripened anther, correctly identify the labelled structure?

A B C D
(1) Connective Endothecium Tapetum Epidermis
Sporogenous
(2) Vascular tissue Exodermis Epidermis
tissue
Sporogenous
(3) Connective Endothecium Epidermis
tissue
(4) Sporogenous tissue Endothecium Connective Exodermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a-nucleus, b-vacuoles, c-symmetric spindle, d-generative cell, e-vegetative cell

(2) b-nucleus, a-vacuoles, c-asymmetric spindle, e-generative cell, d-vegetative cell
(3) a-nucleus, b-vacuoles, c-symmetric spindle, e-generative cell, d-vegetative cell
(4) b-nucleus, a-vacuoles, c-asymmetric spindle, d-generative cell, e-vegetative cell

8) Which of the following disease is/are caused by pollen grain ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Malaria
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) Assertion : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

Reason : The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

10) Assertion : Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.
Reason : Each one is potential pollen or microspore mother cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Assertion : Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and
race horses.
Reason : Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

12) What is the function of Anther wall layer "Tapetum"

(1) Protects the anther

(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) ‘Nourishes the developing pollen grains
(4) Is inner to epidermis but outer to endothecium

13) Morphological and Embryological Marvels and Sites of Sexual Reproduction are found in

(1) Chine rose

(2) Dryopteris
(3) Funaria
(4) Both 1 & 2

14) What would be the ploidy of the cells of the microspore tetrad ?

(1) Diploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Tetraploid
(4) Triploid

15) _______ Came into India as a contaminant with _______.

(1) Carrot grass, Rice
(2) Oak, Cedar
(3) Antirrhinum, Sagebrush
(4) Parthenium, wheat

16) In some angiosperms when, pollen grain shed at 3 celled stage, it contains :-

(1) One vegetative cell and 2 generative cells

(2) One vegetative cell and 2 male gametes
(3) 3 male gametes
(4) One vegetative cell, one generative cell and one male gamete

17) Assertion(A): Angiospermic flowers perform the function of sexual reproduction.

Reason(R): The male and female reproductive structures are found in the flowers.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

18) Which is not true about sporopollenin ?

(1) The most resistant organic material

(2) It is secreted by tapetum.
(3) It forms exine of pollen grains.
(4) It is digested by strong acids and biocatalysts.

19) Science of cultivation, breeding and marketing of flowers is called :-

(1) Arboriculture
(2) Floriculture
(3) Tissue culture
(4) Anthology

20)

Stamen is equivalent to, which of the following structure

(1) Megasporophyll
(2) Antherozoit
(3) Antheridia
(4) Microsporophyll

21) Which of the following is correct about Parthenium (Carrot grass)?

(1) It causes chronic respiratory disorders
(2) It has become ubiquitous in occurence
(3) It causes pollen allergy
(4) All of the above

22) Which of the following statement is not correct :

(1) Anther is tetragonal

(2) Male gamete of angiosperms is non-motile
(3) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell
(4) Stamens are attached to petals or tepals from distal end of filament

23) The proximal part of filament of stamen is attached to -

(1) Thalamus or the petal

(2) Sepals or thalamus
(3) Pedicel or petiole
(4) Ovary or ovule

24) Complete the following flow chart

(1) (A) - Mitosis ; (B) Male gametophyte

(2) (A) - Meiosis ; (B) Generative cell
(3) (A) - Generative cell ; (B) Meiosis
(4) (A) - Mitosis ; (B) Meiosis

25) During the development of anther, the microsporangia develop further and become ....... :

(1) Megasporangia
(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Female gametophyte
(4) Pollen sacs

26) Diversity of structures of the inflorescences, flower and floral parts -

(1) Are responsible for making our garden beautiful

(2) Ensure self pollination
(3) Are adaptations to ensure formation of end products of sexual reproduction
(4) Ensure anemophily

27) Match the column-I with column-II :-

 Column-I Column-II

(A) Dithecous (i) Anther

(B) Pollen grain (ii) Male gametophytes

(C) Exine (iii) Outer layer

(D) Pollen allergy (iv) Parthenium

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

28)

(a) Exine (i) Large irregular nucleus

(b) Intine (ii) Sporopollenin absent

(c) Germ pore (iii) Sporopollenin

(d) Vegetative cell (iv) Pecto Cellulose

(v) 60% Angiosperm

Choose the correct match:-

(1) a-ii b-iv c-iii d-i
(2) a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i
(3) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(4) a-v b-ii c-iv d-iii

29) Below two statement are given :-

Statement-I :- Filament is the long and slender stalk.
Statement-II :- A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

30) Statement-I : Androecium representing the male reproductive organ and the gynoecium
represents the female reproductive organ.
Statement-II : Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers perform the function of protection and help
in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
31) A typical angiosperm anther is:

(1) Bilobed and dithecous

(2) Monolobed; Monothecous
(3) Monosporangiate
(4) Both 2 and 3

32) When the pollen grain is mature it contains :-

(1) The vegetative cell & generative cell

(2) Small vegetative cell & large gametic cell
(3) The vegetative cell & 2-male gametes
(4) The vegetative cell, generative cell & two male gametes

33) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1) –120°C
(2) –80°C
(3) –160°C
(4) –196°C

34)

In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near _______ in outline :-

(1) Tetragonal
(2) Circular
(3) Polygonal
(4) Tetrahedral

35) The microspores are formed from pollen mother cell by ___a___ and the male gametes are formed
from generative cell by ___b___ :-

(1) a = Endomitosis, b = Free nuclear division.

