08-03-2026

1201CMD303021260001 BD

PHYSICS

1) A uniformly charged infinite wire is placed along 'y' axis having linear charge density 'λ1'. A
semicircle wire having radius R and linear charge density 'λ2' centred at (R, 0) is placed as shown.

Find the ratio of , if electric field at (R, 0) is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Two semicircular rings lying in same plane, of uniform linear charge density λ have radius r and
2r. They are joined using two straight uniformly charged wires of linear charge density λ and length
r as shown in figure. The magnitude of electric field at common centre of semi circular rings is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In a region of space the electric field is given by . The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 units in the x – y plane is :–

(1) 800 units

(2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(4) 1500 units

4) If over a surface, then:

(1) The magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.

(2) All the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.
(3) The electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
The number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving
(4)
it.

5) Find net electric field at centre 'O'.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) The lines of force of the electric field due to two charges q and Q are sketched in the figure, than:

(1) Q is positive and |Q| > |q|

(2) Q is negative and |Q| > |q|
(3) q is positive and |Q| < |q|
(4) q is negative and |Q| < |q|

7) A proton and an electron are placed in a same uniform electric field :-

(1) The electric force acting on them will be equal

(2) Magnitudes of electric forces will be equal
(3) Their acceleration will be equal
(4) Magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal

8) Dielectric constant of pure water is 81. Its permittivity will be :-

(1) 7.17 × 10–10 MKS units

(2) 8.86 × 10–12 MKS units
(3) 1.02 × 1013 MKS units
(4) Cannot be calculated

9) For what value of q system be in equilibrium:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero :-

(i) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(ii) the electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(iii) the net charge inside the surface must be zero

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii)
(4) All

11) q charge is placed at corner of cube of side a then what will be flux passed through the left most

surface of cube :-

(1)

(2) zero
(3)

(4)

12)

An imaginary truncted cone is placed in uniform E then total flux related to it :-

(1) Zero
(2) Non zero
(3) Positive
(4) Negative

13) A cube have a point charge q on its centre and 2q & 3q point charges on vertices, as shown in

the diagram. Electric flux passing through the shaded face is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

14) Electric field intensity at point P is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15)
Half ring of radius a is uniformly charged with linear charge density λ. Find out electric field
intensity at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Figures below show regular hexagons, with charges at the vertices. In which of the following
cases the electric field at the centre is not zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Four charges each equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight:-

(1) remains precisely constant

(2) increases slightly
(3) decreases slightly
(4) may increase slightly or may decrease slightly

19) The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure which one of

the following statements is correct :-

(1) A is +ve and B –ve and |A| > |B|

(2) A is –ve and B +ve and |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B
(4) Both are –ve but A > B

20) Two charges are placed as shown in figure. Where should a third charge be placed so that it
remains at rest ?

(1) 30 cm from 9e
(2) 40 cm from 16e
(3) 40 cm from 9e
(4) (1) or (2)

21) Five charges of equal values placed at corners of a regular pentagon of side 'a'. The force on q
which is placed at centroid 'O' is :-
(1) zero

(2)
, along OE

(3)
, along EO

(4)
, along OE

22) A ring of radius "r" has charge Q. It is cut by small length dℓ. Find the electric field at the centre
:-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding to an electric field. The figure

suggests

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
24) Two charges are +2µC and –5µC. Find the ratio of forces acting on each, is :

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 5 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 25

25) Find electric field at centre of combined combination of arc.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

26) A charge q1 exerts some force on a second charge q2. If third charge q3 is brought near, the force
of q1 exerted on q2 :

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Increases if q3 is of the same sign as q1 and decreases if q3 is of opposite sign

27) Find the net force on to the charge placed at point P. (Side = a) (Equilateral triangle)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field at A
and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B is r then :

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA < EB

(3)

(4)

29) A ball is made of a material of density ρ where ρoil < ρ < ρwater with ρoil and ρwater representing the
densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball is in
equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents its
equilibrium position ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake then what
is the depth of the lake ? [Take P0 = 105 Pa]

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m

31) A wooden block floats in a bucket of water in a lift. If lift starts accelerating up. What will
happen to volume of block in water ?

(1) Remains same

(2) Increases
(3) decreases
(4) can't say

32) A metallic sphere floats one by one in water (density 103 kgm–3) and a liquid such that its (2/3)
part is in water while (1/3) part in the liquid. The density of the liquid is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 5000 kgm–3

(4) 2000 kgm–3

33) A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in
the two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other

as shown in figure. The relative density of the spirit is :

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.25

34) A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in a liquid, then the relative density
of the solid, and that of liquid are :
(1) 3, 2
(2) 2, 4/3
(3) 3, 3/2
(4) 4, 3

35) Which of the following is not the property of an ideal fluid ?

(1) Fluid flow is irrotational

(2) Fluid flow is streamline
(3) Fluid is incompressible
(4) Fluid is viscous

36) A tank is filled with water up to a height H. Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the
walls at a depth D below the surface of water. Express the horizontal distance x in terms of H and D.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) On dipping a capillary of radius 'r' in water, water rises upto a height H and potential energy of

water is u1. If a capillary of radius 2r is dipped in water, then the potential energy is u2. The ratio
is:

(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:1

38) There is a small hole in a hollow sphere. The water enters in it when it is taken to a depth of 40
cm under water. The surface tension of water is 0.07 N/m. The diameter of hole is :-

(1) 7 mm
(2) 0.07 mm
(3) 0.0007 mm
(4) 0.7 m

39) Water emerges out from a tap of area of cross section 0.2 m2 with speed 1 m/s. Find the area of
cross section of water stream 0.4 m below the tap :-
(1) 0.066 m2
(2) 0.33 m2
(3) 4.22 m2
(4) 5.25 m2

40) A liquid flows through a horizontal hozizontal tube. The velocities of the liquid in the two section,
which have areas of cross section A1 and A2, are v1 and v2 respectively. The difference in the levels of
the liquid in the two verticals tube is h :-

(1) The volume of the liquid flowing through the tube in unit area is A1v1
(2)
(3)
(4) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is not equal in both sections of the tube.

41) Block A in the figure shown here hangs by a cord from dynamometer (spring balance) D1 and is
submerged in a liquid C contained in a beaker B. The mass of the beaker is 1 kg and the mass of
liquid is 1.5 kg. The readings of dynamometers D1 and D2 are 2.5 kg and 7.5 kg respectively. What

will be the readings of D1 and D2 if block A is pulled up out of liquid?

(1) D1 will read 5 kg and D2 will also read 5 kg

(2) D1 will read 7.5 kg and D2 will read 2.5 kg
(3) D1 will read 2.5 kg and D2 will read 7.5 kg
(4) D1 will read 10 kg and D2 will read 2.5 kg

42) A solid sphere of radius R made of material of bulk modulus B is surround by a liquid in a
cylindrical container. A massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid. When a mass M
is placed on the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional change in the radius of the sphere is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in figure. Pressure

p at points along the axis is represented by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
3 3
(density = 1.5 kg/m ), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m ) of the same
size in the same liquid.

(1) 0.4 m/s

(2) 0.133 m/s
(3) 0.1 m/s
(4) 0.2 m/s

45) What is the SI unit of viscosity ?

(1) Pascal
(2) Poise
(3) Pa.s
(4) N.s/m2

CHEMISTRY
1) In the presence of acid, the initial concentration of cane sugar was reduced from 0.2 M to 0.1 M
in 5 hours and to 0.05 M in 10 hours from start. The reaction must be of :-

(1) Zero order

(2) First order
(3) Third order
(4) Fractional order

2) For the reaction , pressure of the system increases from 100 to 120 mm in 5
minutes from start of the reaction. The average rate of disappearance of A2 (in mm/min) in this time
interval is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 16

3)

The time for half life period of a certain reaction A → Products is 1 hour. When the initial
concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L–1, how much time does it take for its concentration to
come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is a zero order reaction ?

