20-04-2026

6901CJM101536MJ2601 JM

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) A light ray is incident on a plane mirror as shown in figure. If incident light ray is kept fixed and
plane mirror is rotated with constant angular velocity ω = π rad/s, then find the velocity of spot at

the instant when θ = 53°.

(A)
m/s

(B)
m/s

(C)
m/s

(D)
m/s

2) A plane mirror is moving with velocity . A point object in front of the mirror moves with
a velocity . Here is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the object.
The velocity of the image is:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3) A ray is incident on the first prism at an angle of incidence 53º as shown in the figure one of the
possible angle between side CA and B'A' for the net deviation by both the prisms to be double of the
deviation produced by the first prism, will be :-

(A)
2 sin–1

(B)
sin–1

(C)
cos–1

(D)
sin–1

4) A light ray parallel to x-axis is incident on a parabolic concave mirror in XY plane. The focus of
this parabola is at (1,0). The unit vector along the first reflected ray will be :-

(A)
(B) –

(C)

(D)

5) Locate the image of the point P as seen by the eye in the figure.

(A) 0.9 cm below P

(B) 0.8 cm above P
(C) 0.7 cm above P
(D) 0.9 cm above P

6) A small square object is placed between centre of curvature and focus of concave mirror as shown
in figure. What will be the correct shape of image ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) In the figure, an object is placed at distance 25 cm from the surface of a convex mirror, and a
plane mirror is set so that the image formed by the two mirrors lie adjacent to each other in the
same plane. The plane mirror is placed at 20 cm from the object. What is the radius of curvature of

the convex mirror?

(A) 50 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
8)

A point source of light B is placed at a distance 1.00 m infront of the centre of a mirror width 30 cm
hung vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along line parallel to the mirror at a
distance 2.0 m from it as shown the greatest distance over which he can see the image of light in the
mirror is :-

(A) 15 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 60 cm
(D) 90 cm

9) A large glass slab of thickness 8 cm is placed over a point source of light on a plane
surface. It is seen that light emerges out of the top surface of the slab from a circular area of radius
R cm. What is the value of R ?

(A) 8 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 4 cm

10) When a light wave goes from air into water, the quality that remains unchanged is its

(A) speed
(B) Amplitude
(C) Frequency
(D) Wavelength

11) A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices µ1, µ2, µ3 and µ4 as
shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the
incident ray AB, we must have :–
(A) µ1 = µ2
(B) µ2 = µ3
(C) µ3 = µ4
(D) µ4 = µ1

12) When length of a compound microscope tube increase, its magnifying power

(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) does not change
(D) may increase or decrease

13) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distance objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
the focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are

(A) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(B) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(C) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(D) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm

14) In given figure if coefficient of friction is μ then m2 will start moving up if :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
15) Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg, connected by an inextensible string over a frictionless
pulley, are moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of horizontal surface is 0.15.
The minimum weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is:

(A) 18.3 kg
(B) 23.33 kg
(C) 43.3 kg
(D) 10.3 kg

16) A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3 N is
applied on the block. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block is 0.6. What
should be the minimum value of force P, such that the block does not move downward ? [give

approximate answer] (take g = 10 ms-2)

(A) 32 N
(B) 25 N
(C) 23 N
(D) 18 N

17) The free body diagram of the block of mass m is

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D) None of the given

18) When the gap is closed without placing any object in the screw gauge whose least count is 0.005
mm, the 5th division on its circular scale coincides with the reference line on main scale, and when a
small sphere is placed reading on main scale advances by 4 divisions, whereas circular scale reading
advances by five times to the corresponding reading when no object was placed. There are 200
divisions on the circular scale. The radius of the sphere is :-

(A) 4.10 mm
(B) 4.05 mm
(C) 2.10 mm
(D) 2.05 mm

19) The pitch of a screw gauge having 50 divisions on its circular scale is 1 mm. When the two jaws
of the screw gauge are in contact with each other, the zero of the circular scale lies 6 division below
the line of graduation. When a wire is placed between the jaws, 3 linear scale divisions are clearly
visible while 31st division on the circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the
wire is :

(A) 3.62 mm
(B) 3.50 mm
(C) 3.5 mm
(D) 3.74 mm

20) In the measurement of physical quantity X = , the percentage error introduced in the
measurements of the quantities A, B, C and D are 2%, 2%, 4% and 5% respectively. Then the
minimum amount of percentage error in the measurement of X is contributed by :

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

SECTION-II
1) The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre rod having least count 0.1 cm. lts diameter is
measured with vernier calipers having least count 0.01 cm. If the length and diameter of the cylinder
are 5.0 cm and 2.00 cm respectively, then the percentage error in the calculated value of volume will
be:

2) The resistance R = , where V = (50 ± 2)V and I = (20 ± 0.2)A. The percentage error in R is 'x'
%. The value of 'x' to the nearest integer is _________.