(2) a = Reduction division, b = Mitosis.
(3) a = Mitosis, b = Meiosis.
(4) a = Equational division, b = Endomitosis.

36) Which statement is true for angiosperms ?

(1) Microspore is the resultant of mitotic division.

(2) Microspore is the 1st cell of gametophytic generation.
(3) Microspore is the resultant of double fertilization
(4) Microspore is the 1st cell of endosperm.

37) How the tapetal cells, which form the innermost wall layer of microsporongium, could become
bi-nucleate?
(1) By undergoing meiosis
(2) Through mitosis
(3) By Endomitosis
(4) Cytokinesis

38) Statement I : The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) by
meiosis is called microsporogenesis.
Statement II : The pollen grains represents the male gametophyte.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

39) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Pollen allergy a Tablets and syrups

(ii) Pollen products b 30 minutes in Rice

(iii) Pollen viability c Parthenium

Future crop
(iv) Pollen Bank d
breeding programmes.
(1) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b, (iv) - d
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - c, (iv) - a
(3) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - b
(4) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) - b

40) Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Epidermis of anther: 2n

(2) Generative cell of pollen grain: n
(3) Middle layer: 2n
(4) All of the above

41) Identify the structure A, B, C and D in the figure given below and choose the correct option :-

A B C D
 Pollen Pollen
1 Suture Filament
grains chamber

Pollen Pollen Line of

2 Stalk
sacs grains dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line of

3 Stalk
grains sacs dehiscence

Pollen
4 Megasporangia Suture Filament
grains
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) In the above figure the tapetum is shown by which symbol?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

43)

The four microspores of tetrad are joined by–

(1) Starch
(2) Callose
(3) Lipid
(4) Protein

44) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Pollen tablets used as food supplements.

(2) Stored pollen can be used as pollen banks.
(3) Sporopollenin is secreted by Tapetum.
In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 second of their
(4)
release.

45)

What is pollen grain?

(1) Microspore mother cell
(2) Male gamete
(3) Male gametophyte
(4) Partially developed embryo

46) Temporary storage and functional maturation of sperms take place in :-

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Epididymis
(3) Ampulla
(4) Seminal vesicle

47) Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called
interstitial spaces.
Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the Sertoli cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

48) It is a diagrammatic view of male reproductive system. Choose the correct option about A, B, C

and D :-

A B C D

(1) Vasa efferentia Vas deferens Prostate Foreskin

Vasa Seminal Glans

(2) Epididymis
efferentia vesicle penis

Bulbourethral Glans
(3) Rete testis Ureter
gland penis

Bulbourethral
(4) Epididymis Vas deferens Foreskin
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Which is incorrectly matched pair among these?

(1) Labia majora – 1 pair
(2) Labia minora – 1 pair
(3) Clitoris – 1 pair
(4) Bartholin gland – 1 pair

50) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

(i) Leydig cell (a) Provide nutrition to germ cell

(ii) Seminal vesicle (b) Secret androgen

(iii) Bulbourethral gland (c) Secret fructose

(iv) Sertoli cell (d) Release lubricants

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

51) Statement-I: The testes are situated outside the Abdominal cavity in scrotum.
Statement-II: The Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of testes lower than
atmospheric temperature.

(1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is correct.
(3) Both the statements are correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

52) What is the correct sequence of different parts of fallopian tube while moving from ovary to
uterus?

(1) Infundibulum → Isthmus → Ampulla

(2) Infundibulum → Ampulla → Isthmus
(3) Ampulla → Infundibulum → Isthmus
(4) Isthmus → Ampulla → Infundibulum

53) Select the correct sequence of transport of milk in mammary gland of females :-

(1) Lumen → Alveoli → Mammary duct → Mammary tubules → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple
(2) Alveoli → Lumen → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple
(3) Mammary duct → Lumen → alveoli → Mammary tubules → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple
(4) Alveoli → Lumen → Mammary duct → Mammary tubules → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

54) How many primary spermatocytes are required for the production of 100 mature sperms?

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 75

55) The number of chromosomes in a mature gamete gets halved during

(1) Meiosis II
(2) Formation of first polar body
(3) Formation of second polar body
(4) Division of secondary oocyte and secondary spermatocyte

56)

How many of the following are not the female accessory ducts in female reproductive system?
1. Oviducts
2. Urethra
3. Uterus
4. Vagina
5. Ovaries

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

57) Arrange the following male sex accessory ducts in the correct sequence for the transport of
sperms from the testes.
(a) Epididymis
(b) Ejaculatory duct
(c) Vasa efferentia
(d) Rete testis
(e) Vas deferens
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)

(2) (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)
(3) (d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)

58) Assertion: Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.

Reason: Increased secretion of GnRH from hypothalamus initiates spermatogenesis at puberty.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct Explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.

59) Assertion :- The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projection called fimbriae.
Reason :- Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum after ovulation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60)

Sperms are synonymous with

(1) Spermatid
(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatozoa

61)

Majority of mammalian spermatozoa acquire capacitation in

(1) epididymis
(2) seminal vesicle
(3) female reproductive tract
(4) female reproductive tract/epididymis

62) Each testis is attached to the dorsal body wall of abdominal cavity through a cord termed as

(1) Inguinal canal

(2) Spermatic cord
(3) Mesorchium
(4) Gubernaculum

63) Which of the following is a set of haploid cells?

