19-04-2026

0000CMD303031250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) An electron of mass m with an initial velocity enters an electric field (E

= constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- Broglie wavelength at
time t is :

(1)

(2)

(3) λ0t
(4) λ0

2) When an electron in hydrogen atom is excited from its 4th to 5th stationary orbit, the change in
angular momentum of electron is :-

(1) 4.6 × 10–34 J.s

(2) 3.32 × 10–34 J.s
(3) 1.05 × 10–34 J.s
(4) 2.08 × 10–34 J.s

3) If the system is going upwards with acceleration a0 = g/5, find the tension 'T' shown in figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ start SHM at t = 0. Their positions as a function of time are given by XA
= A sin ωt ; XB = A sin (ωt + π/3)
 List-I List-II

(P) Minimum time when x is same (a)

(Q) Minimum time when velocity is same (b)

(R) Minimum time after which vA < 0 and vB < 0 (c)

(S) Minimum time after which xA < 0 and xB < 0 (d)

(1) P → a; Q → b; R → d; S → c
(2) P → b; Q → a; R → d; S → c
(3) P → b; Q → a; R → c; S → d
(4) P → c; Q → a; R → d; S → b

5) A block of mass m is given a velocity 20 m/sec on horizontal rough surface of length x m. After
rough surface their is a vertical circular path of radius 2m which is frictionless. The block enters on
the circular path with minimum velocity so that it can complete the path. What is the length of rough

surface x if coefficient of friction is μ = 0.5.

(1) 30 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 16 m

6) In given hollow cylindrical conductor current density is J =

, where J0 is constant and r is the distance from axis of cylinder. If radius of inner surface is a and
radius of outer surface is 2a then find current passed through the conductor parallel to axis.

(1) πJ0log2
(2) 2πJ0log2
(3) 2πJ0
(4) 2πJ0log3

7) The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 2.4 kg-m2. Time taken to produce a
rotational kinetic energy of 750 J, an angular acceleration of 5 rad/s2 must be applied about that axis
for :

(1) 6 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) 3 sec

8) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium y1 = 5sin 2π
(75t – 0.25x), y2 = 10 sin 2π (150t – 0.50x). The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

9) In a resonance tube experiment, the tube resonates with tuning fork when it is filled with water
upto a height of 21.0 cm from bottom. When water level is gradually raised, same tuning fork gives
next resonance at a height of 58.5 cm. If speed of sound at room temperature is 330 ms–1, the
frequency of tuning fork is given by :

(1) 360 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 620 Hz
(4) 880 Hz

10) A uniform rod of mass m, length L is rotating in horizontal plane about axis passing through
center and perpendicular to length with angular velocity ω. If a particle of mass m/2 is gently
attached to one of its end, then new angular velocity will be-

(1) 2ω / 5
(2) ω / 3
(3) 3ω / 5
(4) ω / 2

11) Choose the correct statements about a p-n junction diode :

(a) New holes and conduction electrons are produced continuously through out the material.
(b) The potential barrier across the depletion region is due to ions.
(c) Barrier potential of a PN junction depends upon, type of biasing, temperature and doping density.
(d) A millivoltmeter connected across an open PN junction terminal can only measure built in barrier
potential.

(1) a & b
(2) a, c & d
(3) a, b & c
(4) c only

12) A vessel open at top contains 50 litres of water. A small opening is made at the bottom of vessel.
It is observed that 3 litres of water comes out in time t1, the next 3 litres in a further time t2 and the
next 3 litres in further time t3, then :-
(1) t1 = t2 = t3
(2) t1 < t2 < t3
(3) t1 > t2 > t3
(4) t1 = t2 < t3

13)
For the circuit shown above, if the reading of voltmeter V is 8V, the readings of ammeter A1, A2 and
A3 in the above circuit will be respectively.

(1) 0.9A, 12A, 8A

(2) 0.9 A, 6A, 3A
(3) 1.8A,6A, 5A
(4) 2.7A,5A, 6A

14) In a new system, 1 unit of time is equal to 10s, 1 unit of mass is 5 kg and 1 unit of length is 20m.
In this new system of units, 1 unit of energy is equal to :-

(1) 20J

(2)

(3) 4J
(4) 16J

15) The fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a single slit is formed at the focal plane of a lens of focal
length 1m. The width of the slit is 0.3 mm. If the third minimum is formed at a distance of 5 mm
from the central maximum then calculate the wavelength of light.

(1) 3000Å
(2) 4000Å
(3) 5000Å
(4) 6000Å

16) Assertion : When battery remains connected, electric potential energy will increase if dielectric
material is inserted between plates of capacitor.
Reason : When battery remains connected, charge on plates of capacitor remains same.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.
17)
A wire is sliding on two parallel conducting rails placed at a separation of 1m as shown in figure.
Magnetic field 2T exists inwards perpendicular to rails. What force is necessary to keep the wire
moving with a constant velocity of 1 cm/sec?

(1) 0.08 × 10–3 N

(2) 8 × 10–6 N
(3) 4 × 10–6 N
(4) 8 × 10–4 N

18) A man can swim in still water at a speed of 5 km/hr. He wants to cross a river 6 km wide, flowing
at the rate of 4 km/hr. If he heads in a direction making an angle of 127° with stream direction, then
he will reach a point on the other bank :

(1) upstream at a distance of 1.5 km

(2) downstream at a distance of 1.5 km
(3) directly on the other side of the bank
(4) never reach the other bank

19) In the photoelectric effect experiment the collector is kept at 1.5 volt with respect to emitter. A
light of wavelength 400 nm incident on a metal of work function 1.8 eV, then maximum & minimum
kinetic energies of emitted photoelectrons on reaching collector will be respectively :-

(1) 2.8 eV, 1.5 eV

(2) 3.8 eV, 3 eV
(3) 5.2 eV, 2 eV
(4) 4.3 eV, 1.1 eV

20)

The height of the point vertically above the earth's surface, at which acceleration due to gravity
becomes 1% of its value at the surface is (Radius of the earth = R)

(1) 8 R
(2) 9 R
(3) 10 R
(4) 20 R

21) The arc AB with the centre C and the infinitely long wire having linear charge density λ are lying
in the same plane. The minimum amount of work to be done to move a point charge q0 from point A
to B through a circular path AB of radius a is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) q0 λ / πε0

22) List-II has conditions on electric field and list-I has certain charge configurations. Match the
suitable conodition(s) with each charge configurations.

List-I List-II

Two point charges +q and –q are placed along x- Electric field at the point C is
(P) axis and C is a point nearer to +q (1) towards right (positive x-
direction)

A uniformly positively charged sphere with a

sperical cavity inside such that centre C and O
Electric field at the point C is
(Q) (2)
zero.

lie on x-axis

A regular hexagon with 5 charges as shown.