3) Observe the ray diagram for image formation of a point object O on the principal-axis of lenses. If
rectangular box is a lens then magnitude of the focal length (in cm) of this lens is 4 then value of

is (Consider the rays given as paraxial).

4) An opaque cylindrical tank with an open top has a diameter of 3.00 m and is completely filled with
water. When the setting sun reaches an angle of 37º above the horizon, sunlight ceases to illuminate
any part of the bottom of the tank. How deep is tank in meter?

5) Two long plane mirrors M1 and M2 are kept inclined to each other. The angle between reflecting
surfaces is 40°. Find the maximum number of reflections , the ray will undergo.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) One gram of metal ion M+3 was discharged by the passage of 1.81 × 1022 electrons. What is the
atomic weight of metal :-
(A) 33.35
(B) 133.4
(C) 66.7
(D) 100

2) Give the condition working of spontaneous for the cell

Pt | Cl2(P1) | Cl–(aq) || Cl2 (P2) |Cl–(aq)|Pt

(A) P1 = P2
(B) P1 > P2
(C) P1< P2
(D) None of these

3) Calculate the emf of the cell

Mg(s) | Mg+2 (0.2M) || Ag+ (1 × 10–3M) | Ag(s)

= +0.8 volt, = –2.37 volt

(A) 6.02 volt

(B) 1.51 volt
(C) 3.01 volt
(D) 3.75 volt

4) For a reaction A(s) + 2B+(aq)→ A2+(aq)+ 2B(s) KC has been found to be 1012. The E°cell is :-

(A) 0.354 V
(B) 0.708 V
(C) 0.0098 V
(D) 1.36 V

5) On passing 3 Faraday of charge through the three electrolytic cells connected in series containing
molten Ag+, Ca+2 and Al+3 ions respectively the molar ratio in which the three metal ions are
liberated at the electrodes is :-

(A) 1 : 2 : 3
(B) 3 : 2 : 1
(C) 6 : 3 : 2
(D) 3 : 4 : 2

6) The two aqueous solutions; A(AgNO3) and B(LiCl) were electrolysed using Pt. electrodes. The pH
of the resulting solutions will

(A) increase in A and decrease in B

(B) decrease in both
(C) increase in both
(D) decrease in A and increase in B.
7) Given are E° values for some half reactions
I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = 0.54 V
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–→ Mn2+ + 4H2O ; E° = 1.52V
Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ ; E° = 0.1 V
The strongest reductant and oxidant respectively are :

2+ –
(A) Sn , MnO4
– 4+
(B) MnO4 , Sn
3+
(C) I2, Fe
2+
(D) I2, Sn

8)
Calculate using appropriate molar conductance of electrolyte listed above at infinite
dilution in H2O at 25°C (In Scm2mol–1)

(A) 517.2
(B) 390.7
(C) 299.7
(D) 217.5

9) An increase in equivalent Conductance of strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to :

(A) Incrase in number of ions

(B) Increase in ionic mobility of ions
(C) 100% Ionisation of electrolyte at Normal dilution.
(D) Increase in both number of ions and ionic mobility of ions.

10)

Number of electrons involved in the electrodeposition of 63.5 g of Cu from a solution of CuSO4 is :

(A) 6.022 × 1023

(B) 3.011 × 1023
(C) 12.044 × 1023
(D) 6.022 × 1022

11)

For a galvanic cell :

Al(s) | Al3+ (0.1 M) | | Ag+(aq) (0.1 M) | Ag(s)
Which of the following is correct ?
(Q is reaction quotient of cell reaction.)
(A) Q = 1.0 × 10–2
(B) log10 Q = 2
(C) Q = 1.0 × 103
(D) Q = 1.0

12) Efficiency of the following cell is 84%.

