19-04-2026

1902CMD303031250147 MD

PHYSICS

1) The five charges each of 10 × 10–6 coloumb are placed at vertex of an regular pentagon of side
10cm. The force exerted on the charge of 1 m C placed at centre of pentagon in newton will be

(1) 13.5
(2) zero
(3) 4.5
(4) 6.75

2) A metallic wire is folded in the form of a ring of radius 24 cm and is negatively charged to 5 × 10–9
coulomb. The distance from the centre of the ring to the point on the axis of the ring, where the
intensity of the electric field is maximum, will be :-

(1) 0.17 m
(2) 1.7 m
(3) 1.7 × 10–2 m
(4) 1.7 × 102 m

3)
In given figure –2Q, and –Q charge is placed at (–a, 0) and (0, –a). When a charge is placed at point P

0
(x, y) then resultant force on q0 (q is at origin) charge becomes zero. Find .

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

4) The repulsive force between two equal charges (Q) is F. To reduce force by 25% how much
charge is transferred from first to second :–

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)
Q

5) A point charge q is situated at a distance d from one end of a thin non - conducting rod of length L
having a charge Q(uniformly distributed along its length) as shown in fig. Then the magnitude of

electric force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

The intensity of the electric field required to keep a water drop of radius 10-5 cm just suspended in
air when charged with one electron is approximately
(g = 10 newton/kg, e = 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb)

(1) 360 newton/coulomb

(2) 260 newton/coulomb
(3) 150 newton/coulomb
(4) 130 newton/coulomb

7) Electric field at different points along the x-axis is shown graphically. Choose correct statement

regarding q1 and q2 :-

(1) q1 (+ve), q2 (–ve), |q1| > |q2|

(2) q1 (+ve), q2 (–ve), |q1| < |q2|
(3) q1 (–ve), q2 (+ve), |q1| > |q2|
(4) q1 (–ve), q2 (+ve), |q1| < |q2|

8) Two charges +4e and +e are a distance x. At what distance from +e must a charge q be placed so
that it is in equilibrium ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The field at O due to the linearly charged are is :-

(1) 2kλ

(2)

(3) kλ

(4)

10) For the given figure the direction of electric field at A will be.

(1) towards AL
(2) towards AY
(3) towards AX
(4) towards AZ

11) Arrange the following figures in correct order to charge a conductor positively (without
touching) -

a. b.
c. d. e.

(1) c – d – b – a – c
(2) d – e – b – a – c
(3) c – a – e – b – d
(4) e – c – e – a – b

12) Select the correct alternative :-

The charge gained by the uncharged body from a charged body due to conduction is equal to
(1)
charge initialy present.
(2) The magnitude of charge increase with the velocity of charge.
(3) Charge cannot exist without matter although matter can exist without charge.
(4) Attraction is the true test of electrification

13) A square sheet is placed on x-y plane as shown in figure it's charge density is σ = σ0 xy. Then

find total charge distributed on the sheet :-

(1) σ0a
2

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

14) Two equal negative charges ' ' are fixed at points (0, a) and on the y-axis. A positive
charge Q is released from rest at a point on the x-axis. The charge Q will

(1) Execute SHM about the origin

(2) Move to the origin and remain at rest there
(3) Move to infinity
(4) Execute oscillatory motion but not SHM.

15) Two equal point charges A and B are R distance apart. A third point charge placed on the
perpendicular bisector at a distance 'x' from the centre will experience maximum electrostatic force
when :-

x=
(1)

x=
(2)

x=
(3)

(4) x =

16) A semicircular arc placed in xy plane is charged as shown in figure. The electric field at centre

'O' is :-

(1)
, above +x direction

(2)
, below +x direction

(3)
, along + x direction

(4)
, along + x direction

17) Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge Q = 10 μC (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended
by two insulating threads of equal lengths m each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is found
that in equilibrium threads are separated by an angle 120° between them, as shown in the figure.
What is the tension in the threads

(Given : = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)

(1)

(2) 1.8 N

(3)

(4) None of the above

18) The dimension of ε0 is :

(1) [M–1 L–3 T4 A2]

0
(2) [M L–3 T2 A3]
(3) [M–1 L–3 T3 A]
(4) [M–1 L–3 TA2]

19) Two small identical spheres, each of mass 1g and carrying same charge 10–9C are suspended by
threads of equal lengths. If the distance between the centres of the spheres is 0.3 cm in equilibrium
then the inclination of the thread with the vertical will be :-

(1) tan–1(0.1)
(2) tan–1(0.5)
(3) tan–1(0.8)
(4) tan–1(1.5)

20) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If "α > β" then at equilibrium. Which of

the following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & M1 = M1

(2) q1 = q2 & M1 = M2
(3) q1 > q2 & M1 < M2
(4) q1 = q2 & M1 > M2

21) Two equally charged identically metal sphere A and B repel each other with a repulsive force 2 ×
10–5 N. Another identical uncharged sphere C is touch to B and then placed at the mid-point between
A and B. What is the net electric force on C ?

(1) 3 × 10–5 N
(2) 2 × 10–5 N
(3) 1 × 10–5 N
(4) 4 × 10–5 N

22) A charge of 1μC is divided into two parts such that their charges are in the ratio of 2 : 3. These
two charges are kept at a distance 1 m apart in vaccum. Then, the electric force between them (in
N) is :

(1) 0.216
(2) 0.00216
(3) 0.0216
(4) 2.16
23) Two identically charged balls of charge q & mass m each are suspended
from a common point 'S' by means of two massless strings of length l (each) one ball is supported by
vertical wall as shown in figure other string makes 'q' angle with vertical in equilibrium. Find tension
in this string :-

(1)
T=
(2) T = mg
(3) T = 2 mg

(4)
T=

24) Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force

on –q1 is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is

(1)
from 3e charge

(2)
from 3e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge
26)
Two charged wire of same length l are placed in parallel, find net electric field at mid point M of
perpendicular bisector of wires :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

27) Two positively charged infinitely long wires

(λ1 > λ2) are placed parallel to each other at
x = –a and x=+a as in figure. find the x – coordinate of a point at which electric field is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A charge is kept fixed at point A as shown in the figure in a gravity free space. A semicircular
ring of linear charge density λ, mass m & radius R is released from rest. Initially centre of
semicircular ring coincides with the fixed charge. The initial acceleration of the semicircular ring is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 0

29) A point charge 50μC is located in the XY plane at the point of position vector m. What
is the electric field at the point of position vector m?

(1) 1200 V/m

(2) 0.04 V/m
(3) 900 V/m
(4) 4500 V/m

30) Find E = + + + +....∞

(1)
kq

(2)
kq

(3)
kq

(4)
kq

31)
3 charges are placed in space as shown. Find the region in which charge Q should be placed so net
force on it is zero :-

(1) Only A
(2) Both B & C
(3) Both A & B
(4) Only C

32) An extremely long wire is uniformly charged. An electron is revolving about the wire and making
108 revolutions per second in an orbit of radius 2 cm. Linear charge density of the wire is nearly :

(1) 50 nc/m
(2) 25 nc/m
(3) 62.5 nc/m
(4) 12.5 nc/m

33) Six charges, three positive and three negative of equal magnitude are to be placed at the
vertices of a regular hexagon such that the electric field at O is double the electric field when only
one positive charge of same magnitude is placed at R. Which of the following arrangements of
charges is possible for P, Q, R, S, T and U respectively :-

(1) +, –, +, –, –, +
(2) +, –, +, –, +, –
(3) +, +, –, + –, –
(4) –, +, +, –, +, –

34)

Linear charge density of a half ring varies with θ as λ = λ0cosθ. then find total charge of ring.