Electric field at the point C is
(R) (3) towards left (negative x
direction)
Dotted line shows x-axis.

A uniformly negatively charged sphere with a

sperical cavity inside such that centre of cavity
Electric field at the point C has
two component one along
(S) (4)
negative x and other along
positive y.
coincides with centre of sphere C
(1) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 3; S → 2
(2) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(3) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 2
(4) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 2
23) A sphere of radius 10 cm is charged to a potential of 3000 V. The outward pull per unit area of
its surface is :-

(1) 4 × 10–3 N/m2

(2) 2 × 10–3 N/m2
(3) 1 × 10–3 N/m2
(4) Zero

24) Assertion (A) :- In series L-C-R circuit, voltage function will lead the current function for
frequency greater than the resonance frequency.
Reason (R) :- At resonance frequency, phase difference between current function and voltage
function is zero.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

25) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Used for stepping up

(a) Rectifier (i) or stepping down the
A.C. voltage

Used to convert A.C.

(b) Stabilizer (ii) voltage into DC
voltage

Used to remove any

(c) Transformer (iii) ripple in the rectified
output voltage

Used for constant

(d) Filter (iv)
output voltage
(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

26) The root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules of an ideal hydrogen gas kept in a gas
chamber is 3180 m/s. The pressure of the hydrogen gas is :-
(Density of hydrogen gas = 8.99 × 10–2 kg/m3, 1 atmosphere = 1 .01 × 105 N/m2)

(1) 1.0 atmosphere

(2) 1.5 atmosphere
(3) 2.0 atmosphere
(4) 3.0 atmosphere
27) Consider a planet of mass M revolving round the sun in an elliptical orbit with period T and
angular momentum L. Then the area of the elliptical orbit will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

The position vector of a particle is given as . The time after which the
velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-

(1) 1 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3) 1.5 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

29) A convex lens is placed on optical bench between fixed distance of object and screen. When lens
is slowly moved on optical bench, away from object, then at a certain position it forms a sharp real
image of size 16 cm. When lens is further displaced by 30 cm in same direction along principle axis,
it again forms a sharp real image of size 4 cm on screen. The focal length of the lens is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 24 cm
(4) 48 cm

30) A rectangular loop ABCD is placed near to infinite length current carrying wire. Magnetic force

on the loop is :-

(1) 1.25 × 10–4 N, Attraction

(2) 1.25 × 10–4 N, Repulsion
(3) 12.5 × 10–4 N, Repulsion
(4) 12.5 × 10–4 N, Attraction

31) In study of damped oscillation of simple pendulum, if A denotes amplitude and t time, the graph
between ℓnA versus t is as shown in figure. The time in which amplitude reduces to 4 cm from initial
amplitude of 8 cm is

(1) 15 s
(2) 30 s
(3) 45 s
(4) 60 s

32) Binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and that for C13 is 7.47 MeV. The energy required
to remove a neutron from C13 is :-

(1) 5.49 MeV

(2) 4.95 MeV
(3) 9.45 MeV
(4) 5.94 MeV

33) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area A is B. Then magnetic moment of the loop
will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The logic circuit shown has the input waveforms 'A' and 'B' as shown. Pick out the correct output

waveform :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) A cylindrical region of radius 1.2m is containg a uniform electric field that is increasing
uniformly with time. At t = 0 the field is zero and at t = 5.0 s the field is 200 V/m. The total
displacement current through a cross section of the region is :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–16A

(2) 2.0 × 10–15 A
(3) 3.5 × 10–10 A
(4) 1.6 × 10–9 A

36) One mole of an ideal diatomic gas at temperature T0 expands slowly according to law P = KV (K
is a constant). If final temperature is 3T0 heat supplied to gas is -

(1) 2RT0
(2) 6RT0
(3) 4RT0
(4) 3RT0

37) Two open organ pipes give 4 beats/sec when sounded together in their fundamental nodes. If the
length of the pipe are 100 cm and 102.5 cm respectively, then the velocity of sound is:

(1) 496 m/s

(2) 328 m/s
(3) 240 m/s
(4) 160 m/s

38) A metallic cube whose each side is 10 cm is subjected to a shearing force of 2100 N. The top face
is displaced through 0.25 cm with respect to bottom. The shear modulus will be :-

(1) 8.4 × 106 N/m2

(2) 525 × 10–4 N/m2
(3) 52.5 × 104 N/m2
(4) 5.25 × 107 N/m2

39) An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and

B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm :-

(1) Infinity
(2) 1Ω
(3) 2Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

40) Two particles of mass 2 kg and 1 kg are moving along the same straight line with speeds 2 m/s
and 5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system when particles are moving in opposite
directions is V1 and when particles are moving in same direction is V2. The ratio V1/V2 is :

(1) 3:4
(2) 4:3
(3) 9:1
(4) 1:9

41) In a vernier calliper, 1 cm on main scale is divided into 10 equal divisions and 10 vernier scale
divisions are equal to 9 divisions of main scale. When both jaws of vernier calipers touch each other,
the zero of the vernier scale is present at the left of zero of main scale and 4th vernier scale division
exactly coincides with a main scale division. While measuring the diameter of a sphere. it was found
that zero of the vernier scale lies between 35th and 36th division of main scale and 6th vernier division
exactly coincides with a main scale division. The correct diameter of spherical body is :

(1) 3.50 cm
(2) 3.52 cm
(3) 3.62 cm
(4) 3.70 cm

42) A general body have surface area 20 m2 and emissivity 0.8. If the emissive power of an ideal

black body is 200 at the same temperature, then amount of emitted energy in one minute by the
general body is:-

(1) 45 kJ
(2) 192 kJ
(3) 300 kJ
(4) None of these

43) A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4m/s. It strikes an uncompressed spring,
and compresses it till the block is motionless. The kinetic friction is 15 N and spring constant is
10,000 N/m. Then spring compresses by-

(1) 5.5 cm
(2) 2.5 cm
(3) 11.0 cm
(4) 8.5 cm

44) A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 15 cm in air. When the lens is placed in
water of refractive index 4/3, its focal length will become :-
(1) 30 cm
(2) 45 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 75 cm

45) Two cells A and B of emf 1.3 V and 1.5 V respectively are arranged as shown in figure. Find
relation between r1 and r2 for which the voltmeter reads 1.45 V. The voltmeter is assumed to be

ideal.

