Basic Biology 100-Question Mixed Assessment Paper

Multiple Choice & Fill in the Blanks • For Board Examination Readiness • May 2026

Name: Class: _____________ Date: _____________

_________________________

SECTION A — Cells, Molecules & Movement into Cells (Q1–Q20)

1. Which of the following is the correct definition of excretion?

A. Removal of undigested food from the body
B. Removal of waste products of metabolism from the body
C. The breakdown of food molecules in the gut
D. The movement of substances across a membrane
Answer: ______

2. A bacterial cell differs from a plant cell because it:

A. Has a cell wall
B. Has a cell membrane
C. Has circular DNA in the cytoplasm instead of a nucleus
D. Has ribosomes
Answer: ______

3. Which organelle is the site of aerobic respiration?

A. Ribosome
B. Chloroplast
C. Vacuole
D. Mitochondrion
Answer: ______

4. A cell is placed in pure water. Water enters the cell by osmosis. Which correctly describes
what has happened?
A. Water moved from low water potential to high water potential
B. Water moved from high water potential to low water potential through a partially
permeable membrane
C. Active transport moved water into the cell
D. Water diffused from low to high concentration
Answer: ______

5. Which of the following processes requires energy from respiration?

 A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
Answer: ______

6. When iodine solution is added to a food sample and turns blue-black, this indicates the
presence of:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. Starch
D. Fat
Answer: ______

7. Which of the following is NOT found in a plant cell but IS found in an animal cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Small temporary vacuole
C. Cell wall
D. Chloroplast
Answer: ______

8. The rate of diffusion increases when:

A. Temperature decreases
B. The concentration gradient becomes less steep
C. Surface area increases
D. Distance across the membrane increases
Answer: ______

9. Which test uses biuret reagent and what colour indicates a positive result?
A. Test for glucose; turns orange
B. Test for protein; turns purple/lilac
C. Test for starch; turns blue-black
D. Test for fat; turns white milky emulsion
Answer: ______

10. A student added Benedict's solution to a food sample, heated it in a water bath, and
observed no colour change. The food sample most likely contains:
A. Glucose
B. Reducing sugar
C. Sucrose (non-reducing sugar)
D. Protein
Answer: ______

11. Root hair cells absorb mineral ions from soil using active transport because:
 A. Mineral ion concentration in soil is higher than in root cells
B. Mineral ion concentration in root cells is higher than in soil water
C. Diffusion is faster than active transport
D. The cell membrane is impermeable to mineral ions
Answer: ______

12. Which structure in a bacterial cell stores additional genetic information and is used in
genetic modification?
A. Nucleus
B. Plasmid
C. Mitochondrion
D. Ribosome
Answer: ______

13. A plant cell loses water by osmosis and the cell membrane pulls away from the cell wall.
This condition is called:
A. Turgid
B. Crenation
C. Plasmolysis
D. Lysis
Answer: ______

14. Which of the following correctly describes the function of ribosomes?

A. Site of aerobic respiration
B. Site of photosynthesis
C. Site of protein synthesis
D. Controls what enters and leaves the cell
Answer: ______

15. A red blood cell is described as a biconcave disc with no nucleus. What is the biological
advantage of having no nucleus?
A. It allows the cell to reproduce faster
B. It provides more room for haemoglobin to carry oxygen
C. It allows the cell to carry out photosynthesis
D. It increases the cell's ability to fight infection
Answer: ______

16. Which molecule is found in chloroplasts and captures light energy?

A. Haemoglobin
B. Glucose
C. Chlorophyll
D. Cellulose
Answer: ______
17. What is the correct word equation for aerobic respiration?
A. Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy
B. Glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy
C. Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen
D. Glucose + water → lactic acid + energy
Answer: ______

18. A cell that carries out a lot of active transport would be expected to contain a large
number of:
A. Chloroplasts
B. Vacuoles
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell walls
Answer: ______

19. The net movement of water molecules from a region of HIGH water potential to a region
of LOW water potential through a partially permeable membrane is called
______________________________. This process does NOT require energy from
________________________.

