27-02-2025

6201CMD30303124RPT02 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the density of a block of wood that floats in water with 0.1 of its volume above water:

(1) 0.9 g/cc

(2) 0.19 g/cc
(3) 0.1 g/cc
(4) 0.15 g/cc

2) Water is in streamline flow along a horizontal pipe with non-uniform cross-section. At a point in
the pipe where the area of cross-section is 10 cm2, the velocity of water is 1 ms–1 and the pressure is
2000 Pa. The pressure at another point where the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is :-

(1) 4000 Pa
(2) 2000 Pa
(3) 1000 Pa
(4) 500 Pa

3) Surface tension of soap solution is 2 × 10–2 N/m. The work done in producing a soap bubble of
radius 2 cm is :-

(1) 64π × 10–6 J

(2) 32π × 10–6 J
(3) 16π × 10–6 J
(4) 8π × 10–6 J

4) A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system as shown falls freely under

gravity. The upthrust on the body due to the liquid is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(3) Equal to the weight to the body in air
(4) Equal to the weight of the immersed portion of the body

5) Assertion (A): Young's modulus for a wire can be determined experimentally by plotting the
graph of force applied against extension and calculating gradient.
Reason (R): The gradient of force-extension graph represents stiffness of material and Young's
modulus is equal to gradient multiplied by original length, divided by cross-sectional area of wire.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

6) The terminal velocity of a sphere of mass 8 gm falling in a viscous liquid is 12 cm s–1, then the
terminal velocity of sphere of mass 27 gm of same material falling in same liquid will be : -

(1) 9 cm s–1
(2) 12 cm s–1
(3) 18 cm s–1
(4) 27 cm s–1

7) Modulus of rigidity of a liquid is-

(1) Non zero constant

(2) Infinite
(3) Zero
(4) Can not be predicted

8) A Spherical drop of oil of radius 1cm is broken into 1000 droplets of equal radii. If the surface
tension of oil is 50 dynes/cm, the work done is-

(1) 18π erg

(2) 180π erg
(3) 1800π erg
(4) 18000π erg

9) If the surface tension of water is 0.06 N/m, then the capillary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is (θ
= 0°)

(1) 1.22 cm
(2) 2.44 cm
(3) 3.12 cm
(4) 3.86 cm

10) The flow speeds of air on the lower and upper surfaces of the wing of an aeroplane are v and
v respectively. The density of air is ρ and surface area of wing is A. The dynamic lift on the wing is :

(1) ρv2A
(2) ρv2A
(3) (1/2) ρv2A
(4) 2ρv2A

11)
Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in fig. Pressure p at
points along the axis of duct is represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) At what height above the earth’s surface does the acceleration due to gravity decreases by 1% of
its value at the earth’s surface? (Radius of earth = 6400 km)

(1) 32 km
(2) 64 km
(3) 320 km
(4) 640 km

13) Time period of a simple pendulum on the equator is T1 and at the pole is T2. Then :
(1) T2 < T1
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) None of these

14) If a new planet is discovered rotating around Sun with the orbital radius double that of earth,
then what will be its time period (in earth’s days) ?

(1) 1032
(2) 760
(3) 732
(4) 365

15) A U-tube closed at one end is filled with three immiscible liquids having densities ρ, 3ρ and 8ρ as
shown in figure. The pressure inside the tube at closed end is (P0 → atmospheric pressure):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P0 + hρg

16)

Find the distance from center of a uniform solid sphere at which the gravitational potential is half of
the potential at center of sphere.
(R = Radius of sphere)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Two semicircular rings of linear mass densities λ and 3λ and of radius R each are joined to form
a complete ring. The distance of the centre of mass of complete ring from its geometrical centre is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The centre of mass of a body :

(1) Lies always outside the body

(2) May lie within, outside or on the surface of the body
(3) Lies always inside the body
(4) Lies always on the surface of the body

19) A ball hits a surface with a speed of 20 m/s as shown. If surface continues to move with same
velocity then find velocity with which ball will rebound if collision is elastic :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 50 m/s

20) Three rods of same mass are placed as shown in figure. Find coordinates of centre of mass of the

system :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two identical rods are kept in contact at one end on a smooth surface as shown and released.
Trajectory of centre of mass of both rods is :-

(1) Parabola
(2) Straight inclined line
(3) Straight horizontal line
(4) Straight vertical line

22) A bomb of mass 10kg explodes into two pieces of 4 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of 4kg is 20 m/s.
The kinetic energy of 6 kg is :

(1) 400 J

(2)

(3)

(4) 300 J

23) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

Kinetic energy
A. Elastic collision P.
is conserved

Kinetic energy
B. Inelastic collision Q.
may Increase

Perfectly inelastic Kinetic energy is

C. R.
collision not conserved

Collisions between
D. two cars moving at
high speeds
(1) A→P ; B → R ; C → R ; D → R
(2) A→ R ; B → P ; C → P ; D → R
(3) A→ R ; B → P ; C → P ; D → P
(4) A→ R ; B → R ; C → P ; D → P

24) A ball is dropped from a height of 5m from ground. The ball collides inelastically with the

ground . How high the ball will rise after the first rebound :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Assertion (A) :- Two blocks of masses m1 & m2 are at rest. They are now moving towards each
other under a mutual internal force. The velocity of COM is zero.
Reason (R) : If no external force acts on the system, then velocity of COM remain unchanged but
can never be zero.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

26) A bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v1 strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M as
shown in the figure and sticks to it. If the block rises to a height h then the initial velocity of the

bullet is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A particle of mass m moving on a smooth surface with velocity 10m/s strikes another particle of
mass 2m moving with 5m/s in the same direction. If the collision is elastic and head on then their
velocities after collision are -

(1)
,

(2)

(3)

(4) v1 = 10 m/s, v2 = 25 m/s

28) The minimum value of F for which the cube begins to topple about an edge (O) is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg

29) Assertion (A) :- When a diver dives, the rotational kinetic energy of diver may increase, during
several somersaults.
Reason (R) :- When diver pulls his limbs, the moment of inertia decreases and on account of
conservation of angular momentum, his angular speed increases.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

30) The maximum velocity with which a car driver can traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and
coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is :-

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 25 m/s

31) A car is going on an overbridge of radius R, maintaining a constant speed. As the car is
descending on the overbridge from point B to C, the normal force on it :

(1) increase
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases then decreases.