(1) Spermatogonia, Oogonia, Sperm, Primary oocyte

(2) Ovum, Sperms, Primary oocyte, Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary Oocyte, Second polar body, Spermatid, First polar body
(4) Primary oocyte, First polar body, sperm, ovum

64) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of testes, approximately ................ lower
than the normal internal body temperature. Fill in the blanks with correct option:

(1) 2 – 2.5 ºC
(2) 5 – 6 ºC
(3) 0 – 1 ºC
(4) 10 – 12 ºC
65) In the given figure identify the parts labelling as A,B,C and D and select correct option :-

A B C D

(1) Cervix Infundibulum Isthmus Fundus

(2) Ovary Ampulla Isthmus Fimbriae

(3) Ovary Infundibulum Ampulla Fundus

(4) Cervix Isthmus Ampulla Fimbriae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Match the following and choose the correct answer :-

(A) Implantation (i) Vagina
(B) Capacitation (ii) Ovary
(C) Folliculogenesis (iii) Uterus
(D) Fertilisation (iv) Fallopian tube

(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

67) Match List-I with List-II relating to human female external genitalia :

List-I List-II
(Structures) (Features)

A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the

A. Mons pubis I.
vaginal opening

B. Clitoris II. Fatty cushion of tissue covered by skin and hair

C. Hymen III. Tiny finger – like structure above labia minora

A thin membrane-like structure partially

D. Labia majora IV.
covering vaginal opening
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

68) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

69) Statement-I : Formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.
Statement-II : Each testicular lobule contains 1-3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
sperms are produced.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Both statemen-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct

70)

Correctly matched pairs are :-

(a) Clitoris – Erectile body in female homologous to penis of man
(b) Colostrum – Secretion of preputial gland
(c) Areola – Pigmented circular area around the nipple

(d) Oxytocin – Milk synthesising hormone

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, c and d

71) Read the following points carefully and find out structure related to it.
(i) Oval in shape
(ii) 4 to 5 cm length
(iii) 2 to 3 cm width
(iv) Covered by dense covering

(1) Scrotum
(2) Testis
(3) Prostate
(4) Seminiferous tubule

72) Seminal vesicles secrete substances to:

(a) Nourish sperms
(b) Help in coagulation of semen
(c) Help in liquification of semen
(d) Kill pathogens in Urethra

(1) (a), (b) and (c) correct.

(2) Only (b) and (c) correct.
(3) Only (a) and (b) correct.
(4) (b), (c) and (d) correct.

73) Which of the following chemicals is responsible for concentration of testosterone inside the
seminiferous tubules ?

(1) ICSH
(2) ABP
(3) Inhibin
(4) Androgens

74) After spermiogenesis sperm's head become embedded in :-

(1) Germinal epithelium

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Leydig cells

75) How many sperms and ova are formed from 50 primary spermatocytes and 50 primary oocytes ?

(1) 200 sperms and 50 ova

(2) 200 ova and 50 sperms
(3) 50 sperms and 50 ova
(4) 100 sperms and 200 ova

76) Orchidectomy surgery (both testes) is performed in a 60 yr. old male due to suspection of cancer
and after one yr. of surgery that person was analysed for hormonal level. What would be the
hormonal level of that person ?

(1) Androgens ↓ GnRH ↓ FSH ↓ LH ↓

(2) Testosterone ↑ GnRH ↑ FSH ↑ LH ↑
(3) Testosterone ↑ GnRH ↓ FSH ↓ LH ↓
(4) Testosterone ↓ GnRH ↑ FSH ↑ LH ↑

77) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ...... million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility, at
least ............. percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

78) How many of the following structures in the given list may contain (22 + x) chromosomes ?

Spermatozoa, secondary oocyte, spermatogonia,

secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte,
spermatid, polar body, primary oocyte, oogonia
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

79) Which statement is not correct for both testes and ovary :

(1) Both are primary sex organs.

(2) Both are developed from mesoderm.
(3) Both are developed in abdominal cavity in Intrauterine life.
(4) At the time of birth both descend down into extra abdominal space.

80) Assertion (A) Ovum retains most of the contents of the primary oocyte and is much larger than a
spermatozoon.
Reason (R) Ovum needs energy to go about in search of a spermatozoon for fertilisation.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

81) During sexual arousal (erection of penis) ---- impulses cause vasodilation of the arterioles of the
penis.

(1) Sympathetic
(2) Parasympathetic
(3) Somatic
(4) CNS

82) Which of the followng unpaired accessory sex gland is chestnut shaped in structure and provides
Ca+2 ions to semen?

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Bartholin's gland
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Cowper's gland
83) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
Then, Androgens stimulate the process of spermiogenesis.
Statement 2: Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the
secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone which is a pituitary hormone.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

84) How many structures have secretion that is essential for maturation & motility of sperm :-
Fallopian tube, vas deferens, urethra, epididymis, bartholin gland, seminal vesicle, prostate gland,
ovary and follicle.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

85) Spermiogenesis is a process in which :-

(1) Spermatogonia produce spermatids

(2) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa
(3) Dormant spermatozoa become active just before ejaculation
(4) Spermatids are changed into spermatozoa

86)

Vas deferens arises from :-

(1) Cauda epididymis

(2) Caput epididymis
(3) Corpus epididymis
(4) Rete testis

87) Read the following statements and select :-

(a) It is a paired structure
(b) It is present on the lateral side of the male urethra
(c) It helps in lubricating the penis
In the above statements “It” refers to:-

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Bartholin gland
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Prostate
88) If an adult human female took a drug that inhibited the release of LH, which of the following
would not occur?

