10/04/2026 Code-B Phase-1

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Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductor Devices, Experimental Skills
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Botany: The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applications

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.
Some parts of this question paper have been masked to maintain its integrity. The missing information will be announced
during/before the test.

PHYSICS

1. The momentum of the photon having de-broglie wavelength 3. In a hypothetical atom, if transition from n = 5 to n = 3
6000 Å will be produces visible light then the possible transition to obtain
infrared radiation is
(1) 1.1 × 10–27 kg m/s
(1) n = 5 to n = 2
(2) 6.6 × 10–27 kg m/s (2) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) 1.1 × 10–30 kg m/s (3) n = 6 to n = 3

(4) 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s (4) n = 6 to n = 4

4. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an α-particle are
2. The ground state energy of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The energy
3λ and λ respectively. The ratio of the velocities of proton to
needed to ionize H-atom from its second excited state is
α-particle is
(1) 1.51 eV
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 3.4 eV
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 13.6 eV
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 0.85 eV
(4) 9 : 2

1
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

5. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the 10. For an equilateral triangular prism, if angle of minimum
circuit. The current supplied by the battery is deviation is δm, then refractive index (μ) is equal to

δm
(1) 1

2
sin (30° +
2
)

(2) 1 δm
sin (15° + )
2 2

δm
(3) 2 sin (30° +
2
)

δm
(4) 2 sin (15° +
2
)

(1) 0.5 A
(2) Zero 11. Testing a working diode with a multi-meter should indicate

(3) 0.25 A (1) High resistance when forward or reverse biased

(4) 0.75 A (2) Low resistance when forward or reverse biased

High resistance when reverse biased and low resistance
6. During a β–1 decay (3)
when forward biased
(1) An atomic electron is ejected High resistance when forward biased and low resistance
(4)
when reverse biased
(2) A neutron in the nucleus decays, emitting an β–1
12. For detecting intensity of light, we use
(3) A part of binding energy is converted into β–1
(1) Photo-diode in forward bias
An electron which is already present in nucleus is
(4) (2) Photo-diode in reverse bias
ejected
(3) Photo-diode in no biasing condition
7. Searle’s apparatus is used to determine
(4) LED in reverse bias
(1) Spring constant of a helical spring
(2) Young's modulus of material 13. A forward biased diode among the following is

(3) Shear modulus of a material

(1)
(4) Refractive index of a glass slab

8. In a resonance tube experiment, first resonating length is 15

cm and second resonating length is 47 cm, then wavelength
of the wave is (2)
(1) 16 cm
(2) 32 cm
(3) 64 cm (3)

(4) 48 cm
9. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(4)
(1) Its resistance is increased
(2) It becomes a p-type semi-conductor 14. Binding energy per nucleon of nuclei ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 6.8 MeV
(3) It becomes a conductor and 5 MeV respectively. Then correct option is

There will be more free electrons than holes in the semi- (1) B is more stable
(4)
conductor (2) A is more stable
(3) A & B are equally stable
(4) Stability does not depend on binding energy per nucleon

2
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

15. Read following statements A and B carefully and choose the 21. To study the dissipation of energy of a simple pendulum,
correct option students plots a graph between square of amplitude and
Statement A: In Thomson’s model, an atom is a spherical time. The correct graph is given by
cloud of positive charges with electrons embedded In it.
Statement B: In Rutherford’s model, most of the mass of the
atom and all its positive charges are concentrated in a tiny
nucleus (typically one by ten thousand the size of an atom), (1)
and the electrons revolve around it.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2)
(4) Neither statement A nor B is correct
16. In a full wave rectifier, input ac signal has the frequency ν .
The output ripple frequency of the current is

(1)
ν

(3)
(2) ν

(3) 2 ν
(4) 3 ν

17. If the radius of a nucleus of mass number 2 is R, then radius

of a nucleus of mass number 16 is (4)
(1) R
(2) 2R
22. According to photoelectric effect, the slope of stopping
(3) R

2 potential (V0) vs frequency of incident radiation (ν) curve is

(4) 4R
(1) h

18. If average density of Nucleus for sodium is ρNa and for Zinc
it is ρZn then (2) eh
(3) h
(1) ρNa > ρZn
(4) e
(2) ρNa = ρZn
23. A point source causes photoelectric effect from a small metal
(3) ρNa < ρZn plate having work function φ. Which of the curve in figure
may represent, the saturation photocurrent as a function of
(4) ρZn >>> ρNa distance between the source and the metal plate?
19. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to another
state with principle quantum number equal to 4. Then the
number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6
20. The circular scale of a screw gauge has 100 equal divisions.
When it is given two complete rotations, it moves to 2 mm.
The least count of screw gauge is
(1) 0.01 mm
(1) A
(2) 0.01 cm
(2) B
(3) 0.04 mm
(3) C
(4) 0.005 cm
(4) D

3
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

24. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence 28. A heavy nucleus having mass number 220 gets
electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number 100
separated by energy band gaps represented by (E ) , g c
and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent nucleus
(E ) and (E ) respectively. Choose the correct relation is 6 MeV and for daughter nuclei are 7.2 MeV and 8 MeV,
g g
si Ge
respectively, then the energy released in the decay will be
among the following options
(1) 60 Mev
(1) ( Eg )
c
> ( Eg )
Ge

(2) 320 Mev

(2) ( Eg )
c
< ( Eg )
si
(3) 360 Mev
(3) ( Eg ) = ( Eg )
c si
(4) 98 Mev
(4) ( Eg ) = ( Eg )
c Ge
29. A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two nuclear fragments
25. The intrinsic carrier density in germanium crystal at room with velocities in the ratio 27: 64. The ratio of their nuclear
radii will be
temperature is 3 × 1013 per cm3. If electron density in an n-
type germanium crystal at room temperature is 5 × (1) 4

1017per cm3, then hole density (per m3) in this n-type

semiconductor is (2) 4

(1) 1.8 × 109 (3) 9

16

(2) 3 × 1013 (4)