(1) r1 = 2r2
(2) r1 = 3r2
(3) r2 = 2r1
(4) r2 = 3r1

CHEMISTRY

1)
(a) T1 < T2 (T = Temperature)
(b) On increasing temperature, fraction of molecules containing most probable kinetic energy
increases.
(c) On increasing temperature, value of most probable kinetic energy increases.
(d) On changing temperature area under curve remains constant since total probability must be one
at all time.
The correct statements are

(1) a, c, d
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, c
(4) only d

2) Match the column-I & column-II :-

Column I Column II
(Character of reaction) (Order)
 Reaction with
(A) identical rate (p) Zero
and rate constant

Reaction rate
(B) doubles on increasing (q) First
concentration four times

Half-life period is
(C) inversely proportional (r) Second
to initial concentration

Half-life period is
(D) independent of (s) Half
initial concentration
(1) (A) → (p); (B) → (s); (C) → (r); (D) → (q)
(2) (A) → (p); (B) → (r); (C) → (s); (D) → (q)
(3) (A) → (p); (B) → (q); (C) → (r); (D) → (s)
(4) (A) → (r); (B) → (s); (C) → (p); (D) → (q)

3) Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature
?

(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

4) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct statements.
(i) The vapour pressure of a liquid decreases with increase of temperature.
(ii) The liquid boils at the temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to the atmospheric
pressure.
(iii) Vapour pressure of the solvent decreases in the presence of non-volatile solute.
(iv) Vapour pressure of the pure solvent and solution is a function of temperature.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

5) A–2 + B → A + B–2
B–2 + C → No reaction
C–2 + A → C + A–2
The correct order of standard oxidation potential is–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Select the correct statement for lead storage battery.

(1) It consists of a grid of lead packed with PbO2 as anode

(2) A 50% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte
(3) When battery is in use then PbO2 is converted to PbSO4 (s) at cathode
(4) On charging the battery concentration of H2SO4 decreases.

7) 518 gm of an aqueous solution contains 18 gm of glucose (mol. wt. = 180). What is the molality of
the solution.

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.3 m
(4) 0.4 m

8) Which of the following statement is incorrect about 1.7 g of NH3 :-

(1) It contains 0.3 mol H-atom

(2) Mass % of hydrogen is 17.65%
(3) It contains 2.408 × 1023 atoms
(4) It contains 0.3 mol N-atom

9) The uncertainty in position for an electron is where λ is de-Broglie wavelength. The

uncertainty in velocity will be (where v is the velocity of electron) :-

(1)

(2) v
(3) 3v

(4)

10) In a system P(s) ⇌ 2Q(g) + R(g), at equilibrium the concentration of 'Q' is doubled then
concentration of R at new equilibrium will be :-

(1) Double of its original concentration

(2)
of its original concentration

(3)
of its original concentration
(4) 4 times of its original concentration

11) Which of the following sets of concentrations will cause the precipitation of ZnCl2 (Ksp = 1.2 ×
10–12 M3) ?
(1) [Zn2+] = 10–8 M ; [Cl–] = 10–8 M
(2) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–4 M
(3) [Zn2+] = 10–6 M ; [Cl–] = 10–5 M
(4) [Zn2+] = 10–5 M ; [Cl–] = 10–3 M

12) The values of x + y in balanced redox reaction will be:-

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 4

13) For the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

ΔU = – 90 kcal/mole and ΔS = –200 cal K–1 at 500 K. What can be said about reaction ?

(1) Reaction will be spontaneous at all temperature and at constant pressure

(2) Reaction is at state of equilibrium
(3) Reaction is non spontaneous at all conditions
(4) Reaction is spontaneous below 460 K and at constant pressure

14) Study the figure given below : The standard enthalpy of

solution of XY(s) in water can be determined by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Molar mass of Mohr's salt is 392. In Mohr's salt iron is oxidised by KMnO4 in acidic medium.
Equivalent weight of Mohr's salt is :

(1) 392
(2) 31.6
(3) 278
(4) 156

16) Statement-I : Neptunium and Plutonium like Actinium and Protactinium are found in "pitche
blend" i.e., an ore of uranium.
Statement-II : A plot of against atomic mass gave a straight line ( where ν is frequency of x-
rays emitted).

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

17) Select the correct statement

(A) Ionisation enthalpy of neutral atom are always positive.
(B) The second ionisation enthalpy will be higher than the first ionisation enthalpy.
(C) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals are highest in each period.
(D) Ionisation enthalpy of noble gases are highest in each period.

(1) (A), (C) are correct

(2) (A), (B), (D) are correct
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct
(4) (C), (D) are correct

18) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(Species) (Bond order)

a H2+ p 0

b He2 q 1.5

c N2 + r 0.5

d O2– s 2.5
(1) a - r, b - p , c - s, d - q
(2) a - p, b - r , c - s, d - q
(3) a - r, b - p , c - q, d - s
(4) a - p, b - r , c - q, d - s

19) Which of the following molecule has single super pair :-

(1) H2O2
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) N2H4

20) Which of the following is incorrect -

(1) Viscosity order H2O > CH3OH > CH3 – O – CH3

(2) Boiling point order H2O > HF > NH3
Molecular weight of acetic acid is double of its molecular formula. due to dimer formation by H-
(3)
bonding.
(4) In o-Salicylaldehyde inter molecular H-bonding is present.

21) Statement I : The larger cation and the larger size of anion, the greater the covalent character
of an ionic bond.
Statement II : All the ionic bonds have some covalent character similarly all covalent bonds have
some ionic character.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect

22) In sodium nitroprusside, the oxidation number, coordination number and EAN of iron are
respectively :-

(1) +3, 6, 36
(2) +1, 6, 36
(3) +2, 5, 35
(4) +2, 6, 36

23) Which of the following is not a limitation of valence bond theory ?

(1) It does not explain the colour exhibited by coordination compounds.

It does not make exact predictions regarding the tetrahedral and square planar structures of 4-
(2)
coordinate complexes.
(3) It does not distinguish between weak and strong ligands.
(4) Metal atom or ion under influence of ligands can use vacant orbitals for hybridisation.

24) Correct statement is.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism.
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium.
(D) Ethylenediamine is a mono dentate ligand.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct options.

(2) (A), (B), (C) are correct options.
(3) (A), (B), (D) are correct options.
(4) (A), (D) are correct options.

25) The true statement for the acids of phosphorus, H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is :

The order of their acidity is :

(1)
H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
(2) H3PO2 acts as oxidising agent in nature.
(3) All of them are tribasic acids
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three above mentioned acids.
26)

Incorrect statement among the following is :

(1) Graphite has layered structure and layers are held by Vander Waal's forces.
(2) Density of diamond is more than that of graphite.
(3) C60 contain 12 hexagonal rings and 20 pentagonal rings.
(4) Graphite's used as a dry lubricant.

27) Choose the incorrect match

(1) Kernite = Na2B4O7.4H2O

(2) Borax = Na2B4O7.8H2O
(3) Cryolite = Na3AlF6
(4) Phosphinic acid = H3PO2

28) Which elements in 3d-series shows highest & lowest enthalpy of atomization respectively.