(1) λ0R
(2) Zero
(3) λ0R
(4) 2λ0R

35) Twelve negative charges are placed at the circumference of the dial of a clock as shown in
figure. The clock has only hour hand which points in the direction of net electric field at O. The clock

will show time as :-

(1) 3:30
(2) 7:30
(3) 9:30
(4) 4:30

36) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on a +ve
charge kept at the centre of the square is

(1) zero
(2) along diagonal AC
(3) along diagonal BD
(4) perpendicular to the side AB

37) Two positive charges of 20 coulomb and Q coulomb are situated at a distance of 60 cm. The
neutral point between them is at a distance of 10 cm from the 20 coulomb charge. Charge Q is:-

(1) 300 C
(2) 400 C
(3) 500 C
(4) 800 C

38) When we put a system of two charges in a medium, the elctrostatic force on each other :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remains the same
(4) depends upon the medium

39) Dielectric constant of pure water is 81. Its permittivity will be :-

(1) 7.17 × 10–10 MKS units

(2) 8.86 × 10–12 MKS units
(3) 1.02 × 1013 MKS units
(4) Cannot be calculated

40) Two point charges exert on each other a force F when they are placed r distance apart in air.
When they are placed R distance apart in a medium of dielectric constant K, they exert the same
force. The distance R equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3) rK
(4)
41) If q1 + q2 = q, then the value of the ratio , for which the force between q1 and q2 is maximum
is :-

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

42) Which of the following is not a unit of charge ?

(1) Farad
(2) Stat Coulomb
(3) Coulomb
(4) Frankline

43) In relativistic mechanics m = the equivalent relation in electricity for electric charge
is:-

(1) q = q0

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Mark the correct option :

(1) The total charge of universe is constant

(2) The total positive charge of universe is constant
(3) The total negative charge of universe is constant
(4) The total number of charged particles in the universe is constant

45) Find correct statements :-

(A) Charge is invariant while mass is not.
(B) For an isolated system charge is always conserved while mass is not always conserved.
(C) Mass of proton is equals to sum of mass of 2 up quark and 1 down quark.
(D) Repulsion is the true test of electrification.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, D

CHEMISTRY

1) If the initial concentration of reactants are doubled then half life becomes half. Calculate order of
the reaction ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

2) Which of the following expressions is correct for zero order and first order respectively ['a' is
initial concentration]

t1/2 ∝ a, t1/2 ∝
(1)

(2) t1/2 ∝ a, t1/2 ∝ a°

(3) t1/2 ∝ a° , t1/2 ∝ a
t1/2 ∝ a, t1/2 ∝
(4)

3)

Rate of formation of SO3 according to the reaction is 1.6 × 10–3 kg L–1 min–1.
Hence rate of decompostion of SO2 is :

(1) 1.6 × 10–3 kg L–1 min–1

(2) 8.0 × 10–4 kg L–1 min–1
(3) 3.2 × 10–3 kg L–1 min–1
(4) 1.28 × 10–3 kg L–1 min–1

4) The rate of certain hypothetical reaction

A + B + C → Product, is given by

r= = K [A]1/2[B]1/3[C]1/4
The order of reaction is given by :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)
5) Which one of the following is a reaction of zero order ?

(1)
N2O5 → 2NO2 + O2
(2) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(3) PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2
(4) 2FeCl3 + SnCl2 → 2FeCl2 + SnCl4

6) For the reaction A + 2B → C, : if the concentration of B decreases by 0.15 M while the

concentration of A decreases by 0.075 M in 50 seconds, what is average rate of formations of C ?

(1) 0.003 M/r

(2) 0.0015 M/r
(3) 0.002 M/r
(4) 0.075 M/r

7) For a process A + B → product, the rate of reaction is second order with respect to A and zero
order with respect to B. When 1 mole each of A & B are taken in 1 litre vessel, the initial rate of
disappearance of B is 1 × 10–2 mol/L-sec. The rate of reaction when 50% of the reactant have been
converted to product would be -

(1) 1 × 10–2 mol/L-sec

(2) 2.5 × 10–3 mol/L-sec
(3) 5 × 10–2 mol/L-sec
(4) 5 × 10–3 mol/L-sec

8) In a reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), the rate of appearance of NH3 is 2.5×10–4 molL–1 sec–1. The
rate of reaction & rate of disappearance of H2 will be (In mol L–1 sec–1)

(1) 3.75 × 10–4, 1.25 × 10–4

(2) 1.25 × 10–4, 2.5 × 10–4
(3) 1.25 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4
(4) 5.0 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4

9)

The time for half life period of a certain reaction A → Products is 1 hour. When the initial
concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L–1, how much time does it take for its concentration to
come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is a zero order reaction ?

(1) 0.25h
(2) 1h
(3) 4h
(4) 0.5h

10) For a complex reaction____.

(1) Order of overall reaction is never equal to molecularity of the slowest step.
(2) Order of overall reaction is less than the molecularity of the slowest step.
(3) Order of overall reaction is greater than molecularity of the slowest step.
(4) Molecularity of the slowest step is an integer.

11) The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
 (A) Zero order (P)

(B) First order (Q)

(C) Second order (R)

(D) Third order (S)

(1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P

(2) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

13) For the reaction, 2NO(g) + 2H2(g) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g) the rate expression can be written in the
following ways :

The relationship between is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) Consider a chemical reaction involving compounds A and B, which is found to be second order in
A and first order in B. At what rate, will the reaction occur in experiment 2 ?

Exp. Rate (Ms–1) Initial [A] Initial [B]

1 0.10 0.5 M 2.0 M

2 ? 2.0 M 3.0 M
(1) 1.8 M s–1
(2) 0.6 M s–1
(3) 1.2 M s–1
(4) 2.4 M s–1

15) The rate constant of a first order reaction at 37°C is 10–3 min–1. The temperature coefficient of
this reaction is 2. What is the rate constant (in min–1) at 17°C for this reaction ?

(1) 10–3
(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 2.5 × 10–3
(4) 2.5 × 10–4

16) Azo isopropane decomposes according to the equation :-

(CH3)2CHN = NCH(CH3)2 (g) N2(g) + C6H14(g)
It is found to be a first order reaction. If initial pressure is Po and pressure of the mixture at time t is
(Pt) then rate constant k would be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The half life for the first order reaction is 20 hrs at 30°C starting with 320 gram of reactant, how
many grams of reactant will remain after a period of 100 hrs.

(1) 32 g
(2) 3.2 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 160 g
 0
18) For a reaction A → P; A plot between [A] Vs is straight line having a positive slope. When
–2
initial concentration of A is 1 × 10 M its half life period is found to be 20 min. When concentration
of A is 2 × 10–2 M, then half life will be?

(1) 20 min.
(2) 10 min.
(3) 67 min.
(4) 56 min.

19)

The mechanism of the reaction : A + 2B + C → D is :

(i) A + B X (fast) equilibrium
(ii) X + C → Y (Slow)
(iii) Y + B → D (Fast)
Which rate law is correct :-

(1) r = K[C]
(2) r = K[A]2[B][C]
(3) r = K[A][B][C]
(4) r = K[A][B]2[C]

20) For a zero order reaction, the plot of conc. (a – x) vs time is linear with -

(1) + ve slope and zero intercept

(2) – ve slope and zero intercept
(3) + ve slope and non-zero intercept
(4) – ve slope and non-zero intercept

21) For the reaction

2H2 + 2NO → N2 + 2H2O
the following mechanism has been proposed-

(i) 2NO N2O2 (fast)

(ii) N2O2 + H2 N2O + H2O (r.d.s)

(iii) N2O + H2 —→ N2 + H2O (fast)
then what will be the rate law of this reaction?

