Page 1

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS26_Sim5 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box
Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
else on the Test Booklet. Mobile No:
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items
(questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers).
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In
any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 2

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.1) With reference to the Viksit Bharat– IV. They cannot examine matters of day-to-
Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission day administration of the concerned
(Gramin): VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, consider the ministries.
following statements: Which of the statements given above are
I. It guarantees at least 150 days of wage correct?
employment per eligible rural household a) I and II only
in a financial year. b) I, II and III
II. It is implemented as a Central Sector c) II, III and IV
Scheme. d) III and IV only
III. To facilitate labour availability during
peak agricultural seasons of sowing or Q.4) ‘Right to Education’ is incorporated under
harvesting, the act empowers States to which of the following categories of
pause work for a certain number of days Fundamental Rights?
in a year. a) Right to Equality
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Cultural and Educational Rights
correct?
c) Right to Freedom
a) I and II
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
b) III only
c) II only
Q.5) Which of the following articles of the
d) II and III
Constitution of India provides for securing
the uniform civil code throughout the
Q.2) Which among the following Articles territory of India?
constitute the ‘Golden Triangle’ of the a) Article 45
Constitution of India, as per the Supreme b) Article 44
Court judgment in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of
c) Article 46
India (1978)?
d) Article 41
a) Articles 14, 19 and 21
b) Articles 14, 21 and 32
Q.6) With reference to the Parliament of India,
c) Articles 19, 21 and 32
the term “guillotine” refers to a process by
d) Articles 17, 19 and 21
which:
a) a Money Bill is deemed to have been
Q.3) With reference to the Departmentally passed if the Rajya Sabha does not return it
Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) of to Lok Sabha within fourteen days.
Parliament, consider the following statements: b) the Finance Bill is taken up for voting
I. They consist of members drawn immediately after the presentation of the
exclusively from the Lok Sabha. Union Budget.
II. A Union Minister is eligible to be c) the Speaker orders the immediate
nominated as a member of these suspension of a Member of Lok Sabha for
Committees. engaging in unparliamentary conduct.
III. These Committees are mandated to d) all outstanding Demands for Grants are put
examine the Demands for Grants of the to vote at once, without discussion, on the
concerned ministries and departments last day allotted for their consideration.
before they are discussed and voted upon
in the Lok Sabha.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 3

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.7) Which of the following best describes the c) Only three
term ‘Republic’ as enshrined in the Preamble d) All the four
of the Indian Constitution?
a) The government is formed by Q.10) With reference to recent international
representatives elected by the people.
agreements/initiatives, consider the following
b) The Union Council of Ministers is pairs:
collectively responsible to the House of
International Subject
People.
agreement/
c) The head of the State in India is elected
set-up
and does not hold office by hereditary
I. High Ambition Advocating for limiting
succession.
Coalition for global warming to 1.5°C
d) Political authority is exercised in
Nature and above the pre-industrial
accordance with the provisions of the
People (2021) level and strengthening
Constitution of India.
mitigation commitments
II. Jaipur Cooperation on cross-
Q.8) The term 'Secular' is mentioned in which Declaration border data flows and
of the following part/s of the Constitution of (2025) digital sovereignty
India? among Global South
I. Preamble nations
II. Directive Principles of State Policy III. Pax Silica Securing semiconductor
III. Fundamental Rights Declaration supply chains and critical
IV. Fundamental Duties (2025) technology cooperation

Select the correct answer using the code IV. Seoul Prevention of zoonotic
given below: Statement diseases emerging from
(2025) rainforest ecosystems
a) I only
How many of the pairs given above are
b) I and III only
correctly matched?
c) II and IV only
a) Only one
d) I, II and III
b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.9) Consider the following types of cases:
d) All the four
I. Cases related to the Compoundable
criminal offences
II. Cases related to the Non-compoundable Q.11) Which one of the following is among the
criminal offences essential features of a federal government?

III. Land acquisition cases. a) The separation of powers between the

legislature, executive, and judiciary.
IV. Cases pertaining to recovery of money by
the banks and other financial institutions. b) The Constitutional/statutory division of
powers between the Union and regional
How many of the above come under the
governments.
subject matter jurisdiction of the Lok Adalats
in India? c) A form of government where the executive
is responsible to the legislature.
a) Only one
d) The existence of a multi-party system with
b) Only two
periodic, free, and fair elections.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 4