20. In active transport, particles move from __________________ concentration to

__________________ concentration. This process requires energy from
____________________________________ and uses ________________________ carrier
molecules in the membrane.
SECTION B — Plant & Human Nutrition (Q21–Q38)
Questions 21–36: Multiple Choice | Questions 37–38: Fill in the Blanks | Grade B–A* Level

21. Which word equation correctly represents photosynthesis?

A. Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
B. Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (using light + chlorophyll)
C. Glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen + water → glucose + carbon dioxide
Answer: ______

22. What is the role of bile in digestion?

A. It is an enzyme that chemically digests fat
B. It emulsifies fat by breaking large droplets into small droplets
C. It breaks proteins down into amino acids
D. It neutralises stomach acid by producing acid
Answer: ______

23. At which point in digestion does the enzyme amylase first act on starch?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Mouth (saliva)
D. Ileum
Answer: ______

24. A plant is growing in soil lacking magnesium ions. Which of the following symptoms
would you expect?
A. Stunted growth due to lack of amino acids
B. Yellow leaves because chlorophyll cannot be made
C. Wilting because turgor pressure is reduced
D. Root death because active transport fails
Answer: ______

25. Which enzyme breaks fats into fatty acids and glycerol?
A. Amylase
B. Protease
C. Lipase
D. Maltase
Answer: ______

26. Which of the following is an adaptation of the villus that specifically maintains the
concentration gradient for absorption?
A. One cell thick wall
 B. Presence of lacteals
C. Rich blood capillary network carrying absorbed molecules away
D. Large surface area due to microvilli
Answer: ______

27. Where is bile produced and where is it stored?

A. Produced in pancreas; stored in gall bladder
B. Produced in liver; stored in gall bladder
C. Produced in gall bladder; stored in liver
D. Produced in stomach; stored in duodenum
Answer: ______

28. A plant lacks nitrate ions. What is the most likely consequence?
A. Unable to make chlorophyll
B. Unable to make amino acids and therefore proteins
C. Unable to carry out photosynthesis directly
D. Unable to absorb water by osmosis
Answer: ______

29. The symbol equation for photosynthesis is 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. What
does C₆H₁₂O₆ represent?
A. Starch
B. Sucrose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
Answer: ______

30. Which factor, when increased, would NOT cause an increase in the rate of
photosynthesis?
A. Light intensity (when CO₂ is limiting)
B. Carbon dioxide concentration (when light is not limiting)
C. Temperature (up to the optimum)
D. Oxygen concentration
Answer: ______

31. Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed into which structure in the villus?
A. Blood capillaries
B. Lacteals (lymph vessels)
C. Arterioles
D. Venules
Answer: ______

32. Which statement about the digestion of starch is correct?

A. Starch is broken down by lipase into maltose
 B. Amylase breaks starch into maltose; maltase then breaks maltose into glucose
C. Protease breaks starch into glucose in the stomach
D. Starch is directly absorbed without digestion
Answer: ______

33. Where is pepsin produced and what does it digest?

A. Pancreas; it digests starch
B. Stomach; it digests proteins into amino acids
C. Salivary glands; it digests sugars
D. Liver; it digests fats
Answer: ______

34. When does a limiting factor in photosynthesis cause the rate to level off on a graph?
A. When light intensity equals CO₂ concentration
B. When another factor (e.g. CO₂ or temperature) prevents further increase despite more of
the first factor
C. When all glucose has been used up
D. When chlorophyll breaks down at high temperatures
Answer: ______

35. Which of the following is a USE of glucose produced in photosynthesis?

A. Converted to starch for storage in leaves
B. Used directly as a structural material in all cell membranes
C. Broken down by photosynthesis to release energy
D. Converted to water for transport in xylem
Answer: ______

36. What is the correct test for fats and oils, and what does a positive result look like?
A. Add biuret reagent; turns purple
B. Add iodine; turns blue-black
C. Shake with ethanol then pour into water; milky white emulsion forms
D. Add Benedict's solution and heat; turns brick-red
Answer: ______

37. Photosynthesis takes place in the ____________________________________

organelle, which contains a green pigment called
____________________________________. The raw materials needed are
______________________________ and ________________________, and the products
are ________________________ and ________________________.

