Mock Exam

Microbiology

First sheet

1- Microorganisms make up only about 1 to 3 percent of the body's mass, although the human
body contains trillions of microorganisms — outnumbering human cells by 10 to 1 (True or
False), if true why this small mass percentage?

2- Any symbiosis relationship between microorganisms is a mutualistic relationship, the reverse

is false (True or False).

3- The difference between communalism and mutualism is ......

4- Bloodletting was considered the most common method of treating disease, this method was
popular around the time of which theories of disease causation?
A) The punitive theory
B) The miasmatic theory
C) Theory of four humors
D) The germ theory
E) The notion of bad air theory

5- Name the following famous Microbiologists;

A) The father of Microbiology
B) The discoverer of the causation of deadly diseases like TB, cholera and anthrax
C) The discover of principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation and pasteurization
D) Described bacteria and protozoa, which he called animalcules
E) Put the principles of culturing of microorganisms

6- What is the first stage in culturing?

A) Incubation
B) Inoculation
C) Separation
D) Information gathering
E) Inspection

7- Observing cultures macroscopically for appearance of growth and microscopically for

appearance of cells, this is;
A) Incubation
B) Inoculation
C) Separation
D) Information gathering
E) Inspection
8- Exposing the bacteria to optimum growth conditions, this is;
A) Incubation
B) Inoculation
C) Separation
D) Information gathering
E) Inspection

9- Term applied to all material external to and enclosing the cytoplasm

A) Cell membrane
B) Cell wall
C) Cell envelope
D) The external capsule and glycocalyx
E) Flagella & pili

10- The ...... of the peptidoglycan layer is of great importance in classification of bacteria (Gram
+ve & -ve)
A) Presence
B) Length
C) Width
D) Thickness
E) Shape

11- The peptidoglycan layer is within;

A) Cell wall
B) Cell membrane
C) Flagella
D) Pili
E) The external capsule and glycocalyx

12- Classify bacteria according to the presence the cell wall

A)
B)

13- Classify bacteria according to the thickness of the peptedioglycan layer

A)
B)

14- Mention some atypical bacteria

A)
B)
C)

15- Give an example of bacteria that contain mycolic acid

16- Mycolata species (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis) contain mycolic acid in their cell
membrane (True or False)

17- Mention a bacteria that secretes a sticky, viscous material that forms an extracellular
coating around the cell.

18- True pili have been found only on gram-positive bacteria, where they are utilized primarily in
a “mating” process between cells called conjugation, which involves a transfer of DNA from one
cell to another (True or False)

19- Some plasmids control important phenotypic properties of pathogenic bacteria, including;
A)
B)

20- Small extra-chromosomal DNA molecules called ......

21- Insoluble proteins aggregates that used to store proteins and reserve energy are;
A) Ribosome
B) Plasmids
C) Inclusion bodies
D) Spores
E) Capsule and slim layer

22- Sporulation can be thought of as repackaging a copy of bacterial DNA into a new form that;
A)
B)
C)
D)

23- Mention some spore formers

A)
B)

24- B. athracis can't be killed by boiling (True or False)

25- Mention the structure for each function;

A) Protects and gives shape
B) Regulates movement of materials, contains enzymes important to cellular respiration
C) Contains DNA, ribosomes, essential compounds
D) Contains some genes obtained through recomb.
E) Protects the cell and assist in attaching cell to other surfaces
F) Carries genetic information
G) Protects cell against harsh environments
H) Assists the cell in attaching to other surfaces
I) Moves the cell

Second sheet

1- Pleomorphism is due to individual variations in cell membrane structure caused by nutritional

or slight hereditary differences (True or False)

2- Bacteria are smallest in the ...... phase of growth

A) Log
B) Lag
C) Stationary
D) Death
E) B & D

3- The arrangement of Aeurococcus is;

A) Diplococci
B) Streptococci
C) Tetrad
D) Sarcinae (octet)
E) Non is true

4- The arrangement of pneumococci;

A) Diplococci
B) Streptococci
C) Tetrad
D) Sarcinae (octet)
E) Non is true

5- Peptostreptococcus magnus arrangement is;