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.12) With reference to the Supreme Court of Which of the statements given above is/are
India, which one of the following statements is correct?
not correct? a) I only
a) The Chief Justice of India, with the b) II only
previous consent of the President, may c) Both I and II
request an eligible judge of a High Court to d) Neither I nor II
sit and act as an ad hoc judge of the
Supreme Court. Q.15) ‘Campus Calling’ programme, recently
b) Parliament can increase the number of seen in the news, is an initiative of?
judges in the Supreme Court of India a) University Grants Commission (UGC)
through legislation. b) National Commission for Women (NCW)
c) The Chief Justice of India, with the c) National Human Rights Commission
approval of the President, may appoint a (NHRC)
place in addition to Delhi for the Court to d) National Commission for Protection of
sit. Child Rights (NCPCR)
d) The President may appoint a retired judge
of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Q.16) The 'Audit of the accounts of the Union
judge of the Supreme Court, with the and of the States' is a subject mentioned
consent of such a judge. under which of the following lists of the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Q.13) Consider the following statements: a) Union List
I. The Constitution of India defines the b) State List
term “minority” on the basis of religion c) Concurrent List
and language. d) None of the above
II. The Constitution of India contains
specific provisions for the protection of Q.17) "Article IV Consultations," frequently
the interests of both religious and seen in the news, are regular bilateral
linguistic minorities. discussions between a member country and-
Which of the statements given above is/are a) World Bank
correct? b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
a) I only c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
b) II only d) New Development Bank (NDB)
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II Q.18) With reference to the Zonal Councils in
India, consider the following statements:
Q.14) Consider the following statements I. They are constitutional bodies.
regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST) in II. The Prime Minister of India acts as the
India: ex-officio Chairman of all Zonal Councils.
I. GST was introduced in India through the III. Their recommendations are not binding
Constitution (One Hundred and Third upon the member states.
Amendment) Act. Which of the above given statements is/are
II. The Central and the State governments correct?
discussing and deciding issues related to a) I and II
GST in the GST Council is an example of b) I and III
cooperative federalism in India. c) III only
d) None of the above

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 5

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.19) In the context of Indian Polity, consider III. Jama Actual revenue collected
the following statements: from the land by the state
Statement I: The Council of States shall not be How many of the pairs given above are
subject to dissolution. correctly matched?
Statement II: Nearly one-third of the a) Only one
members of the Council of States shall retire b) Only two
soon after expiration of every second year in c) All the three
accordance with the parliamentary laws. d) None
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? Q.22) Consider the following statements
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are regarding Vedic Age:
correct and Statement II explains I. The Sabha was an assembly primarily of
Statement I elders and elites.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are II. The Samiti was an assembly of the
correct but Statement II does not explain general people, typically presided over by
Statement I the Rajan (king).
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is III. The Vidatha was the assembly of tribes
not correct tasked with a diverse range of functions.
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II Which of the statements given above is/are
is correct correct?
a) I and II only
Q.20) With reference to the No-Confidence b) II and III only
Motion in the Parliament of India, consider the c) III only
following statements: d) I, II and III
I. It must set out grounds on which it is
based. Q.23) Who among the following was a
II. It can be moved only against the Union founding member of the Congress Socialist
Council of Ministers and not against Party, established in 1934?
individual ministers. a) Acharya Narendra Dev
III. It can be moved against the Speaker of b) Jawaharlal Nehru
the Lok Sabha under the same procedure c) Subhash Chandra Bose
as that against the Council of Ministers. d) J. B. Kripalani
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.24) Consider the following events in the
a) I and II only medieval history of India:
b) I only I. Foundation of the Delhi Sultanate by Qutub-
c) II only ud-din Aibak
d) I and III only II. First Battle of Panipat
III. Invasion of India by Nadir Shah
Q.21) With reference to the land revenue IV. Invasion of India by Timur
system in the Mughal period, consider the What is the correct chronological order of the
following pairs: above events, starting from the earliest time?
Term Description a) IV–I–III–II
I. Zabti Land revenue system based b) IV–I–II–III
on measurement of land c) I–IV–II–III
II. Hasil assessed or estimated d) I–IV–III–II
revenue demand fixed by the
state