32) A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted on an axle supported in frictionless bearings.
A light cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a steady downward pull T is exerted on the
cord. The angular acceleration of the disc is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) In which case the angular acceleration will be more with respect to rotational axis :-

(1) Case I
(2) Case II
(3) Same
(4) None

34) The moment of inertia of a door of mass m, length 2 ℓ and width ℓ about its longer side is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) Three rings each of mass m and radius r are so placed that they touch each other. The radius of

gyration of the system about the axis as shown in the figure is :

(1)
r
(2)
r

(3)
r

(4)
r

36) The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 50 g and radius 2.5 cm. about an axis passing through its
centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane is :

(1) 2.5 cm

(2)
cm
(3) cm
(4) 1.25 cm

37) The M.I. of a body about the given axis is 1.2 kg m2 initially the body is at rest. In order to
produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule an angular acceleration of 25 rad/sec2 must be
applied about that axis for a duration of -

(1) 4 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

38) A body of mass m and radius r is rotated with angular velocity ω as shown in the figure & kept

on a surface that has sufficient friction then the body will move :

(1) Backward first and then move forward

(2) Forward first and then move backward
(3) Will always move forward
(4) None of these

39) A particle of mass m is attached with the string of length ℓ. It is given a velocity v at the bottom

most point. Which of the followings are correct. (i) If it will

complete the circular path
(ii) If it will leave the circular path in upper half
(iii) If it will oscillate
(iv) If , the value of Tmax–Tmin = 6 mg

(1) Only (i), (iii) are correct

(2) Only (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(3) Only (ii), (iii) are correct
(4) All are correct

40) A non-zero external force acts on a system of particles. The velocity and acceleration of the
centre of mass are found to be vc and ac respectively at any instant t. :
(i) vc = 0, ac = 0
(ii) vc ≠ 0, ac = 0
(iii) vc = 0, ac ≠ 0
(iv) vc ≠ 0, ac ≠ 0
Which of these are possible :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

41) Two bodies of masses 20 kg and 5 kg are connceted to the ends of a massless cord and allowed
to move as shown in figure. The pulley is massless and frictionless, then acceleration of centre of

mass of system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
42) Find coordinates of centre of mass :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following statement is true :

(1) Mass must be present physically at centre of mass.

(2) Centre of mass of two particle system is closer to the particle with greater mass.
(3) Centre of mass of a rigid body is always inside the body.
(4) Centre of mass of two particle system is closer to the particle with lesser mass.

44) Consider the following statements :- (a) centre of mass of a uniform semicircular disc of radius R
is at 2R/π from the centre.
(b) centre of mass of a uniform semicircular ring of radius R is at 4R/3π from the centre.
(c) centre of mass of a solid hemisphere of radius R is at 4R/3π from the centre.
(d) centre of mass of a hemispherical shell of radius R is at R/2 from the centre.
Which statements are correct ?

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) only d
(4) only a and b

45) A particle of mass m moving with a velocity v makes a head on elastic collision with another
particle of mass 3m initially at rest. Find the velocity of second particle after the collision:

(1) v/2
(2) v
(3) 2v
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion :- In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is smaller than 4s-level.

Reason :- In multi-electron species, an orbital with lower value of (n + ℓ) has energy smaller than
the orbital with larger value of (n + ℓ).

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Match the following (Z = 1)

(A) λmax in Lyman series (p) ∞→1

(B) νmin in Balmer series (q) 2→1

(C) λmin in Lyman series (r) 3→2

(D) νmax in Balmer series (s) ∞→2

(1) A - (s), B - (r), C - (p), D - (q)
(2) A - (q), B - (r), C - (s), D - (p)
(3) A - (q), B - (r), C - (p), D - (s)
(4) A - (p), B - (s), C - (q), D - (r)

3) Which of the following orbital will have 2 nodal plane and 4 total node ?

(1) 5d
(2) 4d
(3) 4f
(4) 5f

4) In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, the number of electrons with m = 0; s = are

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 16

5) Consider the following statements (a) Electron density in the xy plane in orbital is zero.
(b) Electron density in the xy plane in orbital is zero.
(c) 2s orbital has one nodal surface.
(d) For 2pz orbital, yz is the nodal plane.
Select the incorrect statements

(1) a & c
(2) b & c
(3) only b
(4) a, b, d
6) What will be the number of photons required to obtain 1 Joule energy by radiation having
wavelength 4000 Å ?

(1) 3 × 1020
(2) 2 × 1018
(3) 2 × 1032
(4) 2 × 1028

7) Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a
velocity of 3 × 104 cm sec–1, if the uncertainity in velocity is 0.011% ?

(1) 1.92 cm
(2) 7.68 cm
(3) 0.175 cm
(4) 3.84 cm

8) The orbital diagram in which both the pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The electronic configurations of 24Cr and 29Cu are abnormal because

(1) Half filled and full filled subshells are more stable
(2) They are d-block elements
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) They follow aufbau's principle

10)

The correct increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is

(1) e < p < n < α

(2) n < p < e < α
(3) n < p < α < e
(4) n < α < p < e

11) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Elements of ns2np6 electronic configuration lies in 1st to 6th period

(2) Typical elements lies in 3rd period
(3) The seventh period will accommodate thirty two elements
(4) Boron and silicon are diagonally related
12) An elements having [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2 configuration than find out group number and period
number of that elements

(1) Group number = 3, Period number = 6

(2) Group number = 3, Period number = 5
(3) Group number = 4, Period number = 6
(4) Group number = 5, Period number = 6

13) The correct increasing order of size is

(1) Be < Li < K < Ba

(2) Mg < Na < K < Ca
(3) Be < Mg < Ba < K
(4) Li < Na < K < Ba

14) Assertion : Second ionisation energy of oxygen is greater than that of fluorine.
Reason : Zeff of fluorine is more than oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15) Which of the following is correct for 1st ionisation enthalpy ?