(1) 0.25h
(2) 1h
(3) 4h
(4) 0.5h

4) In a reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), the rate of appearance of NH3 is 2.5×10–4 molL–1 sec–1. The
rate of reaction & rate of disappearance of H2 will be (In mol L–1 sec–1)

(1) 3.75 × 10–4, 1.25 × 10–4

(2) 1.25 × 10–4, 2.5 × 10–4
(3) 1.25 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4
(4) 5.0 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4

5) The reaction mechanism for the reaction

P → R is as follows.

P 2Q (Fast)

2Q + P R(Slow)
The rate law for the main reaction (P → R) is :

(1) K1[P][Q]
(2) K1K2[P]

(3)

2
(4) K1K2[P]

6) Rate constant K varies with temperature as given below log K (min–1) = then:

(1) Ea = 9.212 kcal

(2) Ea = 2000 kcal
(3) pre–exponential factor A is 5
(4) Ea = 1000 cal

7) The half- life for a reaction is ......... in temperature:-

(1) Independent
(2) Increased with increase
(3) Decreased with increase
(4) None

8) For a first homogeneous gaseous reaction, then initial pressure was Pi while
total pressure after time 't' was Pt. The right expression for the rate constants k in terms of Pi, Pt and
t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

9) For and for at what temperature 'T' both

reactions will have same value of K :-

(1) 500 K
(2) 1500 K
(3) 500/4.606 K
(4) 5000/2.303 K

10) For the reaction, 2A → B + 3C;

if = k1[A]2 ; = k2[A]2 ; = k3[A]2 the correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is :-

(1) k1 = k2 = k3
(2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2

(4)

11) Assertion : Two different reaction can never have same rate of reaction
Reason : Rate of reaction always depends only on frequency of collision and Arrhenious factor

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

12) Rate of which reactions increases with temperature ?

(1) of any reaction

(2) of exothermic reactions
(3) of endothermic reaction
(4) None

13) The rate of reaction starting with initial concentration of 2 × 10–3 M and 1.0 × 10–3 M are 2.40 ×
10–4 Ms–1 and 0.60 × 10–4 Ms–1 respectively. The rate constant is :

(1) 12
(2) 36
(3) 60
(4) 96

14) An endothermic reaction A → B have an activation energy 15 Kcal/mol and the heat of the
reaction is 5Kcal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction B → A is :

(1) 20 Kcal/mol
(2) 15 Kcal/mol
(3) 10 Kcal/mol
(4) Zero

15) The activation energy for the forward reaction A + B C + D + 38 kJ is 20 kJ. The
activation energy for this same reaction in the reverse direction will be :

(1) 20 kJ
(2) 38 kJ
(3) 58 kJ
(4) 18 kJ

16) For a reaction, for which the activation energies for forward and backward reactions are same,
then :

(1) ΔH = 0
(2) ΔS = 0
(3) The order is zero
(4) None of these

17) For a order reaction 2A + 3B 2C. The rate of dissappearance of B is :

2 3 2
(1) K1[A] [B] – K2[C]
2 3 2
(2) 3K1[A] [B] – 3K2[C]
2 3 2
(3) 2K1[A] [B] – 2K2[C]

(4)

18) A second order reaction shows 40% completion in 30 minutes then its half life will be :

(1) 20 min.
(2) 40 min.
(3) 45 min.
(4) 60 min.

19) For the zero order reacion A → B + C; initial concentration of A is 0.1 M. If A = 0.08 M after 10
minutes, then it's half-time and completion time are respectively :

(1) 10 min; 20 min

(2) 2 × 10–3 min; 4 × 10–3 min
(3) 25 min; 50 min
(4) 250 min, 500 min

20) Which is not the correct statement for zeroth order reaction ?

(1) Ea (energy of activation) is zero

(2) Heat of reaction is zero
(3) Rate of disappearance is zero
(4) Rate of disappearance of reactant is independent of concentration.

21) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(฀) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq). What type of reaction is this?

(1) Unimolecular elementary

(2) Pseudo first order
(3) Zero order
(4) Second order
22) Concentration vs time graph for first order reaction is given

Find out the required for concentration to become 2.5 M (in min) (Nearest integer)

(1) 45
(2) 65
(3) 95
(4) 105

23) Given the following elementary reaction steps:

(i) A + B C (fast)

(ii) C D (RDS)
Order of reaction A + B → D is

(1) 1
(2) 1.5
(3) 2
(4) 2.5

24) For an elementary reaction

A+B→C+D

When volume becomes , rate of reaction becomes

(1) 8 times
(2) 9 times
(3) 6 times
(4) 2 times

25)

Initial Concentration t1/2 (Minute)

0.10 M 100
0.025 M 200
Identify order of reaction :
(1) Order of reaction = 1
(2) Order of reaction = zero
(3) Order of reaction = 1.5
(4) Order of reaction = 2

26) Identify the order of reaction whose rate constant is

k = 2.3 × 10–5 L mol–1 s–1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

27)

(1) I and II are identical

(2) II and III are chain isomers
(3) I and III are positional isomers
(4) II and III are identical

28) n-Butyl alcohol and isobutyl alcohol are :

(1) Positional isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Not isomer

29) Compounds with C4H11N as molecular formula can exhibit :-

(1) Position isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) All of these

30) Which of the following is incorrectly matched:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) What is relation between following compounds

&

(1) positional isomers

(2) chain isomers
(3) optical isomers
(4) metamers

32) The minimum number of carbon atoms present in an organic compound to be able to show
position isomerism is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

33) CH3CHOHCH2CHO and CH3CH2CH2COOH constitute a pair of :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Optical isomers
(4) Functional isomers

34) Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) The correct order of the substituent in each of the following set in order of priority according to
CIP rule

(1) –Cl > –OH > –SH > H

(2) –CH2–Br > –CH2–Cl > –CH2–OH > –CH3
(3) –CH = O > – OH > –CH3 > –H
(4) –OCH3 > –N(CH3)2 > – CH3 > –CD3

36) Which of the following are diasteromers ?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) None

37) Identify the configuration

(1) E–
(2) Z–
(3) R–
(4) S–

38) The total number of conformation possible for ethane by rotation around C–C bond is

(1) 2
(2) ∞
(3) 4
(4) 9
39) How many chiral centers are present in tetracycline ?

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 5

40) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

41) Above graph is for a reaction which have only single reactant (R) and
order of reactions depends only on that single reactant then possible order of reaction may be -

(1) First order reaction

(2) 1/2 order reaction
(3) – 2 order reaction
(4) zero order reaction
42) The following data pertain to reaction between A and B :

[A] [B] Rate

[Link].
mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1 sec–1

I 1×10–2 2×10–2 2×10–4

II 2×10–2 2×10–2 4×10–4

III 2×10–2 4×10–2 8×10–4

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above data :
(a) Rate constant for the reaction = 10–4
(b) Rate law of the reaction K[A]1.[B]1
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant.
Select the correct answer :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

43) When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, then the half life period of zero and second
order reactions become :-

(1) Halved and doubled respectively.

(2) Doubled and halved respectively.
(3) No effect on both the reactions.
(4) Same effect on both the reactions.

44) Which of the following is correct for first order reaction ?