27

64

(3) 3 × 1019
30. The work function for material x, y and z are 3.25 eV, 4.15
eV and 5.52 eV respectively. Their respective threshold
(4) 1.8 × 1015
wavelengths would be in order of
26. For diode (D1), forward bias resistance is 40 ohm and (1) λx < λy < λz

reverse bias resistance is 500 ohm. For diode (D2) forward

bias resistance is 20 ohm and reverse bias resistance is 400 (2) λx < λy > λz

ohm. The equivalent resistance between A and B if A is at (3) λx > λy > λz

higher potential, will be
(4) λx > λz > λy

31. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom

is , here h is planck's constant. The kinetic energy of this
h

electron is
(1) 3.4 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 1.51 eV
(1) 200

11
Ω (4) 6.8 eV

(2) 400
Ω
32. Match the column in radioactive decay process of nucleus
with ratio of number of neutron (N) to atomic number (Z) i.e.
11

N
(3) 250

13
Ω (
Z
)

Column-I Column-II
(4) 500
Ω
13
i β
+
decay process (a) (
N

Z
) ratio decreases
27. Which of the following Boolean expression is incorrect:
ii ¯
β decay process (b) (
N

Z
) ratio increases
(1) ¯¯
¯ ¯¯
¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
A +B = A . B
α -decay process of ( ratio remain
N
)
iii (c) Z

(2) ¯¯
¯¯
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯¯
¯
U92
235
nucleus same.
A +B = A . B

iv γ -decay process
(3) ¯ ¯
1+0 = 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(4) ¯ ¯
0 . 0 = 0 (1) i-(b), ii →(a), iii →(c), iv-(c)
(2) i-(b), ii →(a), iii →(a), iv-(c)
(3) i-(a), ii →(b), iii →(b). iv-(c)
(4) i-(b), ii →(a), iii →(b), iv-(c)

4
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

33. In a reverse biased diode when the applied voltage changes 37. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in ground state of
by 2 V, the current is found to change by 0.5 μA. The reverse a hydrogen atom is λ . The radius of 4 excited state of
0
th

bias resistance of the diode is hydrogen atom in terms of λ is 0

(1) 106 Ω (1) 4λ0

(2) 2×106 Ω (2) 5λ0

(3) 4 × 106 Ω (3)

25λ0

2π

(4) 2 × 105 Ω (4) 25λ0

34. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the shortest

wavelength of Lyman series to the longest wavelength in 38. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Balmer series is Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
A: In Rutherford's experiment majority of α -particles went
(1)
5 straight through the metal foil without being stopped or even
36
appreciably deflected.
(2) 4 R: Almost all the space occupied by an atom is empty.
9
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(3) 4

25

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4)
1

3
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false
35. Current I1 through the zener diode shown in the circuit is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(4)
explanation of (A)

39. In a resonance tube experiment, a tuning fork of

frequency 640 Hz is vibrated just above a cylindrical tube.
The length of the tube is L = 120 cm. Water is slowly poured
into the tube. The minimum height of water required for
resonance is (take speed of sound in air = 320 m s–1)
(1) 6 cm
(2) 7.5 cm
(3) 32.5 cm
(1) Zero
(4) 16.5 cm
(2) 10

21
mA

40. In photoelectric effect experiment, if intensity of incident light

(3)
21
mA in photoelectric emission is increased keeping the frequency
constant, then consider the following statements:
10

(4) 11
mA
Statement (A): Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons
10
will increase.
36. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central Statement (B): Stopping potential will remain same
Statement (C): work function remains unchanged.
potential field energy U (r) =
1

3
3
kr . If Bohr's quantization Statement (D): Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons
conditions are applied, then radii of possible orbitals and will decrease
energy levels vary with quantum number n as (Symbol have Choose the correct answer from the options given below
their used meaning) (1) Only statements A and B are correct
(1) rn ∝ n, En ∝ n
(2) Only statements B and D are correct
(2) rn ∝ n
2/5
, En ∝ n
6/5
(3) Only statements B and C are correct

(3) rn ∝ n
2/5
, En ∝ n
3 (4) Only statements A, B and C are correct

(4) 3
rn ∝ n , En ∝ n
5/6

5
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

41. An experiment is carried out in which light falls on a 43. Light emitted during the de-excitation of electrons from n = 4
photocell (cathode) has a work function of 2.5 eV. Two series to n = 2, when incident on a metal, photoelectrons are just
of measurement were performed. For the first measurement, emitted from the metal. In which of the following de-
light has a wavelength 248 nm and intensity I0 and for the excitation photoelectric effect is not possible?
second measurement, light has a wavelength of 310 nm and (1) n = 3 to n = 2
intensity 3I0. The ratio of stopping potential in
measurement I to measurement II is (hν = (12400 Å-eV)) (2) n = 5 to n = 2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(1)
5

(4) n = 4 to n = 1
(2) 5

3
44. Binding energy per nucleon of a fixed nucleus XA is 7 MeV.
(3)
4
It absorbs a neutron moving with kinetic energy 4 MeV and
3
converts into Y, emitting two photons of energy 2 MeV and 3
(4)
3 MeV respectively one after the other. The binding energy per
4
nucleon of Y(in MeV) is
42. When a metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic
light of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is 7V0. When (1) 7A−6

A+1

the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 3λ,

the stopping potential is 2V0. The work function of the (2) 7A–1

A+1

metallic surface is
(3)
7A+1

A+1

(1) hc

7λ

(4) A−1

A+1

(2) 2hc

15λ

45. In nuclear reaction,

(3) hc

24λ 2He
4
+ Z
X
A
→Z +2 Y
A+3
+δ

Here δ denotes
(4)
hc

15λ
(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) Positron

CHEMISTRY

46. If 6.022 × 1022 molecules of glucose are dissolved in 500 g 48. Match List-I with List-II.
of water, then the molality of this solution is List-I List-II
Species Number of electrons
(1) 0.2 m a. 4 g of CH4 (i) 2NA
(2) 0.1 m b. 2 g of SO2 (ii) 4NA
(3) 1 m c. 4 g of CO2 (iii) 2.5NA
(4) 0.5 m d. 8 g of NO2 (iv) NA
The correct match is
47. What mass of 90% pure CaCO will be required to neutralise
3

50 mL of 0.2 M HCl solution according to the following (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
reaction? (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
CaCO3 ( ) + 2s HCl(aq) → CaCl (aq) + CO2 (g)
2 (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
+ H2 O(l) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(1) 1.37 g
(2) 2.81 g
(3) 0.55 g
(4) 0.89 g