(1) Li < B < Be < C < O < N

(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N
(3) Li > B > Be > C > N > O
(4) Li < B < Be < C < N < O

16) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

Valence electronic Successive ionisation

configuration energies

(a) ns1 (p) 19, 27, 36, 48, 270

(b) ns2 (q) 16, 28, 34, 260

(c) ns2 np1 (r) 18, 26, 230, 250

(d) ns2 np2 (s) 14, 200, 220, 240

The correct answer is
(1) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
(3) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
(4) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
17) Assertion : Highest negative electron gain enthalpy of element in periodic table is Cℓ.
Reason : Cℓ is the most electronegative element in periodic table.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) The correct increasing order of metallic character is

(1) P < Si < Mg < Be < Na

(2) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
(3) P < Si < Be < Na < Mg
(4) P < Be < Si < Na < Mg

19) Assertion: Electronegativity of oxygen in all of its compounds will remain same.
Reason: Electronegativity is defined for bonded atom.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

20) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Double bond is shorter than a single bond

(2) σ-bond is weaker than π bond
(3) Double bond is stronger than a single bond
(4) Generally covalent bond is stronger than a hydrogen bond

21) Which of the following has maximum bond length ?

(1) C = O
(2) C = C
(3) C ≡ N
(4) N ≡ N

22) Statement-1 : Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3.

Statement-2 : NF3 and NH3 both have non-zero dipole moment.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
23) Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds e.g., H2O, HF, NH3. The boiling point of such
compounds depends to a large extent on the strength of hydrogen bond and the number of hydrogen
bonds. The correct decreasing order of the boiling points of above compounds is

(1) HF > H2O > NH3

(2) H2O > HF > NH3
(3) NH3 > HF > H2O
(4) NH3 > H2O > HF

24) Which of the following have been arranged in increasing order of stability?

2– – +
(1) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
2– – +
(2) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
+ 2– –
(3) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
+ 2– –
(4) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2

25) Amongst sodium halide (NaF, NaCl, NaBr, NaI), NaF has the highest melting point because of

(1) High oxidising power

(2) Lowest polarity
(3) Highest lattice energy
(4) Lowest ionic character

26)

Match the column for molecular shape ?

Column-I Column-II

(a) SF6 (P) Tetrahedral

(b) (Q) V-shape

(c) NH4+ (R) Trigonal Bipyramidal

(d) XeO3F2 (S) Octahedral

(1) a–P b–Q c–R d–S
(2) a–S b–Q c–P d–R
(3) a–S b–R c–P d–Q
(4) a–R b–S c–P d–Q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Assertion : Na2SO4 is soluble in water while BaSO4 is insoluble.

Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO4 exceeds its hydration energy but it is opposite for Na2SO4.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

28)

The electronic configuration of Palladium (Pd, Z = 46)

0
(1) [Kr] 5s 4d10
(2) [Kr]5s24d8
(3) [Kr] 5s14d9
(4) [Kr]5s14d8

29) Mark the incorrect statements out of the following:

(1) 'He' has the highest I.E.1 in the periodic table

(2) Cl has the highest E.A. out of all the elements in the periodic table
(3) Hg and Br are liquid at room temperature
(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble gas is lowest

30) The radius of which ion is closest to that of Li+ ion ?

(1) Na+
(2) Be2+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Al3+

31) Assertion : B2 molecule is diamagnetic.

Reason : The highest occupied molecular orbital is of σ-type.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

32) The electromagnetic radiation having correct order of the property indicated is

(1) Energy : X-rays > UV-rays

(2) Frequency : Micro wave > Infra red
(3) Wavelength : Short (radio) waves > Long (radio) waves
(4) Wave number : Gamma rays > Cosmic rays

33) For which of the following species, Bohr model is not valid?

(1) He+
(2) H
(3) Li2+
(4) Mg2+

34) In a certain electronic transition in the Hydrogen atom from an initial state i to a final state f, the
difference in the orbit radius (rf – ri) is seven times the first Bohr radius. Identify the transition

(1) 4 → 1
(2) 4 → 2
(3) 4 → 3
(4) 3 → 1

35) If the angular momentum of an electron in a Bohr orbit is then the value of potential energy
of this electron present in He+ ion is

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –3.4 eV
(3) –6.8 eV
(4) –27.2 eV

36) Determine the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron in the 3rd Bohr's orbit of He+
ion

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) Which species has the maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom?

–
(1) ClO3
(2) XeF4
(3) SF4
–
(4) I3

38) Which of the following species does not exist?

(1) SH2
–
(2) PI6
(3) SeF6
–
(4) XeF3

39) Which is incorrect order of bond angle?

 + –
(1) NH4 > NH3 > NH2
+ – –
(2) NO2 > NO3 > NO2
(3) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(4) PBr3 > PCl3 > PF3

40) How many sp hybridized carbon atom(s) are present in structure of carbon suboxide C3O2?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

41)

In which of the following non-planar molecule dz orbital is involved in hybridisation?

2

(1) XeF4
(2) SF4
(3) XeO3
(4) CH4

42) Which of the following ion has smallest ionic radii?

(1) Cl–
(2) S2–
(3) F–
(4) H–

43) Statement-1: Ionisation energy of Zn is higher as compared to Cu.

Statement-2: O → O+ is an endothermic step but, O → O– is an exothermic step.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is not correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

44) Consider the following ionisation energies for metal M.

M(g) → M+(g) + e–, ΔH = 580 kJ/mol.
M+(g) → M2+(g) + e–, ΔH = +1815 kJ/mol.
M2+(g) → M3+(g) + e–, ΔH = +2740 kJ/mol.
M3+(g) → M4+(g) + e–, ΔH = +11600 kJ/mol.
Select the correct order is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Select correct order of acidic strength of oxides?