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 6

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.25) With reference to Ancient Indian history, b) I, II and IV only
the term ‘Sarthavaha’ best refers to the: c) III and IV only
a) head of a merchants’ caravan engaged in d) I, II, III and IV
long-distance trade.
b) chief banker in a city. Q.28) Which one among the following pairs of
c) chief artisan representing craft guilds in organizations and their founders is not
administration. correct?
d) head scribe responsible for maintaining a) East India Association - Dadabhai
revenue records. Naoroji
b) Indian League - Shishir Kumar
Q.26) With reference to the Deccan Riots of Ghose
1875, consider the following statements: c) Bombay Presidency Mahadev
I. A sharp fall in prices of Indian cotton Association - Govind Ranade
after the end of the American Civil War d) Indian National Surendranath
was one of its causes. Association - Banerjee
II. The riots were primarily directed against
European cotton merchants in the Q.29) With reference to the history of ancient
Deccan region. India, the terms "klipta" and "upaklipta"
III. In response to the riots, the colonial generally denote-
government enacted the Deccan a) Types of merchant guilds
Agriculturists’ Relief Act. b) Forms of taxation
Which of the statements given above is/are c) Vedic ritual offerings
correct? d) Village assemblies
a) I only
b) I and III only Q.30) The Puranas refer to which among the
c) III only following rulers as one who attained sole
d) I, II and III sovereignty (ekarat) and as an uprooter of the
Kshatriyas (sarva-kshatrantaka)?
Q.27) Consider the following statements a) Bimbisara
regarding the Cripps Mission (1942): b) Ajatashatru
I. It aimed to secure Indian cooperation for c) Mahapadma Nanda
the British war efforts during World War- d) Dhana Nanda
II.
II. It proposed 'Dominion Status' for India Q.31) With reference to the ancient history of
after World War-II. India, term ‘antyaja’ refers to a category of
III. It proposed the establishment of an people-
entirely elected Constituent Assembly for a) belonging to the priestly class.
India. b) considered outside the four-fold Varna
IV. It proposed to immediately hand over the system.
portfolio of 'Defense' to an Indian c) organized into artisan guilds and producing
member of the Governor General’s specialized crafts.
Executive Council.
d) primarily associated with agriculture and
Which of the statements given above are pastoralism.
correct?
a) I and II only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 7

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.32) With reference to the Poona Pact of adoption to rulers without a natural male
1932, consider the following statements: heir.
I. It was signed between Mahatma Gandhi d) To establish British paramountcy over the
and Viceroy Lord Willingdon. princely states without direct annexation.
II. It replaced the system of separate
electorates proposed under the Q.35) "Damin-i-Koh" was a large area of land
‘Communal Award’ for the Depressed demarcated by the British in the 1830s
Classes with reserved seats in joint specifically to settle which of the following
electorates in elections. tribal groups?
III. In the Central legislature, 25 percent of a) The Gonds
the total seats meant for the general b) The Bhils
electorate were reserved for Depressed c) The Mundas
Classes under the pact. d) The Santhals
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.36) With reference to the ancient historical
a) III only sites of India, consider the following
b) II and III information:
c) II only Site Associated State
d) I and II Period/
Civilization
Q.33) Which one of the following was the I. Chandraketu- Chalcholithic Andhra
principal cause behind the decline of the garh Age Pradesh
Indian textile industry during the 19th
II. Rangpur Indus Valley Gujarat
century?
Civilization
a) Competition from imported cheap
III. Ahichhatra Painted Grey Haryana
machine-made British textiles flooding
Ware Culture
Indian markets
IV. Keeladi Sangam Age Tamil
b) Drastic shortage of raw cotton for
Nadu
indigenous textile production in India
In how many of the above rows is the given
c) Large-scale migration of Indian weavers to
information correctly matched?
agricultural occupations due to rural
a) Only one
distress
b) Only two
d) Heavy taxation imposed on Indian
c) Only three
handloom products by the British colonial
d) All the four
Government.

Q.37) In the context of cybersecurity, the term

Q.34) With reference to modern Indian
“Zero-day Vulnerability” refers to:
history, the objective of the “Doctrine of
a) A cyber threat that targets internet-
Lapse” was-
connected devices only during their initial
a) To secure British control over Indian states
setup
by compelling them to accept a permanent
b) A security flaw that remains inactive for
British force and refrain from independent
exactly twenty-four hours after a system
diplomacy.
reboot before it can be detected.
b) To create a buffer zone around British
c) A synchronized cyber-attack that targets
territories by defending the frontiers of
multiple critical infrastructure sectors at
neighbouring friendly states at their own
the exact same moment globally.
expense.
d) A previously unknown vulnerability in
c) To integrate the princely states into the
software or hardware that is exploited
British Empire by denying the right of
before the developer becomes aware of it
or issues a fix.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 8