6
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

49. An organic compound is composed of 50% oxygen, 12.5% 54. For 10–6, prefix used in SI system is
hydrogen and 37.5% carbon by mass, what would be the
empirical formula of the compound? (1) milli

(1) C2H2O (2) nano

(2) CH2O2 (3) micro

(4) pico
(3) CH4O
55. Number of Fe atoms in 100 g Haemoglobin if it contains
(4) C2H4O2 0.33% Fe. (Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u)
50. If 30 ml of H2 reacts with 20 ml of O2 to form water. What is (1) 0.035 × 1023
left at the end of the reaction?
(2) 35
(1) 5 ml of H2
(3) 3.5 × 1023
(2) 10 ml of H2
(4) 7 × 108
(3) 10 ml of O2
56. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(4) 5 ml of O2 (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Molality of a solution does not change with
51. Consider the following statements:
temperature.
a. Both 0.0052 and 2300 have same number of significant
Reason (R): Mass remains unaffected with temperature.
figures
In the light of above statements, choose the most
b. Product of 2.5 × 5.25 in correct significant figures is 13.1
appropriate answer from the options given below.
c. 2 books and 30 pencils have infinite number of significant
figures Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
(1)
d. 2.008 has more number of significant figures than 2.080 of (A)
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
(1) b, c and d only explanation of (A)
(2) a and b only (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) d only (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) b and d only 57. Choose the incorrect match
Base physical quantity Name of SI unit
52. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion
and other as Reason. (1) Amount of substance – Kilogram
Assertion: Combustion of one mole of methane gives 44 g (2) Length – Metre
of CO2 and 36 g of water. (3) Time – Second
Reason: For the combustion of one mole methane, five (4) Luminous intensity – Candela
moles of O2 is consumed.
(1) (1)
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
(2) (2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion (3) (3)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not (4) (4)
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
58. A hypothetical element (E) exists in 3 isotopic forms of 20E,
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 21E and 22E in ratio of 5 : 2 : 1. The average atomic mass of
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements E is
53. Law of multiple proportions is not applicable to which pair of (1) 20.5 u
compounds?
(2) 21.2 u
(1) H2O and H2O2
(3) 21.9 u
(2) SO2 and SO3 (4) 22.1 u
(3) NO2 and NO

(4) H2O and H2S

7
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

59. Consider 49% (w/w) aqueous solution of H2SO4 with density 64. An element, X has electronic configuration of
= 1.2 g/L and choose the incorrect statement. 2, 8, 8, 2. The incorrect statement(s) about this element
is/are
(1) The molality of the solution will nearly be 9.804 m
(i) It belongs to 10th group of the periodic table.
(2) Molarity of solution will be 0.06 M (ii) It has 20 protons.
(iii) Its ionisation energy is higher than the element placed
(3) Mole fraction of solute will be 0.15
left to this in the same period but lower than the element
Ratio of the moles of solute to the moles of solvent will placed just above it.
(4)
be 5 : 28.3
(1) Only (i)
60. If 3.01 × 1023 molecules of sugar are present in 24.5 mol of (2) Both (i) & (ii)
water then mole fraction of sugar in solution is
(3) Both (ii) & (iii)
(1) 0.08
(4) Both (i) & (iii)
(2) 0.04
65. The outer electronic configuration of group 15 elements is
(3) 0.2
(1) ns2np2
(4) 0.02
(2) ns2np3
61. Match List-I with List-II
(3) ns2np4
List-I(Atomic Number) List-II (IUPAC official Name)
(a) 108 (i) Seaborgium (4) ns2np5
(b) 102 (ii) Rutherfordium
(c) 104 (iii) Nobelium 66. Element having atomic number 50 belongs to
(d) 106 (iv) Hassium (1) 5th period and 13th group
Choose the correct match
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) 6th period and 14th group

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (3) 5th period and 14th group
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) 6th period and 15th group
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
67. Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion
62. Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is (A) and other is labelled as reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The second ionization enthalpy will be
(1) Be < B < C < O < N higher than the first ionization enthalpy of an atom.
(2) B < Be < C < O < N Reason (R) : It is more difficult to remove an electron from a
positively charged ion than from a neutral atom due to
(3) B < Be < C < N < O increase in effective nuclear charge.
(4) B < Be < O < C < N In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
63. The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 Å. The ionic radii (in Å) of
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively are explanation of (A)

(1) 0.68 and 0.72 Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(2) 0.85 and 0.99
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) 1.05 and 0.99
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) 0.72 and 0.54
68. Which one of the following statement of the modern periodic
table is incorrect?
(1) The first period contains two elements
p-block elements together with s-block elements are
(2)
called representative elements
Elements in the same group have similar valence shell
(3)
electronic configuration
The d-block has 9 columns, because a maximum of 9
(4)
electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a d-subshell

8
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

69. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate 74. Match List I with List II.
o
List I List II
an electron in an atom within a distance of 0.2A . The
(Electronic (Maximum number of emission lines in
uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity is
transition) H atom sample)
(1) 5.9 × 104 m/s n = 5 to n1 =
a. 2 (i) 3
1
(2) 3.5 × 107 m/s
n = 3 to n1 =
b. 2 (ii) 10
(3) 2.9 × 106 m/s 2
n = 4 to n1 =
(4) 6.2 × 105 m/s c. 2 (iii) 1
2
70. Match orbitals given in List I with radial nodes (P) and n = 6 to n1 =
d. 2 (iv) 15
angular nodes (Q) in List II 1
List I List II Choose the correct option.
(a) 4s (i) P = 0 and Q = 2 (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(b) 3d (ii) P = 0 and Q = 1
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(c) 2p (iii) P = 1 and Q = 3
(d) 5f (iv) P = 3 and Q = 0 (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
Choose the correct. (4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) 75. Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength of
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) 500 nm. The frequency of the yellow light is

(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (1) 5 × 1013 Hz

(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) (2) 6 × 1014 Hz
71. Which of the following pair of species would contain same
(3) 6 × 1015 Hz
number of neutrons?