(1) SiO2 < P4O10 < SO3 < Cl2O7

(2) Na2O > MgO > SO2 > SO3
(3) CO2 < N2O5 < Cl2O7 < SO3
(4) MnO > Mn2O3 > MnO2 > Mn2O7

BOTANY

1) Read the following statements (A-D). How many statements are correct. (A) All living organisms
are composed of cells and products of cells.
(B) All cells arise from pre existing cells.
(C) According to Schleiden, all plants are composed of different kinds of cells, which form the tissues
of the plants. (D) According to Schwann animal cells had a thin outer layer which is known as cell
wall.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

2) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Cilia is hair like outgrowth of cell membrane.

(2) Cilia causes the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid.
(3) Bacterial flagella are structurally similar to eukeryotic flagella.
(4) Flagella is responsible for cell movement.

3) Which of the following statement is not true for plasma membrane ?

(1) Carbohydrate of plasma membrane are involved in cell to cell recognition.

(2) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides.
Polar head of phospholipid are towards the inner side and the hydrophobic tail are toward the
(3)
outer part.
(4) Plasma membrane proteins are classified on the basis of ease of extraction.

4) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cristae (i) Chromatin

(b) Glycosylation (ii) Mitochondria

 (c) RuBisCo (iii) Chloroplast

(d) Histones (iv) Golgi complex

(1) (a)-ii, (b)-iv, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(2) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iv
(3) (a)-i, (b)-iii, (c)-iv, (d)-ii
(4) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i

5) Assertion: Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Reason: Proteins & lipids produced in Golgi apparatus is modified in endoplasmic reticulum.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Statement-I : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin.
Statement-II : Interphase lasts for less than 5% of the cell cycle.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

7) Which one of the following option is correct?

A B C D

Telocentric Acrocentric Submetacentric Metacentric

(1)
chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome

Acrocentric Telocentric Metacentric Submetacentric

(2)
chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome

Submetacentric Metacentric Telocentric Acrocentric

(3)
chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome

Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric

(4)
chromosome chromosome chromosome chromosome
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Read the following statements :-

(I) Chromosomes move to pole.
(II) Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete elements.
(III) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle.
Choose the correct option for I, II and III

I II III

(1) Anaphase Telophase Metaphase

(2) Anaphase Telophase Prophase

(3) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(4) Metaphase Telophase Prophase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle.

(2) Chromosome condensation occurs during prophase.
(3) In G1 phase, cell is metabolically active
(4) G1 phase marks the phase of DNA replication.

10) Match the stages of meiosis in Column–I to their characteristic features in Column–II and select
the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

a Pachytene i Pairing of homologous chromosomes

b Metaphase-I ii Terminalization of chiasmata

c Diakinesis iii Crossing over takes place

d Zygotene iv Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

Code :-
a b c d

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) i iv ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match the following columns and find out correctly matched option :-

Column-I Column-II

Exchange of genetic material between

(a) Crossing over (i)
two homologous chromosomes.

The complex formed by a pair of synapsed

(b) Tetrad (ii)
homologous chromosomes.

Homologous chromosome separate from

(c) Chiasmata (iii) each other except at the site of cross over
and form X-shaped structure.

Pairing of homologous chromosome

(d) Synapsis (iv)
during zygotene.
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)

12) Assertion : Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organisms.
Reason : In meiosis chromosome number reduces to half in sexually reproducing organisms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) How many of the following are correctly matched ?

(A) Anaphase I - Centromere division.
(B) Pachytene - Recombination
(C) Prophase in plant - Astral ray formation
(D) Anaphase II - Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(E) Anaphase - Centriole division
(F) Meiosis - Gametes formation in animals
Options :

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) One

14) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?

Cell Membrane, DNA, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

15) Spindle fibres are composed of :

(1) Collagen
(2) Actin
(3) Chitin
(4) Tubulin

16) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

17) In which transport, molecules will go against the concentration gradient ?

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Passive transport
(3) Facilitated diffusion
(4) Active transport

18)

Site of attachment of spindle fibres to chromosomes is :-

(1) Centromere
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Telomere
(4) Chromatid

19) Few chromosomes have secondary constriction after which, a small fragment appears known as
:-

(1) Satellite
(2) Centromere
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Chromatid

20)
Which organelle is formed by the process of packaging in golgi apparatus :-

(1) ER
(2) SER
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

21) ER vesicles are fused with the ______ face of golgi apparatus:-

(1) Cis
(2) Trans
(3) Concave
(4) Maturing

22)

Read the following statements & identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Meiosis is also called as reduction division.

(2) Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
(3) During metaphase bivalents are arranged on the equatorial plate.
(4) Mitosis also occurs in some lower plants and in some social insects haploid cells.

23) The stage between two meiotic division (meiosis-I and meiosis-II) is called_______ and is generally
short lived.

(1) Interphase
(2) Interkinesis
(3) Prophase-I
(4) Telophase-I

24) Statement-I: Both mitochondria and Chloroplasts have outer membrane and inner membrane.
Statement-II: Both mitochondria and Chloroplasts posses cristae in the inner membrane.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect

25) Duration of cell cycle in yeast is approximately?

(1) 80 seconds
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 45 minutes

26) If a cell has 2n number of chromosomes in G1 phase, then what will be the number of
chromosomes in the cell during S-phase :-

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 4n
(4) 8n

27) Chiasmata or X-shaped structures become visible during :-

(1) Diplotene stage

(2) Zygotene stage
(3) Panchytene stage
(4) Leptotene stage

28) Zygotene is characterized by :-

(A) Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
(B) Appearance of synaptonemal complex.
(C) Formation of bivalents.
(D) Formation of chiasmata.

(1) A, B & D only

(2) B, C & D only
(3) All except C
(4) All except D

29)

In which of the following stage terminalisation of chiasmata occur?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinensis

30) What would be the DNA content in the cell at G1, G2, and Anaphase stage, When the DNA content
after mitotic phase was 40 pg ?