(1) V, Zn
(2) Cr, Zn
(3) Cr, Mn
(4) Mn, Sc

29) The common oxidation state shown by actinoids is +3 with the other oxidation states being +4,
+5, +6 and +7. The number of oxidation states shown by the following elements decrease in the
order :
A. Np (Z = 93)
B. Am (Z = 95)
C. Ac (Z = 89)
D. Pa (Z = 91)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > A > D > C
(3) D > B > A > C
(4) A > B > D >C

30)

Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Test/reagent) (Radical identified)

A. Lake Test I.

B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe3+

C. Potassium thiocyanate III. Al3+

 D. Brown Ring Test IV.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

31) Structure of 4-Chloro-2-ethyl-3-methylpenta-2,

4-dienal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Benzaldehyde is not produced in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Aniline does not undergo friedel craft reaction due to salt formation with aluminum chloride.
(2) Direct nitration of aniline yields tarry oxidation products in addition to the nitro derivatives.
Aniline on nitration gives substantial amount of m-nitroaniline due to formation of anilinium
(3)
ion.
(4) All of the above

34)

Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice :-

Column I Column II

Coupling
(A) (i)
reaction

Balz-Schiemann
(B) (ii)
​reaction

Gatterman
(C) (iii)
reaction

Sandmeyer
(D) (iv)
​reaction

(1) (A)→(iv), (B)→(iii), (C)→(ii), (D)→(i)

(2) (A)→(iii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii)
(3) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iii), (C)→(iv), (D)→(i)
(4) (A)→(i), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iii), (D)→(iv)

35)

Which of the following compound will reduces by both LiAlH4, as well as NaBH4

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5)
(1) 1, 3, 4
(2) 1, 5, 3
(3) 3, 5
(4) 4, 5, 2

36) In which of the following has minimum torsional strain and minimum Vanderwaal strain ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Compound A and C in the following reaction are :-

(1) Identical
(2) Positional Isomer
(3) Functional Isomer
(4) Optical Isomer

38) Which one of the following is a free radical substitution :-

(1)
+ CH3Cl
(2)
+ AgNO2 →

(3)
+ Cl2

(4)
+ HCN →

39) For denaturation of protein which statement is not correct ?

(1) Denaturation occurs by change in pH and temperature

(2) Denaturation leads to loss of primary structure of protein
(3) Denaturation leads loss of secondary and tertiary structure of protein
(4) Denaturation does not lead to change in sequence of amino acids in protein

40) (A) (B)

Identify B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following compound will be suitable for Kjeldahl's method for nitrogen estimation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42) For the given reaction major product will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following reaction can't form higher alkane as a product.

CH3 – Cl
(1)

CH3 – CH2 – COONa

(2)

CH3–Cl
(3)

CH3–Cl
(4)

44) Which of the following compounds is optically active :-

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(3) Sec. butyl alcohol
(4) Ter. butyl alcohol

45) Which of the following intermediate is not stablised by resonance?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I : Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation induces passive immunity.
Statement-II : Directly injecting the preformed antibodies for quick response as in tetnus is type of
active immunity.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Given below are pairs of pathogen, diseases and type of causatic agents category. Choose the
option with correctly matched.

Type of
Disease Pathogen
causatic agent

A. Pneumonia (i) Rhinovirus (a) Protozoan

Entamoeba
B. Ascariasis (ii) (b) Virus
Histolytica

C. Amoebiasis (iii) Round worm (c) Helminthic

Haemophilus
D. Common cold (iv) (d) Bacteria
Influenzae
(1) A-iv-a, B-ii-c, C-iii-d, D-i-b
(2) A-ii-a, B-i-b, C-iv-c, D-iii-d
(3) A-iv-d, B-iii-c, C-ii-a, D-i-b
(4) A-iii-c, B-iv-a, C-i-b, D-ii-d

3) Which of the following statement is correct regarding AIDS/HIV ?

(1) It progressively decreases the number of B-Lymphocytes in the body of infected person.
AIDS is caused by HIV, a member of group of uneveloped retroviruses enclosing the RNA
(2)
genome.
When HIV enters into cell then infected cell could survive while viruses are being replicated as
(3)
in macrophage.
There is always a time lag usually 2-12 week between the infection and appearance of AIDS
(4)
symptoms.

4) Due to genetic or other unknown reason when body attacks on self cell this phenomenon is known
as

(1) Immunological memory

(2) Contact inhibition
(3) Autoimmunity
(4) Immunisation.

5) Which of the following option is not correct.

During sewage treatment in primary settling tank heterotrophic microbes consume the major
(1)
part of organic matter present in sewage.
Treatment of waste water is done by the heterotrophic microbes naturally present in the
(2)
sewage.
(3) BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
The Ministry of Environment and Forest has initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action
(4)
Plan.

6) Match the column-A with column-B and select correct option.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Azotobacter (I) Biocontrol agents

(b) Baculovirus (II) Biogas

(c) Methanogens (III) Biofertilisers

(d) Statins (IV) Bioactive molecule

(1) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(3) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
(4) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II

7) Which of the following is produced by a bacteria?

(1) Roquefort cheese

(2) Swiss cheese
(3) Wine
(4) Penicillin
8) Which of the following is an example of homologous organ ?

(1) Eyes of octopus and mammal

(2) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita
(4) Potato and sweet potato

9) Which of the following comes in the evolutionary history of mammals ?

(1) Synapsids, Therapsids

(2) Thecodont, Synapsids
(3) Sauropsids, Synapsids
(4) Thecodont, Saurapsids

10) Monocarpellary gynoecium with many ovules in ovary is present in :

(1) Pea
(2) Mango
(3) Maize
(4) Hibiscus

11) Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option from options given below :
(A) Polar nuclei are situated above the egg apparatus in embryo sac.
(B) In process of triple fusion, one male gamete fuses with one diploid female gamete.
(C) In beet and black pepper, perisperm is present in seeds.
(D) Apomixis is a type of sexual reproduction which mimics the asexual reproduction.
Options :

(1) A, C and D are correct

(2) A, B and D are correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) Only C is correct

12) Bundle sheath is made up of parenchymatous cells in :

(1) Monocot stem

(2) Monocot leaves
(3) Dicot leaves
(4) 2 and 3 both

13)

Which of the following statement is not true regarding the internal structure of flowering plants?