Then the standard electrode potential of the cell will be :-

(A) 1.40 V
(B) 2.40 V
(C) 1.10 V
(D) 1.24 V

13) EAN of metal carbonyl M(CO)x is 36 if atomic no. of metal M is 26, what is the value of x:

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 6

14)

Select appropriate ligand for given complex

; μ = 0 BM
2–
(A) C2O4
(B) en
(C) H2O
(D) F–

15) Which of the following complex is homoleptic ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

16) Which of the following Werner’s complex has least electrical conductivity ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17) The correct IUPAC name of is:

(A) bis(trimethylphosphine)dibromoplatinum(II)
(B) bis[bromo(trimethylphosphine)]platinum(II)
(C) dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
(D) dibromodi(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)

18) The tetrahedral [CoI4]2– and square planar [PdBr4]2– complex ions are respectively

(A) low spin, high spin

(B) high spin, low spin
(C) both low spin
(D) both high spin

19) Which of the following is correct in spectrochemical series of ligand ?

– – –2 – –
(A) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– –2 – – –
(B) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
–2 – – – –
(C) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – –2
(D) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4

20)

Which configuration shows 2.84 BM magnetic moment in octahedral complex :-

(A) d6 - strong field ligand
(B) d2 - weak field ligand
(C) d5 - strong field ligand
(D) d3 - weak field ligand

SECTION-II

1) Consider the following electrochemical cell at 298K

If the reaction quotient at a given time is 106, then the cell EMF (Ecell) is _____ (Nearest
integer).
Given the standard half-cell reduction potential as

and

2) The conductance of salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrode of area 100
cm2 separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001S. If volume enclosed between two electrode contain
0.5 moles of salt, what is the Molar conductivity (S cm2 mol-1) of salt at same concentration [Multiply
your answer by 100]

3) An acidic solution of dichromate is electrolyzed for 8 minutes using 2A current. As per the
following equation :

The amount of Cr3+ obtained was 0.104 g. The efficiency of the process (in %) is .........
(Take : F= 96000C, At. mass of chromium = 52)

4) How many of the given complexes follow E.A.N. rule?

(a) Fe(CO)5
(b) Co2(CO)8
(c) Mo(CO)6
(d) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(e) [Pt(NH3)6]4+
(f) [CoF6]4–

5) Sum of co-ordination number and oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) In a polygon, no three diagonals are concurrent. If the total number of points of intersection of
diagonals interior to the polygon is 70, then the number of diagonals of polygon is -

(A) 20
(B) 28
(C) 8
(D) 36

2) How many four digit number can be made by using digits 0, 1, 3, 4, 5 which are divisible by 3, if
repetition is not allowed :-

(A) 18
(B) 30
(C) 48
(D) None

3) A natural number has prime factorization given by n = 2x3y5z, where y and z are such that

y + z = 5 and y–1 + z –1 = , y > z. Then the number of odd divisors of n, including 1, is :

(A) 11
(B) 6
(C) 6x
(D) 12

4) A cricket team of 11 players is to be selected from 13 players 4 of which are bowlers and 2 wicket
keepers. The number of ways to select the team, consisting one wicket keeper and atleast 3 bowlers
is:-

(A) 8
(B) 22
(C) 112
(D) 200

5) There are 3 straight lines, 4 circles and 5 parabolas in xy plane. Maximum number of their
intersection points, is

(A) 129
(B) 149
(C) 169
(D) 189

6) Sixteen players S1, S2, S3, ……, S16 play in a tournament. Number of ways in which they can be
grouped into eight pairs so that S1 and S2 are in different groups, is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

7) Let S = {1, 2, 3, ....., 100}. The number of non-empty subsets A of S such that the product of
elements in A is even is :

(A) 2100 – 1
(B) 250 (250 – 1)
(C) 250 – 1
(D) 250 + 1

8) A rectangle with sides 2m – 1 and 2n – 1 is divided into squares of unit length by drawing parallel
lines as shown in the diagram, then the number of rectangles possible with odd side lengths is

(A) (m + n – 1)2
(B) 4m + n – 1
(C) m2 n2
(D) m(m + 1)n(n + 1)

9) A number lock consist of three rings. If Ist is marked with 0 to 9 digits, 2nd ring marked with prime
numbers greater than 2 but less than 30 and 3rd ring marked with all vowels, find the total number of
unsuccesful attempt :-

(A) 405
(B) 449
(C) 499
(D) 501

10) Find the number of ways in which two Americans, two British, one Chinese, one Dutch and one
Egyptian can sit on a round table so that person of the same nationality are separated?