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.38) With reference to Cryogenics, consider III. It is a self-emissive display where each
the following: pixel can independently switch off
I. Maintenance of extremely low completely to achieve perfect black
temperatures for superconducting levels.
quantum systems Which of the statements given above are
II. Preservation of cells, tissues, and correct?
embryos for long durations a) I and II only
III. Enhancement of radioactive decay in b) I and III only
food preservation processes c) II and III only
IV. Shrink-fitting and strengthening of metal d) I, II and III
components through extreme cooling
V. Liquefaction and storage of natural gas Q.41) With reference to the Small Satellite
for efficient transport Launch Vehicle of the Indian Space Research
How many of the above are applications of Organisation, consider the following
statements:
Cryogenics?
I. It is a three-stage launch vehicle with a
a) Only two
cryogenic upper stage.
b) Only three
II. It can deploy satellites weighing up to
c) Only four
approximately 500 kg into Low Earth
d) All the five
Orbit.
III. It has Velocity Trimming Module (VTM)
Q.39) With reference to Digital Twin
as a terminal stage for precise orbital
Technology, consider the following
insertion.
statements: IV. It primarily intends to launch nano,
I. It refers to a virtual representation of a micro, and mini satellites on a “launch-
physical object, system or process. on-demand” basis.
II. Once a digital twin is created, it can Which of the statements given above are
operate independently of real-world data. correct?
III. The functioning of digital twins generally a) I, II, III and IV
relies on the Internet of Things (IoT), data b) II, III and IV only
analytics and artificial intelligence. c) I, II and IV only
IV. The 'Sangam: Digital Twin' initiative was d) I and III only
recently launched by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology. Q.42) Consider the following activities:
Which of the statements given above are I. Performing a delicate surgical procedure
correct? on a patient located in a different city.
a) I, II, III and IV II. Handling radioactive materials and
b) I, II and IV only dismantling equipment inside nuclear
c) II and IV only reactors remotely.
d) I and III only III. Performing real-time, lag-free tele-
operation of a robotic rover on Mars from
Q.40) With reference to Micro RGB display, Earth.
consider the following statements: At the present level of technology, how many
I. It uses microscopic red, green, and blue of the above activities can be successfully
LEDs as backlighting sources instead of carried out using tele-robotics?
conventional white LED backlights. a) Only one
II. It generally offers higher peak brightness b) Only two
and wider colour gamut compared to c) All the three
conventional OLED panels. d) None

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 9

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.43) This mission involves sending a four- Q.46) Which of the following best describes
member international crew aboard a next- the term ‘Liquid Biopsy’, recently seen in the
generation spacecraft in which humans will news?
travel around the moon to test deep-space a) A surgical procedure involving removal of
life-support systems for the first time in more tumour tissue for diagnostic purposes.
than 50 years. b) A process of injecting liquid medication
Which one of the following missions is best directly into a tumour to dissolve it without
described in the above passage? surgery.
a) Chang’e-6 c) A non-invasive technique that detects
b) Artemis II cancer-related biomarkers in body fluids
c) Chandrayaan-4 such as blood.
d) Artemis III d) A process of culturing stem cells in a liquid
medium to grow synthetic replacement
Q.44) Consider the following statements organs.
regarding Probiotics:
I. They are live microorganisms like Q.47) Consider the following statements
bacteria and yeasts. regarding Enzymes:
II. They are commonly found in fermented I. They are biological molecules that
foods such as cheese and yoghurt. accelerate chemical reactions in cells
III. They are primarily used to improve gut without being consumed in the process.
health and enhance immunity in humans. II. They are absent in unicellular organisms
Which of the statements given above are such as bacteria and protozoa.
correct? III. The majority of enzymes are proteins.
a) I and II only Which of the statements given above are
b) I and III only correct?
c) II and III only a) I and II only
d) I, II and III b) I and III only
c) II and III only
Q.45) Consider the following statements: d) I, II and III
Statement I: In India, National Vaccination
Day is observed annually on 16 March. Q.48) Consider the following States/Union
Statement II: On 16 March 1995, the Territories:
Government of India administered the first I. Haryana
dose of the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) II. Rajasthan
under the Pulse Polio Programme. III. Gujarat
Which one of the following is correct in IV. Punjab
respect of the above statements? V. Uttar Pradesh
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are VI. Delhi
correct and Statement II explains How many of the above are included under
Statement I the Aravalli Green Wall Project?
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are a) Only three
correct but Statement II does not explain b) Only four
Statement I c) Only five
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is d) All the six
not correct
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II
is correct