(1) t3/4

(2)
t3/4
0
(3) t3/4 a

(4)
t3/4

45) The ratio of t3/4 and t1/2 of zero order reaction is :-

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY
1) Assertion A: In artificial hybridisation, emasculation and bagging techniques are essential to
ensure that only desired pollen grains pollinate the stigma.
Reason R: These techniques prevent contamination of the stigma by unwanted pollen and help in
controlled pollination.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

2) Read the following five statement (A–E) and answer as asked next to them
(A) Xenoganmy is the only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen
grains to the stigma.
(B) The basal part of ovule is known as nucellus.
(C) Stored pollen grains can be used in crop improvment.
(D) The number of ovule is one in coconut, mango and paddy.
(E) Generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
How many of the above statement are incorrect ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

3) Read the following statement [A-D] :-

(A) Rice and wheat pollen grain lose viability within 30 minutes
(B) The basal bulging part of the pistil is the ovule
(C) Dr. Panchanan Maheshwari (1904–1966), a distinguished Indian botanist often called the "Father
of Indian Plant Embryology," is renowned for his pioneering work in developing the technique of
intra-ovarian fertilization.
(D) Opposite the micropylar end is the chalaza
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) If 30 pollen mother cells are present in each microsporangium then how many pollen grains will
be produced in a Makoi flower ?

(1) 140
(2) 2400
(3) 600
(4) 4800

5)
(i) Absorb food from nucellus
(ii) Secreate chemicals to attract & guide pollen tube
(iii) Degrade Antipodal cells
(iv) Help in embryo formation
How many of the above statements are correct with respect to synergids.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

6) In the given diagram of ovule identify A to D part :

A B C D

(1) Chalaza Micropyle Funicle Embryosac

(2) Chalaza Funicle Micropyle Embryosac

(3) Micropyle Chalaza Funicle Embryosac

(4) Funicle Embryosac Micropyle Chalaza

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)

The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?
(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte
(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (B) Represents mature male gametophyte

8)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall [Link] which labelled structures A to F are :

A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

9)

Which of the following is/are not correct with respect to Angiosperms.

A. A typical anther is bilobed, dithecous and tetrasporangiate.
B. Pollen grains may have two cells or three cells at the time of shedding.
C. Individial microspores mature into pollen grains.
D. Microspore mother cells represent the male gametophytic generation.

E. Cells of the sporogenous tissue lying in the centre of the microsporangium undergo
microsporogenesis to form tetrads of microspores.
(1) A and C
(2) B and E
(3) D
(4) E

10)

Given below is the diagrammatic view of three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Pollen Pollen Filament Line Of
1
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line Of Filament

2
sacs grains dehiscence (Stalk)

Pollen Filament Line Of

3 Pollen sacs
grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Line Of Pollen Filament

4
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11)

Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) The site of meiotic division in higher plants is spore mother cell.
(B) In the anther wall middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum.
(C) 2 male gametes are formed from generative cell and vegetative cell.
(D) Pollen grain intine has prominent apertures called germ pores.

How many of the above statements are right :-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-

A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13)

The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify the types of pollination indicated
at p1 p2 and p3.
 P1 P2 P3

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
1 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically
cross pollination
cross pollination

Genetically
Genetically,
self pollination,
2 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically cross
cross pollination
pollination

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
3 ecologically self Self pollination
ecologically
pollination
cross pollination

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
4 ecologically cross Self pollination
ecologically cross
pollination
pollination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

How many meiosis and mitotic division are required for the formation of mature male gametophyte
from microspore mother cell in angiosperm ?

(1) 1 and 1
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 1
(4) 2 and 2

15) Which is not true about sporopollenin ?

(1) It is a fatty substance.

(2) It is secreted by tapetum.
(3) It forms exine of pollen grains.
(4) It is digested by strong acids and biocatalysts.

16)

Column I Column II

a Sporopollenin i Formed by generative cell

b Intine ii Formed by vegetative cell

c Germ pore iii Forms exine

d Pollen tube iv Thin, elastic and delicate

v Absence of intine

vi Absence of sporopollenin
Match the column and choose correct option :-
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–vi, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–v, d–vi

17) Consider the following adaptations seen in flowering plants :-

(a) Bisexuality (b) Dicliny
(c) Homogamy (d) Cleistogamy
Which adaptations promote self pollination :-

(1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d

18)

Match the following columns and choose the right option.

Column I Column II

(I) Mature microspore (A) Locule

(II) Ovarian cavity (B) Pollen grain

(III) Megasporangium (C) Funiculus

(IV) Stalk of ovule (D) Ovule

(1) I–A, II–B, III–D, IV–C
(2) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C
(3) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
(4) I–D, II–A, III–C, IV–B
19) Sequence of development during the formation of embryosac is :-

(1) archesporium→megaspore → megaspore mother cell

(2) megasporocyte → archesporium → megaspore ® embryosac.
(3) megaspore → megaspore mother cell → archesporium → embryosac.
(4) archesporium → megaspore mother cell → megaspore → embryosac.

20) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer in a typical ovule :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Food storage tissue (i) Perisperm

Place where integument is

(B) (ii) Hilum
absent

Remaining part of nucellus

(C) (iii) Nucellus
in seed

Junction between ovule and

(D) (iv) Micropyle
funicle
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

21) Assertion A: Emasculation is not required when the female parent plant has unisexual flowers.
Reason R: Unisexual female flowers do not contain anthers, eliminating the risk of self-pollination.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

22) Assertion A : Manipulating pollen-pistil interaction can assist plant breeders in producing
desired hybrids, even from incompatible pollinations.
Reason R: Pollen-pistil interaction is crucial for the promotion or inhibition of pollen leading to
successful fertilization.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

23) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

24) Choose correct statements for pollination in Vallisneria.

(i) Female flower reach surface of water.
(ii) Female flower remain submerged.
(iii) Pollen released on water surface.
(iv) Pollen released inside water.
(v) Pollen grains are carried passively by water.
(vi) Pollen grains are carried actively in water.
(vii) Most of the pollen grain reach stigma.
(viii) Some of the pollen grain reach stigma.

(1) (i), (iii), (v), (vii)

(2) (ii), (iv), (vi), (vii)
(3) (i), (iii), (v), (viii)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v), (viii)

25) Identify the A and B in given figure & choose right option regarding them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following is incorrect about wind pollination ?

(1) Compact inflorescence
(2) Well – Exposed stamens
(3) Many and light pollens
(4) Ovary has many ovules

27) Assertion :- In monoecious plants neither autogamy nor geitonogamy can be observed.
Reason :- In monoecious plants male and female flowers produce on different plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Which of the following options is correct?

(1) Pollination always guarantees the promotion of post-pollination events that lead to fertilization
The events - "from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule" are together
(2)
referred to as pollen-pistil interaction
(3) Pistil rejects the incompatible pollen by preventing pollen germination in style
(4) Pistil dont have the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is right type or wrong type

29) Assertion : Mature sieve tube, mature RBC and tracheary elements are either become dead or
enucleated and may contain less amount of cytoplasm.
Reason : It is an adaptation in the cells that are involved in conduction/transportation to maximize
space for maximum efficiency.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true and reason is wrong
(4) Both assertion and reason are wrong

30) Transport of molecules through plasma membrane by simple diffusion process takes place for -
(A) Neutral molecules
(B) Polar molecules
(C) Non-polar molecule
(D) Hydrophilic molecule

(1) Only A and B are correct

(2) Only A, C and D are correct
(3) Only A and C are correct
(4) Only A and D are correct

31) Select the following in which 9+2 arrangement of microtubules is absent -

(A) Basal body of prokaryotic flagella
(B) Cilia
(C) flagella of E. coli
correct option is -

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and C

32) Statement-I : In prokaryotes mesosomes help in cellular respiration.

Statement-II : Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form a chain called polysome.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true

33) Mark the odd one with respect to cell wall composition -

(1) Algae - Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonates
(2) Higher plants - Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and proteins
(3) Fungai - Pectin and polysaccharides
(4) Bacteria - N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid linked by peptide chain

34) Read the given statements and choose the correct option-
(A) Gas vacuoles are found in blue-green and purple-green bacteria.
(B) Mitochondria produce ATP through the process of S.L.P & photophosphorylation.
(C) Nonpolar tail of phospholipid is made of saturated hydrocarbons this tail is protected from
aqueous environment.
(D) The quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
(E) The fluid nature of the membrane enables many functions like cell growth, formation of
intercellular junctions and secretion.