(1) G1 = 40 pg, G2 = 80 pg, Anaphase = 40 pg

(2) G1 = 40 pg, G2 = 80 pg, Anaphase = 80 pg
(3) G1 = 80 pg, G2 = 40 pg, Anaphase = 40 pg
(4) G1 = 80 pg, G2 = 40 pg, Anaphase = 80 pg

31) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also show :

(1) Synthesis of tubulin protein.

(2) Replication of DNA.
(3) Splitting of centromere.
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane.

32) In Telophase which of the following event does not occur?

(1) Nucleolus reform

(2) ER and Golgi body disappear
(3) Nuclear envelope assembles
(4) Chromosome loose identity

33) Correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is :

(1) G1 → G2 → S → M
(2) M → G2 → S → G1
(3) M → G1 → G2 → S
(4) G1 → S → G2 → M

34) Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process, The enzyme is :-

(1) DNA ligase only

(2) Recombinase
(3) RNAase only
(4) DNAase only

35) Assertion : Metaphase is the stage at which morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied.
Reason : At metaphase, chromosomes have single chromatid only.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) Identify the given diagram :- Which statement is true for the just next stage of above
diagram ?

(1) Homologous chromosomes separate.

(2) Sister chromatids separate.
(3) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
(4) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equator.

37) (a) X-shaped structures

(b) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(d) Exchange of genetic material
What is the correct sequence of above features of prophase-I of meiosis-I ?

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (b), (c), (d), (a)

38) Select the incorrect statement about prokaryotic ribosomes.

(1) 50S and 30S subunit forms ribosomes.

(2) Ribosome helps in lipid synthesis.
(3) 70S type of ribosome present in bacteria.
(4) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.

39) Match the following :

(a) Smallest cell (i) Nerve cell

(b) Largest isolated single cell (ii) Mycoplasma

(c) Longest cell (iii) Egg of an ostrich

(1) a-(iii) b-(i) c-(ii)
(2) a-(ii) b-(i) c-(iii)
(3) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i)
(4) a-(i) b-(iii) c-(ii)

40) Which of the following are present in the stroma of chloroplast?

(a) Circular DNA
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Enzymes of Krebs cycle
(d) 80S ribosome
(e) Enzymes for protein synthesis

(1) a, b, c and e
(2) a, b and e
(3) a, b, d and e
(4) a, c, d and e

41) The core of a cilium or flagellum composed of microtubules and their associated proteins is
called :-

(1) Basal body

(2) Axoneme
(3) Microfilament
(4) Tubulin

42) A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in
the:-

(1) Outer nuclear membrane

(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Vacuoles

43) Which one of the following cell organelles is not having any membrane ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Centrosome

44) Chromosomes are composed of :-

(1) DNA, RNA and Histone only.

(2) DNA and RNA only.
(3) DNA, Histone and Non Histone only.
(4) DNA, RNA, Histone and Non Histone.

45) First living cell was described by :-

(1) Anton von Leeuwenhoek

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Schwann
(4) Rudolf Virchow

ZOOLOGY

1) Clotting factors are present :-

(1) In plasma in inactive form

(2) In serum in inactive form
(3) In blood in active form
(4) In plasma in active form

2) How many statements are correct for RBC?

(i) Biconcave and non-nucleated in human.
(ii) It contains carbonic anhydrase in large quantity.
(iii) It contain antigen of blood group on surface.
(iv) It contains mitochondria in large number.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

3) Which of the following factor increase the cardiac output ?

(1) Acetylcholine
(2) Melatonin
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Parasympathetic system

4) Consider the following three statements (A-C) and choose the correct answer to fill the blanks -
A. ........... are the most abundant of all the cells in blood
B. ........... secrete histamine and involved in inflammatory reaction
C. ........... are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organism

A B C
(1) Neutrophils Acidophils Monocyte
(2) Erythrocyte Basophils Monocyte
(3) Lymphocyte Basophils Neutrophils
(4) Leucocyte Acidophis Neutrophil
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Choose the correct statements among the following :-

(1) AVN is the pace maker that generates action potential and initiates the atrial systole
(2) During each cardiac cycle, the 'lub' sound is due to closure of semilunar valves
(3) Stroke volume in each cardiac cycle is approximately 170 ml of blood
(4) The opening between right atrium and right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve

6)

Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Heart failure (i) Pumping activity of heart decreases

Heart muscles damaged due to

(b) Heart attack (ii)
inadequate blood supply

(c) Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart stops beating

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

7) Statement-I : Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.

Statement-II : Certain factors released by tissues at the site of injury also can initiate coagulation.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

8)

QRS complex in an ECG is related to :-

(1) Ventricular depolarisation

(2) Atrial depolarisation
(3) Atrial repolarisation
(4) All of these

9)

Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur when :

Mother – Rh (+)ve
(1)
Foetus – Rh (–)ve
Mother – Rh (–)ve
(2)
Foetus – Rh (–)ve
Mother – Rh (–)ve
(3)
Foetus – Rh (+)ve
Mother – Rh (+)ve
(4)
Foetus – Rh (+)ve

10) How many statements given below are correct.

(A) Amphibians have single circulation.
(B) Birds & mammals have double circulation.
(C) Thrombocytes are fragments of megakaryocyte.
(D) Nodal tissue are autoexcitable.

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3

11) 20–25 percent of CO2 is carried out by haemoglobin as............:-

(1) Oxyhaemoglobin
(2) Dissolve form
(3) Carbamino haemoglobin
(4) Bicarbonate

12) The amount of oxygen delivered to tissue by one liter of blood under normal physiological
condition is approximately.