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 10

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.49) With reference to Off-Budget c) STRIPS are eligible securities for meeting
Borrowings in India, consider the following the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
statements: requirements of banks.
I. These are loans taken by the Union d) Retail and other non-institutional investors
Government directly from the Reserve are eligible to buy and hold STRIPS in the
Bank of India (RBI). secondary market.
II. They are included in the calculation of
the fiscal deficit of the Union Q.52) With reference to Sovereign Green
Government. Bonds (SGrBs) in India, consider the following
III. The repayment of the principal and statements:
interest for such borrowings is primarily I. These Bonds can be issued by both the
met from the Union Budget. Government of India and private
Which of the statements given above is/are corporate entities.
correct? II. The proceeds from Sovereign Green
a) I and II Bonds are credited to the Consolidated
b) II only Fund of India.
c) III only III. These Bonds are eligible for meeting
d) II and III Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
requirements of banks.
Q.50) With reference to economy, the IV. Nuclear power generation projects are
Mezzanine financing is a type of financing excluded from financing under the SGB
which- framework.
a) allows lenders to convert debt into equity if Which of the statements given above are
the borrower defaults. correct?
b) allows lenders to levy lower than usual a) I, III and IV only
interest rates due to the low-risk nature of b) I and IV only
the investment. c) II, III and IV only
c) is the first debt claim to be settled in case d) I, II and III only
of bankruptcy or liquidation of the
borrower company. Q.53) With reference to banking regulations in
d) is provided to companies by the India, the term “Unclaimed Deposits”, recently
government as a stimulation package in seen in news in the context of RBI initiatives,
case of recession. refers to:
Deposits that remain unclaimed for a period of
Q.51) With reference to STRIPS (Separate 10 years-
Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of a) and thereafter are treated as income of the
Securities) in the Indian economy, which of bank, with no further liability towards the
the following statements is incorrect? depositor.
a) STRIPS are issued through periodic b) and are transferred to the Reserve Bank of
primary auctions conducted by the RBI India, which assumes full ownership.
similar to Treasury Bills and dated c) after which they automatically lapse and
Government securities. are treated as government revenue.
b) STRIPS are zero-coupon instruments d) which are transferred to a specific fund but
issued at a discount and redeemed at face continue to legally belong to the depositor.
value on maturity.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 11

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.54) Consider the following expenditures of b) II and III only
the Government of India: c) I and III only
I. Repayment of principal amount of public d) I, II and III
debt
II. Grants-in-aid to State Governments Q.57) Consider the following fiscal policy
III. Subsidies on food, fertilizer and actions:
petroleum I. Increasing government capital
IV. Acquisition of land and buildings expenditure
How many of the above are part of Revenue II. Enhancing budgetary allocation for
Expenditure of the Government of India? agricultural support
a) Only one III. Raising indirect tax rates
b) Only two IV. Increasing grants-in-aid to States
c) Only three How many of the above actions would the
d) All the four Government of India typically not take during
a recession period?
Q.55) Which of the following best describes a) Only one
the objective of ‘Operation Urja Suraksha’, b) Only two
recently launched by India? c) Only three
a) To expand India’s strategic petroleum d) All the four
reserves.
b) To enhance offshore oil and gas Q.58) With reference to the Periodic Labour
exploration activities in India’s Exclusive Force Survey (PLFS), 2025, consider the
Economic Zone. following statements:
c) To ensure safe transit of India-bound I. It is the first PLFS in which the survey
crude oil, LNG and LPG shipments through cycle has been shifted from July–June to
the Strait of Hormuz. January–December.
d) To promote diversification of energy II. In rural areas, the unemployment rate
sources by producing green hydrogen and among females is lower than that among
biofuels. males.
III. Labour Force Participation Rate for males
Q.56) Consider the following statements is more than three-fourths of the male
regarding Patents Act in India: population in both rural and urban areas.
I. A new form of a known pharmaceutical IV. The proportion of the Indian workforce
substance is patentable only if it employed as casual labour is higher than
demonstrates enhanced therapeutic those engaged in regular wage or salaried
efficacy. employment.
II. Compulsory licensing in India allows a Which of the statements given above are
third party to manufacture a patented correct?
drug without the consent of the patent a) I, II and III only
holder under certain conditions. b) II and IV only
III. A patent in India is granted for a uniform c) I and III only
term of 20 years from the date of filing, d) I, II, III and IV
irrespective of the field of technology.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a) I and II only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 12

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.59) Consider the following statements How many of the above are examples of Public
regarding fertilizer subsidy in India: Goods?
I. Urea is the only fertilizer whose a) Only two
Maximum Retail Price (MRP) is statutorily b) Only three
fixed and controlled by the Government c) Only four
of India.
d) All the five
II. The Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme
covers both Urea and Phosphatic &
Potassic (P&K) fertilizers. Q.62) With reference to the Marginal Cost of
Funds Based Lending Rate (MCLR), consider
Which of the statements given above is/are
the following statements:
correct?
I. It is the minimum interest rate below
a) I only
which commercial banks are not
b) II only
generally permitted to lend.
c) Both I and II
II. It is directly linked to the repo rate, and
d) Neither I nor II any change in repo rate automatically
changes the MCLR.
Q.60) With reference to Payments Banks in III. The MCLR framework was introduced by
India, consider the following statements: the Reserve Bank of India to replace the
I. They are permitted to accept only External Benchmark Lending Rate.
demand deposits and not term deposits. Which of the statements given above is/are
II. They are required to maintain Cash correct?
Reserve Ratio (CRR). a) I and II
III. They must open at least 25% of their b) I only
physical banking outlets in Unbanked c) III only
Rural Centres.
d) I and III
IV. Their Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target
has been recently reduced from 75% to
Q.63) With reference to the Indian economy,
60% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit
consider the following:
(ANBC).
I. Financial instruments traded on India-Inx
Which of the statements given above are
(India International Exchange IFSC
correct?
Limited)
a) I, II and III only
II. Mutual Funds traded on recognized stock
b) I, II and IV only
exchanges like BSE and NSE
c) I and II only
III. Trading in Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs)
d) III and IV only such as Bitcoins
IV. Commodity Derivatives trade in Bullions
Q.61) With reference to the classification of on the Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX)
goods in economics, consider the following: How many of the above are regulated by the
I. National defence Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
II. Cinema halls a) Only one
III. Public parks b) Only two
IV. Toll highways c) Only three
V. Street lighting d) All the four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 13