(A) 330
(B) 240
(C) 336
(D) 422

11) The number of solutions of the equation

xyz = 360 where x, y, z N is

(A) 180
(B) 720
(C) 360
(D) 90

12) If the letters of the word SACHIN are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written
out as in dictionary, then the word SACHIN appears at serial number

(A) 602
(B) 603
(C) 600
(D) 601

13) Words of length 10 are formed using the letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J. Let x be the number of
such words where no letter is repeated; and let y be the number of such words where exactly one

letter is repeated twice and no other letter is repeated. Then

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

14) Let n > 2 be an integer. Take n distinct points on a circle and join each pair of points by a line
segment. Colour the line segment joining every pair of adjacent points by blue and the rest by red. If
the number of red and blue line segments are equal, then the value of n is

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7

15) The number of seven digit integers, with sum of the digits equal to 10 and formed by using the
digits 1, 2 and 3 only, is

(A) 55
(B) 66
(C) 77
(D) 88

16) Let if , then

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

17) The coefficient of the middle term in the binomial expansion in powers of x of (1 + αx)4 and of (1
– αx)6 is the same if α equals-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) If the 6th term in expansion of the binomial is 5600, then x =

(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 9

19) (21C1 – 10C1) + (21C2 – 10C2) +

(21C3 – 10C3) + (21C4 – 10C4) + .... +
(21C10 – 10C10) =

(A) 220 – 210

(B) 221 – 211
(C) 221 – 210
(D) 220 – 29

20) The coefficients of three consecutive terms of (1 + x)n+5 are in the ratio 5 : 10 : 14. Then n =

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

SECTION-II

1) Number of rational terms in the expansion of is :-

2) If a, b, c are three natural numbers in A.P. such that a + b + c = 21, then the possible number of
ordered triplets (a,b,c) is

3) The total number of 3–digit numbers, whose greatest common divisor with 36 is 2, is ______ .

4) Find the sum of the digit in the unit's place of all numbers formed with the help of 3, 4, 5, 6 taken
all at a time?

5) There are 10 stations on a circular path. A train has to stop at 3 stations such that no two stations
are adjacent. The number of such selections must be
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B B A B D B C D B C D B D B B A A D D C

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 3 5 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D C C A C D A B B C B D C C A C C B A B

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 60 4 8

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. A D D B D A B C B C A D C C C C C A A C

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 17 13 150 108 50
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
y = 2tanθ

= 2sec2θ·2ω

2) Question Explanation: Calculating the velocity of an image in a moving mirror.

Concept: Reflection from a Plane Mirror.
Solution: The velocity of the image is related to the velocity of the object and the mirror. The
components of velocity parallel to the mirror are the same for the image and object. The
component perpendicular to the mirror is reversed relative to the mirror.
Let v0, vi and vm be the velocities of the object, image, and mirror.
The normal direction is
Components parallel to the mirror

Components perpendicular to the mirror:

So,
Total velocity of image
Final Answer:

3)

Let be the angle of emergence from the first prism be 'e'

calculating step by step we get e = sin–1

Then for net deviation to be double, the incident ray on side A'B' of second prism should make
angles i or e with normal.
Hence the angle between the given then will be 2e or i + e.

4)

Unit vector along reflected ray

Option (B) is correct

5) Shift =
= 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 = 0.9 cm
Shift in the direction of rays.

6)

7) Image due to plane mirror will form at a distance of 20 cm left of the mirror.
Since image formed by two mirrrors lie adjacent to each other.
For convex mirror, image position is 15 cm towards left.
u = – 25 cm
v = + 15 cm

using

R = 75 cm.
8)

ins B' mN NΔB' AC

AC = 90 cm

9)

= 6 meter

10) Frequency is the characteristic of source

11)

AB || CD
So µ1 = µ4

12)

Explanation Question: We have to find the change in magnifying power when length of a
compound microscope tube increase
Concept: This question is based on optical instruments
Solution:
The magnifying power M of a compound microscope is given by:

M = mo × mr

For final image at infinity:

For final image at the near point:

 where

A. L = tube length
B. f0 = focal length of objective
C. fe = focal length of eyepiece
D. D = least distance of distinct vision

In both cases:

M∝L

Increasing the tube length increases the magnifying power of a compound microscope.