(1) (4) 2 × 1014 Hz

and
13 14
6
C 7
N

76. Given below are two statements.

(2) 16
O and 24
Mg
8 12
Statement I: Boh's theory was unable to explain the splitting
(3) of spectral lines in the presence of magnetic field called stark
56
Fe and 87
Sr
26 38
effect.
(4) Statement II: Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is
35
Cl and 39
Ca
17 19
greater than that of 2s orbital of lithium.
72. The number of electrons in Ca that have quantum number In the light of the above statements, choose the most
m = 0 is
appropriate answer from the options given below.
l

(1) 20 (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) 18 (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(3) 8 (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(4) 12 (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

73. Given below are two statements. 77. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following
Statement I: In photoelectric effect, the number of electrons transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least
ejected is proportional to the intensity of light. energetic photon?
Statement II: The work function of Mg is greater than that of (1) n = 5 to n = 1
Na.
In the light of above statements, choose the most (2) n = 5 to n = 3
appropriate answer from the options given below. (3) n = 6 to n = 5
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (4) n = 5 to n = 4
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

9
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

78. Consider the following statements. 82. For subsidiary quantum number equal to 1, the number of
I. The energy associated with the second orbit of Li
2+
ion is allowed value(s) of m is l

−30.6 eV / atom .
(1) 2
II. The radius of 4 orbit of Be ion is 211.6 pm.
th 3+

(2) 1
III. The wavenumber for the longest wavelength transition in
the Lyman series of Hydrogen atom is R cm where R is
3 −1 (3) 3
4

Rydberg's constant. (4) 0

The correct statements are
83. The correct increasing order of energy of the orbitals in
(1) I and II only hydrogen atom is
(2) II and III only (1) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d

(3) I and III only 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d

(2)
(4) I, II and III = 4f

79. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in n

th
Bohr orbit (3) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s

in a hydrogen atom is equal to 1. 5πa 0

(4) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
( a is Bohr radius), then the value of n/z is
0

(1) 0.75 84. The number of unpaired electrons in Co 2+

ion is
(2) 1.50 (1) 4
(3) 0.35 (2) 5
(4) 0.95 (3) 6

80. Given below are two statements. (4) 3

Statement I: There are (2l + 1) orbitals of each type in a
85. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is not
subshell. allowed?
Statement II: Magnetic orbital quantum number, gives
information about the spatial orientation of the orbital with (1) n = 4, l = 3, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2
respect to standard set of co-ordinate axis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (2) n = 3, l = 3, mℓ = 2, ms = –1/2
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(3) n = 2, l = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) n = 5, l = 4, mℓ = –4, ms = –1/2
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
86. Which among the following set of species is isoelectronic?
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. (1) O2 , N2 and C
2−

81. Consider the following statements. (2) H , He

+
, Li
2+
and 3+
Be

a. The oscillating electric and magnetic fields produced by

(3) N
+
, O
−
and C2
oscillating charged particles are perpendicular to each other 2 2

and both are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of (4) NO , CO and F2

the wave.
b. According to Bohr's model, the angular momentum of an 87. Orbital angular momentum of an electron present in f
electron is quantised. subshell is
c. According to de-Broglie, the wavelengths associated with –
electrons and other subatomic particles are significant. (1) √6h/2π

d. The probability of finding an electron at a point within an −−

atom is proportional to the square of the orbital wave (2) √12 h/2π

function. –
(3) √2h/2π
e. Azimuthal quantum number defines the 3-D shape of
orbital. (4) 0
The correct statements are
88. The correct decreasing order for negative electron gain
(1) a, b, c, d and e enthalpy for group 16 elements is
(2) a, b, c and e only (1) O > S > Se > Te

(3) a and b only (2) S > Se > Te > O

(4) c and d only (3) S > O > Se > Te

(4) Te > Se > S > O

10
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

89. Which of the following pair of elements would not have same 90. Which among the following oxides is neutral?
electronegativity on Pauling scale?
(1) Al2O3
(1) Be and AI
(2) As2O3
(2) H and P
(3) Cl2O7
(3) C and S
(4) Li and Mg (4) N2O

BOTANY

91. Systematics is different from taxonomy as the former 96. What is the mode of reproduction in fungi, filamentous algae
and protonema of moss?
(1) Does not include identification of organisms
(1) Fragmentation
(2) Includes evolutionary study of organisms
(2) Budding
(3) Is based only on characterisation of organisms
(3) Conidia
Includes characterisation, identification and
(4)
nomenclature of organisms (4) Regeneration
92. Read the following statements and choose the correct 97. Select the odd one out from the following.
option.
(a) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of (1) Solanum
common characteristics goes on increasing. (2) Datura
(b) Lower the taxa, less are the characteristics that the
members within the taxon share. (3) Triticum
(c) Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining (4) Petunia
the relationship to other taxa at the same level.
(d) For plants, scientific names are based on agreed 98. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories in
principles and criteria, which are provided in ICZN. descending order is
(1) Only (a) and (d) are incorrect (1) Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species
(2) All are correct except (a) (2) Division-Class-Family-Order-Genus-Species
(3) All are incorrect except (c) (3) Division-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
(4) Only (b) and (d) are correct (4) Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species

93. Local names of various plants and animals 99. A unicellular fungus which helps to make bread and beer
belongs to the class
(1) Help in recognising organisms worldwide
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Are used universally
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Are specific and distinct names
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Vary from place to place
(4) Deuteromycetes
94. Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are
included in the order Polymoniales mainly based on [Link] the correct statement for Albugo.
(1) Habitat and distribution (1) Causes white rust in members of Brassicaceae
(2) Floral characters (2) Commonly called sac fungus
(3) Vegetative characters (3) Shows dikaryophase
(4) Root and stem structures (4) Mycelium is coenocytic and septate

95. Sapindales of mango is equivalent to ________ of housefly.

Complete the statement by choosing appropriate option to fill
up the blank.
(1) Diptera
(2) Muscidae
(3) Insecta
(4) Arthropoda

11
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] the following statements and choose the correct [Link] of flowering plants given by Bentham and
option. Hooker is based on all the following features, except
A. Gonyaulax is a red dinoflagellate.
(1) External features
B. In Claviceps, plasmogamy is immediately followed by
karyogamy. (2) Internal features like anatomy and ultrastructure
C. Alternaria asexually reproduces through conidia.
(3) Phytochemistry
(1) Only A
(4) Evolutionary relationships among organisms
(2) A and B only
[Link] the following statements and choose the correct
(3) A and C only option.
(4) Only B (A) The members of chlorophyceae are usually grass green
in colour due to dominance of pigments chlorophyll 'a' and
[Link]–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused by 'b'.
(B) In red algae, complex post-fertilisation developments
(1) Viroids
occur
(2) Prions
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) Bacteria (2) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Viruses (3) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
[Link] differ from archaebacteria in having (4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(1) Nucleoid with nuclear membrane [Link] of the following is incorrectly matched?
(2) Nucleoid without nuclear membrane
(1) Marchantia – Dioecious gametophyte
(3) Chlorophyll a similar to green plants
(2) Sphagnum – Monoecious gametophyte
(4) Cellulosic cell wall (3) Pinus – Monoecious sporophyte
[Link] like feature of slime moulds is (4) Funaria – Dioecious sporophyte
(1) Presence of cell wall in vegetative cells
[Link] the plant which lacks seeds as well as vascular
(2) Formation of fruiting bodies tissues.