(1) Vascular bundles are scattered in maize root

(2) Casparian strips are present in endodermis of maize root
(3) Large number of vascular bundles are arranged in ring in sunflower stem
(4) Phloem parenchyma is usually absent in maize stem

14) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from options given below:

Placentation Example

A Basal P Sunflower

B Marginal Q Pea

C Parietal R Argemone

D Free central S Dianthus

Options :
(1) A : P; B : Q ; C : S; D : R
(2) A : P; B : Q ; C : R; D : S
(3) A : P; B : S ; C : Q; D : R
(4) A : P; B : S ; C : R; D : Q

15) One pair of simple leaves arises from same node in :

(1) Sunflower and mustard

(2) Calotropis and Alstonia
(3) Calotropis and guava
(4) Mustard and neem

16) How many of the following structures are present in embryo of monocot plants but not in embryo
of dicot plants?
Cotyledon, embryonal axis, coleoptile, radicle, plumule, endosperm, coleorhiza, seed coat, hypocotyl,
epicotyl

(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Four

17) With the help of given pedigree find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease
in F3 generation?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Match the column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Human (i) XO type

(b) Honey bee (ii) ZW type

(c) Grass hopper (iii) XY type

(d) Fowl (iv) Haploid-Diploid type

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

19) Which of the following statements is not correct.

A true- breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous self pollination, shows the
(1)
unstable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
A homozygous parent produces all gametes that are similar while a heterozygous one produces
(2)
two kinds of gametes.
(3) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.
(4) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive trait.

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Morgan and his group found that genes of eye colour and yellow body colour in
Drosophila were very tightly linked and showed only 1.3 per cent recombination in F1 generation.
Statement II : Morgan carried out - several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were
sex- linked.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

21) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

A Secreted by Posterior pituitary i. Prolactin

B Secreted by Parathyroid gland ii. ACTH

 C Stimulates Adrenal gland iii. Thyrocalcitonin

D Secreted by Anterior pituitary iv. PTH

E Secreted by Thyroid gland v. ADH

(1) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-iii
(3) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(4) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, E-iii

22) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased
concentration of glucose in blood.
Reason (R) : Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis
resulting in an increased blood sugar.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

23) I act mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion
of K+ and phosphate ions. Who I am ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Secretin
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Adrenaline

24) In the following flow diagram, identify the correct labelling (A and B).

(i) A is the afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from

tissues/organs to the ANS
(ii) B is the efferent fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned peripheral
tissues/ organs.
(iii) A is the afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from tissues/ organs to the CNS.
(iv) B is the afferent fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned peripheral
tissues/organs.

(1) i and iv
(2) i, ii and iv
(3) ii and iii
(4) i, ii, iii and iv
25) Brain stem includes

(1) Cerebrum, Pons, Medulla oblongata

(2) Mid brain, Pons, Cerebellum
(3) Mid brain, Pons, Medulla oblongata
(4) Thalamus, Pons, Medulla oblongata

26) The process by which seperated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted
from gel piece is known as

(1) Spooling
(2) Sieving
(3) Elution
(4) Precipitation

27) Read the following statements

A. Since DNA is hydrophillic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membrane.
B. Bacteria are made competent to uptake DNA by treating with monovalent cations like calcium.
C. To enable the bacteria to uptake recombinant DNA, the cells with recombinant DNA are
incubated on ice followed by placing at 42°C for long period of time and back on ice.
D. In gene gun, plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten
coated with DNA.
Select the correct statements.

(1) A, B,C,D
(2) C,D
(3) A,D
(4) B,D

28) Read the following statements.

Statement-I : If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to Ampicillin is transferred into
[Link] cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin sensitive cells.
Statement-II : If we spread above transformed cells on agar plates, containing ampicillin, only non-
transformants will grow, transformed recipient cells will die.
In the light of above statements, find the correct option.

(1) Statement (I) and Statement (II) both are correct.

(2) Statement (I) and Statement (II) both are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct and Statement (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (I) is incorrect and Statement (II) is correct.

29) How many of the following are the applications of transgenic animals?
To understand Normal physiology and development, Study of disease, To obtain Biological products,
To test safety of Vaccine, Chemical safety testing, Molecular diagnosis.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

30) Read the following statements regarding nematode resistant tobacco plant. Find the correct
order of sequence?
A. Parasite could not survive in a transgenic host
B. Introduction of DNA that produced both sense and anti- sense RNA in the host cells.
C. Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific genes were introduced into host plant.
D. Two RNAs being complementary to each other formed a double stranded RNA (ds RNA) that
initiated RNAi and silenced specfic mRNA of nematode.

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → B → D → A
(3) A → D → C → B
(4) D → B → C → A

31) Which histone protein is not present in the core of nucleosome:-

(1) H2B
(2) H2A
(3) H3
(4) H1

32) Assertion: During DNA replication, on one strand the replication is continuous while on the
other strand it is discontinuous.
Reason : DNA Polymerase can synthesize DNA only in the 5'→ 3' direction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Statement-I : r-RNA carries genetic information from DNA to ribosome.

Statement-II : One t-RNA can recognize more than one codon.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

34)

Column-I Column-II

A. PCR 1. Binding site of repressor protein

B. Operator 2. Catalytic activity in Ribosome

 C. r-RNA 3. RNA splicing

D. Sn-RNA 4. DNA amplification

(1) A-4, B-3, C-2,D-1
(2) A-4, B-1, C-3,D-2
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2,D-3
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3,D-4

35) Which of the following RNA is not required for the synthesis of protein?

(1) m-RNA
(2) Si-RNA
(3) t-RNA
(4) r-RNA

36) Find out the correct statement:-

a. RNA mostly helps in transfer and expression of information.
b. DNA was derived from RNA.
c. In eukaryotes the freshly transcribed RNA is functional, hence can directly be translated.
d. Regulation of transcription is the primary step for regulation of gene expression.

(1) a, b and c
(2) only b and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) All a, b, c and d

37) Statement-I : Amniocentesis is used to test for the presence of certain genetic disorders such
as down syndrome, haemophilia, sickle cell anemia etc. determine survivability of the foetus.
Statement-II : In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to
analyse the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
Choose the correct answer from the given options:-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

38) In the given list how many male accessory ducts are present outside testes?
Rete testis, seminiferous tubule, epididymis, vas deferens, prostate, bulbourethral gland, seminal
vesicle.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

39) The process of child birth is called parturition which is induced by a complex neuroendocrine
mechanism involving which of the following?

(1) GnRH
(2) Cortisol
(3) FSH
(4) Prolactin

40) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?

(1) Periodic abstinence ⇒ Natural method

(2) Cervical caps ⇒ Prevents S.T.I
(3) Copper releasing IUD ⇒ Multiload-375
(4) Non-steroidal pill ⇒ saheli

41) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Mammary gland differentiates during pregnancy and secrete milk after child birth.
(2) The mammary glands are one of the female secondary sexual characteristics.
The leydig cells outside the seminiferous tubules, synthesise and secrete testicular hormones
(3)
(androgens).
The cyclical changes in the ovary and the uterus during menstrual cycle are induced by changes
(4)
in the levels of pituitary hormones only.