(1) A, C, D & E are correct

(2) C, D & E are correct
(3) B, C, D & E are correct
(4) Only A, B & E are correct

35) Cells of the pancreas will incorporate radioactively labeled amino acids into proteins. This
"tagging" of newly synthesized proteins enables a researcher to track their location. In this case, we
are tracking an enzyme secreted by pancreatic cells. What is its most likely pathway?

(1) ER → Golgi → nucleus

(2) Golgi → ER → lysosome
(3) nucleus → ER → Golgi
(4) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

36) Which statement correctly characterizes bound ribosomes?

(1) Bound ribosomes are enclosed in their own membrane.
(2) Bound and free ribosomes are structurally different.
(3) Bound ribosomes generally synthesize membrane proteins and secretory proteins.
The most common location for bound ribosomes is the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma
(4)
membrane.

37) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the
organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, while
organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions
are most likely to contain, respectively.

(1) mitochondria and chloroplasts.

(2) chloroplasts and peroxisomes.
(3) peroxisomes and chloroplasts.
(4) chloroplasts and mitochondria.

38) Diagram (A) and (B) are stage of cell division Find the
correct option -
(i) Both process may be occur in one individual at same time in the life cycle.
(ii) Both process/stages are related to mitosis only.
(iii) Both diagram represent the last stage having chromosome with two chromatid during cell
division.
(iv) Both process/stages are involve in generating the genetic variation in the next generation.
(v) In both A and B, each chromosme represent one dyad.

(1) Only two statements are correct

(2) Only three statements are correct
(3) Only four statements are correct
(4) Only one statements is correct

39) Number of bivalents and chromosomes in metaphase II will be ___ and _____ if the chromosome
number during metaphase I is 46.

(1) 0, 46
(2) 46, 23
(3) 23, 46
(4) 0, 23

40) Match the column-I & II

Column-A Column-B
(a) Zygotene (i) Crossing over
(b) Pachytene (ii) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(c) Diplotene (iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

41) Statement-I : Yeast divides in 90 minutes and human cell divides in 24 hrs.
Statement-II : Duration of cell cycle can vary from organism to organism and also from cell type to
cell type.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true

42) Read the following statements and choose correct option with correct statement-
(I) During anaphase chromatids of a chromosome separate and move to opposite poles. During this
movement arms of chromosome leads and centromere trails behind.
(II) During telophase I the chromosomes completely decondense into chromatin fibre.
(III) Interkinesis is long lived stage between meiosis-I and meiosis-II.
(IV) V, L, J and I shapes of chromosome can be studied in anaphase.

(1) I, II and III

(2) Only IV
(3) I and III
(4) I, II, III and IV

43) Assertion A: Dioecy in plants, where male and female flowers are on different plants, prevents
both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Reason R: Having unisexual flowers on the same plant ensures the transfer of compatible pollen of
the same species to the stigma.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

44) Mark the correct comment for the following diagram- (A) Here centromere
split and sister chromatids separate
(B) It can occur during gametes formation in plants
(C) Future daughter nuclei formation takes place after this stage

(1) Only A and B are correct

(2) Only B and C are correct
(3) All A, B and C are correct
(4) Only A is correct

45) Assertion : During meiosis prophase II is much simpler phase than prophase I.
Reason : Synapsis, crossing over, terminilasation of chiasmata between homologous chromosomes
like events are absent in prophase II.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

46) I. These animals have radial symmetry in adults but bilateral symmetry in their larval stage.
II. They possess a pseudocoelom and show only longitudinal muscles in their body wall.
III. Their excretory structures are nephridia and they exhibit closed circulation.
IV. They exhibit intracellular digestion and canal system.
V. They possess metameric segmentation but lack jointed appendages.
VI. Their excretory and respiratory systems are absent; gas exchange occurs via body surface.
Which statements are correct and accurately matched to their phylum?

I – Echinodermata, II – Nematoda, III – Annelida, IV – Porifera, V – Arthropoda, VI –

(1)
Platyhelminthes
I – Echinodermata, II – Nematoda, III – Annelida, IV – Porifera, V – Annelida, VI –
(2)
Platyhelminthes
(3) I – Mollusca, II – Nematoda, III – Arthropoda, IV – Cnidaria, V – Annelida, VI – Echinodermata
(4) I – Cnidaria, II – Platyhelminthes, III – Mollusca, IV – Porifera, V – Arthropoda, VI – Nematoda

47) In which one of the following the genus name, its two character and its class are correctly
matched :-

Genus Two character Class

(a) External ears or pinnae are absent

(1) Felis Mammalia
(b) Homeothermic

(a) Pleurodont teeth

(2) Struthio Aves
(b) Endoskeleton fully ossified

(a) epidermal scales

(3) Bangarus Reptilia
(b) Poisonous snake

Ichthy (a) 2 pair of limbs present

(4) Amphibia
ophis (b) Poikilothermic animal
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) How many animals belong to second largest phylum ?

Sea urchin, Star fish, Cuttlefish, Devil fish, Snail, oyster, Sea cucumber, Limulus, Salpa, Chiton

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Seven
(4) All

49)

Complete following statements

A) The most distinctive feature if echinoderms is presence of ‘water vascular system’. It helps in
____(i)___, ____(ii)___, ___(iii)___.
B) ‘Ctenidia ( feather like gills )’ present in mantle of mollusca. They have __(iv)__, __(v)__ functions.
C) Sponges have a ‘water transport system’. This pathway of water transport is helpful in __(vi)__,
__(vii)__ , __(viii)__.

(1) (i) reproduction, (iv) food gathering, (vi) hydroskeleton

(2) (iii) Anchoring, (iv) respiration, (vii) respiratory exchange
(3) (i) locomotion, (iv) reproduction, (viii) removal of waste
(4) (ii) capture & transport of food, (v) Excretion, (vii)respiratory exchange

50) Which are the correct features of fishes of chondrichthyes from given below ?
I. Found in both marine and fresh water.
II. Mouth is located ventrally.
III. Placoid scales are present.
IV. Operculum and air bladder both are present.
V. Poikilothermal animals.
VI. They have internal fertilization

(1) II, III, IV, V and VI

(2) I, II, IV, V & VI
(3) II, III, V & VI
(4) III, IV V & VI

51) How many of the following animals shows organ/organ system level of body organisation along
with bilateral symmetry ?
Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma, Hirudinaria, Anopheles, Adult Cucumaria, Balanoglossus.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three
52) Which of the following is incorrect matching with respect to phylum, its symmetry, body plan
and examples mentioned ?

Body
Phylum Symmetry Examples
plan

Blind Euspongia,
(a) Porifera Asymmetrical
sac Sycon

Blind Fasciola,
(b) Platyhelminthes Bilateral
sac Planaria

Blind Hydra,
(c) Cnidaria Radial
sac Physalia

Tube
Ancylostoma,
(d) Aschelminthes Bilateral within
Nereis
tube
(1) Only a and d
(2) Only a
(3) Only d
(4) Only a and c

53) Which of the following are correct match -

(a) Asterias – Water canal system

(b) Periplaneta – Jointed legs

(c) Nereis – Metamers

(d) Pleurobrachia – Ciliary combplates

(e) Obelia – Metagenesis

(f) Sycon – Corals

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, d, e, f
(3) a, c, d, f
(4) b, c, d, e

54) Read the following features :-

(i) Commonly known as "Round worm"
(ii) Animals are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
(iii) Exclusively parasite on animals
(iv) Pseudocoelomate animals having organ-system level of body organisation
(v) Body shows segmentation
(vi) Alimentary canal complete with well developed muscular pharynx
(vii) Animals are bisexual and shows sexual dimorphism
(viii) Fertilization internal and direct or indirect development.
Out of these how many features are not exhibited by members of Aschelminthes ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

55) How many of the following non chordates possess 'Flame cells' as the excretory organ ?
Sycon, Ctenoplana, Taenia, Amphioxus, Cyclops, Betta, Scoliodon

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Protochordates are exclusively marine
(B) In cephalochordates, Notochord extends from head to tail region.
(C) In urochordates, Notochord is present only in larval tail.
(D) Cranium and vertebral column are bony in cyclostomates.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(1) A alone
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All

57) Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as Mammals.