38. Digestion of protein begins in the ________________________ where an enzyme called

________________________ is produced. Proteins are finally broken down into
____________________________________. The enzyme responsible in the small intestine
is called ______________________________.
SECTION C — Transport, Gas Exchange & Disease (Q39–Q57)
Questions 39–55: Multiple Choice | Questions 56–57: Fill in the Blanks | Grade B–A* Level

39. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Aorta
D. Vena cava
Answer: ______

40. What is the role of valves in veins?

A. To generate pressure to pump blood
B. To prevent the backflow of blood
C. To increase the speed of blood flow
D. To control the diameter of the vein
Answer: ______

41. Why does the left ventricle have a thicker muscular wall than the right ventricle?
A. It receives blood from the lungs, which is more oxygenated
B. It must pump blood a greater distance to the whole body and needs higher pressure
C. It is closer to the lungs and therefore needs less muscle
D. It pumps blood at a lower pressure
Answer: ______

42. Which type of blood vessel has walls only one cell thick, allowing exchange of
substances with tissues?
A. Artery
B. Vein
C. Capillary
D. Arteriole
Answer: ______

43. What is the function of haemoglobin in red blood cells?

A. To engulf and destroy pathogens
B. To produce antibodies
C. To carry oxygen around the body
D. To seal wounds by forming a clot
Answer: ______

44. Which feature of alveoli makes them well adapted for gas exchange?
A. They are far from blood capillaries to filter air
B. They are thick-walled to prevent damage
 C. They have a large surface area and walls one cell thick for rapid diffusion
D. They contain haemoglobin to carry oxygen directly
Answer: ______

45. How does water move from the soil into root hair cells?
A. By active transport, using energy from respiration
B. By diffusion, down the concentration gradient of water
C. By osmosis, from high water potential in soil to lower water potential in cell
D. By translocation through the phloem
Answer: ______

46. In the transpiration stream, what drives water up through the xylem?
A. Active transport by root cells
B. Osmotic pressure in the phloem
C. Transpiration pull, aided by cohesion of water molecules
D. Pumping by the heart
Answer: ______

47. Which tissue carries sucrose from leaves to roots in a plant?

A. Xylem
B. Phloem
C. Mesophyll
D. Epidermis
Answer: ______

48. Which of the following would INCREASE the rate of transpiration?

A. High humidity
B. Still air (no wind)
C. Higher light intensity causing stomata to open wider
D. Low temperature
Answer: ______

49. What does ACTIVE immunity mean?

A. Receiving antibodies from another individual
B. The body produces its own antibodies after exposure to an antigen, and memory cells are
formed
C. Antibodies cross the placenta from mother to fetus
D. A vaccine provides immediate protection without any immune response
Answer: ______

50. Why does a person who has already had chickenpox rarely get it again?
A. The virus mutates and can no longer infect them
B. Memory cells formed during first infection quickly produce large amounts of antibody on
re-exposure
 C. Their skin becomes impermeable to the virus
D. Their phagocytes become permanently active
Answer: ______

51. Which component of blood is responsible for producing antibodies?

A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. Lymphocytes (white blood cells)
D. Plasma
Answer: ______

52. Antibiotics are effective against bacterial infections but NOT viral infections because:
A. Viruses are too large for antibiotics to enter
B. Antibiotics target structures (e.g. cell walls) that bacteria have but viruses do not
C. Viruses live outside the body where antibiotics cannot reach
D. The immune system destroys antibiotics before they can reach viruses
Answer: ______

53. During eutrophication, what is the DIRECT cause of fish dying?

A. Algae releasing toxins into the water
B. Bacteria decomposing dead plants use up dissolved oxygen in the water
C. Fertiliser is directly toxic to fish
D. Algae physically block the gills of fish
Answer: ______

54. Which chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood returning from the body?
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
Answer: ______

55. Blood clotting involves fibrinogen being converted to fibrin. What is the role of fibrin?
A. It carries oxygen to the wound site
B. It forms a mesh that traps red blood cells to form a clot/scab
C. It produces antibodies at the wound site
D. It dissolves the damaged tissue
Answer: ______