(1) The menstrual cycle

(2) Release of a secondary oocyte from a mature follicle
(3) Secretion of FSH from the pituitary
(4) Secretion of oestrogen by the follicle cells

89) Identify the correct match from columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Sertoli cells (a) Epididymis (i) Androgens

(2) Leydig cells (b) Scrotum (ii) AMH

Temperature regulation
(3) Dartos muscles (c) Testis (iii)
of scrotum

Circular Seminiferous Help in pulsation

(4) (d) (iv)
muscles tubule movement
(1) 2 – a – iii, 1 – c – iv, 3 – b – i, 4 – d – ii
(2) 1 – c – iv, 2 – d – iii, 3 – b – i, 4 – a – ii
(3) 1 – d – ii, 2 – c – i, 3 – b – iii, 4 – a – iv
(4) 3 – b – iv, 4 – a – ii, 2 – d – i, 1 – c – iii

90) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly.

(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty

(1)
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Childhood
(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
(2)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(3)
(C) Puberty (D) Childhood (E) Foetal life
(A) Birth (B) Childhood (C) Foetal life
(4)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 3 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Differentiating, we get dv =

[∵ du = 1 mm; sign of du is +ve because it is shifted in +ve direction defined by sign

convention]

2)
If mirror rotated by θ, then reflected ray rotates by 2θ = 2×3.5 = 7°
for θ small
θ ≈ tan θ

d= =18.31 cm

3) Same for all lights

4) 360°–2α =

α=

5)
6) M.P. = –
M.P. = –24
Length of the tube = ƒ0 + ƒe
⇒ L = 144 + 6 = 150 cm

7) Air from water

8) 15 m/s

9)
145cm from mirror M2

10) Given –
Α = 5° & m = 1.54 for prism P1
μ' = 1.92 & A' = ? for prism P2
for dispersion without deviation
(μ – 1) A + (μ' – 1) A' = 0
⇒ (1.54 – 1) × 5° = –(1.92 – 1) A'
⇒ A' = –2.9°

11)

Given A = 30°, i1 = 45° and r2 = 0

Since, r1 + r2 = A
∴ r1 = A = 30°
Now refractive index of the prism,
 µ=

12)

Refractive index,
When viewed from one side

...(i)
When viewed from other side

...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

⇒ ⇒ ⇒

⇒ ⇒ x = 18 cm

∴ (using (i))

13) Concept:
Image formation in a compound microscope, objective lens.

Calculation:
The objective lens of a compound microscope forms a real, inverted, and magnified image of
the object. This image then acts as the object for the eyepiece.

Final Answer: option 1

14) 30° CW.

15)

Answer : 3d

16) Apparent depth =

17)
A = r + 0 ⇒ r = 30°
From Snell's law at surface AB

18) Concave mirror

19) Question Explanation:

find the minimum distance between real object and its image for concave mirror.

Concept :
This question based on mirror formula.

Formula :

u = 2f ,

Solution :

Both object and image are at some point

|V| – |μ| = 0

Hence,
Option (4) is correct. Zero

Level : Easy

20)

1 cm above P

21)

22)
 3 cm

23) 10 cm10 cm10 cm

24) Correct answer is B

25) Correct answer is C

26)

27) Violet

28) 3

29)
δ1 = 180 – 2 × 70 = 40° (Acos)
δ2 = 180 – 2(0) = 180° (Acos)
δ3 = 180 – 2 × 70 = 40° (Acos)
δnet = δ1 + δ2 – d3
= 40 + 180 – 40
δnet = 180°

30) r2 = 0º ⇒ r1 = A = 30°
and i = 60°
At 1st surface,

1 × sin 60° = n sin 30° ⇒ n=

31)

Virtual object forms virtual image

32) δnet = δ1 + δ2 = 0
(μ –1)A + (μ1 –1)A1 = 0

A1 =

33)

34) and

35)

1m

36)

Refractive index

37)

Cannot be captured on a screen

38)

Light travels from denser to rarer medium

39) cm

40)

The full image will be formed but it will be less bright.

41)

In Denser medium speed is slow (2.2 × 108) whereas in rare medium speed in high (2.4 × 108)
 42)

120 cm

43)

⇒ ic = 30°

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

(from nernst equation)

= 1.05 – 0.03{log4 + log104}

= 1.05 – 0.03 {0.6 + 4 log10}
= 1.05 – 0.03 {4.6}= 0.912V

47)
(A)

48)

Identify the Half-cell reactions :

(oxidation)

(Reduction)

Thus overall reactions is :

(here n = 2) Now, calculate the standard electrode potential using the given formula.

Option A is correct answer

49)

P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1M

50)

If both the statements are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1

51)

x1 = x2 and P1 > P2

52) H2(P1) + 2H+(aq) → 2H+(aq) + H2(P2)

Q=

E = 0–

E=
 53) ∵ E°cell = (∵ n=2)

∴ log keq =
⇒ keq = 1 × 1010

54)

=
log KC = 15.5668
KC = 3.7 × 1015

55)

H2 —→ 2H+ + 2e–
(P1)
2H+ + 2e– —→ H2(g)
P2
____________________________
H2(g) H2(g)
P1 P2

E = E° –

E = – 0.03 log
= – 0.03 (log 0.7)
= – 0.03 (log 7 – log 10)
= – 0.03 (0.85 – 1)

= + 0.0045 V

56) Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) Ag

Ecell =
= 0.059 log10 = 0.059 V

57) H2 → 2H+ + 2e–

= 0 – 0.03 log (10–10)2

= 0.591 V

58) Acc. to Nernst equation

59)
 The strength of a metal as a reducing agent is determined by how easily it is oxidized (i.e. how
readily it donates electrons). In electrochemical terms, the more negative the standard
reduction potential E°(Mⁿ⁺/M), the stronger the metal is as a reducing agent (because its
reverse reaction, M → Mⁿ⁺ + ne⁻, is more favorable). Given: • E°(Li⁺/Li) = –3.05 V •
E°(Ba²⁺/Ba) = –2.90 V • E°(Na⁺/Na) = –2.71 V • E°(Mg²⁺/Mg) = –2.37 V –3.05 V is the most
negative value, so Li metal has the greatest tendency to lose electrons. Answer: B) Li