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.64) Consider the following statements: How many of the above are categorized as
Statement-I: Germany has replaced Japan as 'Small Savings Schemes' by the Government of
the world’s largest creditor nation, ending India?
Japan's three-decade-long dominance in net a) Only two
external assets. b) Only three
Statement-II: There has been an increase in c) Only four
bond yields in Japan leading to large-scale d) All the five
foreign outflows from Japan to other
countries.
Q.67) With reference to the National
Statement-III: Germany has recorded
Manufacturing Mission (NMM), consider the
persistent current account surplus in recent
following statements:
years, driven by strong export performance.
I. It was announced in the Union Budget
Which one of the following is correct in
2026-27.
respect of the above statements?
II. It covers both high-technology sectors
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
and traditional labour-intensive
correct and both of them explain
industries.
Statement I
III. It aims to increase the manufacturing
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
sector’s share in GDP to 30 per cent by
correct but only one of them explains
2030.
Statement I
Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
correct?
correct and that explains Statement I
a) I and II only
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
b) II only
correct
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
Q.65) The sacred places; like the Western Wall,
the Church of the Holy Sepulchre, and the Al-
Aqsa Mosque are situated in which of the Q.68) With reference to major deserts of the
following countries? world, consider the following pairs:
a) Iran Desert Associated Country
b) Syria I. Gobi Desert Mongolia
c) Afghanistan II. Atacama Desert Brazil
d) Israel III. Kalahari Desert Egypt
IV. Gibson Desert United States of
Q.66) Consider the following financial America
instruments in India: How many of the pairs given above are
I. Public Provident Fund (PPF) correctly matched?
II. National Savings Certificate (NSC) a) Only one
III. Sukanya Samriddhi Account (SSA) b) Only two
IV. Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) c) Only three
V. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) d) All the four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 14

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.69) Consider the following statements: Q.71) With reference to the ecological
Statement I: The marginal productivity of landscapes (tinai) described in Sangam
labour is zero or near-zero in a situation of literature, consider the following information:
disguised unemployment. Name of Meaning/ What does it
Statement II: In a disguised unemployment Landscapes type of represent in
situation, more people are engaged in an in Sangam landscape Sangam
activity than actually required for the same literature Literature
output. I. Kurinji/ Mountain Clandestine
Statement III: Disguised unemployment is Kurinchi Landscape meeting of
predominantly observed in the agricultural lovers
sector in developing economies. II. Neytal Riverine Patient
Which one of the following is correct in Tracts waiting for the
respect of the above statements? return of the
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are husband
correct and both of them explain III. Palai Arid Separation of
Statement I Terrain lovers
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are In how many of the above rows is the given
correct but only one of them explains information correctly matched?
Statement I a) Only one
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is b) Only two
correct and that explains Statement I
c) All the three
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
d) None
correct

Q.72) With reference to Project Cheetah in

Q.70) With reference to the ‘Districts as
India, Consider the following statements:
Export Hubs’ (DEH) initiative in India, consider
I. It represents the World’s first successful
the following statements:
inter-continental translocation of a large
I. It selects goods exclusively from the
carnivore.
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises for
II. Kuno National Park was selected as the
export potential.
first site for Cheetah relocation in India.
II. It aims to encourage sales from each
III. The project envisages expansion to
district exclusively in the international
additional sites such as Gandhi Sagar
markets
Wildlife Sanctuary.
III. Services are not identified for export
IV. Botswana has recently gifted cheetahs to
potential at the district level under this
India as part of the project.
initiative.
Which of the above given statements are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
a) I and II only
a) I and II only
b) III and IV only
b) II only
c) I, II, III and IV
c) III only
d) II, III and IV only
d) None of the above

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 15

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.73) With reference to the National Parks in Q.77) Which of the following are the most
India, consider the following: likely places to find the Greater One-horned
I. Campbell Bay National Park Rhinoceros in its natural habitat?
II. Galathea Bay National Park I. Jaldapara National Park
III. Mount Harriet National Park II. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary
IV. North Button Island National Park III. Gorumara National Park
How many of the above National Parks are IV. Indravati National Park
situated in the Union Territory of Andaman Select the correct answer using the code
and Nicobar Islands? given below:
a) Only one a) I, II and III only
b) Only two b) I and III only
c) Only three c) II and IV only
d) All the four d) I, III and IV only