A) Diplococci
B) Streptococci
C) Tetrad
D) Sarcinae (octet)
E) Non is true

6- Beggiatoa spp. are bacilli and their arrangement is;

A) Long, thin filamentous form
B) Rod-shape
C) Palisade
D) Chinese letter-like
E) Streptobacilli

7- Mycobacterium tuberculosis are bacilli and their arrangement is;

A) Long, thin filamentous form
B) Rod-shape
C) Palisade
D) Chinese letter-like
E) Streptobacilli

8- Corynebacterium spp. are bacilli and their arrangement is;

A) Long, thin filamentous form
B) Rod-shape
C) Palisade
D) Chinese letter-like
E) Streptobacilli

9- Actinomycetes and streptomyces are baccili and their arrangement is;

A) Long, thin filamentous form
B) Rod-shape
C) Palisade
D) Chinese letter-like
E) Streptobacilli

10- The difference between actinomycetes and streptomyces is;

A) Actinomycetes are filamentous form while streptomyces are rod-shaped
B) Streptomyces are filamentous form while actinomycetes are rod-shaped
C) There's no difference in their arrangement
D) Actinomycetes are multi-nucleated while streptomyces are mono-nucleated
E) Streptomyces are multi-nucleated while actinomycetes are mono-nucleated

11- predict the color of the gram-positive bacteria at the end of the Gram staining process if you
have this info.;
Primary stain 》crystal violet (blue)
Counterstain 》safranin (red)
Mordant 》iodine
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Violet
D) Colourless
E) Green

12- The Mordant in the Ziehl-Neelsen stain is;

A) Carbon Fusin
B) Iodine
C) Methylene blue
D) Heat
E) Acidic alcohol
13- Nigrosine and India ink are used in;
A) Acid-fast stain
B) Gram stain
C) Flagella stain
D)The spore stain
E) Negative staining

14- Why negative staining stains the background, not the cells?

15- The basic point about the flagella stain is that the combination of chemicals produces a
thickened coat around the flagella, making them more easily seen with a light microscope (True
or False)

16- Application of heat is important step in negative staining (True or False)

17- Application of heat is important step in spore staining (True or False)

Third sheet

1- ...... is a distinct growth phase that prepare bacteria for exponential growth , they are adapting
to the environment and restore the enzymatic machinery needed for division
A) Lag phase
B) Log phase
C) Stationary phase
D) Death phase
E) Non is true

2- Most cells in a stationary phase are dead (True or false)

3- Bacteria are not dead but in a dormant state without change in morphology
A) VBNC
B) Biofilms
C) Lag phase
D) Hypertrophic
E) Hypotrophic

4- Bacteria exist in an intimate and complex community communicating among themselves

A) VBNC
B) Biofilms
C) Lag phase
D) Hypertrophic
E) Hypotrophic
5- Biofilms bacteria result from genetic response triggered in starving (True or False)

6- VBNC bacteria result from genetic response triggered in starving (True or False)

7- The three major mechanisms for generating metabolic energy are;

A)
B)
C)

8- Classify bacteria according to their carbon source;

A)
B)

9- ...... is an organic compound that a cell must contain to grow but that it is unable to
synthesize so must be obtained from the environment

10- Haemophilus influenzae require ...... as growth factors

A)
B)

11- Mention the environmental factors affecting growth

A)
B)
C)
D)

12- Most pathogenic bacteria belong to this group

A) Psychrophile
B) Mesophile
C) Thermophile
D) Psychrotrophs
E) Hyperthermophile

13- They are important cause of food Spoilage

A) Psychrophile
B) Mesophile
C) Thermophile
D) Psychrotrophs
E) Hyperthermophile

14- The lower end of the temperature range tolerated by any given species correlates well with
the general thermal stability of that species’ proteins (True or False)
15- ...... a transient synthesis of a set of “heat-shock proteins,” when exposed to a sudden rise
in temperature above the growth optimum

16- Classify bacteria according to their optimum pH range

A)
B)
C)

17- Microorganisms regulate their internal pH over a wide range of external pH values by
pumping protons in or out of their cells (True or False)

18- Bacteriarhodospin is the bacterial proton pump (True or False)

19- With regard to oxygen bacteria are classified according to ......