60)

Both (1) and (2)

61) Direction of current in Galvanic cell : Cathode to anode

62)

Positive and negative

63)

y-x

64) Net cell reaction:

2Cr + 3Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Fe

Ecell =

65)

0.9615 V

66)

0.52 V

67)

Question Explanation: Relation between Gibbs free energy and electrical work in
electrochemical cells.
Concept: This question is based on ΔG = –nFE°
Solution:
In an electrochemical cell, the spontaneous redox reaction produces electrical energy. The
change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) represents the maximum electrical work done. ΔG = –nFE°
Here, ΔG is an extensive property, as it depends on the amount of substance (n).

A. Statement I: Correct → Gibbs energy of spontaneous redox reaction converts into electrical
work.
 B. Statement II: Incorrect → ΔG = –nFE is true, but Gibbs energy is extensive, not intensive.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Final Answer: Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

68) SRP↑ Reducing ↓

power

69) Since Mg has minimum reduction electrode potential so its reducing power is maximum.

70) Higher the oxidation potential better will be reducing power.

71)

Answer : Cr

72)
0
E cell = positive
0
ΔG° = –nFE cell
ΔG° = Negative
ΔG° = –2.303 RT log Keq
log Keq = +ve value
Keq > 1

73)

Explanation the Question:

The question asks to calculate the cell EMF (Ecell) for the given hydrogen concentration cell.
Concept:
This question is based on
Nernst Equation for a Concentration Cell
Solution:
Overall Reaction (n=2): 2H+(ag, 0.1M) → 2H+(ag, 0.001M)

Ecell = 0 –

Ecell = – × (–4)
Ecell = – (0.02955) × (–4)
Ecell = +0.1182 V

74)

Explain Question:
We need to find order of reducing power of metals if standard reducing potentials are given.

Concept:
Reducing power S.O.P

Solution:

∴ Sop Reducing power

order of Reducing power K > Mg > Cr > Hg > Ag

Final answer: option (3)

75)

0.52 V

76) ⋀M =

x+y=

M= =

77) Cell constant = ⇒ Units = m–1

Molar conductivity (Λm) ⇒ Units = Sm2 mole–1
Conductivity (K) ⇒ Units = S m–1
Degree of dissociation (α) → Dimensionless
∴ (a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)

78)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to calculate the molar conductance of a 0.01 M solution given its
 conductivity.

B. Given Data:

A. Conductivity (κ) = 10⁻⁴ Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹

B. Concentration (C) = 0.01 M

C. Concept:

Molar conductance (Λm) is related to conductivity (κ) and concentration (C) by the formula:

Λm = κ / C

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Convert Concentration to mol/cm³:

A. 1 L = 1000 cm³
B. 0.01 mol/L = 0.01 mol / 1000 cm³ = 10⁻⁵ mol/cm³
B. Calculate Molar Conductance:
A. Λm = κ / C
B. Λm = (10⁻⁴ Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹) / (10⁻⁵ mol/cm³)
C. Λm = 10 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

E. Final Answer:
The molar conductance of the solution is 10 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. Therefore, option 1 is the correct
answer.
Easy

79)

80)

4.6 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1

81)

82)

392

83) Explain Question:

We need to find degree of dissociation of CH3COOH if of CH3COOH and for
NaCl, CH3COONa and HCl are given.

Concept:
Solution:
CH3COOH = CH3COONa + HCl – NaCl
CH3COOH = y + x – z

Final answer: option (2)

84) Explain Question:

We need to find ka for HCOOH if molarity, for HCOOH and and are
give.

Concept:

Ka = Cα2 ,

Solution:

Final answer: option (2)

85)

Statement-I : On dilution, inter ionic interaction decreases for strong electrolyte so mobility
increase & hence increases
De Dbye huckel :
Statement-II :
B ⇒ const depend on type of salt. and charge on ion

86)

Explain Question:
The question asks you to analyze two statements about how molar conductivity changes with
dilution for weak electrolytes.

Concept:
Factors affecting molar conductivity.
 Solution:
1. Statement I is correct. For a weak electrolyte, dilution leads to an increase in its degree of
dissociation (α), so the number of ions in solution increases and molar conductivity (Λm) rises
steeply as concentration falls.

2. Statement II is also correct in that dilution spreads ions over a larger volume (so ions per
unit volume decrease), but this is not the reason for the sharp rise in Λm of a weak electrolyte.
The true cause is the increased dissociation (more ions formed) and the reduction of inter-ionic
attractions on dilution. Hence, Statement I is correct and Statement II is correct but not the
correct explanation of Statement I.

Final Answer: Option (2)

87)

Question Explanation :

Determine the correct statements about molar conductance equation and constant A.

Concept :

Debye-Hückel-Onsager equation and factors affecting constant A

Solution :

Given:

Λₘ = Λₘ⁰ – A√c

(A) ❌ False – Applies only to strong electrolytes, not weak ones (NCERT Class XII, Ch. 3).

(B) ✅ True – A depends on solvent properties like dielectric constant & viscosity (NCERT
confirmed).

(C) ❌ False – From NCERT: A depends on ionic charges (z⁺ and z⁻).