Reason : Bats and whales have four chambered heart.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

58) Which one of the following statement about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin
is correct ?

(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical

(2) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(3) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
(4) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three

59)

Find out the correct match from following table ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Common Scientific Taxonomic
Name Name group
 (i) Garden Lizard Calotes Reptilia

Fresh water
(ii) Chelone Reptilia
tortoise

Great white
(iii) Carcharodon Osteicthysis
shark

(iv) Fighting fish Betta Osteicthysis

(v) Tree frog Hyla Amphibia

(1) (iii), (iv) & (v)
(2) (i), (iii) & (v)
(3) (i), (iv) & (v)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

60) Read the following characteristics features of the given below animal :-

(i) Body is divided in the head, trunk and tail.

(ii) Skin : Moist and scally.
(iii) Cloaca present
(iv) Heart : Trichembered.
(v) Homeothermal animal
(vi) Male and female are separate
(vii) Oviparous
(viii) Indirect development
(ix) No. of cranial nerve = 12 pairs
Identify the animal and find out the how many no. of features are exhibited by animal from above
mantioned features ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Assertion :- The middle piece of sperm is called as power house.

Reason :- Nebenkernn sheath is present in middle peice.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

62) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the options, which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) In human females in the oogenesis process, maturation phase is the longest phase.
(b) In human females, the first polar body undergoes meiosis-II.
(c) Completion of meiosis-I, converts the secondary oocyte into a fertilized egg or zygote.
(d) one primary oocyte forms only one ovum.

(1) statement (a), (b), (c)

(2) statement (a), (c)
(3) statement (b), (d)
(4) statement (a), (d)

63) Read the following statements carefully.

The .......(A)...... present on the inside wall of .......(B)....... multiply by .....(C)...... division. A
......(D)....... completes the .......(E)....... division leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells called
.......(F)....... . Which one of the following options gives the correct filling of A, B, C, D, E and F?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Primary Primary
(A) Spermatogonia Spermatogonia
Spermatocyte Spermatocyte

Seminiferous Seminiferous
(B) Sertoli Cell Sertoli Cell
tubule tubule

(C) Mitotic Mitotic First meiotic First meiotic

Primary Secondary Secondary

(D) Spermatid
Spermatocyte Spermatocyte Spermatocyte

Second
(E) First meiotic First meiotic Second meiotic
meiotic

Secondary
(F) Spermatid Spermatid Sperm
Spermatocyte

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Identify the correct match from columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Sertoli cells (a) Epididymis (i) Androgens

 (2) Leydig cells (b) Scrotum (ii) AMH

Temperature regulation
(3) Dartos muscles (c) Testis (iii)
of scrotum

Circular Seminiferous Help in pulsation

(4) (d) (iv)
muscles tubule movement
(1) 2 – a – iii, 1 – c – iv, 3 – b – i, 4 – d – ii
(2) 1 – c – iv, 2 – d – iii, 3 – b – i, 4 – a – ii
(3) 1 – d – ii, 2 – c – i, 3 – b – iii, 4 – a – iv
(4) 3 – b – iv, 4 – a – ii, 2 – d – i, 1 – c – iii

65) How many meiosis divisions required to form 132 zygote ?

(1) 150
(2) 165
(3) 132
(4) 100

66) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.
Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events :-

(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian

follicle to secrete oestrogen which stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) Rupture Graafian follicles developed into corpus luteum which secretes progesterone
(iii) Reduced production of all hormone causes degeneration of endometrium, thereby menustral
flow starts.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Arrange these reproductive events occuring in human from last to first and find out the correct
sequence :-
Insemination (A), Parturition (B), Formation of blastocyst (C), Gametogenesis (D), Gestation (E),
Fertilisation (F)
(1) D,A,F,C,E,B
(2) D,F,A,B,C,E
(3) B,E,C,F,A,D
(4) B,C,E,F,A,D

68) Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs

(1) After entry of sperm before completion of fertilisation

(2) After completion of fertilisation
(3) Before entry of sperm
(4) No relation to sperm entry

69) How many of following structures are related to vulva ?

(a) Clitoris (b) Hymen
(c) Labia majora (d) Mons pubis
(e) Labia minora (f) Endometrium
(g) Areola

(1) a, b, c and g
(2) a, c, d and g
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, c, d, e and g

70) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R : In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration
of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

71) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones
only:
(a) Estrogen cause myometrial hypertrophy.
(b) Progesteron decrease myometrial contraction.
(c) Pre ovulatory phase also known as progesterogenic phase.
(d) Oestrogen is only secreted by follicles.

(1) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (b), (d)
(3) Statement (a), (b)
(4) Statement (b, (c) and (d)
72) How many of the following structures are present only in male :-
Vas deferens, seminiferous tubule, mammary gland, anus, urethra, tubuli recti, bartholin gland,
clitoris

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Seven
(4) Four

73) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Decapacitation take place in vagina
(B) Human egg is also known as coelomic egg
(C) Glans penis is formed by corpus cavernosa
(D) Estrogen has both positive and negative feedback effect on gonadotrophins secretion
How many of the above statements are correct :-

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Four

74) Which is the permanent layer of uterus ?

(1) Stratum basalis

(2) Myometrium
(3) Perimetrium
(4) All of the above

75) Identify the correct pair :

Hormone Function

(I) Inhibin (a) Development of secondary sexual character in male

(II) ABP (b) Stimulates Leydigs cells to secrete testosterone

(III) Testosterone (c) Concentrates the testosterone inside seminiferous tubule

(IV) LH (d) Suppression of FSH

(1) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
(2) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d

76) Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?

(i) In a normal 28 days menstrual cycle you would expect menstruation to last approximately 3–5
days.
(ii) During menstruation, the entire endometrium is shed.
(iii) During menstruation, only the functional layer of endometrium is shed.
(iv) Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) are true.

(2) (ii), (iii) are true.
(3) (i), (ii) are true.
(4) (i), (iii) are true.

77) Orchidectomy surgery is performed in a 60 yrs old male due to suspection of cancer. After one
year of surgery that person was analysed for hormonal level. What would be the hormonal level of
that person ?