42) Assertion (A) : Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.
Reason (R) : Thin epithelium of ovary is made up of germ cells.
Choose the correct answer from the given options: -

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

43)
Read the following statements with respect to given diagram and select the correct option.
(A) The inner compartment of the organelle is filled with a dense heterogenous substance called the
matrix.
(B) The number of this organelle per cell is variable depending on the physiological activity of the
cells.
(C) The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cisternae towards the matrix.
(D) The matrix of this organelle also possess circular ds DNA molecule, few RNA molecules,
ribosomes and the components required for the synthesis of proteins.
(E) They are called as "Power houses of the cell" as they produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
by utilising light energy.
Options :-
(1) A, B and D - Correct, C and E - Incorrect
(2) A, C and E - Correct, B and D - Incorrect
(3) A, C and E - Incorrect, B and D - Correct
(4) A, B, C and E - Correct, D - Incorrect

44) The interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibre called as -

(1) Chromosome
(2) Chromatin
(3) Chromatid
(4) Kinetochore

45) Read the following statements carefully and select the correct statement.

The axoneme usually has nine triplets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules and a pair of
(1)
centrally located microtubule.
(2) Flagella are comparatively smaller than cilia and responsible for cell movement.
(3) Flagella which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid.
(4) Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal bodies.

46) Given below are the two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of
each species is achieved across generation in sexually reproducing organism, even though the
process, per se, paradoxically, result in reduction of chromosome number by half.
Reason (R) : Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between non
sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

47) Match the column I and column II and select the correct option :

Column I Column II

Homologous chromosomes separate

(A) (I) while sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromere
 Spindle fibre attaches to kinetochores
(B) (II)
of chromosome

Marked by initiation of condensation of

(C) (III)
chromosomal material

Chromosomes cluster at opposite

(D) (IV) spindle poles and their identity is lost
as discrete element

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

48) Given below are the two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Some cells in the adult animals donot appear to exhibit division (eg. heart cells) and
many other cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace cells that have been lost because of
injury or cell death. These cells that donot divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage
called quiscent stage (G0) of the cell cycle.
Reason (R) : M-phase is the most drammatic period of the cell cycle, involving a major
reorganization of virtually all components of cell.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below -

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

49) Volume of air inspired or expired per breathe during a normal respiration is.
(1) Inspiratory reserve volume
(2) Tidal volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Residual volume

50) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration -

(1) Expiratory capacity

(2) Vital capacity
(3) Total lung capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity

51) A symptom of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle, is
called

(1) Cardiac arrest

(2) Heart attack
(3) Angina
(4) Heart failure

52) In which of the following open circulatory system is present ?

Fishes, Arthropods, Mollusca, Amphibians Reptiles, Aves, Mammals, Annelids

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

53) Which of the following attributes is found in a 'Population' but NOT in an 'Individual'?

(1) Birth and Death

(2) Sex ratio and Birth rate
(3) Age
(4) Life cycle

54) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Logistic Growth Model?

(1) It forms an 'S' shaped sigmoid curve when resources are limited.
(2) It is known as Verhulst -Pearl Logistic Growth.
(3) It occurs when resources in the habitat are unlimited.
(4) In this 'K' represents the carrying capacity.

55)

Case Species involved

 Barnacle - Balanus
(i) Competition for resources (1)
and Chathamalus

Flamingoes and
(ii) Impact of Exotic species (2) fishes in south
American lakes

Abingdon tortoise
(iii) Competitive Release (3)
and goats in Galapagos islands

Options :-
(1) (i) → 2, (ii) → 3, (iii) → 1
(2) (i) → 1, (ii) → 2, (iii) → 3
(3) (i) → 3, (ii) → 1, (iii) → 2
(4) (i) → 2, (ii) → 1, (iii) → 3

56) Which of the following ecosystem has the highest contribution to global net primary productivity
?

(1) Tropical deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rainforest
(3) Desert
(4) Temperate grassland

57) Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding ecosystem?

(1) Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the available biomass for herbivores and decomposers.
(2) Decomposition is slower when detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances.
(3) In aquatic ecosystems, the grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
(4) Pyramid of energy can never be inverted.

58) Assertion (A) : The decomposition rate is slower when detritus contains substances like lignin
and chitin.
Reason (R) : Lignin and chitin are highly resistant to microbial action and undergo very slow
decomposition.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

59) Choose the incorrect statement regarding biodiversity, its loss and its conservation.
(A) Biodiversity hotspots have high species richness and high endemism.
(B) Species richness increases with increasing area, but only up to a limit.
(C) The group Fungi has fewer species than fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals combined.
(D) Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause of biodiversity loss.
(E) All biodiversity hotspots together cover more than 10% of Earth's land surface.
(1) C and E only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) C and D only

60) Statement A : The world summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg,
South Africa.
Statement B : Ex-situ conservation includes the establishment of wildlife sanctuaries and national
parks.
Which of the following is the correct option regarding above statements ?

(1) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct.

(2) Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct.
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

61) Which of the following combinations correctly matches biodiversity conservation types,
examples, and rationale ?

Conservation
Example Rationale
Type

A In-situ National parks Ecosystem protection

Cryopreservation of Urgent protection of

B Ex-situ
gametes endangered species

Documentation of
C Red Data Book IUCN publication
threatened species

Broadly utilitarian
D Bioprospecting Sacred groves
ecological exploration
(1) A and C only
(2) A and D only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, C and D

62) Which of the following substances are reabsorbed actively in nephron ?

(1) Glucose, Ammonia

(2) Glucose, Na+
(3) Amino acid, Urea
(4) Na+, Uric acid

63) Which of the following group of animals are ureotelic in nature?

(1) Human, tadpole of frog

(2) Human, frog
(3) Insect, frog
(4) Land snail, earthworm

64) Which is not true for scapula in the following?

(1) It is found between 2nd to 7th ribs

(2) It has an cavity which is found above the acromian process
(3) It is found dorsal part of throrax
(4) It is a flat triangular bone

65) Select the correct match :-

(1) A-Skeletal muscles → biceps, striated muscles, involuntary

(2) B-Smooth muscles → walls of stomach, voluntary
(3) C-Cardiac muscles → heart, dorsal wall of aorta, voluntary
(4) A-Skeletal muscle → biceps, striated, voluntary

66) Triploblastic, acoelomate, bilateral symmetry and most in parasitic forms. The above description
is characteristic of phylum :-

(1) Protozoa
(2) Annelida
(3) Nematoda
(4) Platyhelminthes

67) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Echinus (1) Brittle star

(b) Cucumaria (2) Star fish

(c) Antedon (3) Sea urchin

(d) Ophiura (4) Sea cucumber

(e) Asterias (5) Sea lily

(1) a – 4, b – 3, c – 5, d – 2, e – 1
(2) a – 3, b – 4, c – 5, d – 1, e – 2
(3) a – 3, b – 4, c – 5, d – 2, e – 1
(4) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1, e – 2

68) Identify the number of organisms from the box given below which are hermaphrodites and have
internal fertilisation.