BaCl₂: Ba²⁺ and Cl⁻ → z⁺z⁻ = 2×1

MgSO₄: Mg²⁺ and SO₄²⁻ → z⁺z⁻ = 2×2

→ Different z⁺z⁻ ⇒ different A

(D) ✅ True – BaCl₂ and Mg(OH)₂ both have z⁺z⁻ = 2×1 ⇒ same A

Final Answer (B) and (D) only, Option 4

88)

To find the value of the cell constant, we can use the relationship between conductivity (κ),
conductance (G), and resistance (R). The formula for the cell constant (k) is given by:

k=κxR
 Where:

A. k is the cell constant,

B. κ is the conductivity,
C. R is the resistance.

1. Identify Given Values:

A. Conductivity (κ) = 0.0210 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹

B. Resistance (R) = 60 ohm

2. Use the Formula for Cell Constant:

A. Substitute the values into the formula: k = κ x R k = 0.0210 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹ x 60 ohm

3. Calculate the Cell Constant:

A. Perform the multiplication: k = 0.0210 x 60 = 1.26 cm⁻¹

4. Final Result:

A. The value of the cell constant is: k = 1.26 cm⁻¹

89) According to Kohlrausch law

90) Explain the question : We need to find value of cell constant if resistance, molarity and
specific conductance are given.
Concept : This question is based on specific conductance
Solution :

K=

cell constant = 0.219 cm-1

Final answer : 2

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Page # 19

92)

Explain Question : The question presents four statements about pollen grains and asks which
combination includes all the correct statements.
Concept : This question is based on Pollen grain.

Solution : (a) True – Pollen grains are spherical, 25–50 μm in diameter.

(b) True – Sporopollenin is absent at germ pores to allow pollen tube emergence.
(c) True – Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and sometimes consumed for health; claimed to
improve performance in athletes and racehorses.
(d) False – Only ~40% of angiosperms shed pollen at the 3-celled stage; majority shed at 2-
celled stage.

Final Answer : option (2)

93) Question Explanation: The question is asking a question about the process of
microsporogenesis in Angiosperms.
Concept: This question based on Pre-Fertilization structure and events - microsporogenesis in
Angiosperms.
Solution: Total microspores = 80
Each MMC gives = 4 microspores

Required MMCs =
Final Answer: 20

94) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Pg. # 8
Viability of pollen grains of poaceace is 30 min whereas viability of pollen grains of rosaceae,
solanaceae & Leguminoseae is for several months.
Final Answer : (2)

95) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg # 21, (H) Pg # 22

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 22, Fig. 2.3 (a)

97)

98)

99)

Question Explanation: The question asks to evaluate the assertion and reason about pollen
preservation.

Concept: Pollen grain

 Solution:

Assertion: "Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils." - correct.

The outer layer of pollen grains, called the exine, is composed of sporopollenin, a highly
resistant organic material that can withstand degradation and decomposition for long periods,
leading to their excellent preservation in the fossil record.

Reason: "The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin." - correct.

The intine is the inner layer of the pollen grain wall and is indeed composed of cellulose and
pectin, similar to a plant cell wall.

While both the Assertion and the Reason are individually correct statements, the Reason does
not correctly explain the Assertion.

Final Answer:
Option (2)

100)

NCERT-XII Page No. 22

101) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 24

102) Ncert Pg. No. 21

103) NCERT - 4

104) NCERT XI Pg. # 21

105) NCERT Page Number : 4 Option 4

106)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E) 25(H)

107)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 19-20

108) Module-4 Pg. # 131

109) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 20

110)
111)

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 5,7,21

113)

114)

NCERT XII Page # 6,7

115)

NCERT XIIth Pg.#21

116)

117) NCERT Pg. # 23

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 7

119)

NCERT Pg. # 21

120)

Question Explanation : This question gives two statements about the male reproductive
organ in plants, select correct or incorrect statement.
Concept: Male reproductive organ
Solution :
Statement-I : Androecium representing the male reproductive organ and the gynoecium
represents the female reproductive organ.-correct
Statement-II : Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers perform the function of protection and
help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen -correct
The androecium consists of a whorl of stamens representing the male reproductive organ and
the gynoecium represents the female reproductive organ.
Anther is generally surrounded by four wall layers the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers
and the tapetum. The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in
dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
Final Answer: Option (3)

121) NCERT Pg. # 7

122) NCERT, Pg. # 23

123) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
(Cryopreservation)

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 5

125) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 22, 2.2.1

126) Module-4 Pg. # 132

127)

By Endomitosis

128) NCERT XII Pg # 22

In this question word 'by' is given in statement I but in the NCERT word 'through' is given in
place of word 'by'.
Both words 'by' and 'through' are having same meaning in this question.

129) NCERT Pg. # 23 & 24

130) NCERT XII PAGE NO. 5,7

131) NCERT XIIth Pg.#21

132) NCERT XII Pg. # 22, fig. 2.3 (b)

133)
134) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. #24

135)

Pollen grain is male gametophyte

136)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks where in the male reproductive system sperm are
temporarily stored and undergo functional maturation before becoming capable of fertilizing
an egg.

Underlying Concept: In male reproductive physiology, sperm produced in the testes are
immature and incapable of fertilization. They must travel to and be stored in a specific
structure where they mature functionally and are stored temporarily until ejaculation. This
process takes place mainly in the epididymis, which provides an environment for sperm to gain
motility and fertilization capacity.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the sequence: Testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas
deferens → Ampulla → Urethra. The 'epididymis' is well-known as the site of sperm
maturation and storage.

Common Mistakes: Confusing storage and maturation location with other reproductive
structures like vasa efferentia or seminal vesicles, which have different roles such as transport
or secretion.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Vasa efferentia only transport sperm from testes to
epididymis, without storage or maturation. Ampulla is a site of sperm storage but not
maturation and is part of vas deferens near the seminal vesicle. Seminal vesicles produce
seminal fluid but do not store or mature sperm.