2
(1) k[NO] [H2]
(2) k[NO] [H2]
0 3
(3) k[NO] [H2]
2
(4) k[NO] [H2]

22) For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as follows :

(i) A + B → X (slow) (ii) X → AB (fast)
The process of reaction can be best describe by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Consider the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3 (g)

The correct equality relationship between and is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) For a hypothetical reaction ; A + B → C the following data were obtained in three different
experiments :–

[A] [B] Rate of reaction

(mol L-1) (mol L-1) (mol L-1 min-1)

0.01 0.01 1.0 × 10-4

0.01 0.03 9.0 × 10-4
0.03 0.03 2.70 × 10-3
The rate law will be :–
(1) r = K[A]2[B]
(2) r = K[A][B]2
(3) r = K[A][B]
(4) None of these
25) The following data pertain to reaction between A and B :

[Link]. [A] mol.l–1 [B] mol.l–1 Rate mol.l–1t–1

I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4

II 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–4

III 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–2

Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from the above data ?
a. Rate constant of the reaction is 10–4
b. Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
c. Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactants
Select the correct answer.
Codes :-
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

26) Which of the following statements is wrong about reaction :-

(1) There can be only three values of molecularity, that is 1,2 and 3
(2) There can be only four values of order, that is 0,1, 2 and 3
(3) There can be infinite number of values for order
(4) The order involves rate while molecularity does not

27) The reaction 2A + B → P, follows the mechanism

2A ⇌ A2 (fast)
A2 + B → P (slow)
The order of the reaction is

(1) 1.5
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

28) Consider the plots for the types of reaction : nA → B + C

These plots respectively correspond to the

reaction orders :

(1) 0, 2, 1
(2) 0, 1, 2
(3) 1, 1, 2
(4) 1, 0, 2

29) Which of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) Instantaneous reactions take very less time for completion

(2) Zero order reaction must be a complex reaction
(3) For Ist order reaction unit of rate constant is mol L–1sec–1
(4) Order of reaction is defined experimentally

30) The rate equation of a reaction is as follows :

r = k [A]0.5[B] [C]0.5
Which statement about the above equation is wrong ?

(1) Order with respect to each A and C is 0.5

(2) Unit of specific reaction rate is mol–1L s–1
(3) Order with respect to B is one
(4) Total order of the reaction is 2.5

31) For the reaction A + 2B → C, rate is given by, r = [A] [B]2 then the order of the reactions is

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 7

32) Statement I : For a complex reaction, order is given by the slowest step of the reaction
Statement II : Generally molecularity of the slowest step is same as the order of the overall reaction

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

33) Which of the following values of molecularity are not possible?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, d
(4) c, d

34) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Order of reaction can be zero or fractional.
Statement II : We can not determine order from balanced chemical equation except elementary
reactions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

35) Half life of radioactive sample of 14C is 5760 years. How many years will it take to reduce its
sample of 200 mg to 25 mg :-

(1) 23040 years

(2) 17280 years
(3) 11520 years
(4) 5760 years

36) In a reaction the half life becomes one fourth on doubling the initial concentration of reactant
then order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

37)

The following data were obtained at a certain temperature for the decomposition of ammonia:
P(mm) 50 100 200
t1/2 3.64 1.82 0.91
The order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

38) Correct statement about first order reaction is :-

(1) tcompletion = finite

(2)
t1/2 ∝
(3) Unit of K is mole L–1 s–1
(4) t1/2 × K = at constant temperature

39) Consider the following graph of the kinetic energy distribution among molecules at temperature
T. If the temperature is increased, how would the resulting graph differ
from the one above :-

(1) Both area I and II would increase

(2) Both area I and II would decrease
(3) Area I would increase and area II would decrease
(4) Area I would decrease and area II would increase

40) Which of the following is correct?

(1) It is the exothermic reaction

(2) Threshold energy e = a + c
(3) (Ea)f < (Ea)b
(4) All of these

41) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion (A): A reaction can have zero activation energy
Reasons (R) : The minimum extra amount of
energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is
called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

42) The curves M and N represent the variation of energy with reaction coordinate for the reaction
A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g) in absence and presence of inhibitor (–ve catalyst) :-

Which value represents the Ea for the backward reaction in the

absence of inhibitor

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) S + P
(4) P + Q

43) How many steps are in the mechanism of the reaction

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

44) Equilibrium constant does not effected by catalyst bacause :-

(1) It lowers the activation energy for the forward reaction

It lowers the activation energy for the forward and backward reactions by exactly the same
(2)
extent.
(3) It decrease the rate of forward reaction
(4) It does not change the rate of reaction

45) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with
the second step is rate determining :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1)

Development of male gametophyte is

(1) In-vivo
(2) In-situ
(3) Both
(4) Ex-situ

2) What would be the ploidy of cells of tetrad?

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

3) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

(2) In some cereals like rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release
In some members of rosaceae, leguminosae and solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for
(3)
months
(4) All of the above

4) How many cells degenerate during and after double fertilisation

(1) Six cells

(2) Five cells
(3) Three cells
(4) Nine cells

5) The function of innermost layer of anther is:

(1) Dehiscence
(2) Mechanical
(3) Protective
(4) Nutritive
6) The ploidy level of secondary nucleus of embryosac is :-

(1) 2n
(2) 3n
(3) 4n
(4) 5n

7) Polygonum type of embryosac is

(1) 8-celled
(2) 4- celled
(3) 5-celled
(4) 7-celled

8) Most common type of ovule of angiosperms is

(1) Orthotropous
(2) Anatropous
(3) Hemitropous
(4) Amphitropous

9) Which structure of ovule, takes part in storage of food?

(1) Integuments
(2) Nucellus
(3) Embryosac
(4) Micropyle

10)

The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?

(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte

(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (B) Represents mature male gametophyte

11) Regarding to viability of pollen grains select out the odd one :-

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Solanaceae

12) Which of the following is not nutritive generally?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Integument
(4) Nucellus

13) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

14) How many nucleus and cell involved in triple fusion respectively.

(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 3
(3) 2, 3
(4) 2, 2

15) The cells of tapetum possess _______ cytoplasm and generally have _______ nucleus/nuclei.

(1) Light, Single

(2) Light, Two
(3) Dense, Single
(4) Dense, multiple

16) Each lobe of a typical anther in angiosperm having two theca i.e., they are called :-

(1) Monothecous
(2) Dithecous
(3) Monosporangiate
(4) Trithecous
17) Which of the following disease is not caused by pollen grain ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Hay fever
(4) Malaria

18) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

19) Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by

(1) Compatible protein

(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Pectin

20) Typical female gametophyte is

(1) 7-celled 8 nucleate

(2) 6-celled 8 nucleate
(3) 4-celled 6 nucleate
(4) 5-celled 6 nucleate

21) Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in

(1) > 90% Angiosperm plant

(2) < 50% Angiosperm plant
(3) > 60% Angiosperm plant
(4) < 40% Angiosperm plant

22)

Exine of pollen is
(A) Hard outer layer of pollen grain.
(B) Most resistant organic matter known.
(C) Layer made up of sporopollenin.
(D) Layer which can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali.
(E) Layer which cannot be degraded by any known enzyme.
Which one of the following is correct ?

(1) A and B
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, B, C, D and E
(4) A, C and E

23) Which of the following is not true regarding the flowers?

(1) Flowers have aesthetic, cultural, religious and social values,

(2) Flowers are unit of sexual reproduction
(3) Flowers have only essential whorls
(4) All flowering plants produce flowers

24) Which of the following is not true regarding the sexual reproduction?

(1) Survival advantage is less than asexual reproduction

(2) Does not create new variants
(3) Usually, biparental
(4) 1 and 2 both

25) Which option correctly defines the property of vegetative and generative cell of a pollen grain?