Pleurobrachia, Nereis, Laccifer, Spongilla,

Fasciola
(1) Six
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

69) Identify the given animal and select the incorrect option regarding this animal.

(1) Absence of blood vessels

(2) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
(3) Presence of unpaired fins
(4) Shows indirect development

70) Select the correct option in given table :

Animal Character Class

1 3-Chambered heart Reptilia

2 Operculum absent Osteichthyes

3 Oviparous Mammalia
 4. 4- Chambered heart Reptilia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are, __A___, or printed in italics to
indicate their___B___.

(1) A- cummulatively underline B- Latin origin

(2) A- closed in bracket B - English origin
(3) A- separately underline B- Latin origin
(4) A- cummulatively underline B- English origin

72) Match List-I and List-II.

List -I List-II

(A) Dinoflagellates (I) Pigments are identical to higher plants.

(B) Diatoms (II) Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates.

(C) Euglenoids (III) Chief producers in the oceans

(D) Slime moulds (IV) Spores possess true walls

Option :-
(1) A → III, B → II, C → IV, D → I
(2) A → II, B → III, C → IV, D → I
(3) A → III, B → IV, C → I, D → II
(4) A → II, B → III, C → I, D → IV

73) Consider the following.

(A) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various inorganic substances and use the released
energy for their ATP production.
(B) In phycomycetes, zygospores are formed by meiosis and these spores are endogenously
produced in sporangium.
(C) Viruses did not find a place in classification since they are not considered truly 'living'.
(D) In Lichens, the algal component is known as mycobiont and fungal component is known as
phycobiont.
(E) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A, C and E are not true
(2) B and D are true
(3) A,C and E are true.
(4) A,B,C and E are true.

74) Which one of the following statement is wrong regarding gymnosperm?

(1) Male and female gametophyte do not have an independent free living existence.
(2) Multicellular female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia or female sex organs.
Male gametophytic generation is highly reduced and is confined to only a limited number of
(3)
cells.
(4) The megaspore mother cell divides mitotically to form four megaspore.

75) Identify A, B,C and D in the table given below.

Flagellar Number
Classes Major Pigments Stored Food Cell Wall and Position
of Insertions

Chlorophyceae Chlorophyll a, b Starch C 2-8, equal, apical

Phaeophyceae A Mannitol, laminarin Cellulose and algin 2, unequal, lateral

Chlorophyll a, Cellulose, pectin

Rhodophyceae B D
d, phycoerythrin and poly sulphate esters
(1) A – Chlorophyll a, d, phycocyanin, B– Floridean starch, C–Chitin, D– 2, Short and long
A – Chlorophyll a, b, fucoxanthin, B– Floridean starch,C–polysaccharide & amino acid, D–2,
(2)
Longitudinally and transversely
(3) A – Chlorophyll a, d, β caroteen, B– Paramylum and fat,C–Absent, D – 2–8, heterokont flagella
(4) A – Chlorophyll a, c, fucoxanthin, B– Floridean starch, C–Cellulose, D– Absent

76) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In Bryophytes, the sporophyte is not free living but attached to the photosynthetic
gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
Statement-II : In heterosporous pteridophytes the female gametophyte are retained on the parent
sporophytes for variable periods.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

77) Read the following statements and select the correct option :
(a) Alcoholic fermentation occurs in muscles due to inadequate oxygen.
(b) Lactic acid fermentation involves removal of hydrogen from pyruvate.
(c) The main purpose of fermentation is to increase ATP production beyond glycolysis.
(d) Alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation both start with glycolysis.
(1) a, b, c are incorrect
(2) b & d are correct
(3) Only d is incorrect
(4) a, c, d are correct

78) Statement-I :- Proton concentration becomes higher in the intermembrane space than in the
mitochondrial matrix during electron transport.
Statement-II :- The electron transport chain synthesizes ATP by substrate level phosphorylation.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

79) During aerobic respiration, if oxygen supply to the cell suddenly stops, several metabolic
processes will be affected. Considering the events in respiration, which process will stop first.

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Link reaction
(3) Kreb's cycle
(4) ETS

80) Removal of apical bud results in growth of lateral buds. Which plant hormone suppresses the
growth of lateral buds ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Ethylene

81) How many among the following statements are incorrect ?

(a) Plant growth is defined as reversible increase in size or dry weight.
(b) Ethylene promotes fruit ripening and leaf senescence.
(c) Process by which cell lose their ability to divide and aquire specific functions is called
differentiation.
(d) Abscisic acid promotes stomatal opening during water stress.
(e) Gibberellin induces bolting in rosette plants.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

82) Which of the following is not a homopolymer?

(1) Chitin
(2) Inulin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Collagen

83) Match List-I with List-II

List -I List-II

A. Codeine I. Polysaccharide

B. Adenosine II. Alkaloid

C. Inulin III. Nucleoside

D. Trypsin IV. Protein

Choose the option with all correct matches.

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

84) Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction:-

(1) Hydrolase
(2) Lyases
(3) Transferase
(4) Ligase

85) Carbon reactions of photosynthesis are dependent on which products of light reactions?

(1) ATP, NADPH, CO2 and H2O

(2) ATP and NADPH
(3) ATP, NADPH and O2
(4) ATP, NADPH and CO2

86) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur.
Reason (R) : C4 plants have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the RuBisCO
enzyme's site i.e. mesophyll cell. This takes place when the C4 acid is broken down in the mesophyll
cells to release CO2.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

87) Find the correct statements:

A : In Calvin cycle the reduction step involves utilisation of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation
and two of NADPH for reduction per CO2 molecule.
B : In all photosynthetic plants, the first stable product of CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle is 3-
phosphoglyceric acid.
C : Chemiosmosis require a membrane, a proton pump, a electron gradient and ATP synthase.
D : Biosynthetic phase 'or' dark reactions of photosynthesis are not light dependent.
E : It is probably to meet the difference in number of ATP and NADPH used in the dark reaction that
the cyclic photophosphorylation takes place.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and E only

(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A and E only

88) Ciliated columnar epithelium is found in :-

(1) Stomach & blood vessels

(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Proximal convulated tubule of nephron
(4) Airsac

89) Given below is the diagram of reproductive system of an animal labelled by (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

identify the animal with correct labelling of (i) to (iv)