Q.78) Consider the following technologies:

Q.74) Species Survival Commission (SSC),
I. Use of Green Ammonia as a primary fuel.
sometimes seen in the news, functions under-
II. Use of Heavy Fuel Oil (HFO) with open-
a) International Union for Conservation of
loop scrubbers.
Nature
III. Use of hydrogen fuel cells for propulsion.
b) United Nations Environment Programme
IV. Wind-assisted propulsion using rotor
c) Convention on Biological Diversity
sails or rigid wings.
d) Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform
V. Adoption of battery-electric propulsion
on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services
systems for short-distance shipping.
How many of the above technologies help in
Q.75) Which one among the following reducing the 'Carbon Footprint' of the
Biosphere Reserves is spread over three states shipping industry?
in India? a) Only two
a) Dehang Debang Biosphere Reserve b) Only three
b) Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve c) Only four
c) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve d) All the five
d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Q.79) With reference to the National Green
Q.76) With reference to the Mycelium-based Hydrogen Mission, consider the following
materials, consider the following statements: statements:
I. They are derived from the root-like I. It aims to produce at least 5 million
networks of fungi. metric tonnes of green hydrogen per
II. They are non-biodegradable under annum by 2030.
natural conditions. II. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
III. They are widely used as structural load- Climate Change (MoEFCC) is its nodal
bearing materials in large-scale ministry.
construction. III. It targets development of about 125 GW
Which of the statements given above is/are of additional renewable energy capacity
correct? to support green hydrogen production.
a) I only Which of the above given statements are
b) II and III only correct?
c) III only a) I and II only
d) I, II and III b) I, II and III
c) I and III only
d) II and III only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 16

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.80) Consider the following statements I. It refers to the simultaneous use of a
regarding Carbon Farming: single parcel of land for solar energy
I. It refers to the accelerated rate of generation and agricultural production.
photosynthesis and plant growth due to II. It can create microclimatic conditions
increased levels of atmospheric carbon that reduce soil evaporation and improve
dioxide. water-use efficiency in agriculture.
II. It constitutes an integrated land III. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha
management approach that primarily evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)
combines practices from regenerative scheme mandates the adoption of
agriculture, agroforestry, and agrivoltaic systems across all its
conservation agriculture. components.
III. It has been widely recognized under the Which of the statements given above are
Paris Agreement, as a vital component of correct?
nature-based solutions (NbS) for climate a) I and II only
mitigation. b) II and III only
Which of the statements given above are c) I and III only
correct? d) I, II and III
a) I and II only
b) II and III only Q.84) Consider the following beaches in India:
c) I and III only I. Kappad beach (Keralam)
d) I, II and III II. Golden beach (Odisha)
III. Kovalam beach (Tamil Nadu)
Q.81) Which of the following is not among the IV. Marina beach (Tamil Nadu)
five nectar elements (Panchamrit) of India’s V. Radhanagar Beach (Andaman & Nicobar
climate action: Islands)
a) Achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy VI. Shrivardhan Beach (Maharashtra)
capacity by 2030. How many of the above beaches are ‘Blue Flag
b) Achieving the target of Net Zero emissions Certified’?
by the year 2070. a) Only three
c) Creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to b) Only four
3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through c) Only five
forest and tree cover by 2030. d) All the six
d) Reducing the carbon intensity of the
economy by 45% by 2030, over 2005 levels. Q.85) Which of the following statements best
describes the term ‘Greenwashing’?
Q.82) With reference to the Gupta period, ‘Nivi It is a practice where companies-
Dharma, Nivi Dharma Akṣayana and Aprada a) invest heavily in renewable energy projects
Dharma’ refers to: to reduce their overall carbon footprint.
a) Types of land tenure and endowments b) falsely promote their products as
b) Social code of conduct environmentally friendly to create a
c) Types of Vedic rituals misleading public image.
d) Instruments of land measurement c) deliberately violate environmental
regulations to cut costs and maximize
Q.83) With reference to 'Agrivoltaics' in the short-term profits.
context of Indian agriculture, consider the d) shift polluting activities to regions with
following statements: weaker environmental regulations to avoid
scrutiny.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 17