56. There are three types of blood vessels. ________________________ carry blood
AWAY from the heart at high pressure and have thick walls. __________________ carry
blood TOWARDS the heart and have ________________________ to prevent backflow.
____________________________________ are one cell thick and allow exchange of
substances with tissues.
57. Transpiration is the loss of ______________________________ from leaves through
________________________. The rate of transpiration increases in __________________
temperatures, higher ________________________ speeds, lower
______________________________, and brighter light. Water is transported up the plant
through the __________________ vessels.
SECTION D — Respiration, Excretion & Coordination (Q58–Q75)
Questions 58–73: Multiple Choice | Questions 74–75: Fill in the Blanks | Grade B–A* Level

58. What are the products of anaerobic respiration in humans (e.g. during intense exercise)?
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid (only)
D. Glucose and oxygen
Answer: ______

59. Which statement about anaerobic respiration in yeast is correct?

A. Yeast produces lactic acid and carbon dioxide
B. Yeast produces ethanol and carbon dioxide
C. Yeast produces more ATP than in aerobic respiration
D. Yeast produces oxygen as a by-product
Answer: ______

60. Which organ removes urea from the blood and excretes it in urine?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Kidney
D. Skin
Answer: ______

61. A person drinks a large amount of water. What happens to ADH levels and urine
production?
A. ADH increases; urine becomes more concentrated
B. ADH decreases; a large volume of dilute urine is produced
C. ADH increases; urine becomes more dilute
D. ADH decreases; urine becomes more concentrated
Answer: ______

62. In a reflex arc, the correct order of components is:

A. Receptor → Motor neurone → Relay neurone → Sensory neurone → Effector
B. Stimulus → Receptor → Sensory neurone → Relay neurone → Motor neurone → Effector
→ Response
C. Effector → Motor neurone → Brain → Sensory neurone → Receptor
D. Stimulus → Brain → Relay neurone → Effector → Response
Answer: ______

63. How does a nerve impulse cross a synapse?

A. As an electrical impulse that jumps across the gap
 B. Neurotransmitter is released from vesicles, diffuses across the gap, and binds to
receptors on the next neurone
C. By direct contact between the two neurone membranes
D. Via protein channels in a continuous membrane
Answer: ______

64. What is the role of insulin in blood glucose regulation?

A. It increases blood glucose by converting glycogen to glucose
B. It decreases blood glucose by promoting uptake of glucose by cells
C. It stimulates the pancreas to release more glucose
D. It converts amino acids into glucose
Answer: ______

65. Which hormone is released when blood glucose is TOO LOW?

A. Insulin
B. Adrenaline
C. Glucagon
D. ADH
Answer: ______

66. A person with Type 1 diabetes cannot produce insulin. This means their body cannot:
A. Produce glucagon when needed
B. Detect when blood glucose levels fall
C. Stimulate cells to take up glucose from the blood when levels are high
D. Produce any glucose at all
Answer: ______

67. Synapses ensure that nerve impulses travel in only ONE direction because:
A. The neurotransmitter is only released from one side and receptors are only on the next
neurone
B. The electrical impulse can only travel forwards
C. The gap is too large for impulses to travel backwards
D. Myelin sheath prevents backward transmission
Answer: ______

68. What distinguishes the nervous system from the hormonal system in terms of speed and
duration?
A. Nervous is slow and long-lasting; hormonal is fast and short
B. Nervous is fast and short-lasting; hormonal is slow and long-lasting
C. Both systems work at the same speed
D. Hormonal signals travel along nerves; nervous signals travel in blood
Answer: ______

69. Where in the body is urea produced?

 A. Kidney
B. Pancreas
C. Liver (from excess amino acids)
D. Lungs
Answer: ______

70. Which component of the reflex arc is located in the spinal cord?
A. Sensory neurone
B. Motor neurone
C. Receptor
D. Relay neurone
Answer: ______

71. What is the advantage of a reflex action over a voluntary response?

A. It involves more brain processing
B. It is slower so the body can decide the best response
C. It is automatic and rapid, protecting the body before the brain processes the signal
D. It requires conscious thought to be effective
Answer: ______

72. Aerobic respiration releases more energy than anaerobic respiration because:
A. It occurs faster in the cytoplasm
B. Glucose is completely broken down to CO₂ and water, releasing all available energy
C. It uses lactic acid instead of glucose
D. It does not require oxygen
Answer: ______

73. Which of the following describes negative feedback in blood glucose control?
A. A change in blood glucose triggers a response that amplifies the change further
B. A change in blood glucose triggers a response that reverses the change back to normal
C. Blood glucose levels remain constant because no changes are detected
D. Insulin and glucagon are released simultaneously
Answer: ______

74. In the reflex arc, the ________________________ neurone carries impulses from the
receptor to the spinal cord. The ________________________ neurone in the spinal cord
connects to the ________________________ neurone, which carries impulses to the
______________________________. At synapses, a chemical called a
________________________________________________ is released to pass the signal to
the next neurone.