(1) Estrogens ↓, GnRH ↓

(2) Testosterone , LH FSH ↓
(3) Testosterone , LH ↓ FSH ↓
(4) Testosterone ↓, LH , FSH

78) The graph below shown different phases of menstruation cycle's hormones. Select the option
giving correct identification together with its secretion :-

(1) A – LH, secrete by posterior pituitary

(2) B – FSH, secrete by developing follicles
(3) C – Estrogen, secrete by developing follicle & corpus luteum
(4) D – progesterone, secrete by corpus albicans

79)
Find out A, B, C, D and E respectively :-

(1) Testis Leyding Sertoli AMH ABP

cells cells
(2) ICSH Testis AMH Sertoli ABP
cells
(3) LH Interstitial FSH Sertoli AMH
cells cell
(4) ICSH Leyding FSH Sertoli ABP
cells cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) How many of the cells labelled in diagram are haploid :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

81) The following diagram refers to L.S. of testis showing various parts. In which one of the option

all the six parts are correct :-

1- Tunica Vaginalis, 2-Rete Testis, 3-Caput Epididymis, 4-Vas Deferens, 5-Mediastinum Testis, 6-
(1)
Cauda Epididymis
1-Tunica Vaginalis, 2-Rete Testis, 3-Cauda Epididymis, 4-Mediastinum Testis, 5-Vas Deferens, 6-
(2)
Caput Epididymis
1-Tunica Vaginalis, 2-Rete Testis, 3-Cauda Epididymis,4-Vas Deferens 5-Mediastinum Testis, 6-
(3)
Caput Epididymis
1-Tunica Vaginalis, 2-Rete Testis, 3-Caput Epididymis, 4-Mediastinum Testis, 5- Vas Deferens, 6-
(4)
Cauda Epididymis

82) Arrange the following male sex duct in the correct sequence for the transport of sperms from the
testes.
(a) Seminiferous tubule
(b) Epididymis
(c) Ejaculatory duct
(d) Vasa efferentia
(e) Rete testis
(f) Vas deferens
(g) Ejaculation
(h) Urethra
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) a, d, e, b, f, h, g, c
(2) a, d, f, b, e, g, c, h
(3) a, e, d, b, f, c, h, g
(4) a, d, e, f, b, h, c, g

83) Arrange the components of mammary gland. (From distal to proximal)

(a) Mammary duct
(b) Lactiferous duct
(c) Alveoli
(d) Mammary ampulla
(e) Mammary tubules
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) b - d - a - e - c
(2) c - e- a - b - d
(3) e - c - d - b - a
(4) c - a - d - e - b

84) Structure 'A' is secretes 'B' hormone both 'B' hormone inhibite
secretion of both 'C' hormone ?

(1) Graafian follicle, estrogen , FSH & LH

(2) Corpus luteum, progesterone & estrogen, FSH & LH
(3) Corpus luteum, only progesterone, FSH & LH
(4) Corpus luteum, GnRH, Estrogen & Progesterone

85) In the given diagram identify parts named 1-5 and select the correct answer
(1) 1-nucleus, 2-tail, 3-mitochondria, 4-acrosome, 5-centriole
(2) 1-acrosome, 2-nucleus, 3-centriole, 4-mitochondria,5-plasma membrane
(3) 1-nucleus, 2-mitochondria, 3-plasma membrane, 4-centriole, 5-neck
(4) 1-acrosome, 2-centriole, 3-mitochondria, 4-plasma membrane, 5-tail

86) Given below is a digramatic presentation of spermatogenesis find out which step is incorrect.

(1) Step 1 is correct but step 2 is incorrect.

(2) Step 1 and step 2 both are incorrect.
(3) Step 1 is incorrect but step 2 is correct.
(4) Step 1 and step 2 both are correct.
87) Identify the Diagram & Choose the correct option :-

A B C
(1) Vitelline membrane Zona pellucida Corona Radiata
(2) Zona pellucida Corona Radiata Perivitelline space
(3) Corona Radiata Zona pellucida Perivitelline space
(4) Plasma membrane Zona pellucida Corona Radiata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) A female of 40 years have two identical childs puberty attains at the age of 10 year and M.C is
of 30 days find the no of M.C.?

(1) 330
(2) 360
(3) 345
(4) 300

89) A female of 24 years age attained puberty at the age of 14 years. She has two children born by
normal delivery. How many polar bodies are formed in her body till date (each M.C. is of 30 days) :-

(1) 90
(2) 96
(3) 92
(4) 88

90) A 25 yrs old female goes to doctor. She ask doctor that after 4 days there is due date of her
menses and she wants to post-pone bleeding for some days as she will be engaged in some official
work during those days what will be the doctor's suggestive treatment ?

(1) FSH and estrogen

(2) FSH and progesterone
(3) Progesterone only
(4) Estrogen only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 2 2 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 3 4 4 4 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation : We have given an infinite line charge and semicircular charge
wire whose centre at (R, 0) as shown in figure. We have to find ratio of changed densities
for the electric field at (R,0) will be zero.
Concept : Electric field at a point
Solution : Electric field intensity at a point is the vector sum of all individual EF at a point.

Here θ = π ⇒
Final answer : Option (1) is correct answer.

6) q is +ve because lines of force emerge from it and |Q| < |q| because more lines emerge from
q and less lines terminate at Q.

11)

By gauss theorem - ϕnet = corner contribution.

for surface touching the charge = 0

For remaining three surface, flux = 3ϕ =

ϕ per surface (left most) =

13)
=

16)

(1)
Sum of all electric fields is zero.

(2)
Sum of all electric fields
is rightwards, non-zero

(3)
Sum of all electric fields is zero

(4)
Sum of all the electric fields is zero
 21)

Since, it is a regular polygen If all charges were positive net force would be zero. Now one
positive is missing and one additional –Q is placed at point E.

∴ Fnet =

22) As due to ring is zero; so, due to remaining ring is same as 'dℓ' element.
E = \(\dfrac{{dq}}{{4\pi {\varepsilon _0}{r^2}}}\); dq = \(\dfrac{{Qd\ell }}{{2\pi r}}\) ⇒

24) The forces acting on each charges form action reaction pair
∴ they are equal and opposite.

25)

Field due to two segments

E1 = E2 = E = sin30° =
Because, θ = 120° ⇒ Enet = E

OR

31)

Equilibrium of floating body is unaffected by variations in g.

32) (FB)w = Mg = (FB)liq

ρw × = ρℓ ×
1000 × = ×
(ρliq = 2000 kg/m3)

33)

Refer figure.
As the mercury columns in the two arms of U tube are at the same level, therefore

Pressure due to water = Pressure due to spirit column

ρwhwg = ρshsg

∴ Relative density of spirit

34)

Relative density of solid =

Relative density of liquid = .

36)

Time taken by water to reach the bottom

=
and velocity of water coming out of hole,

∴ Horizontal distance covered x = v × t

38)

diameter (2r) =
 = 0.07 ×10–3 m = 0.07 mm

39)

Question Explanation :
We need to find area of cross section of water stream, given height below the tap with the help
of given data.
Concept : This question is based on equation of continuity & free fall.
Solution:
The area of cross section must decrease hence option (1) is the only correct option
0.4 m below the tap speed is v then
use v2 = u2 + 2as
⇒ v2 = 12 + 2 (10) (0.4)
v = 3 m/s
By equation of continuity
A2 v = A1u
A × 3 = 0.2 × 1

A= = 0.066 m2
Final Answer : option (1)

40) According to equation of continuity the volume of liquid flowing through the tube in unit
time remains constant i.e. A1v1 = A2v2, hence option (1) is incorrect
According to Bernoulli's theorem,

Hence option (3) is correct.

Also, according to Bernoulli's theorem option (4) is incorrect

42)

B= ⇒ =

For sphere V= πR3 ⇒ =3

⇒ =3 =

⇒ =

43) Explain Question:

To plot P vs x graph for a fluid.
 Concept:
Bernoulli's Theorem, Equation of continuity.

Solution:
When cross-section of duct is decreased, the velocity of water increased in according with
Bernoulli's theorem, the pressure p decreased at that place.

Final Answer: Option(1)

45) Question Explanation: Identify the standard Sl unit for the coefficient of viscosity.

Concept: Sl unit for the coefficient of viscosity

Formula :

Solution:

Since 1N/m2 = 1Pa, the unit is also Pa ⋅s.

Both options 3 and 4 represent the same SI unit.

Option 3 is the standard composite SI unit name.

Final answer : Option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)
t=0 100

t=5 (100–P) P P/2

 ⇒ p = 40

48) Question Explanation: Find how much time does it take for concentration to come from
0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1

Concept: This question is based on zero order reaction.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

49)

According to stoichiometry of reaction :

=
= rate of reaction
⇒ rate of reaction

⇒ rate of disappearance

= 3.75 × 10–4

51) From the equation

Ea = (2000 × 2.303 × 2 × 10–3) kcal

53)
54) 500/4.606 K

66)

Question explanation:
We are asked identify the type of reaction represented by the hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in
acidic medium.