(3) Formation of plasmodium that are without cell wall (1) Marchantia

(4) Cellulosic cell wall of spores (2) Selaginella

[Link] the incorrect match. (3) Equisetum

Class Member (4) Salvinia
(1) Phycomycetes – Albugo
(2) Basidiomycetes – Claviceps [Link] is
(3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (1) Compact strobilus or cone in bryophytes
(4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma
(2) Sporangium having spores
(1) (1) (3) Spirally arranged sporophylls along an axis
(2) (2) (4) Female gametophyte in gymnosperms
(3) (3) [Link] stems are branched and unbranched respectively in
(4) (4)
(1) Pinus and Cedrus
[Link] found in extremely saline conditions are (2) Cedrus and Cycas
(1) Thermoacidophiles (3) Cycas and Pinus
(2) Halophiles (4) Cycas and Cedrus
(3) Methanogens
(4) Cyanobacteria
[Link] is the major pigment in
(1) Brown algae
(2) Red algae
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Green algae

12
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] of the following statements is incorrect? [Link] are few general features of an organism
(a) Shows active movement
The number of species that are known and described, (b) Presence of gullet
(1) ranges between 1.7–1.8 million and this refers to (c) Lacks cell wall
biodiversity (d) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
Nomenclature is only possible when the organisms are These features are shown by
(2)
identified and described correctly. (1) Paramoecium
External and internal structure, structure of cell,
(2) Spirogyra
(3) development process and ecological information of
organisms form the basis of modern taxonomic studies. (3) Gonyaulax
The greek word 'Systema' means systematic (4) Rhizopus
(4)
arrangement of organisms.
[Link] the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and
[Link] the following columns and select the correct option. select the correct option.
Column I Column II A. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various
inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia
Represents the genus to which
(a) Canidae (i) and use the released energy for their ATP production.
leopard belongs
B. Rhizobium is symbiotic N2-fixing bacteria associated with
Represents the class to which human
(b) Polymoniales (ii) the roots of leguminous plants.
belongs
Represents the family to which dog (1) A – T; B – F
(c) Mammalia (iii)
belongs (2) A – T; B – T
Represents the order to which potato
(d) Panthera (iv) (3) A – F; B – F
belongs
(4) A – F; B – T
(1) (a) – (iii); (b) – (i); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (iv); (b) – (ii); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i) 121.

(3) (a) – (iii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (ii); (d) – (i)

(4) (a) – (iv); (b) – (i); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iii)

[Link] per the two-kingdom classification system, which

organisms are not included in the kingdom animalia?
(1) Protozoa
(2) Bacteria
(3) Vertebrates
A student observed the above given organism under a
(4) Invertebrates
magnified view of 1,00,000 to 150,000 X. The observed
[Link] the incorrectly matched pair. structure is

Discovery of an agent that was found to be free RNA Classfied under kingdom Monera as per R.H. Whittaker
(1) (1)
and lacked the protein coat - T.O. Diener classification system.

He showed that acellular agents could be crystallized (2) Parasite that affects bacteria.
(2)
and crystals consist largely of proteins - W.M. Stanley Composed of single stranded RNA which is covered by
(3)
He recognised a microbe as causal organism of mosaic protein coat called as capsid.
(3) disease of tobacco and that microbe is smaller than (4) Rod-shaped and has cell wall made up of peptidoglycan.
bacteria - Randle et. al.
He demonstrated that the extract of the infected tobacco
(4) plant could cause infection in healthy plants - M.W.
Beijerinck

[Link] suitable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation

called (A). Select the correct option to fill (A).
(1) Ascocarp
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Mycelium

13
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] the following class of fungi with their respective [Link] predominant stage of the life cycle of moss:
features and select the correct option. (i) Consists of two stages
Column I Column II (ii) Has the first stage, developed directly from a spore
(iii) Has a leafy stage that arises from primary protonema as
Asexual reproduction occurs
a lateral bud
(a) Ascomycetes (i) through spores that are produced
endogenously in sporangium (iv) Bears sex organs
How many of the above statements is/are true?
Sexual spores are endogenously
(b) Phycomycetes (ii) produced and asexual spores are (1) Only one
produced exogenously (2) Only two
Reproduce only by asexual
(c) Basidiomycetes (iii) spores that are produced (3) Only three
exogenously (4) All four
Sexual spores are produced
(d) Deuteromycetes (iv) exogenously and asexual spores [Link] the feature which is common between the given
are generally not found. plants (a) and (b).

(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii

(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv
(3) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii
(4) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii

[Link] the correctly matched pair.

Ustilago – It causes rust disease mainly in the members
(1)
of family Poaceae
Agaricus - Karyogamy and meiosis take place in
(2) basidium, producing four basidiospores that are
genetically identical.
Claviceps - Grouped in the same class along with truffles
(3)
and morels
(4) Bread mould - Sexual reproduction produces zoospores

[Link] the following assertion (A) and reason (R) statements

and select the correct option.
Assertion (A):- Sphagnum is used as packing material for
the trans-shipment of living material.
Reason (R):- Dry Sphagnum has good capacity to hold (1) Both of them are heterosporous species.
water.
The spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous,
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) small, multicellular, thalloid gametophytes called
(1)
explanation of (A) prothallus.
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct Sporophylls form distinct compact structures called
(2) (3)
explanation of (A) cones.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) Both belong to the same class Lycopsida
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

[Link] can be differentiated from Porphyra as in the

former
(1) Cell wall is covered with hydrocolloids
Sexual reproduction is through formation of motile male
(2)
gametes.
(3) r-phycoerythrin is the major pigment.
(4) Food is stored in form of floridean starch.