Final Answer: Option (2)

13)

M= =5
f0 + fe = 36
fe = 6 cm
f0 = 30 cm

14)
N = m2g Cosθ
T– m2g sinθ-μN = m2×a
m1g -T = m1×a

for

15)

Question Explanation : Find the minimum mass m that must be placed on to prevent the
system of connected masses and from moving, given masses, coefficient of friction, and
setup.
Concept : Newton's First Law (Equilibrium), Friction (Static), and Force Analysis.
Solution :
 Step 1:

Step 2:

Step 3:

Step 4:

The minimum weight m that should be put on top of to stop the motion is approximately
23.33 kg.
Final Answer : Option (2)

16)

Explain the question:

Find minimum forc P required to prevent the 10 kg block with 3N downward force form sliding
down a rough 45° incline
Concept:
(Static equilibrium)
Solution:
Step 1: Calculate forces and max friction

Step 2: Apply equilibrium equation

Step 3 Calculate final value

Answer :
The minimum value of force P is approimately 32 N (Option 1)

17) FBD

18) Zero error (+ve) = 0 + 5 × 0.005 mm

⇒ error = + 0.025 mm

0.005 mm =
⇒ pitch = MSD = 0.005 mm × 200 = 1 mm
New observed diameter then radius of the sphere = 2.05 mm
= (4div. × MSD) + (25 × 0.005 mm)
= 4 mm + 0.125 mm
= 4.125 mm
Actual diameter
= obs. – error = 4.125 mm – (+0.025 mm) = 4.10 mm
The radius of the sphere = 2.05 mm

19)
N = 50 division
Zero error = - 6 division = - 0.12 mm
Dimeter = measured value + zero correction

= 3 + 0.74 = 3.74 mm

20)

21) Volume of cylinder,

22) × 100 = × 100 + × 100

 % error in R = × 100 + × 100
% error in R = 4 + 1
% error in R = 5%

23) Optical reversibility

x=L
its diverging lens of f = –8 cm.

24)

25)

CHEMISTRY

26)
 M = 100

27)

For cell reaction to be spontaneous

28)

29)

30)

2nd Law of Faraday

31)

A(AgNO3)
Anode :– OH– → O2
Cathode :- Ag+ → Ag

[OH–] ↓, pOH , PH↓ B(LiCl)

Anode :– Cl– → Cl2
Cathode :– H+ → H2
[H+] ↓, pH

32)

Question Explanation: Find the strongest reductant and the strongest oxidant from the given
standard reduction potentials.

Concept: This question is based on standard reduction potential (E°) and oxidizing-reducing
strength.

Solution:
Given half-reactions (all E° are reduction potentials):
I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = 0.54 V
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–→ Mn2+ + 4H2O ; E° = 1.52 V
Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ ; E° = 0.1 V
• Strongest oxidant → species with highest E° (most easily reduced) ⇒ MnO4– (E° = 1.52 V)
• Strongest reductant → species whose oxidation is easiest, i.e. whose corresponding reduction
E° is lowest ⇒ SN2+ (from SN4+/ SN2+, E° = 0.10 V )​​

Final Answer: Option (1)

33)

Kohlrousch's Law

34)

Strong electrolytes are already fully dissociated

35)

36)

log Q = log (1 × 102) = 2

Q = 1 × 102

37) % efficiency of an cell = × 100

84 = × 100

84 =
Ecell = 1.24 volt

38) [M(CO)x] EAN = 36

36 = 26 – 0 + 2x
x=5
39) Question Explanation: Selecting a ligand that results in a diamagnetic complex.
Concept: Crystal Field Theory and Magnetic Moments.
Solution: For a complex to have , all electrons must be paired (low spin).
This requires a Strong Field Ligand. While H2O is usually weak, it acts as a strong field ligand
specifically with .

μ = 0 means n=0 (unpaired electrons).

In causes pairing:
[Co(H2O)6] H2O act as strong field ligand with Co+3 (CN=6)
+3

Final Answer: H2O (Option 3)

40)

Homoleptic complexes contains only one type of ligands.