Vegetative Cells Generative Cell

(1) Small Big

(2) Scanty food matter Abundant food matter

Large with irregular shaped

(3) Spindle shaped cell
nucleus

Floats in the cytoplasm of Floats in the cytoplasm of

(4)
generative cell vegetative cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Study the following diagram related to development of pollen grain in Angiosperm plant and
arrange these in correct order. Identify the correct option which give the correct order of

development and correct for diagram

(1) D, A, C, B; two haploid cells generative cell and vegetative cells are present in B
(2) D, A, C, B; Symmetric spindle is shown in figure C
(3) D, C, A, B; two haploid cells generative cell and vegetative cells are present in B
D, A, C, B; two cells generative cell and vegetative cells are present in B which are diploid and
(4)
haploid cell respectively

27) Development of female gametophyte or embryo-sac is given in flow chart. Select the correct
statement regarding the A, B, C and D in given flow chart and select the correct option which
includes all the correct statement/s:- Ovule
A
↓
Nucellus
↓
B
↓ Degeneration of 3- megaspore
C
↓D
Embryo sac
I. A is megaspore mother cell which produce microspore tetrad by meiosis
II. B is megaspore tetrad which is formed by meiosis in megaspore mother cell
III. C is functional megaspore which is usually present towards micropylar end
IV. D is meiotic division

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct

(2) II and IV are correct
(3) Only II is correct
(4) II and III are correct

28) How many pollen mother cells undergo reduction division to produce 80 pollen grains?

(1) 20
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 8

29) Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported ______ and causes
_____.

(1) Rice, nausea

(2) Maize, pollen allergy
(3) Wheat, pollen allergy
(4) Pulses, nausea

30) In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in formation of female gametophyte in the ovule
is :
(A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions in functional megaspore.
(B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell.
(D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
(E) Formation of wall resulting in seven celled embryosac
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
(4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

31) How many male gametes can be produced by 4 pollen mother cells?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

32) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil is found in:

(1) Papaver
(2) Michelia
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Both 1 and 3

33) Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false ?

(1) No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin so far is known.

(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic material.
(3) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature and strong acids.
(4) Germpores are the areas with high sporopollenin content.

34) How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 functional pollen grains and
100 functional megaspores respectively?

(1) 25, 100

(2) 100, 25
(3) 100, 100
(4) 25, 25

35) Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram given below:

 A B C D

1) Endosperm Egg cell Central cell Synergids

2) Pollen Tube Antipodal Egg Synergid

Forms primary
Forms
3) endosperm nucleus Central cell Helper cells
zygote
(PEN)

Forms
4) Central cell Polar nuclei Cooperative cells
zygote
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall ?

(1) Female gamete

(2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Male gamete
(4) Egg

37) The proximal end of filament of stamen attached to:-

(1) Anther
(2) Thalamus
(3) Peduncle
(4) Ovary wall
38) Identify A and B in a given diagram :-

A B
(1) Anther lobes Connective
(2) Pollen sacs Connective
(3) Pollen sacs Filament
(4) Megasporangia Filament
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Carpel is also called

(1) Megasporophyll
(2) Integumented megasporangium
(3) Seeds
(4) Nucellus

40) The egg apparatus is made up of two _____ and one _____ at the _____ end of the embryo sac.

(1) antipodals, egg cell, micropylar

(2) synergids, egg cell, chalazal
(3) egg cells, synergids, chalazal
(4) synergids, egg cells, micropylar

41)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall [Link] which labelled structures A to F are :
 A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

42)

Which of the following structure is shown in the given diagram :

(1) Pollinium
(2) Tapetal cells
(3) Embryo-sac
(4) Microspore tetrad

43) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-

A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell
 Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?

(1) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions

(2) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
(3) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
(4) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

45)

Read the following statements:

(i) Stigma serves as a landing flatform for pollen grains
(ii) Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity
(iii) Megasporangium is represented by the ovary in angiosperms
(iv) Cells of nucellus possess scanty food matter
(v) Embryo sac is located in the nucellus
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (v)
(4) (i) and (iii)

46) Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results in the formation of -

(1) First polar body and a diploid ovum.

(2) First polar body and a haploid ovum.
(3) Second polar body and a diploid ovum.
(4) Second polar body and a haploid ovum.

47) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of events leading to the formation of mature
sperm?

(1) Spermatogonium → Secondary spermatocyte → Primary spermatocyte → Spermatids → Sperms.

(2) Spermatogonium → Spermatids → Secondary spermatocyte → Primary spermatocyte → Sperms.
(3) Spermatids → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatogonium → Sperms.
(4) Spermatogonium → Primary spermatocyte → Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatids → Sperms.

48) After the transformation of spermatids into sperm, their heads become embedded in a cell called
“X” and are finally released from the “Y” by the process called “Z”. Identify X, Y and Z.

X Y Z
(1) Spermatogonium Epididymis Insemination
(2) Leydig Vas deferens Parturition
(3) Sertoli Seminiferous tubule Spermiation
(4) Spermatocyte Seminiferous tubule Spermiogenesis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Select the option which shows the correct part of a sperm with its corresponding function.

(1) Head: Stimulate Leydig cell to produce androgen hormone.

(2) Neck: Essential for maturation and motility of sperm.
Middle piece: Produces energy from mitochondria for tail movement which facilitate sperm
(3)
motility.
(4) Tail: Help in fertilization with the help of enzyme present in acrosome.

50) The theca layer in the tertiary follicle is organised into:

(1) Inner theca externa and outer theca interna.

(2) Inner theca interna and outer theca externa.
(3) Single theca layer
(4) Double theca externa

51) Spermiogenesis is conversion of:

(1) Spermatogonia → spermatocytes

(2) Spermatocytes → spermatids
(3) Spermatids → spermatozoa
(4) Spermatozoa → sperms

52) The male sex accessory ducts that open into the epididymis from the testis are:

(1) Rete testis

(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Ejaculatory duct
53) Sertoli cells are found in :-

(1) Ovaries & secrete progesterone

(2) Testes & secrete testosterone
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Adrenal cortex & secrete adrenaline

54) The scrotum helps in thermoregulation required during spermatogenesis.

The temperature maintained by the scrotum is

(1) 2–2.5°C higher than the normal internal body temperature.

(2) 8–8.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature.
(3) 2–2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature.
(4) 5–6.5°C higher than normal internal body temperature

55) Given below are two statements

Statements I :- Each secondary spermatocyte undergo the second meiotic division to produce four
spermatids.
Statements II :- Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true

56) Given below are two statements

Statement I :- Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
GnRH.
Statement II :- The spermatids are transformed into spermatogonia by the process called
spermatogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

57) The opening of vagina is partially covered by a membrane called ___________.

(1) Mons pubis

(2) Clitoris
(3) Labia minora
(4) Hymen

58) The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of two __________ above
the urethral opening.
(1) Mons pubis
(2) Labia majora
(3) Labia minora
(4) Hymen

59) Given below are two statements :one is labelled as assertion A and other in labelled as reason R.
Assertion A :- Hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity.
Reason R :- The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is correct explanation of (A)

60) Statement I :- The presence of a secondary oocyte is a feature of the secondary follicle.
Statement II :- The presence of antrum is characteristics of tertiary follicle.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

61) The __A__ soon transforms into a __B__ which is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called
antrum.

A B

(1) Primary follicle Secondary follicle

(2) Secondary follicle Tertiary follicle

(3) Tertiary follicle Graafian follicle

(4) Graafian follicle Corpus lutum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) In female at puberty only ______________ primary follicles are left in both ovary.