14
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] the following columns and select the correct option. [Link] many of the given plants produce seeds and have
Column I Column II archegonia?
a. Pinus
The development of the zygotes into
b. Funaria
young embryos take place within the
c. Selaginella
(a) Marchantia (i) female gametophytes that remains on
the parent sporophytes for variable d. Mustard
periods. e. Porphyra
f. Cycas
Provide peat that has long been used
(b) Sphagnum (ii) (1) Two
as fuel
The plant body is thalloid and thallus is (2) Three
(c) Cedrus (iii) dorsiventral and closely appressed to
the substratum (3) Four
Presence of sporophyte as main plant (4) Five
(d) Marsilea (iv)
body and pollination occurs via wind
[Link] plant parts which consist of two generations – one within
(1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii the other:
a) Male gametes inside the antheridia of pteridophytes.
(2) a-iii; b-ii; c-i; d-iv
b) The female gametophyte within megasporangium in
(3) a-iii; b-ii; c-iv; d-i gymnosperms.
c) The pollen tube carrying the male gametes in
(4) a-i; b-ii; c-iv; d-iii gymnosperms.
d) Flask-shaped female sex organ with a single egg in
[Link] true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and
bryophytes.
select the correct option.
A. Most of the members of green algae have one or more (1) a, c and d only
storage bodies called pyrenoids, located in the chloroplast.
B. For the preparations of ice-creams and jellies, the (2)
required product is agar, which is obtained from the class of b and d only
algae, that have pectin and polysulphate esters in their cell
wall. (3)
c and d only
C. Bryophytes, in general, are of little ecological importance
such as mosses provide food for herbaceous mammals, (4) b only
birds and other animals.
D. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that [Link] the correctly matched pair.
in mosses because liverworts have mechanism of spore Lichens - One of the first organisms to colonise rocks
dispersal. (1) and decompose rocks, making the substrate suitable for
(1) A – T; B – F; C – T; D – T the growth of higher plants.

(2) A – T; B – T; C – F; D – F Green algae - Fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised

(2)
cells called heterocyst.
(3) A – T; B – T; C – F; D – T
Protonema - Consists of upright, slender axes bearing
(3)
(4) A – F; B – T; C – F; D – F spirally arranged leaves.
[Link] the following assertion (A) and reason (R) statements Lycopodium - A pteridophyte that forms two different
(4)
and select the correct option. types of spores, microspores and megaspores.
Assertion (A): Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in
gymnosperms, the male and the female gametophytes do [Link] the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Fusion of two gametes, dissimilar in size, can
not have an independent free-living existence.
Reason (R): In gymnosperms, the male and female be seen in Eudorina, Volvox and Fucus.
gametophytes remain within the sporangia retained on the Statement B: Chemotaxonomy is based on cytological
sporophyte. information like chromosome number, structure and
behaviour.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) (1) Both statements are correct
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (2) Both statements are incorrect
(2)
explanation of (A) (3) Only statement A is correct
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

15
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: The three-domain system was proposed after
five kingdom classification and it divided the kingdom
Monera into two domains, Archaea and Bacteria.
Statement B: Diatomaceous earth is formed by living
diatoms and it is used in polishing, filtration of oils and
syrups.
(1) Both statements are correct

(2)
Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(4) Only statement B is incorrect

ZOOLOGY

136. In PCR, A bonds break during denaturation step, [Link] the incorrect match.

B bonds are formed during annealing step between (1) β-galactosidase – Reporter enzyme
primer and template strand and C bonds are formed (2) Kanamycin resistant gene – Selectable marker
by Taq polymerase in extension step. Identify A, B and C (3) Molecular scissors – Present in prokaryotes
and choose the correct option.
A B C (4) EcoRI - Produces blunt ends
(1) Hydrogen Hydrogen Phosphodiester [Link] the statement that best explains the role of sticky
(2) Phosphodiester Hydrogen Disulphide ends in recombinant DNA technology, obtained after RE
(3) Disulphide Phosphodiester Hydrogen digestion.
(4) Phosphodiester Hydrogen Hydrogen They allow any DNA fragment to ligate randomly, as they
(1)
do not require complementary sequence.
(1) (1)
These facilitate the ligation of DNA fragments from
(2) (2) (2) different sources by forming hydrogen bonds between
(3) (3) nitrogenous bases with complementary sequences.

(4) (4) They ensure that DNA fragments are joined only in one
(3)
orientation by formation of covalent bonds.
[Link] synthesised product in a bioreactor after completion of
They participate in the formation of phosphodiester
the biosynthetic stage is subjected to a series of processes. (4)
bonds only in the presence of restriction endonuclease.
Select the option in which these processes are arranged in
the proper sequence [Link] many fragments will be generated (in total) upon
a. Separation and purification of the product complete digestion of a closed circular DNA molecule and a
b. Quality – control testing linear DNA molecule with the same restriction enzyme
c. Formulation with suitable preservatives having six recognition sites each on both DNA molecules?
d. Clinical trials
e. Marketing (1) 13

(1) a→b→d→e→c (2) 14

(2) a→c→b→e→d (3) 12

(3) a→c→b→d→e (4) 6

(4) e→c→b→a→d [Link] of the following cannot act as the source of

complementary RNA during RNAi?
[Link] what temperature, heat shock is given to bacterial cells,
so that they can take up the rDNA? (1) Transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate

(1) 60°C (2) Infection by viruses having RNA genomes

(2) 72°C Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA

(3)
intermediate
(3) 52°C
(4) Natural Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) 42°C

16
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] vector pBR322, if the gene of interest is inserted at the [Link] the features given below:
site where recognition site for Sal I is present, then after (a) Help to reduce post-harvest losses
transformation in [Link], the non-recombinant transformants (b) More tolerant to abiotic stresses
would be (c) Increase reliance on chemical pesticides
(d) Increase early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(1) Sensitive to tetracycline but resistant to ampicillin Choose the correct option representing only incorrect
(2) Resistant to both tetracycline and ampicillin features w.r.t. GM plants.
(3) Sensitive to both ampicillin and tetracycline (1) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) Sensitive to ampicillin but resistant to tetracycline (2) (c) and (d) only