41)

No free ions all are coordinate bonded

42)

The name of complex is

dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)

43)

CoI42– : high spin : outer orbital

PdBr42– : low spin : inner orbital

44)

Sequence given in NCERT

45)
2 unpaired e- in d2

46) The electrochemical cell has cathode:

with and anode:
with
The standard cell EMF is
Using the Nernst equation with and n = 6 electrons transferred:
 Expressing as
so (nearest integer).

47)

Volume enclosed between electrodes =

48)

% efficiency = 60%

49)

a,b,c and e follows EAN rule

50) Co-ordination number 6

Oxidation number 2

MATHEMATICS

51)

Each selection of four vertices gives a point of intersection of two diagonals interior to
polygon.
∴ nC4 = 70
⇒ n(n – 1)(n – 2)(n – 3) = [Link]
⇒ n=8
∴ Number of diagonals = nC2 – n = 8C2 – 8 = 20

52)

18 + 18 = 36

53)
y+z=5

y>z
⇒ y = 3, z = 2
⇒ n = 2x.33.52 = (2.2.2 ...) (3.3.3) (5.5)
Number of odd divisors = 4 × 3 = 12

54) Number of ways to select

Þ 2C1 × 4C3 × 7C7 + 2C1 × 4C4 × 7C6 = 8 + 14 = 22

55) Line v/s line :

Circle v/s circle :
Parabola v/s parabola :
Line v/s Circle :
Line v/s Parabola :
Circle v/s Parabola :

56) Required numbe of ways = (number of ways in which 16 players can be divided in 8
couples) – (number of ways when S1 and S2 are in the same group)

57) Product of two even number is always even and product of two odd numbers is always
odd.
Number of required subsets
= Total number of subsets – Total number of subsets having only odd numbers
= 2100 – 250
= 250(250 – 1)

58)
No. of ways of choosing horizontal side of rectangle of one unit length = 2m – 1
No. of ways of choosing horizontal side of rectangle of 3 unit length = 2m – 3
∴ Total no. of ways of choosing horizontal side of rectangle of odd length= (2m – 1)+ (2m –
3)+... +1 = m2
similarly no. of ways of choosing the vertical side of rectangle of odd length = n2.
∴ Total no. of ways of choosing the rectangle = n2 m2

59)

Ttotal number of = 10 × 9 × 5 = 450

ways to open lock
unsuccessful attempt = 450 – 1

60)

61)
62) Alphabetical order of word SACHIN is ACHINS
Total no. of word beginning from A, C, H, I, N is 5 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 600
SACHIN is the 1st word beginning from ‘S’.
∴ Rank of SACHIN is 601.

63) and y =
= y / 9x = 5

64) No of sides = No of diagands

n = nC2 – n

n
C2 = 2n ⇒
n=5

65) 2,2,2,1,1,1,1 OR 3,2,1,1,1,1

66)
n + (n – 1) +...... 3 + 2 + 1

67) (1+x)4 ; (1–αx)6

68)
⇒ x2(log10x)5 = 100
x2(log10x)5 = 102(log1010)5
so x = 10

69) (21C1 + 21C2 .........+ 21C10)

– (10C1 + 10C2 ......... 10C10)

= [(21C1 + ....+ 21C10) + (21C11 +.....21C20)]

– (210 – 1)

21 10
= [2 – 2] – (2 – 1)
= (220 – 1) – (210 – 1) = 220 – 210

70) Let the three consecutive terms be

n+5
Cr–1, n+5Cr, n+5Cr+1

⇒
⇒ n = 3r – 6 ........(1)

Also,

⇒ =
⇒ 12r = 5n + 18 ........(2)
Solving (1) and (2), we get n = 6

71)
r = 0, 24, ....., 24 × 16
Total terms = 17

72)

.......(13, 1)

73) 36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3
Number should be odd multiple of 2 and does not having factor 3 and 9
Odd multiple of 2 are
102, 106, 110, 114 ……998 (225 no.)
No. of multiples of 3 are
102, 114, 126 ……. 990 (75 no.)
Which are also included multiple of 9
Hence,
Required = 225 – 75 = 150

74) Each digit repeats = = 6 times

No. sum of digit at unit place
= (3 + 4 + 5 + 6) × 6
= 18 × 6 = 108

75) Selected :

= 50