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 150 ml
(4) 50 ml

13) Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration :-

(1) FRC – RV
(2) TV + ERV
(3) ERV
(4) EC – ERV

14)

Match the following columns :-

Respiratory organ Animal

A Moist skin Q Snake

B Tracheal Tubes R Fish

C Gills S Earthworm

D Lungs T Insect
(1) A-S, B-R, C-T, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-T, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-T, B-Q, C-S, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-T, C-R, D-S

15) Read carefully and arrange the given steps of expiration in the human body :
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm
(II) Reduction of the pulmonary volume
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(IV) Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure
Choose the correct option :-
(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV → II → III → I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) pCO2 in lung alveoli is -

(1) 159 mmHg
(2) 40 mmHg
(3) 0.3 mmHg
(4) 45 mmHg

17) Statement-I : O2 is utilised by the organisms to directly breakdown simple molecules like
glucose, amino acids fatty acids etc. to derived energy to perform various activities.
Statement-II : The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells
is called breathing.

(1) Both Statement are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

18) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates and flatworms etc. exchange O2 with CO2 by :-

(1) Tracheal tubes

(2) Gills
(3) Lungs
(4) Entire body surface

19) A person is working in stone mine for longer time. If person does not wear the mask during
working then he may suffer through disorder :-

(1) Erythroblastosis
(2) Occupation lung disorders.
(3) Pneumonia.
(4) Pleuricy.

20) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) The nasal cavity warms and humidifies the air before it enter the lungs
(2) Lungs are situated in airtight thoracic chamber
(3) lung volume and capacity helps in clinical assesment of lung functions
(4) The visceral pleural membrane is in direct contact with the chest wall

21) Read the following statements :-

(I) Ammonia excreting process is known as ammonotelism.
(II) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination.
(III) Many cartilagenous fishes, aquatic reptiles and aquatic insects are ammonotelic in nature.
(IV) Kidneys do not play any significant role in ammonia removal.
(V) Ammonia is generally excreted by diffusion as NH4+.
Which are correct statements ?

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) II, III, IV & V
(3) I, II, IV & V
(4) All are correct

22) Shapes of Henle's loop and Vasa recta are :-

(1) 'C' shaped and 'U' shaped respectively

(2) 'U' shaped and 'C' shaped respectively
(3) Hairpin shaped and 'U' shaped respectively
(4) Hairpin shaped and 'C' shaped respectively

23) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Lectin i. Sataturated fatty acid

b. Glycerol ii.

c. α-amino acid iii. Trihydroxy propane

d. Palmitic acid iv. Concanavalin A

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

24) Which of the following is a homopolymer ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Histone
(4) Insulin

25) Both deoxyribose and ribose are a class of sugar related to :

(1) Trioses
(2) Hexoses
(3) Pentose
(4) Polysaccharides

26) Find out the incorrect statement

(1) Liver convert ammonia into urea which is excreted by kidneys.

Collecting duct allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium to keep
(2)
up the osmolarity.
(3) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the intial filtrate formed.
(4) ADH can affect the kidney function by its vasodilation effects on blood vessels.

27) In nephrons there is complete absorption of

(1) Urea
(2) Salt
(3) Glucose
(4) Water

28) Cellulose is a polymeric polysaccharide consisting of :

(1) Only one type of monosaccharide

(2) Two type of monosaccharide
(3) One type of monosaccharide and Protein
(4) Two type of monosaccharide and Protein

29) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer :-

Column I Column II
(Organic compound) (Example)
(A) Fatty acid (i) Tryptophan
Complex Arachidonic
(B) (ii)
polysaccharide acid
(C) Amino acid (iii) RuBisCo
(D) Protein (iv) Chitin
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i

30) The glomerular filtrate i.e., the liquid collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is :-

(1) Blood minus proteins

(2) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles
(3) Water
(4) Urine

31)

The macula densa is a part of the :-

(1) PCT
(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) DCT
(4) Efferent arteriole

32)
Excretion of Na+ in urine is elevated by :-

(1) ANF
(2) ADH
(3) ACTH
(4) Aldosterone

33) Match the given secondary metabolites correctly with their category

a. Alkaloid (i) Ricin

b. Toxin (ii) Morphine

c. Lectin (iii) Concanavalin A

Polymeric
d. (iv) Gums
substance

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

34)

Which one of the following is correct for a normal human?

(1) pH of urine is around 8.5

(2) On an average, 75-80 mg of urea is excreted via urine per day
(3) Presence of ketone bodies in urine may be an indicator of diabetes mellitus
Relaxation of smooth muscles of bladder and simultaneous contraction of urethral sphincter
(4)
causes release of urine

35)

The structure of guanine is given below :-

To which of the following guanine will have to bind, to form RNA nucleotide?

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) I, II and III only

(2) I and IV only
(3) III, IV only
(4) I or III only

36)

Which statement is correct about the function of the renal tubule?

(1) DCT is capable of selective secretion of

(2) Reabsorption in Henle's loop is maximum
PCT also helps to maintain the pH and ionic balance of body fluids by absorption of
(3)

DCT part allow passage of small amount of urea into the medullary interstitium to keep up the
(4)
osmolarity.

37)

Parasympathetic activity during micturition causes :-

(1) Contraction of detrusor muscle and contraction of internal urethral sphincter

(2) Contraction of detrusor muscle and relaxation of internal urethral sphincter.
(3) Relaxation of detrusor muscle and relaxation of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Relaxation of detrusor muscle and contraction of Internal urethral sphincter

38) If 100 types of amino acids are participate in protein synthesis and 12 types of N2–bases in m-
RNA then single codon of m-RNA composed of how many nitrogen bases :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

39)

Read the following statements A to D for counter current mechanism :

(A)The loop of Henle and vasa recta play a significant role in this. (B) This mechanism helps to
maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.
(C) This mechanism helps to concentrate the urine nealy four times than initial filtrate formed.
(D) This mechanism occurs in all the nephrons of the Kidneys
How many statements are correct :
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All

40)

Which points are not correct about Angiotensin-II ?

(a) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure
(b) Activates the adrenal gland to release aldosterone
(c) Decreases the GFR
(d) Powerful vasoconstrictor

(e) Activates the JG cells to release renin.