75. When blood glucose is too HIGH, the pancreas releases ________________________,
which causes cells to take up ________________________ from the blood and the liver to
convert it to ______________________________ for storage. When blood glucose is too
LOW, ______________________________ is released and glycogen is converted back to
________________________.
SECTION E — Reproduction, Inheritance & Variation (Q76–Q90)
Questions 76–88: Multiple Choice | Questions 89–90: Fill in the Blanks | Grade B–A* Level

76. What is the key difference between sexual and asexual reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction uses one parent and produces genetically identical offspring; asexual
uses two parents
B. Sexual reproduction involves fusion of gametes and produces genetically varied offspring;
asexual uses one parent and produces clones
C. Asexual reproduction always involves fertilisation
D. Sexual reproduction always produces more offspring than asexual reproduction
Answer: ______

77. Meiosis produces cells that are:

A. Diploid and genetically identical to the parent
B. Haploid and genetically different from each other
C. Diploid and genetically different from each other
D. Haploid and genetically identical to the parent
Answer: ______

78. In genetics, which of the following correctly defines a recessive allele?

A. An allele that is expressed when only one copy is present
B. An allele that is only expressed when two copies are present and no dominant allele is
present
C. Any allele that appears in the phenotype
D. An allele that is always expressed regardless of the other allele
Answer: ______

79. Two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt × Tt) are crossed (T = tall, dominant). What is the
expected ratio of tall to short offspring?
A. 1 tall : 1 short
B. All tall
C. 3 tall : 1 short
D. 1 tall : 3 short
Answer: ______

80. Which chromosomes determine the biological sex of an individual?

A. Autosomes — XX is male, XY is female
B. Sex chromosomes — XX is female, XY is male
C. The number of X chromosomes only; Y is irrelevant
D. Sex is determined by the number of autosomes
Answer: ______
81. Which of the following is an example of DISCONTINUOUS variation?
A. Height in humans
B. Body mass in humans
C. ABO blood group
D. Skin colour
Answer: ______

82. What is a mutation?

A. A change in the behaviour of an organism due to its environment
B. A random change in the DNA base sequence that may create a new allele
C. The deliberate insertion of a gene into another organism
D. The loss of an allele from a population
Answer: ______

83. What is the function of the placenta during pregnancy?

A. It provides a physical barrier preventing ALL substances crossing between mother and
fetus
B. It allows exchange of oxygen, glucose, urea and CO₂ by diffusion between mother and
fetus, while keeping the blood separate
C. It pumps blood from the mother into the fetus
D. It produces the hormones needed for fertilisation
Answer: ______

84. Which of the following is the correct order of natural selection steps?
A. Adaptation → reproduction → mutation → selection
B. Variation exists → competition for survival → better-adapted individuals survive and
reproduce → favourable alleles increase in frequency
C. Individuals change their features in response to the environment → pass changes to
offspring
D. All individuals compete → weaker ones mutate → stronger alleles are created
Answer: ______

85. An organism's genotype is BB. Which term correctly describes this?

A. Heterozygous and dominant
B. Homozygous dominant (pure breeding)
C. Heterozygous recessive
D. Homozygous recessive
Answer: ______

86. During protein synthesis, what is the role of mRNA (messenger RNA)?
A. It carries amino acids to the ribosome
B. It is a copy of the gene that carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome
C. It forms part of the ribosome structure
D. It codes for tRNA to translate proteins
Answer: ______
87. Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive condition. Why is it more common
in males than females?
A. Males have a stronger immune system that destroys the colour-detecting cells
B. Males only have one X chromosome so there is no second allele to mask a recessive
allele
C. Males have more rod cells in their eyes
D. The gene is located on the Y chromosome
Answer: ______