[Link] only gene ‘B’ is to be isolated from the given fragment of (3) (a), (b) and (c)
DNA, what should be the choice of enzyme? (4) (a) and (d) only
[Link] what percentage of all existing transgenic animals are
mice?
(1) 75
(2) 95
(1) Bam HI only (3) 100
(2) EcoRI and Bam HI (4) 50
(3) EcoRI only [Link] 1990, which type of vector was used to introduce a
(4) Cla I only functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes, during gene therapy
for ADA deficiency in a 4-year old child?
[Link] the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t. the
(1) Plasmid
number of nitrogenous base pairs present in the recognition
sequence of restriction enzymes given below. (2) Bacteriophage
Hind II : 6bp :: EcoRI: ________
(3) BAC
(1) 6 bp
(4) Disarmed retrovirus
(2) 8 bp
150.‘Rosie’, a transgenic cow was known to produce milk which
(3) 4 bp had all of the following properties, except
(4) 5 bp (1) Human protein content was 2.4 gm/L
[Link] the below given steps of recombinant human insulin (2) Contained human α-lactalbumin
formation in the proper sequence and choose the correct
option. More nutritionally balanced product for human babies
(3)
(a) Separation and extraction of A and B chains of insulin than cow natural milk
from bacteria (4) Prevented babies from auto-immune diseases
(b) Prepared DNA sequences corresponding to A and B
chains were introduced in plasmid pBR322 [Link] the option that includes the plants native to India
(c) Introduction of rDNA into host E. coli for multiplication that have either been patented or attempts have been made
(d) Artificial synthesis of nucleotide sequence corresponding to patent them by western nations for their commercial use.
to A and B chains of human insulin. (a) Tobacco
(e) Formation of human insulin by creating disulphide bonds (b) Neem
between A and B chains (c) Turmeric
(1) (b) → (c) → (d) → (a) → (e) (1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d) → (e) (2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) (d) → (b) → (c) → (a) → (e) (3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (d) → (b) → (c) → (e) → (a) (4) Only (b) and (c)

[Link] the analogy by selecting the correct option.

Lepidopterans : Armyworms :: Coleopterans : ______
(1) Tobacco budworm
(2) Beetles
(3) Flies
(4) Mosquitoes

17
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] of the following are correct w.r.t. continuous culture 158.A commercial horticulture company aims to rapidly produce
system, except a large number of genetically identical, disease-free
ornamental plants from a single parent plant. The technique
Produces a larger biomass which leads to higher yield of that would be most suitable for this purpose is
(1)
desired protein.
(1) Micropropagation through tissue culture
(2) Cells having rDNA can multiply in this culture.
Somatic hybridisation by protoplast (cell including cell
Cells are maintained in their physiologically most active (2)
(3) wall and plasma membrane) fusion of two plant species
log phase
Agrobacterium-mediated genetic transformation with a
The used medium is drained out from both the sides (3)
(4) disease resistance gene
only after the completion of culture.
(4) Conventional cross-pollination followed by field selection
[Link] of the following is the correct reason for the death of
the bollworms due to Bt toxin? [Link] proteins encoded by which of the following genes
control corn borer?
(1) Inhibition of nerve impulse
(1) cryIAc
(2) Disturbed digestion of food in foregut
(2) cryIIAb
Creation of pores that causes cell swelling and lysis in
(3)
midgut (3) cryIAb
(4) Lysis of cells exclusively in hindgut (4) rop
[Link] of the following statements is wrong w.r.t gene [Link] (A): PCR can detect very low amounts of DNA.
therapy? Reason (R): In PCR, sequence-specific primers anneal to
the target DNA and a thermolabile DNA polymerase extends
(1) It is a treatment method to cure hereditary diseases them in each cycle, resulting in exponential amplification of
It is a collection of methods that can be used to treat the target sequence.
(2) In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
some cancers
It involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual to (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) explains (A) correctly
(3) take over the function of and compensate for the non-
Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) does not explain (A)
functional gene (2)
correctly
(4) It cannot be performed at the embryonic stage
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
[Link] a hypothetical scenario, where a biotechnology (4) (A) is true, (R) is false
company develops a transgenic buffalo that expresses a
particular human blood-clotting factor in its milk. [Link] of disulphide bonds between chain A and B of
One of the advantages of using such a transgenic animal is mature insulin is ____ while total number of cysteine
that it residues in mature insulin is ____ .
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly .
Ensures permanent correction of any clotting disorder,
(1)
as the protein formed is in its pure form (1) Two, six
Allows the extraction and large-scale production of this (2) Three, six
(2) clotting factor to facilitate the availability and access to
treatment (3) One, four

Eliminates the need for downstream processing (using a (4) Four, eight
(3)
bioreactor) of the recombinant protein formed [Link] India, GEAC evaluates biosafety aspects before
Enables the direct commercial use of therapeutic approving the commercial release of a Bt brinjal variety. The
(4) most important biosafety criteria in such evaluation is that
protein, without any purification and clinical trials
The transgenic brinjal should be more expensive than
[Link] approaches that can be considered for increasing (1)
the conventional varieties
food production are
(a) Organic agriculture The native farmers must have the right to save and
(b) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture (2)
reuse the harvested seeds obtained illegally
(c) Agro-chemical based agriculture
Select the correct option. The Bt toxin expressed should not adversely affect the
(3)
non-target or beneficial insects
(1) (b) only
Consumer preference regarding taste and texture should
(2) (a) and (c) only (4)
be higher than the normal brinjal
(3) (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