137) Solution : Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells, are found adjacent to the
seminiferous tubules in the testicle. They produce testosterone in the presence of luteinizing
hormone (LH).
Final Answer : (3)

138)

Question Explanation
The question is asking to identify the correct structures labeled A, B, C, and D in the diagram
of the male reproductive system.

Concept
Male reproductive system ducts

Solution
A is the coiled tube above the testis, which is the epididymis.
B is the duct that carries sperm from epididymis to urethra, which is the vas deferens.
C is a gland near the urethra that secretes fluid into semen, which is the bulbourethral gland.
D is the fold of skin covering the tip of the penis, which is the foreskin.

So the correct matching is: A – Epididymis, B – Vas deferens, C – Bulbourethral gland, D –

Foreskin.

Final answer: Option 4

139) Question Explanation:

Find the incorrectly matched pair among female external genitalia structures.

Concept:
This question is based on female external genitalia.

Solution:
Labia majora → 1 pair
Labia minora → 1 pair
Clitoris → single structure, not a pair
Bartholin gland → 1 pair

Final Answer : (3)

140) NCERT Pg # 44

141) NCERT Pg. No. 27

142)

NCERT(XII) Pg#45/48(H) Fig:3.3(b)

143)

Question Explanation: The question asks for the correct sequence of transport of milk
through different parts of the mammary gland in human females.

Concept: Mammary gland

Solution: Milk is synthesised by alveolar cells of mammary [Link] is stored in the lumen of
[Link] alveoli, milk passes through: - Alveoli → Lumen → Mammary tubules → Mammary
duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple.

Final answer: Option 2

 144) NCERT XII, Pg. # 47 (E), 51 (H), Para - (3.3)

145) Formation of first polar body

146)

Ncert Page 45.

147)

Question explanation : The question is asking for the correct order of male accessory ducts
through which sperm travels from the testes to the ejaculatory duct.

Concept : Male reproductive system – pathway of sperm transport.

Solution :

A. Rete testis: Sperm produced in the seminiferous tubules are collected into the rete
testis, a network of tubules within the testes.

B. Vasa efferentia: From the rete testis, sperm move into the vasa efferentia, a series of
small tubules that connect the rete testis to the epididymis.

C. Epididymis: The vasa efferentia carry sperm to the epididymis, a highly coiled tube
where sperm are stored and mature.

D. Vas deferens: Mature sperm are transported from the epididymis to the ejaculatory
ducts through the vas deferens, a long, muscular tube.

E. Ejaculatory ducts: Finally, the ejaculatory ducts, formed by the union of the vas deferens and
the duct from the seminal vesicle, carry sperm to the urethra for ejaculation.

Final answer : (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)

148) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct Explanation of Assertion.

149)

Question Explanation – The question is asking about the structure called fimbriae on the
edges of the infundibulum and its function in ovum collection.

Concept – Female reproductive anatomy – Fallopian tube structure

Solution – The edges of the infundibulum have finger-like projections called fimbriae. These
fimbriae help in catching the ovum released from the ovary and guide it into the fallopian tube
for fertilization.

Final Answer – Option 1

150)

151)

152)

153)

NCERT - XII Pg. No. # 33

154) Question Explanation: The scrotum maintains testes at what temperature lower than
body temperature?

Concept: The question is based on the structure of scrotum.

Solution: The scrotum keeps the testes about 2–2.5 ºC lower than normal body temperature,
which is essential for proper spermatogenesis.

Final answer: The correct answer is option 1.

155)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify parts of the female reproductive system
labeled as A, B, C, and D in the given diagram.

Concept: Female reproduction system

Solution:

• Ovary (A) – produces ova and hormones (estrogen, progesterone).

• Infundibulum (B) – funnel-shaped opening of the fallopian tube near the ovary, helps capture
ovum.

• Ampulla (C) – widest part of the fallopian tube, site of fertilisation.

• Fundus (D) – upper rounded part of the uterus above the openings of the fallopian tubes.

So, Correct labeling of A, B, C, D is: – Ovary – Infundibulum – Ampulla – Fundus

 Final answer: Option 3

156) Question Explanation:

This question is asking to correctly match different reproductive processes with the organs
where they occur.

Concept:
Human Reproduction – Events of fertilization and female reproductive physiology

Explanation:
Implantation occurs in the uterus.
Capacitation of sperm occurs in the female reproductive tract mainly in the vagina and uterus.
Folliculogenesis takes place in the ovary.
Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube (ampullary–isthmic junction).

Final Answer: Option 3

157)

NCERT Pg No-30

158)

Statement I: The edges of the infundibulum (part of the female

reproductive system, near the ovary) have finger-like projections called
fimbriae. This is correct. The fimbriae help in capturing the released
egg during ovulation.

Statement II: The labia minora are fleshy folds of tissue found in the
female genital area. This is also correct. The labia minora protect the
internal genital organs.

159)

Explain Question : Check correctness of statements about female ovum formation and male
seminiferous tubules.
Concept : This question is based on Human Reproduction.

Solution : The correct answer is option: 1

A. Statement I Correct → Ovum formation stops at menopause (~50 years).

B. Statement II Correct → Each testicular lobule has 1–3 seminiferous tubules

producing sperms.

Final answer : option (1)

160)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correctly matched anatomical and
physiological pairs related to human reproduction and lactation.

Concept: The question is based on female reproductive structures and hormones involved in
lactation.