20- Classify bacteria according to their need of oxygen and their ability to get rid of toxic
metabolites from oxygen consumption
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

21- Aerotolerant anaerobes and facultative anaerobes can live with or without oxygen (True or
False)

22- Detoxification of free radical is done by;

A)
B)
C)

23- Classify bacteria according to their optimum osmatic pressure

A)
B)

24- Agar is an ideal solidifying agent, why?

A)
B)
C)

25- ...... is most commonly used to prepare solid media

26- Advantages of solid media

A)
B)

27- Mixed bacteria Cannot be seperated be liquid media ( True or False)

28- Mention examples of simple medium

A)
B)
C)

29‐ This media favors the growth of a bacterium by inhibiting the growth of other bacterium
A) Simple media
B) Enrichment media
C) Selective media
D) differential media
E) Solid media

30- This media used to differentiate between two species; an indicator is included in the medium
A) Simple media
B) Enrichment media
C) Selective media
D) differential media
E) Solid media

31- ...... is a peptic digest of animal tissues, sodium chloride and beef extract
A) Peptone water
B) Nutrient broth
C) Nutrient Agar
D) MacConkey Agar
E) Blood Agar

32- Plating methods;

A)
B)
C)

33- The following plating method/s can be used to count the microbial population
A) Pour plate method
B) Streaking plate method
C) Spread plate method
D) A & C
E) B & C

Fourth & fifth sheets

1- Characteristics of bacteria that are pathogens include;
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
F)

2- The process whereby bacteria, animal parasites, fungi, and viruses enter host cells or tissues
and spread in the body;
A) Infection
B) Invasion
C) Pathogen
D) Adherence
E) Non is true

3- The process by which bacteria stick to the surfaces of host cells;

A) Infection
B) Invasion
C) Pathogen
D) Adherence
E) Non is true

4- Virulence involves adherence, persistence, invasion, and toxigenicity (True or False)

5- The difference between toxigenicity and Virulence.

6- The quantitative ability of an agent to cause a disease is known as;

A) Virulence
B) Toxigenicity

7- The ability of a microorganism to produce a toxin that contributes to the development of

disease is known as;
A) Virulence
B) Toxigenicity

8- Virulent agents cause disease when introduced into the host in small numbers (True or False)

9- An agent capable of causing disease only when the host’s resistance is impaired
A) Carrier
B) Pathogen
C) Opportunistic Pathogen
D) Virulent
E) Infectious agents
10- Mention Koch’s postulates
A)
B)
C)
D)

11- Mention exceptions to Koch's postulates, and why they are exceptions
A)
B)
C)

12- Adherence factors

A)
B)
C)
D)

13- Endotoxins are proteins that are most often excreted from the cell. Exotoxins are lipid
molecules that are components of the bacterial cell membrane (True or False)

13- Bacterial Virulence factors involve

A)
B)
C)

14- Which one of the following sets of properties of exotoxins and endotoxins is correctly
matched?
A) Exotoxins—polypeptides; endotoxins—lipopolysaccharide
B) Exotoxins—weakly antigenic; endotoxins—highly antigenic
C) Exotoxins—produced only by gram-negative bacteria; endotoxins—produced
only by gram-positive bacteria
D) Exotoxins—weakly toxic per microgram; endotoxins—highly toxic per microgram
E) Exotoxins—toxoid vaccines are ineffective; endotoxins—toxoid vaccines are effective

15- Synthesis of endotoxins is directed by phages (True or False)

16- Antiphagocytic factors

A)
B)

17- Talk about intracellular pathogenicity

18- An important cause of food poisoning and toxic shock syndrom, mention the bacteria
19- The most Virulent Staphylococci is ......

20- Staphylococcus aureus are cultured in simple medium (True or False)

21- Staphylococcus aureus are true obligate aerobes so they produce catalase (True or False)

22- Staphylococcus aureus are catalase positive but coagulase negative (True or False)

23- Coagulase cause the plasma to clot by converting ...... to ......