Concept:
Pseudo first order reaction

Solution:
• Reaction: CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → CH3COOH + C2H5OH (in acidic medium)
• Water is in large excess, so its concentration remains effectively constant.
• Although two reactants are involved, the reaction behaves as first order respect to ester.

Final answer: Option (2)

67)

68)
Rate of RDS = Rate of reaction = k2[C]

r = koverall [A] [B]

Order of reaction = 1 + 1 = 2

69) r = K[A] [B]

Because volume becomes ,

So concentration becomes 3 times.
r′ = K [3A] [3B]
r′ = 9 K [A] [B]
r′ = 9 r
Hence rate becomes 9 times.

70)
Question Explanation: Order of reaction is to be identified using given half-life values at
different initial concentrations.

Concept: For an nᵗʰ order reaction: t1/2 ∝ 1 / (C₀)ⁿ⁻¹

Solution:
(t1/2)1 = 100 min at C₀₁ = 0.10 M
(t1/2)2 = 200 min at C₀₂ = 0.025 M

200 / 100 = (0.10 / 0.025)ⁿ⁻¹

2 = 4ⁿ⁻¹
4 = 2² ⇒ 2 = 2²⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾

So, 1 = 2(n − 1)
2n − 2 = 1
2n = 3
n = 1.5

Final Answer: Option 3

71) unit of
Comparing the power of litre we get
n–l=1
n=2
i. e., 2nd order reaction.

72)

CH3–CHD–CH2T, CH2D–CHT–CH3, CHDT–CH2–CH3

1 2 3
1 ∝ 2 → Positional isomers
2 & 3 → Positional isomers

73)
Both compounds having same molecular formula and functional group but having different
parent carbon chain so these are chain isomers.

74)

(1) CH3CH2–CH2–CH2–NH2

& Position isomerism

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3
 & CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3 Metamerism
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH3
1º amine
& CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
2º amine

& Metamerism
3º amine
F.G. isomerism

75)

76) and are Chain isomers.

79) Question Explanation: The question asks which compound among the given options does
not exhibit geometrical (cis–trans) isomerism.

Concept: Geometrical Isomerism, Endocyclic Double Bond.

Solution: Geometrical isomerism requires a double bond with two different groups on each
carbon, and the structure of the molecule (such as being in a ring) can affect this.
Geometrical (cis–trans) isomerism around a C=C bond requires (i) restricted rotation (which a
double bond provides) and (ii) two different substituents on each of the sp2 carbons.
In endocyclic alkenes (where the C=C is part of the ring), the ring itself fixes the relative
positions of the substituents. For rings up to 7 members, an endocyclic double bond cannot
adopt two distinguishable arrangements (there is only one way to attach the ring), so no
cis–trans isomerism is possible.
In option D the C=C is part of a 6-membered ring (endocyclic), so it cannot show geometrical
isomers

Final Answer: Option (4)

80) Use sequence rule or CIP rule

81)
 For locant of numbering start for –COOH (Principle function group) (i & ii) distereomer
(not mirror image Alkyl group will be differing along same bivalent functional group so that
they become metamers.

82) A Question Explanation:

The question asks to identify the configuration (E or Z) of the double bond in the given
molecule. This involves assigning priorities to the groups attached to each carbon of the
double bond and determining their relative positions.

B Given Data:

C Concept:

A. E/Z Nomenclature: A system used to describe the stereochemistry of double bonds.

B. Priority Rules (Cahn-Ingold-Prelog): At each carbon of the double bond, the attached
groups are assigned priorities based on atomic number. The atom with the higher atomic
number receives higher priority.
C. Z (cis): If the two higher priority groups are on the same side of the double bond, the
configuration is Z (from the German word "zusammen," meaning together).
D. E (trans): If the two higher priority groups are on opposite sides of the double bond, the
configuration is E (from the German word "entgegen," meaning opposite).

D Answer Explanation:
Since the higher priority groups are on the same side, the configuration is Z.

E Final Answer: Option 2

F Question Level: Easy).

83) Explain the Question : The question asks how many conformations ethane can have
when the C–C bond rotates.
Concept : This question is based on conformational analysis, free rotation around sigma bond.
Solution :
Ethane (CH3–CH3) has a C–C single bond that allows free rotation.
As the bond rotates, the relative positions of the hydrogens change continuously.
This gives rise to infinite conformations, through two extreme cases are notable :
Staggered (most stable)
Eclipsed (least stable)
All intermediate angle between 0° and 360° correspond to different conformations.
Final Answer: (2)

84)

85) (P) → Optically inactive.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Mirror images are super imposable, so meso compound.

86) Question Explanation: Find possible order of reaction

Concept: This question is based on zero order reaction.

Solution:
 From the graph concentration of reactant (R) is decreasing with the time
linearly.
So the order of reaction is zero.
For zero order reaction :
[R]0 – [R]t = kt

Final Answer: Option (4)

87) NCERT Pg.#98 Para-4.2

88) Refer t50% formulae.

89) of first-order reaction is independent of concentration.

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain the question : The question asks to evaluate both statements and determine
Concept : This question is based on This question is based on Pollination.
Solution :-
A is True : Rmasculation and bagging are essential for controlled pollination in artificial
hybridisation.
R is True : These techniques do prevent contamination and help in controlled pollination
R is the correct explanation of A
The reason directly supports the assertion by explaining why emasculation and bagging are
necessary.
Final answer :- (1)

98)

Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled anther wall layers in the transverse section
diagram.
Concept: Anther Wall Layers
Solution: The diagram shows the concentric layers from outside (A) inwards (E):
A → Epidermis (outermost protective layer).
B → Endothecium (fibrous layer, aids dehiscence).
C → Middle layer (ephemeral layers).
D → Tapetum (innermost nutritive layer).
E → Microspore mother cells (central sporogenous tissue).
F → Connective (central sterile tissue).
Final Answer: option (2)

99) NCERT Pg. # 19,21

100) NCERT XII pg. 21 Fig. 2.2 (b)

102) NCERT XII, Page # 26

103) P1 is a self pollination, P2 is genetically self pollination but ecologically cross pollination,
P3 is Genetically and ecologically cross pollination

105) Module-4 Pg. # 131

106)

Question Explanation: Matching terms related to pollen wall structure and function.

Concept: Pollen Wall

Solution:

(a) Exine → Formed of Sporopollenin (iii).

(b) Intine → Thin, elastic, and delicate (iv).

(c) Germ pore → Absence of sporopollenin (vi).

(d) Pollen tube → Formed by the vegetative cell (ii).

The correct match is a-iii, b-iv, c-vi, d-ii.
Final Answer: option (2)

108)

Explain Question :The question asks to correctly match items from Column I (which lists
plant reproductive structures) to their corresponding descriptions or related parts in Column
II.

Concept : Pre-Fertilization Events (Male And Female)

Explanation :

1. Mature microspore: The mature microspore develops into the pollen grain.
Correct match: (A) Pollen grain

2. Ovarian cavity: The ovarian cavity is also known as the locule, where the ovules are located.

Correct match: (B) Locule

3. Megasporangium: The megasporangium is the structure that produces the ovule.

Correct match: (D) Ovule

4. Stalk of ovule: The stalk of the ovule is called the funiculus.

Correct match: (C) Funiculus

Final answer :Option (2)

110) Question Explanation :

Match ovule structures in Column I with their correct descriptions in Column II.

Concept :
Structure of ovule.

Solution :
Food storage tissue in seed → nucellus.
Place where integument is absent → micropyle.
Remaining part of nucellus in seed → perisperm.
Junction between ovule and funicle → hilum.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

111)

Explain Question : The question asks to evaluate the assertion and reason about
emasculation in unisexual flowers.