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. (a) Clitoris – Erectile body in female homologous to penis of man → Correct.

B. (b) Colostrum – Secretion of preputial gland → Incorrect.

A. Colostrum is the first milk secreted by the mammary glands, not the preputial
gland.

C. (c) Areola – Pigmented circular area around the nipple → Correct.

D. (d) Oxytocin – Milk synthesis hormone → Incorrect.

A. Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis; oxytocin causes milk ejection.

Thus, only (a) and (c) are correctly matched.

Final Answer: Option 2

161)

162)

Question Explanation: This question asks about the functions of seminal vesicle secretions.

Concept: Male accessory glands

Solution: Seminal vesicles secrete a viscous, alkaline fluid rich in fructose and
prostaglandins.

A. It nourishes sperms by providing fructose as an energy source.

B. It helps in coagulation of semen due to clotting proteins.

C. Liquefaction of semen is mainly due to enzymes from the prostate gland, not seminal
vesicles.
 D. Killing pathogens in urethra is also mainly associated with prostate secretions.

Final answer: Option 3

163) Explain Question:

This question asks which chemical is responsible for maintaining a high concentration of
testosterone inside the seminiferous tubules.

Concept:
ABP (Androgen binding protein)

Solution:
ABP (Androgen binding protein) is secreted by Sertoli cells. It binds to testosterone and helps
maintain a high local concentration of testosterone within the seminiferous tubules, which is
essential for spermatogenesis.

Final answer: Option (2)

164)

Explain Question : To identify the site where sperm's head become embedded After
spermiogenesis.

Concept : This question is based on spermatogenesis.

Solution : After spermiogenesis sperm's head become embedded in sertoli cells cells and are
finally released from the seminiferous tubules.

Final Answer : option (3)

165)

A. Spermatogenesis:

A. One primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I and meiosis II to produce four

haploid spermatids.

B. Each spermatid matures into a sperm cell.

C. Therefore, 50 primary spermatocytes will produce 50 x 4 = 200 sperm.

B. Oogenesis:

A. One primary oocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce one secondary oocyte and one
polar body.
 B. The secondary oocyte (if fertilized) undergoes meiosis II to produce one mature
ovum (egg) and another polar body.

C. Therefore, 50 primary oocytes will produce 50 ova.

In summary, 50 primary spermatocytes result in 200 sperm, and 50 primary oocytes result in
50 ova.

The correct answer is : 1. 200 sperm and 50 ovum.

166) If no testes then no testosterone then

Testosterone ↓ So GnRH ↑ FSH ↑ LH ↑
यिद वृ षण नहीं तो टे टोटे राॅन भी नहीं होगा।

167) Module, Pg # 19
Due to AMH, mullerian duct suppress so wolffian duct develop & male embryo will develop.
AMH के कारण मूलेिरयन निलका अनु पिथत हो जाती है और वु िफयन निलका िवकिसत हो जाती है । और नर भ ण
ू
िवकिसत हो जाये गा।

168)

NCERT Pg # 33

169)

Question Explanation:Identifying a statement not true for both testes and ovaries.

Concept:Comparative Reproductive Anatomy.

Solution:

The incorrect statement is that both testes and ovaries descend into an extra-abdominal space
at birth.
This is wrong because while the testes descend into the scrotum, the ovaries remain in the
pelvic cavity throughout a female's life.
The other statements are correct: both are primary sex organs, both develop from the
mesoderm, and both originate in the abdominal cavity during fetal life.

Final Answer :Option(4)

170) Assertion is true, but Reason is false and it can be corrected as

It is the sperm, which needs energy to move about in female reproductive tract in search of
ova so that fertilisation can take place.
171)

Explain the Question : The question asks which nerve impulses cause vasodilation of penile
arterioles during erection.
Concept : This question is based on neural control of penile erection.
Solution : Parasympathetic impulses cause relaxation of smooth muscles in penile arterioles,
leading to vasodilation and filling of erectile tissue.
Final Answer : (2)

172)

Question Explanation: This question asks to identify the unpaired accessory sex gland that
is chestnut-shaped and adds Ca²⁺ ions to semen.

Concept: Male accessory glands

Solution: The prostate gland is an unpaired, chestnut-shaped gland in males. Its secretion is
milky and alkaline and contains calcium ions (Ca²⁺), enzymes, and other substances that
enhance sperm motility and viability.

Final answer: Option 1

173)

Explain Question : To Identify the correct statements.

Concept : hormonal regulation in male reproductive physiology

Solution :
Statement 1 is incorrect: LH acts on Leydig cells → produces androgens → stimulates
spermatogenesis. it does not stimulate spermiogenesis directly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: GnRH is secreted by the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.

Final Answer : option (2) Both the statements are incorrect

174) NCERT XII, Pg. # 48

175)

Spermatids are changed into spermatozoa

176) NCERT Page 46.

177) Allen Module

178) Release of an ovum from a mature follicle

179)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about correctly matching cells or structures of the male reproductive
system with their location and function.

Concept
Male reproductive system structure and function.

Solution
Sertoli cells are present in the seminiferous tubules and they secrete AMH, so 1 matches with
d and ii. Leydig cells are present in the testis and secrete androgens, so 2 matches with c and
i. Dartos muscles are present in the scrotum and help in temperature regulation of the
scrotum, so 3 matches with b and iii. Circular muscles are present in the epididymis and help
in pulsation movement of sperm, so 4 matches with a and iv.

Final answer: Option 3

180) Explanation Question:

TO Identify A to E correctly in schematic representation of oogenesis

Concept: This question is based on Oogenesis.

Explanation:

Final Answer: Option (2)