24- The types of coagulase tests are

A)
B)

25- Staphylococci spp are resistant to heat and drying (True or False)

26- Staphylococcus aureus infections occurs in the following scenarios;

A)
B)

27- Staphylococcus aureus disaese maybe toxinoses a result from invasive infection caused by
toxins (True or False)

28- Talk about the Epidemiology of Staphylococcus aureus

A)
B)
C)

29- Which of the following Virulence factors binds to Fc moiety of IgG exerting antiopsonin effect
A) Fibronectin-binding protein
B) Elastin p-binding protein
C) Collagen-binding protein
D) Protein A
E) A & B & C

30- Which of the following Virulence factors promote binding to mucosa cells and tissue metrics
A) Fibronectin-binding protein
B) Elastin p-binding protein
C) Collagen-binding protein
D) Protein A
E) A & B & C
31- ...... exotoxins attack mammalian cell membranes (including red blood cells), they are fou
types
A)
B)
C)
D)

32- ...... exotoxins cause enhanced T lymphocytes response which can result in toxic shock
syndrome, caused by large amount of T cells and cytokines in the circulation, they are three
types
A)
B)
C)

33- Mention the superantigen exotoxin that matches the description

A) more heat-stablr than Staphylococcus aureus cells
B) The cause of scalded skin syndrome in children
C) The classic cause of toxic shock syndrome

34- Type of infection of Staphylococcus aureus that occur when the patient is
immuno-compromised

35- Why Staphylococcus aureus cause blood lysis?

36- Mention TWO Ig-binding proteins that are found in Staphylococcus aureus

37- Mention A protease Virulence factor that found in Staphylococcus aureus

38- Mention an immuno-stimulatory Virulence factor that found in Staphylococcus aureus

39- The common entery point of Staphylococcus pneumonia

40- Septicemia vs bacteremia

41- May result in seeding internal abscesses, skin lesions, or infections in the lung, kidney,
heart, skeletal muscle, or meninge. This is;
A) Septicemia
B) Bacteremia

42- ...... is usuallyma localized, superficial, spreading crusty skin lesion generall seen in children
A) Boils
B) Cellulitis
C) Infection in hair follicles
D) Impetigo
E) Paronychia

43- Name the bacteria that most commonly cause Impetigo

44- Name the bacteria that is the most common cause of acute and chronic infections of bone
marrow

45- Name the bacteria that the most common cause of acute jnfection of joint space in children
(septic joint)

46- Mention the Staphylococcus aureus infections; skin-related symptoms

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

47- Name a bacteria that commonly causes hospital-acquired infections

48- Mention the most Important strain of Staphylococcus aureus that cause nosocomial
infections

49- ...... are diseases caused by the action of a toxin, frequently when the organism that
secreted the toxin is undetectable

50- Mention the toxin responsible for this;

A) Results in high fever, rash (resembling a sunburn, with diffuse erythema followed by
desquamation), vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and multiorgan involvement (especially GI,
renal, and/or hepatic damage)
B) Ingestion of food contaminated with S. aureus. Symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, and
diarrhea, are acute following a short incubation period (less than six hours)
C) The appearance of superficial bullae resulting from toxin that attacks the intercellular
adhesive of the stratum granulosum, causing marked epithelial desquamation

51- Mention the toxin that attacks the stratum granulosum

52- Why the color change when Staphylococcus aureus put in MSA

53- Coagulase-negative staphylococcal species are important agents of hospital-acquired

infections associated with the use of implanted prosthetic devices and catheters (True or False)

54- How Staphylococcus epidermidis adhere to bioprothetic material?

55- The function of slime (extracellular polysaccharide material) for Staphylococcus epidermidis
A)
B)

56- Name the bacteria that is the most frequent cause of cystitis in women

57- Name the bacteria that is resistant to novobiocin

Sixth sheet

1- Streptococci are gram-positive, nonmotile and catalase positive (True or False)

2- Streptococci are generally isolated in simple medium (True or False)

3- Most of Streptococci are ......