(1) a, c, e
(2) a, d, e
(3) b, d
(4) b, c, e

41) Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs, Which of the following five
properties of starch (A–E) make it useful as a storage material :-
(A) Easily translocated
(B) Chemically non-reactive
(C) Easily digested by animals
(D) Osmotically inactive
(E) Synthesized during photosynthesis
Option :-

(1) (A), (C) and (E)

(2) (A) and (E)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (B) and (D)

42) Which one is correct ?

(1) E + S → ES → E + P → EP
(2) E + S → ES EP → E + P
(3) E + S ES E P E+P
(4) E + S ES → EP → E + P

43) When apoenzyme is separated from its metal component, its activity is :

(1) First decreased then increased

(2) Increased
(3) Lost
(4) Not affected
44)

Which is false about competitive inhibition?

(1) Often used in the control of bacterial pathogens

(2) Competitive inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure.
(3) It is irreversible
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor.

45)

In the given graph, if Y-axis represents reaction velocity, then X-axis can represent

(1) pH
(2) Temperature
(3) Substrate concentration
(4) Either (1) or (2)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 1 1 4 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 4 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 3 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 1 3 4 2 4 2 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 4 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 2 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Volume of block inside the water

= V – 0.1V = 0.9 V
For floating body W = Th = Vin ρwg
VρBg = 0.9V × 1g
ρB = 0.9 g/cm3

2) According to equation of continuity A1ν1 = A2ν2

∴ ν2 = = 2 ms–1
For a horizontal pipe, according to Bernoulli's

theorem

= 2000 + × 103 × (12 – 22)

[∵ Density of water, ρ = 103 kg/m3]

= 2000 – × 103 × 3 = 2000 – 1500 = 500 Pa

3) W = 8πR2T = 8 × π × (2 × 10–2)2 × 2 × 10–2

= 64π × 10–6 J

4) Upthrust = Vρliquid (g – a)
Where, a = downward acceleration,
V = volume of liquid displaced
But for free fall a = g ∴ Upthrust = 0

5) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion as
measurement of Young's modulus experimentally involves plotting the above graph and
calculating gradient which reflects stiffness of material and its resistance to elastic
deformation under load and can be related to Young's modulus by appropriate equations.

6)
7) Modulus of rigidity is defined only for solid, and it is zero for liquid.

8)

= 1800π erg

9)

= 2.4 cm

10) Dynamic lift = Pressure diff. × Area

= (Plower – Pupper) A
(According to Bernoullis Theorem)

= =

12) At certain height

13)

T=
But gequator < gpole
So, Tequator > Tpole

14)

T2 ∝ r3
 T' = 365 × (2)3/2 = 365 × 2 ×
= 1032 earth days

15)

PA = PB

0
P + hρg + (2h)(3ρ)g = Ptube +

0
P + 7hρg = Ptube + hρg

0
∴ Ptube = P + hρg

16)

⇒r=

17) Let the mass of ring having density λ be M.

Centre of mass

18) COM may lie within (i.e. in solid sphere), outside or on the surface of the body (L shaped
Lamina).

19)

40 m/s

20) COM of rod OA is and rod AB is and rod OB is .

21) As the system moves downwards after releasing; then COM of system moves vertically
downwards.

22) m1v1 = m2v2

4 × 20 = 6v2 ⇒

K.E. ⇒

23) In elastic collision → K.E., momentum & total energy all remain conserved.
In inelastic collision → K.E. is lost but other quantities remain conserved.

24)

∵ v' = ev =

25) Since = constant

Initially is zero then it remains zero.
but initially then it will not be zero.

26)

From COM
mV1 + M(0) = (M + m)v

v=
From COE

(M + m)gh =

2gh =

V1 =

27) m × 10 + 2m × 5 = mv1 + 2mv2

⇒ v1 + 2v2 = 20 .... (1)
 ⇒ v2 – v1 = u1 – u2
v2 – v1 = 10 – 5 ⇒ v2 – v1 = 5.......(2)
solving (1) & (2),

28)

30)
v2 = μrg
v2 = 900
v = 30 m/s

31)

Let the car looses the contact at angle θ with vertical

mg cosθ – N = ⇒ N = mg cosθ –

During descending on overbridge θ is increase.

So cosθ is decrease therefore normal reaction is decrease.

32)
Torque exerted on the disc,
τ = TR
Now τ = Iα
∴ α=

33)
Iα = constant

α∝
∵ I↑α↓ ∵

34) I (about YY') = Using parallel axis theorem :

I(about AD) = =

35)

I = I1 + I2 + I3

I1 = I2 = mr2

I3 =

∴ I = I1 + I2 + I3 = mr2
Moment of inertia = 3 mk2
where k is radius of gyration.

3 mk2 = mr2 ⇒ k = r

36) I = MK2 and IDisc = MR2

∴ K2 = ⇒K= =

37)

I = 1.2 Kgm2 K.E. = 1500 J

α = 25 rad/s2 t = ?
ω = Δ[Link]. = Iω2

0
Kf – 0 = I (ω + αt)2

Kf = Iα2t2

= 2 sec.

39) Oscillation
Complete circle
Particle will leave the circular path in the upper half

40) ∵ , then acceleration ac ≠ 0

So (i) & (ii) are wrong.
But velocity of COM v0 can be zero or non-zero
So option (iii) & (iv) are correct.

41)
Acceleration of blocks

a= = 6 m/s2

42) Xcom = = =

Ycom =

coordinate of COM =

43) We know that m1r1 = m2r2

 44) COM of : Semicircular Disc =

Semicircular Ring =

Solid hemisphere =

Hemispherical shell =

45) m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

(m) (v) + m2(0) = mv1 + 3mv2
v = v1 + 3v2 ... (1)

∵e= =

1= ⇒ v2 – v1 = v ... (2)

by solving eq. : v2 =

CHEMISTRY

46)

3d 4s

n 3 4
Energy is higher for the subshell having higher value of n value for hydrogen atom.

47)

NCERT, class 11th, part-1, Article No: 2.3.3, Pg No: 45, 46 Edition : 2023 - 24.

48) NCERT, Class 11th, Part-1, Article No: 2.6.2, Pg No: 57, 58, 59. Edition: 2023 - 24.