18
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] the statements given below: [Link] the agarose gel electrophoresis set up shown in the
Statement A: In 1998, RiceTec, an American company, image given below:
received a patent for “Basmati rice", through US Patent and
Trademark Office allowing it to market a “new” basmati rice
claimed to be created by crossing Indian basmati varieties
with semi-dwarf.
Statement B: All Bt toxins are crop-specific but not insect
group-specific. Choose the correct option w.r.t it.
Select the correct option.
(1) The ‘Lane 1’ contains an undigested DNA sample.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
The concentration of the gel matrix used for
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect electrophoresis does not determine the rate of migration
(2)
(3) Only statement A is correct of the digested DNA samples, as some bands of ‘Lane
2’ and ‘Lane 4’ have traversed equal distances.
(4) Only statement B is correct
The wells are made towards the anode, as DNA is
164.A transgenic crop plant shows resistance to a specific (3) negatively charged due to the presence of phosphate
nematode pest because this pest fails to synthesise an groups.
essential protein after feeding on this plant. This resistance
is most likely due to the The ‘Lane 3’ contains the smallest DNA fragment as
(4)
compared to the other lanes.
Production of t-RNA that blocks translation without
(1) [Link] the correct match.
mRNA degradation
Production of dsRNA by the plant, which silences a Plasmids - Float about freely in the cytoplasm of certain
(2) (1)
specific mRNA of the nematode bacterial cells

Secretion of primary metabolites like strychnine that EFB – Gave the definition of biotechnology that includes
(3) (2)
inhibits RNA splicing in nematodes only the modern view

Expression of anti-sense RNA that permanently mutates (3) ori – Only responsible for initiating DNA replication
(4)
the genome of the nematode Exonucleases – Remove nucleotides from specific
(4)
165.'Structure of genetically engineered human insulin made in positions within the DNA
bacteria is absolutely identical to that of the natural human [Link] many of the components mentioned in the box given
insulin'. below are associated with a simple stirred-tank bioreactor?
The above-stated fact is
Motor, Foam breaker, Culture broth, Sterile air, Flat-bladed
Incorrect, as bacterial cells perform post-translational impellers, Agitator shaft, Air sparger, Curved base,
(1) Sampling port
modifications in different manner than humans.
Select the correct option.
Correct, as the human insulin gene inserted into bacteria
(2)
produces identical amino-acid sequence. (1) Six
Incorrect, as recombinant insulin differs structurally but (2) Eight
(3)
shows the same biological effect.
(3) Seven
(4) Correct, as Salmonella also synthesises insulin naturally.
(4) Nine
166.A researcher wants to identify the positions of DNA
[Link] components/structures required to accomplish genetic
fragments that contain a P32 −labelled nucleotide after gel engineering in animals are
electrophoresis. Which technique will directly help to (a) Staining dyes
visualize these labelled DNA bands on a photographic film? (b) DNA polymerases
(1) Western blotting (c) Viruses that can act as vectors
(d) DNA ligases
(2) Autoradiography (e) Agarose gel
Choose the correct option.
(3) ELISA
(1) (a), (d) and (e) only
(4) Centrifugation
(2) (b), (c), (d) only
[Link] present, how many recombinant therapeutics have been
approved for human-use the world over? (3) (c), (d), and (e) only
(1) 30 (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 18

19
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] isolation of genetic material from the organism causing [Link] performing gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments
diphtheria, a student followed the protocol shown in the flow stained with ethidium bromide become visible as
chart given below:
Orange coloured bands under UV light as EtBr
STEP 1: Diphtheria causing organism was taken and cell (1)
intercalates between nitrogenous bases of DNA
was grinded mechanically
↓ (2) Blue coloured bands when exposed to visible light
STEP 2: Cell was treated with lysozyme
↓ Pink coloured bands as EtBr intercalates between DNA
(3)
STEP 3: DNA along with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides bases and fluoresces under normal visible light
and lipids were released Red coloured bands under infrared light as EtBr
↓ (4)
interacts with the phosphate groups present in DNA
STEP 4: Purification of DNA performed by treating the cell
extract with DNases and proteases [Link] the statements given below:
Amongst all, choose the option that represents the incorrect Statement A: Bacteriophages, because of their high number
step. per cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome within
the bacterial cells.
(1) STEP 4
Statement B: Bacteriophages can replicate within bacterial
(2) STEP 3 cells independent of the control of the chromosomal DNA.
Select the correct option.
(3) STEP 2
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) STEP 1
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
[Link] the following statements:
a) Gene cloning allows a large number of recombinant DNA (3) Only statement A is incorrect
molecules to be produced from a limited amount of starting (4) Only statement B is incorrect
material.
b) A foreign DNA inserted into a suitable host can be cloned [Link] column I with column II w.r.t. important events in the
or multiplied using the host's own cellular machinery after field of biotechnology.
linking with the ori, leading to many identical copies. Column
c) In nature, A. tumefaciens infects only monocots as Column II
I
dicotyledonous plants are outside of the normal host range a. 1972 (i) First clinical gene therapy was performed
of this gram-positive bacteria.
d) Insertional inactivation cannot be used to select First artificial recombinant DNA molecule
b. 1990 (ii)
recombinants when the EcoRI site of pBR322 is used to made
ligate foreign DNA. c. 1983 (iii) Successfully humulin was made for first time
How many of above statements is/are correct? Select the correct option.
(1) Four (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(2) Three
(2)
a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3)
Two
(3)
a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(4)
One
(4)
a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
[Link], we know more than 'X' restriction enzymes that have
been isolated from over 'Y' strains of bacteria each of which
recognises 'Z' recognition sequences.
Select the correct option for 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
(1) 230;900; Different
(2) 400;230; Same
(3) 470;530; Same
(4) 900;230; Different

[Link] all, select the most preferred vector that should be

used for the transfer of gene of interest in a rose plant.
(1) Retrovirus
(2) Disarmed rhino virus
(3) Meloidogyne incognita
(4) Disarmed Ti-plasmid

20
Final Test Series(P1)_NEET2026_Test-08B

[Link] methods are used to introduce alien DNA into host [Link] (A): The rop gene in naturally occurring plasmids,
cells. such as pBR322, is crucial for controlling the plasmid's copy
Choose the option representing all the correct aspects of number within the host bacterial cell.
any one method. Reason (R): The rop gene encodes proteins that regulate
Most suitable plasmid replication.
Method Key feature In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
host
Micro- Direct delivery of DNA (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) explains (A) correctly
(1) Tobacco plant
injection into nucleus
Gold micro-particles
(2) Biolistics Cereal crop (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) does not explain (A)
coated with DNA
correctly
Disarmed
(3)
pathogen K+ mediated DNA uptake Bacterial cell (3) (A) is false, (R) is true

(4)
Heat-shock Na+-mediated DNA Bacteriophage
(4) (A) is true, (R) is false
method uptake
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21