A) Microaerophiles
B) Facultative anaerobes
C) Aerotolerant anaerobes
D) Obligate aerobes
E) Obligate anaerobes

4- Mention the bacteria that will most likely cause (their genus is Streptococcus)
A) Acute infections of throat and skin
B) Neonatal sepsis
C) Otitis media
D) Meningitis

5- Regarding the hemolytic properties of Streptococci bacteria, which is true;

A) Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci cause a complete lysis of RBCs
B) Beta-hemolytic Streptococci cause a chemical change in the hemoglobin of RBCs resulting in
the appearance of a green pigment around the colony
C) Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci cause a chemical change in the hemoglobin of RBCs resulting
in the appearance of a yellow pigment around the colony
D) Beta-hemolytic Streptococci cause a complete lysis of RBCs
E) Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci is a term applied to the Streptococci that cause nothing to the
RBCs

6- According to the lancifield groupings of Beta-hemolytic Streptococci; Group B contain both

Streptococcus agalactiae and Streptococcus pneumoniae (True or False)

7- Streptococcus pyogenes can invade apparently intact skin or mucus membranes (True or
False)

8- ...... contain the major Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor, the M protein
A) The capsule
B) Fimbriae
C) Group A-Specific C-carbohydrate
D) Protein F
E) Protein G

9- For Streptococcus pyogenes Mention its;

(i) Exotoxins (THREE)
A)
B)
C)
(ii) Invasins (THREE)
A)
B)
C)
(iii) Adhesins (THREE)
A)
B)
C)

10- Cellulitis is;

A) Acute inflammation of subcutaneous tissues
B) Inflammation of the tissue under the skin that covers a surface of underlying tissue
C) Death of muscle cells
D) A sunburn like rash develops on the neck, trunk, and extremities
E) Non is true

11- Fasciitis is;

A) Acute inflammation of subcutaneous tissues
B) Inflammation of the tissue under the skin that covers a surface of underlying tissue
C) Death of muscle cells
D) A sunburn like rash develops on the neck, trunk, and extremities
E) Non is true

12- Scarlet fever syndrome is;

A) Acute inflammation of subcutaneous tissues
B) Inflammation of the tissue under the skin that covers a surface of underlying tissue
C) Death of muscle cells
D) A sunburn like rash develops on the neck, trunk, and extremities
E) Non is true

13- The following list of diseases are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, match them correctly;
Group A
A) Affecting all age groups, symptoms include fiery red, advancing erythema, especially on the
face or lower limbs
B) This infection is initiated during, or following soon after, the delivery of a newborn. It can be
caused either exogenous or endogenous
C) The most common type of S. pyogenes infection
D) Autoimmune disease occurs two to three weeks after the initiation of pharyngitis
E) Often spreads rapidly, even in otherwise healthy individuals, leading to bacteremia and
sepsis. Symptoms may include a toxic shock-like syndrome, fever, hypotension, multiorgan
involvement, a sunburn-like rash, or a combination of these symptoms
F) Sunburn-like rash develops on the neck, trunk, and extremities in response to the release of
pyrogenic exotoxin to which the patient does not have antibodies
G) Present with flulike symptoms, followed shortly by necrotizing soft tissue infection, shock,
adult respiratory distress syndrome, and renal failure
Group B
1- Invasive GAS disease
2- Puerperal sepsis
3- Streptococcus toxic shock syndrome
4- Pharyngitis
5- Scarlet fever syndrome
6- Erysipelas
7- Acute rheumatic fever

14- Lab. identification of S. pyogenes and tests

15- A 32 years old male patient comes with pharyngitis, after further investigation turns out
Streptococcus pyogenes was behind this. The patient medical history says he is penicillin
sensitive. What should you give him?