Concept : This question is based on Emasculation.

Solution :
Assertion A: Emasculation is not required when the female parent has unisexual flowers.
(True)
Reason R: Unisexual female flowers do not contain anthers, thus eliminating the risk of self-
pollination. (True)
The lack of anthers (Reason) is the reason why emasculation is unnecessary (Assertion).

Final Answer : Option (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

112)

Question Explanation : Assertion reason type question with the reference of pollen pistil
interaction.
Concept: Pollen pistil interaction.
Solution:
Assertion (A): Pollen-pistil interaction is crucial for the promotion or inhibition of pollen
leading to successful fertilization.-True.
The interaction between pollen and pistil tissues regulates whether pollen grains will
germinate and fertilize the ovule. This includes mechanisms like self-incompatibility, which
prevent self-fertilization and promote cross-pollination.
Reason (R): Manipulating pollen-pistil interaction can assist plant breeders in producing
desired hybrids, even from incompatible pollinations.-True.
The knowledge gained in this area would help the plant breeder in manipulating pollen-pistil
interaction, even in incompatible pollinations, to get desired hybrids.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Since pollen-pistil interaction controls pollen acceptance or rejection, manipulating this
interaction directly helps in overcoming incompatibility and producing hybrids.
Final answer: 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Final Answer: Option (1)

113) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

114) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29 last para

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28, fig.2.9(c)

118) NCERT - 15

119) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion

120) Only A and C are correct

121) A and C

122) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

123) Fungai - Pectin and polysaccharides

124) C, D & E are correct

125) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

126) Bound ribosomes generally synthesize membrane proteins and secretory proteins.
127) chloroplasts and mitochondria.

128) Only two statements are correct

129) 0, 23

130) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

131) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true

132) Only IV

133) The assertion is true as dioecy, the condition where male and female flowers are present
on different plants, does indeed prevent both autogamy (self-pollination within the same
flower) and geitonogamy (pollination between different flowers on the same plant). However,
the reason is false because having unisexual flowers on the same plant (monoecy) does not
ensure the transfer of compatible pollen; it only prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.
Dioecy is not a mechanism to ensure the transfer of compatible pollen but rather a mechanism
to prevent self-pollination and promote cross-pollination.

134) All A, B and C are correct

135)

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion

136) Explaining : I – Echinodermata, II – Nematoda, III – Annelida, IV – Porifera, V – Annelida,

VI – Platyhelminthes
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

137) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 58

138) NCERT Pg # 54, 55

139) The sea lamprey (Petromyzon) is a parasitic lamprey.

Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian,
Limulus-is a living fossil-arthropoda
Adamsia is a genus of sea anemones – Coelenterata

140) NCERT XI, Pg # 47

 141) NCERT Pg. # 51, 52, 53, 54

142)

Question explanation
The question is asking to identify the incorrect matches between phylum, symmetry, body
plan, and examples.
Concept
This question is based on Animal classification based on symmetry, body plan, and examples
Solution
Option (a) is incorrect in body plan, sponges have cell-aggregate type of body plan.
Option (d) is incorrect because Nereis is not an Aschelminthes; it belongs to Annelida.
Final answer 1

143) NCERT Page No. # 50-54

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 51,52 (H)

145) NCERT (XIth), Pg. # 55

148) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Sponges are asymmetrical

Structure of Collar Cells (Choanocytes):

● Shape: Collar cells are named for their distinctive collar-like structure. They have a
central flagellum surrounded by a ring of microvilli (small, finger-like projections),
forming a collar around the flagellum.
● Flagellum: The flagellum is a whip-like structure that beats in a coordinated manner
to generate a current of water through the sponge’s body.
● Collar: The collar is made up of microvilli, which help capture food particles from the
water as it flows past the cell.

150) NCERT XI (H), Page # 57,58

152)

Question explanation: Identify the correct statements about human oogenesis.

Concept: Oogenesis.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 – statements (a) and (d)

A. (a) In human females, in the oogenesis process, the maturation phase is the longest
phase → True, the secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase-II until fertilization.
 B. (b) In human females, the first polar body undergoes meiosis-II → False, it may or may
not divide, but it generally degenerates.

C. (c) Completion of meiosis-I converts the secondary oocyte into a fertilized egg or zygote
→ False, meiosis-II completes after fertilization, forming the zygote.

D. (d) One primary oocyte forms only one ovum → True, along with polar bodies.

Final answer: Option (4)

153)

Explain Question : To identify A, B, C, D, E, F

Concept : This question is based on Spermatogenesis

Solution :
(A) Spermatogonia
(B) Seminiferous tubule
(C) Mitotic
(D) Primary Spermatocyte
(E) First meiotic
(F) Secondary Spermatocyte

Final Answer : option (1)

154)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about correctly matching cells or structures of the male reproductive
system with their location and function.

Concept
Male reproductive system structure and function.

Solution
Sertoli cells are present in the seminiferous tubules and they secrete AMH, so 1 matches with
d and ii. Leydig cells are present in the testis and secrete androgens, so 2 matches with c and
i. Dartos muscles are present in the scrotum and help in temperature regulation of the
scrotum, so 3 matches with b and iii. Circular muscles are present in the epididymis and help
in pulsation movement of sperm, so 4 matches with a and iv.

Final answer: Option 3

159) Explain Question:

Identify how many listed structures belong to the vulva (female external genitalia).

Concept:
This question is based on female external genitalia.
 Solution:
Vulva includes mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, hymen, vestibule.

A. (a) Clitoris = correct

B. (b) Hymen = correct
C. (c) Labia majora = correct
D. (d) Mons pubis = correct
E. (e) Labia minora = correct
F. (f) Endometrium = incorrect (internal uterine lining)
G. (g) Areola = incorrect (part of breast, not vulva)

Final Answer: 3 (a, b, c, d and e)

160)

Question explanation: Evaluate the correctness of the assertion–reason pair related to

implantation and endometrium.
Concept: Reproduction – Menstrual cycle & Implantation
Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Assertion (A): True. The endometrium provides nourishment and a suitable surface
for implantation of the blastocyst.

B. Reason (R): True. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates,
leading to a fall in progesterone and disintegration (menstruation) of the
endometrium.

C. However, R does not explain why endometrium is necessary for implantation; it

only explains what happens in absence of fertilization.

Final answer: Option 1

163)

Question Explanation
The question is asking how many of the given statements about human reproduction are
correct.

Concept
Human reproduction

Solution
Statement (A) is incorrect – decapacitation of sperm occurs in the male reproductive tract, not
in the vagina.
Statement (B) is correct – human egg is also called coelomic egg.
Statement (C) is incorrect – glans penis is formed by corpus spongiosum, not corpus
cavernosa.
Statement (D) is correct – estrogen can have both positive and negative feedback on
gonadotropin secretion.

Final answer: Option 1

168)

A - FSH
B - LH
C - Estrogen
D - Progesterone
NCERT Page No 30

170)

Question Explanation: The question asks how many cells in the diagram are haploid.

Concept: Testis

Solution: In the given figure of sectional view of seminiferous tubule showing

spermatogenesis - secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatozoa are haploid, while
primary spermatocytes, spermatogonia, and Sertoli cells are diploid. Thus the number of
haploid cells is three.

Final answer: Option 2

172) NCERT Pg#27

173) NCERT Pg#30

174) NCERT Pg # 49

177) NCERT Pg. # 51 ; Fig. 3.10

180)

Question explanation : The woman wants to postpone menstruation for a few days.

Concept : Hormonal control of menstrual cycle

Solution :

A. Menstruation occurs due to a fall in progesterone level at the end of the menstrual cycle.
If progesterone is continued or supplemented, the endometrium is maintained, and
menstrual bleeding is delayed.

B. So , doctors prescribe progesterone (or progesterone analogues) to postpone periods.

Final answer : Option 3