(1) 60000 – 80000

(2) 6000 – 8000
(3) 120000 – 160000
(4) 12000 – 16000

63) Assertion :- Ovaries are the primary sex organ of female.

Reason :- Ovary produce, the female gamete & several steroid hormones.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is correct.

64) The _"A"__ undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle while the _"B"__ exhibits strong
contraction during delivery of the baby.

(1) A-Perimetrium, B-Myometrium

(2) A-Endometrium, B-Perimetrium
(3) A-Myometrium, B-endometrium
(4) A-Endometrium, B-Myometrium

65) The part closer to the ovary is the funnel shaped __"A"__. The edges of the infundibulum possess
finger like projections called __"B"__.

(1) A-Fimbriae, B-Infundibulum

(2) A-Infundibulum, B-Fimbriae
(3) A-Infundibulum, B-Ampulla
(4) A-Isthmus, B-Fimbriae

66) Statements- I :- The uterus is single and it is also called womb.

Statements- II :- The shape of uterus is like an inverted pear.

(1) Both statements I & II are incorrect

(2) Only statements II is correct
(3) Both statements I & II are correct
(4) Only statements II is incorrect

67) Statement - I :- The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
Statement - II :- Each fallopian tube is about 2-4 cm. long and extends from the periphery of each
ovary to the uterus.

(1) Both statements I & II are correct

(2) Only statements I is correct
(3) Only statements II is correct
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect

68) Ten primary spermatocytes and ten primary oocytes produces how many spermatids and first
polar body respectively-

(1) 40, 20
(2) 20, 10
(3) 40, 10
(4) 20, 20

69) Seminal plasma is rich in :-

(1) Fructose, magnesium

(2) Sucrose, calcium
(3) Fructose, calcium
(4) Sucrose, iron

70) Read the following four statement (A–D).

A – Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
B – The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
C – Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
D – The testes are situated outside the abodominal cavity with in a pouch called scrotum.
How many of the above statements are correct:

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

71) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

Contain zona lysin

(1) Acrosome -
that help in fertilisation
(2) Nucleus - Contain DNA
Proximal Starts cleavage in
(3) -
centriole zygote
Contain
mitochondria, which
(4) Tail -
produce energy
for movement of tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Identify the structure shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in the
human, and select the right option for the two together.
 Structure Site of occurrence

(1) Testis Abdominal cavity

Out side the

(2) Penis
Abdominal cavity

Seminiferous
(3) Testis
tubules

Below the urinary

(4) Prostate
bladder
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) It is a diagrammatic view of male reproductive system, choose the correct option about A, B, C

and D :-

A B C D
Vasa
(1) Vasdeferens Prostate Foreskin
efferentia
Bulbourethral
(2) Epididymis Vasdeferens Foreskin
gland
Bulbourethral Glans
(3) Rete testis Ureter
gland penis
Seminal
(4) Epididymis Vasdeferens Foreskin
vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Given below is a diagrammatic sectional view of male pelvis showing reproductive system.
 Find out the correct answer representing A to D:-

(A)-Ureter (B)-Vas deferens

(1)
(C)-Urethra (D)-Ejaculatory duct
(A)-Vas deferens (B)-Ureter
(2)
(C)-Ejaculatory duct (D)-Urethra
(A)-Urethra (B)-Ureter
(3)
(C)-Vas deferens (D)-Ejaculatory duct
(A)-Ureter (B)-Ejaculatory duct
(4)
(C)-Urethra (D)-Vas deferens

75) Select the option with all incorrect statements w.r.t. male reproductive system.
(a) Muscle contraction causes erection of penis which facilitates insemination
(b) All accessory sex glands in male are paired
(c) Seminal plasma is rich in glucose, calcium and certain enzymes
(d) The secretions of bulbourethral glands also help in the lubrication of penis

(1) Only a and b

(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d

76)
Find out A, B, C, D and E respectively :-

A B C D E

(1) Testis Leydig cells Sertoli cells AMH ABP

 (2) ICSH Testis AMH Sertoli cells ABP

(3) LH Interstitial cells FSH Sertoli cell AMH

(4) ICSH Leydig cells FSH Sertoli cells ABP

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) ___(A)___ secreted by ___(B)___ stimulates ___(C)___ lobe of pituitary to secrete ___(D)___ and
___(E)___ hormones. Testosterone brings developmental of secondary sex organs and secondary
characters.

(1) (A) - FSH; (B) - hypothalamus; (C) - posterior; (D) - LH; (E) - ICSH
(2) (A) - GnRH; (B) - hypothalamus; (C) - anterior; (D) - LH; (E) - FSH
(3) (A) - GnRH; (B) - anterior; (C) - hypothalamus; (D) - LH; (E) - FSH
(4) (A) - GnRH; (B) - hypothalamus; (C) - posterior; (D) - LH; (E) - FSH

78) Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(1) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

(2) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
(3) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(4) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

79) Mark the wrong item in each series.

(A) Spermatocyte, Polar body, Spermatid, Spermatogonium
(B) Endometrium, Corpus luteum, Acrosome, Graafian follicle
(C) Vas deferens, Fallopian tube, Epididymis, Cowper’s gland
(D) Testes, Prostate, Seminal vesicles, Cowper’s gland

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Spermatid Endometrium Epididymis Prostate

Fallopian
(2) Polar body Acrosome Testes
tube

Corpus Vas Cowper’s

(3) Spermatocyte
luteum deferens gland

Graafian Cowper’s Seminal

(4) Spermatogonium
follicle gland vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80)
How many secondary spermatocytes will form 100 spermatozoa :-

(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200

81) In human female, oogenesis is not completed until ?

(1) Birth
(2) Puberty
(3) Syngamy
(4) Uterine implantation

82) During spermatogenesis first haploid structure is called as:

(1) Spermatid
(2) Spermatozoa
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Secondary spermatocyte

83) The region outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial space contains all except :

(1) Sertoli cell

(2) Leydig cell
(3) Blood vessels
(4) Immunocompetent cell

84) Observe the given diagram and give correct answer :

A-Spermatozoa – Chromosome - 46
(1)
B - Secondary spermatocyte
A - Spermatid
(2)
B - Secondary spermatocyte – Chromosome - 23
A - Secondary spermatocyte
(3)
B - Spermatid – Chromosome - 23
A - Secondary spermatocyte
(4)
B - Primary spermatocyte – Chromosome - 46
85) Read the following statements & choose the incorrect statements :
(A) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps in erection of the penis.
(B) Clitoris is a large finger like structure.
(C) Endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
(D) The cells of ducts in mammary gland secrete milk. Which stored in cavities of alveoli.

(1) A, B & C
(2) B & D
(3) C & D
(4) A & C

86) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into ------- mammary lobes

(1) 15-20
(2) 250 -350
(3) 2-4
(4) 7-8

87) Identify the incorrect match.

(1) Middle piece – numerous mitochondria

(2) Cervical canal – Part of birth canal
(3) Mons pubis – paired folds of tissue
(4) Oogonia – a couple of million gamete mother cell formed within each fetal ovary.

88) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human reproduction.

An endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of
(1)
pregnancy.
(2) The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute the semen.
(3) The stroma of ovary is divided into two zones namely an inner cortex and a peripheral medulla.
(4) Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase.