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.86) With reference to saline soils in India, II. ‘Agarwood’ forms when Aquilaria trees
consider the following statements: produce a fragrant resin in response to
I. They are generally characterized by a fungal infection.
high concentration of nitrogen and III. It is listed as “Critically Endangered” on
humus content. the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
II. They are commonly found in arid and IV. Assam was recently granted a
semi-arid regions such as western Geographical Indication Tag for its
Gujarat and Rajasthan. agarwood production.
III. They have the presence of soluble salts Which of the statements given above are
like chlorides and sulphates of sodium, correct?
calcium, and magnesium. a) I, II and III only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) I, II, III and IV
correct? c) III and IV only
a) I only d) I, II and IV only
b) II and III only
c) III only Q.90) Consider the following crops/plants:
d) I, II and III I. Dhaincha (Sesbania aculeata)
II. Sunhemp (Crotalaria juncea)
Q.87) Which of the following is not a weight- III. Cowpea (Vigna unguiculata)
losing raw material? IV. Guar (Cyamopsis tetragonoloba)
a) Sugarcane How many of the above are used as green
b) Iron ore manure crops/plants in India?
c) Coal a) Only one
d) Cotton b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.88) Consider the following statements: d) All the four
I. Anthracite is the most abundantly
available type of coal in India. Q.91) With reference to biochar, consider the
II. Most of India’s coal reserves are of following statements:
Gondwana origin. I. It is produced by the thermochemical
III. Jharkhand possesses the largest share of decomposition of biomass in an oxygen-
coal reserves in India. rich environment at high temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are II. Its application in agriculture can enhance
correct? soil water retention and organic carbon
a) I and II only content.
b) II only III. In the form of fuel pellets, it has a
c) II and III only significantly higher energy density than
d) I and III only conventional coal.
IV. It can be used as an adsorbent in
Q.89) Consider the following statements wastewater treatment for the removal of
regarding Aquilaria malaccensis (Agarwood ) heavy metals.
tree in India: Which of the statements given above are
I. It predominantly grows in evergreen correct?
forest ecosystems of the North-Eastern a) I and III only
region of India. b) II and IV only
c) II, III and IV only
d) I, II III and IV

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 18

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.92) Consider the following items: Which of the statements given above are
I. Bamboo correct?
II. Tendu Leaves a) I and II only
III. Honey b) II and III only
IV. Teak c) I and III only
How many of the above are identified as d) I, II and III
"Minor Forest Produce" (MFP) under the
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Q.95) Consider the following World Heritage
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, sites in India:
2006? I. Western Ghats
a) Only one II. Sundarbans National Park
b) Only two III. Khangchendzonga National Park
c) Only three IV. Manas National Park
d) All the four Which of the above has/have been
categorized under the 'Significant Concern'
Q.93) Consider the following statements: list in the IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4
Statement I: The oceanic crust is thinner and report?
denser compared to the continental crust. a) III only
Statement II: The oceanic crust is primarily b) I, II, and IV only
composed of granitic rocks, whereas the c) I and IV only
continental crust is predominantly composed d) I, II III and IV
of basaltic rocks.
Which one of the following is correct in Q.96) The Lipulekh Pass, frequently seen in the
respect of the above statements?
news, connects India with-
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
a) Afghanistan
correct and Statement II explains
b) Bhutan
Statement I
c) China
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
d) Myanmar
correct but Statement II does not explain
Statement I
Q.97) With reference to ancient ports of India,
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
consider the following pairs:
not correct
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II Port Situated on the Coast
is correct of present day State of
I. Muziris Tamil Nadu
Q.94) With reference to the South-West II. Barygaza Gujarat
Monsoon in India, consider the following III. Poduca Keralam
statements: (Poduke)
I. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon IV. Motupalli Andhra Pradesh
causes heavy rainfall on the windward How many of the pairs given above are
side of Western Ghats. correctly matched?
II. The Bay of Bengal branch plays a a) Only one
dominant role in bringing rainfall to the b) Only two
Northern Plains. c) Only three
III. The Westerly Jet Stream steers tropical d) All the four
depressions into India, determining the
distribution and intensity of South-West
Monsoon rainfall.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]
 Page 19

PTS 2026 | Test Code: 311415 |

Q.98) With reference to the Tropical Wet and
Dry Climate, consider the following
statements:
I. Temperature remains high throughout
the year.
II. Rainfall is seasonal, characterized by a
longer wet season and a shorter dry
season.
III. Sudan in Africa and Paraguay in South
America exhibit this type of climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) I and III only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) I, II and III

Q.99) Consider the following:

I. Planetary winds
II. Coriolis force
III. Heating by solar energy
IV. Gravity
How many of the above are primary forces
that influence the Ocean Currents?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All the four

Q.100) The 'Guneri village’s Inland Mangroves',

recently declared a Biodiversity Heritage Site
(BHS), is situated in-
a) Maharashtra
b) Assam
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - Plot No. 36, 4th Floor (Above Kalyan Jewellers), Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring
Canal Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740404 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]