16- Name the bacteria that is a leading cause of Septicemia and meningitis in neonates

17-Name the bacteria that is the most common cause of Otitis media and pneumonia

18- The shape of S. pneumoniae

19- ...... is extremely sensitive to environmental agents (very fastidious, difficult to culture)
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

20- The most important virulence factor in S. pyogenes

21- The most important virulence factor in S. pneumoniae

22- ...... cause the release of ...... in Streptococcus pneumoniae

A) Autolysin, pneumolysi
B) Pneumolysin, autolysin

23- ...... peptidoglycan hydrolase found in the cell wall of Streptococcus pneumoniae

24- The following diseases are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae , match them correctly
Group A
A- A leading cause of death, especially in the aged and those whose resistance is impaired, this
disease is caused most frequently by S. pneumoniae
B- This disease has a high mortality rate, even when treated appropriately
C- Caused by pneumococcus, especially in splenectomized individuals
D- The most common bacterial infection of children
Group B
1- Otitis media
2- Meningitis
3- Acute bacterial pneumonia
4- bacteremia/ sepsis

25- In otitis media, the infection by Streptococcus pneumoniae is followed by;

A)
B)

26- Streptococcus pneumoniae is;

A) Alpha-hemolytic
B) Beta-hemolytic
C) Gamma-hemolytic

27- Lab. identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae

28- Low concentration of ...... inhibit the growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae

29- Mention TWO antibiotic that are effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae

30- Enterococci can be α-, β-, or nonhemolytic (True or False)

31- Mention TWO enterococci

A)
B)

32- How to distinguish between

A) Enterococci vs Non group D Streptococci
B) Enterococci vs group D Streptococci
C) E. faecalis vs E. faecium
33- The treatment for Enterococcus infections is either Beta-lactam or aminoglycoside
antibiotics (True or False)

34- Streptococcus bovis is group D Streptococci (True or False)

35- S. bovis are ......

A) Alpha-hemolytic
B) Beta-hemolytic
C) Gamma-hemolytic
D) A & B
E) A & C

36- In colon cancer patients S. bovis can cause ......

37- To differentiate between Enterococcus faecalis and S. bovis you may use bile and Escalon
(True or False)

38- How to differentiate between Enterococcus faecalis and S. bovis?

39- Can S. mutans cause subacute bacterial endocarditis? When?

40- Why rheumatic, congenital, or arteriosclerotic valvular disease should receive prophylactic
penicillin before undergoing dental procedures?

Seventh sheet

1- A large genus of spore-forming bacteria, principally of soil origin

A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Corynebacterium
D) Bacillus
E) Listeria

2- The following bacteria cause infections in immuno-compromised patients

A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) Listeria monocytogenes

3- Corynebacteria are
A) Gram-positive bacilli that do form spores
B) Gram-negative bacilli that do form spores
C) Gram-positive bacilli that do not form spores
D) Gram-negative bacilli that do not form spores
E) Gram-positive cocci that do not form spores

4- Corynebacteria are Pleomorphic, nonmotile, unencapsulated and do not form spores (True or
False)

5- Corynebacteria are gram-positive that are unevenly stained (True or False)

6- Most of corynebacteria are ......

A) Microaerophiles
B) Facultative anaerobes
C) Aerotolerant anaerobes
D) Obligate aerobes
E) Obligate anaerobes

7- C. diphtheriae cause life-threatening illness in children, this illness has two forms;
A)
B)

8- Epidemiology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

9- Corynebacterium diphtheriae have a single ......

A) Exotoxin
B) Endotoxin
C) Virulence factor
D) Layered cell membrane
E) Non is true

10- Corynebacterium diphtheriae can cause local and systemic effects of a single exotoxin that
inhibits ......

11- Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin cause inactivation of elongation factor 2 (True or

False)

12- Major clinical effects of diphtheria when causing upper respiratory tract infection involves the
heart and peripheral nerves (True or False)

13- The following diseases are caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, match them correctly;
Group A
A) Chronic, non-healing ulcer with a gray membrane. Rarely, exotoxin production leads to tissue
degeneration and death
B) The infection produces a distinctive thick, grayish, adherent exudate It coats the throat, and
may extend into the nasal passages or the respiratory tract
Group B
1- Subcutaneous diphtheria
2- Respiratory diphtheria

14- Diphtheria toxin is antigenic because it's exotoxin (True or False)

15-