89) Sustentacular cells (Sertoli cells) are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as

(1) Luteinizing hormone

(2) Prolactin
(3) Growth hormone
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone

90) The -------------- forms a new membrane called zona pellucida surrounding it

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Primary follicle
(4) Secondary follicle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 4 4 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

No solution

2)

Electric field intensity at a point on the exis of a uniformly charged ring is given by

where r is the distance of the point from the centre of the ring (radius R).
For this intensity to be maximum,

Now

⇒ (R2 + r2)–5/2 [(R2 + r2) – 3r2] = 0

(R2 + r2) – 3r2 = 0

or

3)

No solution

4) Let x amount of charge be transferred

F= ;

4Q2 – 4x2 = 3Q2 ⇒ x =

5) F = qE = q

6)

No Solution
7)

21304

8)

No Solution

9)

No Solution

10)

No Solution

11)

No Solution

12)

No Solution

13)
Given : σ = σ0xy
For element dx - y1 = – a and y2 = +a
Area, dA = dxdy
charge on this element = dq' = σ0xy dx dy ...(1)
If we consider, rectangular strip of width dx keeping x as constant then charge on this, dq
= dq' = q' ...(2)
From equation (1)

dq' = σ xdx ydy =

q' = (a2 – a2) = 0

Hence, dq = 0
So, net charge on square sheet = 0

14) Resultant force on Q will be always towards origin. It will undergo oscillatory motion, but
not SHM (amplitude being comparable to other dimension and not small).

15)
FNet = 2F cos (90º – θ) = 2F sin θ

For F to be max.

⇒ ⇒ +x =0

⇒ =0⇒x=

16)
 above +x direction.
(as E–>E+)

17)

No Solution

18)

No Solution

19)
⇒ Fe = 10–3
⇒ Mg = 1 × 10–3 × 10
⇒ Mg = 10–2

⇒
⇒ θ = tan–1 (0.1)

20)
Here, α > β ⇒ M1 < M2

21) Explain Question:

Force on a third sphere after sharing charge.

Concept:
Charging by Contact and Coulomb's Law.

Solution:

• Original force: F = .

• Touching C to B redistributes charge: qB = qC =

• C is now repelled by B and A in opposite directions at the midpoint.
Calculation:

FAC = = 2F; FBC = = F. Net force = 2F – F = F = 2 × 10–5 N.

Final answer: Option(2)

22)
Q = q1 + q2 = 1 µC, q1 : q2 :: 2 : 3
let q1 = 2q, q2 = 3q, Q = 2q + 3q = 5q

q=

F=

F = 0.00216 N

23)

No Solution

24)

No Solution

25)

No Solution

26)

No Solution

27) Let coordinates of P are (x, 0) the distance of P from wire 1 = (a +

x) and from wire 2 = (a – x)
∵ E1 = E2

∴
⇒ λ1(a – x) = λ2(a + x)
⇒ λ1a – λ1x = λ2a + λ2x
⇒ (λ1 – λ2)a = (λ1 + λ2)x

⇒x=

28)
dE =

29) Question Explanation: We have given a point charge placed at a co-ordinate (2, 3). We
have to calculate the electric field at the point (8, –5).

Concept: This question is based on electric field.

Solution: The electric field due to point charge is given by

= 450 × 10(–6 + 9 –2)

Magnitude of EF ⇒ E = 4500

Final answer: The correct option is (4).

30)

No Solution

31)

No Solution

32)

f = 108 He ⇒ w = 2πf = 2π ×10 rad/sec

8

for circular motion -

FC = FE ⇒ mw2r =

λ= =
λ = 50 nc/m

33)

No Solution
34)
Let us assume an element at angle 'θ' & angular width 'dθ'
Q = Linear charge density × length
so charge on element
dQ = λRdθ = λ0 cos θ Rdθ

0 0π
⇒ ⇒ Q = λ R [sin θ]
⇒ Q = λ0 R [sin π – sin 0 ] ⇒ [Q = 0]
Hence option (2)

35)

36) Explain Question:

Four charges are placed at square corners: +q at B, –q at C,–2 qat A, and +2q at D. Find the
force direction on a +ve test charge at the center.
Concept:
Electric forces from each corner charge act on the center. Add vectors from all charges to find
net force direction.
Formula:

Electric force:

direction depends on sign and location

Calculation:
 ⇒ Their resultant is perpendicular to side AB

37)

No Solution

38)

No Solution

39)

No Solution

40)

No Solution

41)

No Solution

42)

Explain Question: The question asks to identify which given quantity is not used as a unit of
electric charge.

Concept: Units of electric charge

Solution: Coulomb is the SI unit of electric charge. Statcoulomb and franklin are CGS units
of charge. Farad, however, is the SI unit of capacitance, not charge. Therefore, farad cannot
represent electric charge among the given options.

Final Answer: Option 1

43)

Explain the Question : The problem compares relativistic mass variation with velocity and
asks the equivalent expression for electric charge.
Concept : This question is based on charge is invariant; it does not vary with velocity in
 relativity.

Solution : In relativity, mass increases with speed as . But electric charge is a

conserved scalar quantity and remains unchanged irrespective of motion. Therefore, unlike
mass, it does not depend on velocity.
Hence, the moving particle's charge is always equal to its rest charge : q = q0.
Final answer : 1

44)

By conservation of charge.

45)

No Solution

CHEMISTRY

46)

No Solution

47)

No Solution

48)

No Solution

49) Order of reaction =

50)

No Solution

51)

No Solution

52) Question Explanation: Find rate of reaction when 50% of the reactant have been
converted to product.

Concept: This question is based on First order reaction.

 Solution:
0
r = K [A]2 [B]
0
10–2 = K(1)2 (1) ⇒ K = 10–2
0
finally, r = 10–2(1/2)2 (1/2)
= 2.5 × 10–3

Final Answer: Option (2)

53)

According to stoichiometry of reaction :

=
= rate of reaction
⇒ rate of reaction

⇒ rate of disappearance

= 3.75 × 10–4

54) Question Explanation: Find how much time does it take for concentration to come from
0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1

Concept: This question is based on zero order reaction.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

55)

Explanation: Find correct statement

Concept: Order and molecularity of reaction.

Solution:
Step 1: A complex reaction proceeds through a series of elementary steps. One of these steps
is typically slower than the others and is called the rate-determining step (RDS).
Step 2: Molecularity is a theoretical concept defined only for elementary reactions. it
represents the actual number of reactant species (atoms, ions, or molecules) that must collide
simultaneously for the reaction to occur.
Step 3: Because reacting species are discrete entities, the molecularity of any elementary
step, including the rate-determining one, must always be a positive integer (usually 1,2 , or
rarely 3 ). It can never be zero, negative, or fractional.
Step 4: Therefore, for any complex reaction, the molecularity of its slowest step is always an
integer.

Final Answer : Option (4)

56) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct reaction profile for a positive catalyst.
Concept: Catalyst Effect on Activation Energy.
Solution: A positive catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy,
speeding up the reaction.
The peak representing the transition state with a catalyst is lower than the one without a
catalyst.
By using positive catalyst :
(i) ΔH does not change
(ii) Activation energy decreases
Final Answer: Option (2)

57)

No Solution

58) Rate =

59) R = k[A]2 [B]

For experiment 1,
0.1 = k(0.5)2 (2) .......(i)
for experiment 2,
R = k(2)2 (3) .......(ii)
On dividing equations (i) by (ii), we get

60) = (µ)ΔT/10

= (µ)20/10 = 4

=
= 2.5 × 10–4 min–1

61)

Question Explanation : Find rate constant expression using pressure data for first order
gaseous decomposition reaction with changing total pressure.