88. What is the role of LH (luteinising hormone) in the menstrual cycle?

A. It stimulates the development of a follicle in the ovary
B. It triggers ovulation — the release of the egg from the follicle
C. It causes the uterus lining to thicken
D. It maintains the uterus lining in the second half of the cycle
Answer: ______

89. In a genetic cross, the observable characteristic of an organism is its

______________________________, while the combination of alleles it carries is its
______________________________. An organism carrying two different alleles (e.g. Bb) is
described as _______________________________________, while one with two identical
alleles (e.g. BB or bb) is ____________________________________.

90. Meiosis produces __________________ daughter cells, each with

________________________ the number of chromosomes as the parent cell (i.e.
________________________ cells). These cells are genetically
______________________________ from each other due to crossing over and independent
assortment. Meiosis is used to produce ________________________.
SECTION F — Ecosystems, Evolution & Biotechnology (Q91–Q100)
Questions 91–98: Multiple Choice | Questions 99–100: Fill in the Blanks | Grade A–A* Level

91. What is the role of decomposers in the carbon cycle?

A. They fix nitrogen from the atmosphere into the soil
B. They return carbon to the atmosphere as CO₂ by breaking down dead organic material
through respiration
C. They carry out photosynthesis to remove CO₂ from the atmosphere
D. They convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrates for other organisms
Answer: ______

92. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of steps in eutrophication?
A. Fertiliser → fish die → algal bloom → bacteria respire → oxygen depleted
B. Fertiliser → algal bloom blocks light → plants die → bacteria decompose → oxygen
depleted → fish die
C. Algal bloom → fertiliser enters water → plants photosynthesise more → oxygen increases
D. Bacteria multiply → algae die → fertiliser released → fish reproduce
Answer: ______

93. Why is energy lost at each trophic level, limiting food chain length to usually fewer than 5
levels?
A. Organisms at higher levels eat more food
B. Most energy is lost as heat through respiration, in faeces, and through movement —
leaving little for the next level
C. Producers cannot make enough glucose
D. Predators kill too many prey organisms
Answer: ______

94. Which statement about MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is correct?

A. MRSA is a virus that cannot be treated by antiviral drugs
B. MRSA is a bacterium that has developed resistance to antibiotics through natural
selection
C. MRSA was deliberately created in a laboratory
D. MRSA is resistant to all known treatments including surgery
Answer: ______

95. In genetic modification to produce insulin, which enzyme is used to insert the human
insulin gene into the bacterial plasmid?
A. Amylase
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase
D. Restriction enzyme alone (no other enzyme needed)
Answer: ______
96. What is the correct function of restriction enzymes in genetic modification?
A. They join pieces of DNA together
B. They replicate the DNA to make extra copies
C. They cut DNA at specific sequences, producing sticky ends
D. They transport the recombinant plasmid into bacteria
Answer: ______

97. Deforestation leads to a rise in atmospheric CO₂ for which TWO reasons?
A. Trees no longer photosynthesise to remove CO₂, AND burning trees releases stored
carbon as CO₂
B. Trees release CO₂ through transpiration, AND soil absorbs more CO₂
C. Fewer animals means less respiration, AND more water vapour enters the atmosphere
D. Soil erosion releases CO₂, AND more UV light reaches the ground
Answer: ______

98. In bread-making, yeast ferments sugar anaerobically. What gas is produced that causes
the dough to rise?
A. Oxygen
B. Lactic acid vapour
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Ethanol gas
Answer: ______

99. In genetic modification to produce human insulin, the human insulin gene is cut from
DNA using ____________________________________________________________
enzymes, which produce ______________________________ ends. The same enzymes
are used to cut the bacterial ________________________. The gene is inserted using
______________________________ enzyme to form a
____________________________________________________________, which is then
inserted into bacteria.

100. In natural selection, individuals with

____________________________________________________________ characteristics
are more likely to ________________________ and ______________________________.
They pass their ________________________ to their offspring. Over many generations, the
frequency of ____________________________________________________________
alleles increases in the population. This is the mechanism by which
______________________________ occurs.