49)

2K, 8L, 8M, 2N

Number of e¯ is 20
Z = 20
 6 electrons ⇒ m = 0

S=+

50) NCERT, Class 11th, Part-1, Article No: Pg No:59, Edition: 2023 - 24.

51)

Total energy E =

∴n=

52)

me = 9.1 × 10–28
h = 6.6 × 10–27gcm²/sec.
Δv = 0.011% of 3 × 104
= 3.3cm/sec.

Δx =
= 0.1748cm

53)

Ncert, class 11th, part-4, Article No: 2.6.4, Pg No: 62, 63, Edition: 2023 -24.

54)

NCERT, class 11th, part-1, Article No: 2.6.6, Pg No: 64, Edition: 2023 - 2024.

55)

Charge / mass for n = 0, for α =

for , for

56)

ns2 np6 is from 2nd period onwards not first.

57)

Element is 71Lu which is of f-block, Lanthanoid series.

58)

Ncert, class 11th, part-1, Table No: 3.6, Pg No: 86, Edition: 2023 - 24.

59)

O+ > F+ (IP)
2p3 2p4
[For consecutive element IP of np3 > np4 due to extra stable Half filled configuration]

60)

Li < B < Be < C < O < N (IP)

2s1 2p1 2s2 2p2 2p4 2p3

61)

The jump between two successive IP, for ns1 first jump is highest, for ns2 second jump is
highest etc.

62)

EN has no direct correlation with EA.

63)

Be, Mg, Na → metals, metallic char ∝ .

64)

EN is a relative scale.

65)

σ bond is stronger than π-bond.

66)

NCERT-XI, Part I, Pg No: 104,Table 4.2, 4.3, Edition: 2023 - 24.

67)

68)

NH3 has weakest H-bond, HF has strongest H-bond but extent of H-bonding is greater in H2O
than HF.

69)

Stability ∝ bond order ∝

70) For M.P. and B.P. of ionic compound ∝ lattice energy

71)

72)

Solubility ∝

73)

Ncert, class 11th, part-1, Table No: 2.6, Pg No: 66, Edition: 2023 - 24.

74)

Radius of noble gas is largest in a period.

75)

r = Li+ ≥ Mg2+
76)

B2 = σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 ⇒ Paramagnetic

Highest occupied molecular orbit.

77) Ncert, class 11th, part-1, Article No: 2.3.1,

Pg No: 38, Edition: 2023 - 24.

78) Only for single electron species.

79) r4 – r3 = 7 × r1.

80)

81) nλ = 2πr

So,

82) I3– has 3 lone pairs on central atom.

83) Size of I is big enough that it will cause too much repulsion.

84) BBr3, BCl3, BF3 all have same bond angle

85)

86)

sp3d & sp3d2 involve dz -orbital in hybridization.

2

XeF4 - planar (sp d )

3 2

SF4 - non planar (sp3d)

XeO3 - Non planar (sp ) 3

3
CH4 - non planar (sp )

87)
 F– has least atomic size.
H– has more atomic size due to more e/p ratio.

88)

Zn : [Ar]3d104s2 having fully filled s-orbital. Thus, have more I.E.

O → O+, I.E is endothermic.
O → O–,ΔHege is exothermic

89)

The magnitude of EA2 > EA1.

I.E +ve charge,

90)

Oxidation state of central atom ↑ acidic strengths ↑.

EN of central atom ↑, acidic strength ↑.

BOTANY

91) NCERT, Pg. # 88

A, B and C are correct

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 99

93) NCERT-XI, Pg # 93-94

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96,97,101

95) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 96

96)

NCERT XI Pg. # 100,101

97)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 101

98) NCERT XI Pg. # 122,123,124

99)

NCERT Pg # 121,122

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

101) NCERT XI Page No. # 126

102) NCERT XI Pg # 128

103)

NCERT XI Pg # 126,127
Hint : B and F are true.

104) NCERT XI, Pg. # 90,99

Hint : All except lysosome and nucleolemna

105)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 100

106) NCERT XI pg.# 88

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

109) NCERT XI Pg.# 102

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

111)

NCERT XI, Pg # 96
113)

NCERT-XI, Page No. 127

114)

NCERT XI Pg. # 123

115) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 121

116) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 121

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 126

118) NCERT XI Pg. # 126

119)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

120)

NCERT XI Pg. # 121-123

121) XI NEW NCERT Pg # 121

122) XI NEW NCERT Pg # 124

123) NCERT-XI, Pg # 121

124) NCERT XI Pg. # 126

125) NCERT XI Pg. # 123

126) NCERT XI Pg. # 127

127)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

128) NCERT XI Pg. # 93

 129) NCERT XI Pg. # 89

130) NCERT XI Pg. # 98

131) NCERT XI Pg. # 99

132) NCERT Pg. No. 96

133) NCERT XI Pg. # 88

134) NCERT, Pg # 101

135) NCERT XI Pg. # 87

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 281; para-2

137) NCERT XIth Pg.#278

138) NCERT XI, Pg.# 287, 18.5

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 279, para-2,3

140) NCERT–XI, Para–2, Pg. # 283

141)

NCERT XI Pg # 288

142) NCERT Pg. # 281

143)

NCERT XI Pg # 286

144)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 281

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 274

147) NCERT (XI) Pg # 274

148) NCERT (XI) Pg # 272

149) NCERT XI Pg # 268

150)

NCERT XI Pg # 270

152)

O2 is utilised by the organisms to indirectly breakdown simple molecules like glucose, amino
acids, fatty acids etc. to derived energy to perform various activities.

153) NCERT Pg. # 17.1

154) NCERT-XIth Pg # 276 [E]

155) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 269

156) NCERT XI(E) page 290

160) NCERT XII [Link].96

164)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 144, 149

166)

NCERT Based.

168)

NCERT XI Pg.# 148

172)
Allen module.

173)

Allen module.

176)

Allen module.

177)

NCERT XI Pg # 156

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 159

179) NCERT pg-148