Concept: First order reaction

Solution:

Reaction:
(CH₃)₂CH–N=N–CH(CH₃)₂ (g) → N₂ (g) + C₆H₁₄ (g)

Initially pressure = P₀ (only reactant)

At time t, suppose decomposed = x

Then:
Reactant left = (P₀ − x)
Products formed = x (N₂) + x (C₆H₁₄)

Total pressure Pₜ = (P₀ − x) + x + x = P₀ + x

⇒ x = Pₜ − P₀

Remaining reactant pressure = P₀ − x = P₀ − (Pₜ − P₀) = 2P₀ − Pₜ

For first order:

k = 2.303/t log (initial pressure / pressure at time t)

So, k = 2.303/t log (P₀ / (2P₀ − Pₜ))

Final answer: Option 1

62)

Question Explanation: Calculate the amount of reactant remaining after a given time for a
first-order reaction using half-life.
Concept: For first-order reaction: After n half-lives, remaining amount = Initial × (1/2)ⁿ
n = total time / t1/2

Solution:
t1/2 = 20 h
Total time = 100 h
n = 100 / 20 = 5

Remaining amount = 320 × (1/2)⁵

= 320 / 32
= 10 g

Final Answer: Option (3)

63)
OR

......(1)

......(2)

t1/2 = 10 min

64)

No Solution

65)

Explain Question:
The question asks about the graphical relationship between concentration (a - x) and time for a
zero-order reaction.

Concept:
Zero Order Reaction: A reaction where the rate is independent of the concentration of
reactant.

Solution:
For a zero‐order reaction R → P, the integrated rate law is: [A]= a – k t
Here “a” is the initial concentration (intercept) and “–k” is the slope.
Since k>0, the slope is negative, and the y–intercept equals the nonzero initial concentration
a.
Therefore the plot of (a–x) (i.e. [A]) versus t is a straight line with • negative slope (–k) •
nonzero intercept (a)
 Final Answer: Option (4)

66)

Explain Question:
The question asks for the rate law of a reaction given a proposed mechanism
Concept:
Mechanism of reaction & rate law.

Solution:
given reaction 2H2 + 2NO → N2 + 2H2O
mechanism:

2NO N2O2 (fast) N2O2 + H2 N2O + H2O (R.D.S)

N2O + H2 → N2 + H2 (fast) By R.D.S R = k[N2O2][H2]

By 1st equation

or [N2O2] = [NO]2

By R.D.S R = k [NO]2[H2]
Final Answer: Option (4)

67)

Explain question:
The question asks which energy profile diagram best represents a two-step exothermic
reaction

Concept:
Collision theory.

Solution:
A reaction with two steps should have two peaks in the energy diagram, each corresponding to a
transition state.
The first peak (slow step) should be higher than the second peak (fast step)
The final energy level should be lower than the initial to indicate an exothermic reaction.

Analysis of Option

[Link] 1 :Incorrect as the second peak is higher than the first, which contradicts the given
fast-step nature.

2. Option 2 : Show only one peak, which is incorrect because the reaction has two steps.

3. Option 3 : Correctly represents two peaks, with the first peak being higher (slow step) and
the second lower (fast step). The final energy level is lower than the starting point, indicating
an exothermic reaction.
 4. Option 4 : Show two peaks but do not clearly indicate the exothermic nature correctly.

Incorrect as the second peak is higher than the first, which contradicts the given fast-step
nature.

Final Answer:Option (3)

68)

No Solution

69)

Question Explanation :
Determine the rate law (orders m, n) and the rate constant k from the three experimental
equations.

Concept :
this question is based on (rate law determination)

Solution :
Assume Rate = k[A]m [B]n. Write equations for each experiment:

(Eq1) 1.0 × 10–4 = k(0.01)m (0.01)n

(Eq2) 9.0 × 10–4 = k(0.01)m (0.03)n
(Eq3) 2.7 × 10–3 = k(0.03)m(0.03)n

Divide Eq2 by Eq1 (so k and (0.01)m cancel):

⇒ 9 = 3n ⇒ n = 2.

Divide Eq3 by Eq2 (so k and (0.03)n cancel):

⇒ 3 = 3m ⇒ m = 1.

Thus Rate = k[A][B]2.

Final Answer : Option (2)

70)

No Solution

71)

No Solution
 72)

No Solution

73)

No Solution

74)

No Solution

75)

A: Question Explanation
Identify the incorrect statement related to the given rate law:
r = k [A]0.5 [B]1 [C]0.5

B: Concept
Order of Reaction and Unit of Rate Constant

C: Reasoning

A. Order w.r.t A = 0.5, C = 0.5 → correct

B. Order w.r.t B = 1 → correct

C. Total order = 0.5 + 1 + 0.5 = 2 → so 2.5 is incorrect

D. Unit of rate = mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹

→ For overall order 2,
unit of k = L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ or mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹, which matches option 2 → correct

D: Final Answer
Total order is 2, not 2.5
Correct option: 4

76) Explain the Question : We need to find order of reaction, given reaction and rate law
expression.
Concept : This question is based on order of reaction and rate law expression.
Solution :
Reaction :- A + 2B → C
r = k[A] [B]2
order of reaction :- sum of powers of concentration terms in rate law expression.
order of reaction = 1 + 2 = 3
Final Answer: (1)

77)
No Solution

78)

Explain question:
Which of the following value of molecular is not possible.

Concept:
Molecularity

Solution:
⇒ Molecularity is equal to the number of reactant molecular colliding simultaneously to
produce product.
⇒ It must be whole positive number, it can not be zero, –ve or fractional.
⇒ Max value of molecularity can be 3.

Final answer: Option (3)

79)

Explain the Question : Evaluate the correctness of two elements regarding the possible
values of reaction order and its determination from chemical equations.
Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.
Solution :
Statement-I : Correct because reaction order is an experimental quantity that can be zero,
fractional or an integer.
Statement-II : Correct because for complex reactions, the order is determined by the slowest
step, not the overall balanced equation.
Final Answer : (1)

80)

No Solution

81)

Question Explanation: Relation between half-life and initial concentration depends on

the order of reaction.

Concept: For an nᵗʰ-order reaction (n ≠ 1): t1/2 ∝ 1 / [A₀]⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾

Solution:

Given:
Initial concentration doubled → [A₀] becomes 2[A₀]
Half-life becomes one-fourth → t1/2(new) = t1/2(old) / 4

So, 1 / 2⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾ = 1 / 4 ⇒ 2⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾ = 4 = 2²

∴n−1=2
∴n=3

Final Answer: Option 4

82)

Question Explanation: We have to determine the order of the decomposition reaction of NH₃
from the given half-life data.

Concept: This question is based on dependence of half-life on initial pressure for different
reaction orders.

Solution: For different orders:

A. Zero order: t₁/₂ ∝ P₀

B. First order: t₁/₂ = constant

C. Second order: t₁/₂ ∝ 1/P₀

Given:
P (mm) = 50, 100, 200
t₁/₂ = 3.64, 1.82, 0.91

When pressure doubles (50 → 100 → 200), t₁/₂ becomes half (3.64 → 1.82 → 0.91).
Hence, t₁/₂ ∝ 1/P₀, indicating a second-order reaction.
Final Answer: Option (3)

83)

Given : 1st order

t100% = tcompletion = infinite

Unit of K = time–1
t1/2 × K = 0.693 (constant)

84) Explain Question:

Analyzing the shift in the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of kinetic energies when
temperature increases.

Concept:
Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution and temperature.

Solution:
The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution curve shows how many molecules in a sample prowess a
certain amount of kinetic energy. 1 when the temperature (T) is increased, the following
changes occur:
(1) Shift to the right: the most probable kinetic energy increases because the molecules move
faster on average. The peak of the graph moves toward higher energy values.
(2)Flattening on the peak: since the total number of molecules (the area under the curve) must
remain constant, the peak must become lower as the curve spreads out over a wider range of
energies.
(3)Area I vs. Area II:
Area I (Low-energy region): As the curve flattens and shift right, the proportion of
molecules with lower kinetic energy decreases.
Area II (High-energy region) The ‘’ tail’’ of the curve on the right side becomes higher,
representing an increase in the fraction of molecules with high kinetic energy (specifically
those exceeding the activation energy).

Final Answer: option (4)

85) Threshold ⇒ Total energy

e=a+c
Exothermic (Eab > Eaf)

86) Question Explanation

Check whether the assertion about zero activation energy is true and whether the given
reason correctly matches it.

Concept
This question is based on activation energy.

Solution
Assertion: “A reaction can have zero activation energy” — this is false for school-level kinetic
interpretation where reactions always need some minimum energy to proceed.
Reason: The definition of activation energy — this is true.
So A is false but R is true.

Final Answer
option 4

87) Fact

88) Question Explanation: To find out no. of steps in mechanism

Concept: Collision theory.

Solution:
According to collision theory
No. of steps in mechanism = No. of transition state (Peaks).
So, No. of steps in mechanism = 4

Final answer: Option (3)

 89)

No Solution

90) Question Explanation: Identify endothermic reaction diagram with two steps, second
being rate-determining.
Concept: Potential energy and reaction coordinate
Solution:
Endothermic reaction: products higher in energy than reactants (Eₚ > Eᵣ)
Two transition states indicate two steps.
Rate-determining step (RDS) is slowest → highest activation energy.
Second step has higher Ea, so correct diagram is Option 4.
Final answer: Option (4)

BIOLOGY

91)

Both

92)

The ploidy of the cells of the tetrad- Haploid (n)

The correct answer is (1). N

93)

A. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. Correct

B. In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release: This is correct.
C. In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae, and Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability
for months. Correct.

So, all the statements are correct.

The correct answer is (4.) All of the above.

94)

Six cells

95)

The innermost wall layer of anther is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
The correct answer is- (4) Nutritive
96)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the Ploidy of the secondary nucleus.
Concept: Embryo sac ploidy.
Solution: The secondary nucleus is formed when the two haploid polar nuclei fuse within
the central cell of the embryo sac. Since each polar nucleus is haploid (n), their fusion results
in a diploid (2n) secondary nucleus.
Final Answer : Option (1)

97)

Explain Question : The question asks for the number of cells present in a mature Polygonum
type of embryo sac.

Concept : -Development Of Female Gametophyte.

Explanation : A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.

Polygonum is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperm.

Final answer : Option (4)

98)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the most common type of ovule orientation
found in Angiosperms

Concept : This question is based on types of ovules

Explanation : The most common type of ovule in angiosperms is the anatropous ovule.

Final answer: Option (2)

99)

Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.

The correct answer is -(2)

100)

No Solution

101) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Pg. # 8
Viability of pollen grains of poaceace is 30 min whereas viability of pollen grains of rosaceae,
solanaceae & Leguminoseae is for several months.
Final Answer : (2)
102)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 21,25,35 (E), 22,27,37(H)

103) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Ploidy of :
(i) nucellus = 2n
(ii) megaspore mother cell = 2n
(iii) functional megaspore = n
(iv) embryo sac = n
Final Answer : (3)

104)

3, 2

105)

Dense, multiple

106)

No Solution

107)

No Solution

108)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

109)

No Solution

110) NCERT Page no. 27

111) NCERT Page no. 23

112)

NCERT Page no. 23

 113) NCERT-XII 1

114) NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 1

115)

No Solution

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 7

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 10, 11

118)

No Solution

119)

No Solution

120)

The question asks about the correct sequence of events in the formation of the female
gametophyte in the ovule of angiosperms.
Explanation: The process of female gametophyte formation (or embryo sac development)
involves several stages:

A. Meiotic division in the megaspore mother cell (C): The megaspore mother cell undergoes
meiosis to form four megaspores, one of which is functional.
B. Degeneration of 3 megaspores (B): Three of the four megaspores degenerate, and only the
functional megaspore remains.
C. 3 successive free nuclear divisions in the functional megaspore (A): The functional
megaspore undergoes three rounds of mitotic division without cytokinesis, resulting in 8
nuclei.
D. Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole (D): The nuclei arrange themselves, with 3 nuclei
migrating towards the micropylar end and 3 nuclei towards the chalazal end. One nucleus
remains in the center.
E. Formation of wall, resulting in a seven-celled embryo sac (E): After the migration of
nuclei, cell walls form around the nuclei, resulting in the formation of the 7-celled embryo sac,
including the egg cell and surrounding cells.

Correct Answer: 4. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

121)

No Solution
122)

No Solution

123)

No Solution

124)

No Solution

125)

no solution

126)

No Solution

127)

No Solution

128) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 21 (E) ; 22(H)

129)

No Solution

130)

131)

No Solution

132) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 23, (H) Pg.#24 figure 2.5(a)

133) NCERT XII, Page # 26

134)
No Solution

135)

No Solution

136) Solution : Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results in the formation of a
second polar body & a haploid ovum (ootid).
Final Answer : (4)

137) Solution : A spermatogonium divides into two primary spermatocytes. Each primary
spermatocyte duplicates its DNA and subsequently undergoes meiosis - I to produce two
haploid secondary spermatocytes. Each of the two secondary spermatocytes further undergoes
meiosis II to produce two haploid spermatids.
Final Answer : (4)

138) Solution : After the transformation of spermatids into sperm, their heads become
embedded in a cell called Sertoli cells (X) and are finally released from the seminiferous tubule
(Y) by the process called spermiation (Z).
Final Answer : (3)

139) Solution : Sperm is the male reproductive cell and consists of a head, neck, middle piece
and a tail. The head of the sperm comprises the nucleus (DNA) and tip contains acrosome
which enables the sperm to penetrate the egg. Neck contains centrioles which are proximal
centriole and distal centriole. Distal centriole gives rise to axial filament of the sperm which
runs up to the end of the tail. The middle piece contains the mitochondria which supplies the
energy in the form of ATP the tail needs to move. The tail moves with whip-like movements
back and forth to propel the sperm towards the egg.
Final Answer : (3)

140) Solution : The theca layer is organised into an inner theca interna and an outer theca
externa.
Final Answer : (2)

141) Solution : The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process
called spermiogenesis.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Solution : The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through
rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis.
Final Answer : (2)

143) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 43, Para-3.1

144) Correct Answer: (3)

145) NCERT Page No. Eng-31, Hindi-34

146) NCERT Page No. Eng-31, Hindi-34

147) NCERT Page No. Eng-30, Hindi-32, 33

148) NCERT Page No. Eng-30, Hindi-33

149) NCERT Page No. Eng-30, Hindi-33

150) NCERT Page No. 48

151) NCERT Page. No : 48

152)

NCERT Page. No : 48

153) NCERT Page. No : Eng - 45, Hindi - 49

154) NCERT Page. No : Eng - 46, Hindi - 49

155) NCERT Page. No : Eng - 45, Hindi - 49

156) NCERT Page. No : Eng - 46, Hindi - 49

157) NCERT Page. No : Eng - 44, Hindi - 49

158)

No SolutionNo Solution

159)

No Solution

160)

No SolutionNo Solution
161)

No Solution

162)

No Solution

163)

No Solution

164)

No Solution

165)

No SolutionNo Solution

166)

No Solution

167)

No Solution

168)

No Solution

169)

No Solution

170)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 33

171)

No Solution

172)
No Solution

173)

No Solution

174)

No Solution

175)

No Solution

176) 15-20
NCERT Pg No 31

177) Mons pubis – paired folds of tissue

NCERT Pg No 31

178) The stroma of ovary is divided into two zones namely an inner cortex and a peripheral
medulla.
NCERT Pg No 28

179) Follicle stimulating hormone

NCERT Pg No 31

180) Secondary oocyte

NCERT Pg No 33