(1) Male frog - (i) Testes (ii) Adrenal gland (iii) Fat bodies (iv) Cloaca
(2) Female frog - (i) Kidney (ii) Adrenal gland (iii) Ovary (iv) Cloaca
(3) Male frog - (i) Testes (ii) Duct of bidder (iii) Adrenal gland (iv) Cloaca
(4) Female frog - (i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Adrenal gland (iv) Cloaca

90) (A) Cockroach are nocturnal omnivores that live in damp places throughout the world
(B) They become residents of human homes and thus are serious pests and vectors of several
diseases.
(C) Many species of cockroach are wild and are economic importance.
(D) They are pests, because they destroy food and contaminate it with their smelly excreta.
Select the incorrect statements regarding the cockroach

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and D
(4) Only C
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 2 4 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 4 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

0
λ =

v′ = v0 + t ⋮ (q = e)

λ′ =

λ′ =

λ′ =

2) Change in angular momentum

= 1.05 × 10–34 J.S

3) Effective gravity:

Tension in string between masses:

The pulley is pulled down by two tensions, so support tension: T = 2T1

T=

T=

T=

⇒T= mg
4)

5) Velocity at the bottom of the circle =

= 10 m/sec
on rough surface
u = 20 v = 10 a = – μg = – 5
v2 – u2 = 2ax
102 – 202 = – 2 × 5 × x
x = 30 m

6)

Current through small element di= JdA

i=
i = 2πJ0ln2

7) I = 2.4 kgm2, K.E. Rot. = 750 J

α = 5 rad/s2 ω0 = 0 rad s–1

K.E. = Iω2; ω = αt

8) The intensity (I) of a wave depends on the square of its amplitude (A) and the square of its
frequency (f), so I∝A2f2.
From the equations:
For wave 1: A1​=5, f1​=75
For wave 2: A2​=10, f2​=150
The ratio is

9)
,

10)
According to conservation of angular momentum,

rad/s

11) (a) New holes and conduction electrons are produced continuously throughout the
material due to temperature.
(b) is correct as barriers is formed by immobile positive and negative ions left behind after
mobile carriers combine. (c) is correct as biasing changes effective potential and temperature
and doping affect intrinsic carrier concentration and built in voltage. (d) is incorrect as
internal potential difference cannot be directly measured by an external voltmeter.

12) As the level of water in vessel decreases, the velocity of efflux will decrease. Hence it will
 take more time for next 3 litre of water to come out.

13) Reading of voltmeter = 8V

Current through 4Ω and 2Ω resistor = 2A

Current through 3Ω resistor =(8 + 4)/3 = 4A
Current in upper Branch = I2 = (4+2) = 6A ⇒ A2
Req of 5Ω, 10Ω, 30Ω in parallel

⇒
VEF = 6 × 3 = 18V
Current through 10Ω resistor

14)

15)

λ = 5 × 10–7 m
λ = 5000 Å

16)

Potential energy stored in capacitor

as battery is connected, it will keep the potential difference constant

So, U ∝ C
on insterting dielectric, C will increase
So U will also increase.
Also battery maintains the potential as constant.
So, if capacitance is varied, the value of charge will vary.
⇒ That means, Assertion is true but reason is a false statement.

17)

18)

As
which is less river flow (VR), so man will reach in the downstream point (C)
For crossing time

Now displacement of along the river flow

Shift = (VR – VMR sin 37°) t
Shift = (4 – 3) (1.5) = 1.5 km

19) Kmin = 0

= = 3.1 – 1.8 = 1.3

Kmax = 1.3 eV now work done by electric field
= 1.5 eV
so on reaching collector = 1.3+1.5 = 2.8eV
= 0 + 1.5 = 1.5 eV

20)

h = 9R

21)

Work done = W = q0 (VB–VA) = q0(VC–VA)

Here → VC – VA =

22) (P)
(Q) Direction would be along the line joining the center.

(R)
(S) At center ε-field would be zero.

23)
Substitute values :

=
≈ 4 × 10–3 N/m2

24)

If f > fr,
then XL > XC
Circuit nature is inductive.

25) Rectifier: Converts AC to DC, removing AC fluctuations.

Stabilizer: Ensures consistent voltage output regardless of input variations.
Transformer: Adjusts the voltage (step-up/step-down) based on the turns ratio.
Filter: Removes any ripple from the rectified DC signal by smoothing it.

26)
= 3 atm
27)

Acc to kepler's law.

dA = ×T

28)

4t – 8 + 4t = 0
t = 1 sec

29) From displacement method.

For first position of lens :

⇒ 2x = x + 30 ⇒ x = 30 cm

30)

FAD = (d1 = 5 cm)

FBC = (d2 = 30 cm)

Fnet = FAD – FBC
Fnet = 1.25 × 10–4 N

31)

A = A0e–Kt ⇒ ℓnA = –Kt + ℓnA0

y = mx + c ⇒ K =
ℓn(4) = – (K)t + ℓn(8)
Kt = 3ℓn2 – 2ℓn2 = ℓn2

=t= = 30 s

32) Total energy of C12 nuclie

= 12 × 7.68
= 92.16MeV
Similarly energy of C13 nuclie
= 13 × 7.47 = 97.11 MeV
ΔE = (97.11 – 92.16) = 4.95 MeV

33)

For a circular current carrying loop, magnetic filed at it's center & magnetic moment is given
as.

--------(1) {∵ A = πR2

M = iA --------(2) {∴
Eq. (2)/Eq. (1)

34)

= = A.B

35) id =

=
= 1.6 × 10–9 Amp

36) P = KV
PV–1 = constant
 Q = nC ΔT
= 1 × 3R (2T0) = 6 RT0

37) Δn = n1 – n2 ⇒ 4

=
⇒

38) As Given , F = 2100N, A = 100cm2 , Δx = 0.25 cm , L = 10 cm

N/m2

39)

If RAB = R

⇒R=1+
⇒ R(2+R) = 2 + R + 2R
⇒ R2 – R – 2 = 0
⇒ R = 2Ω

40)
When both move opposition direction.

when both move in same direction.

41) 9 MSD = 10 VSD, 1 MSD = 0.1 cm, LC = 0.01cm

(a) When both jaws are closed : ZE is negative ;
MSR = 0 cm, VSR = – (10–4) × 0.01 cm ; ZE = – 0.06 cm
(b) During measurement : MSR = 3.5 cm ; VSR = 6 × 0.01 cm = 0.06 cm
Corrected reading of diameter = 3.5 cm + 0.06 cm + 0.06 cm = 3.62 cm

42)

General body : - A = 20m2 ; er = 0.8

t = 1min = 60sec ; (Q)GB = ?
Ideal black body : - (I)IBB = 200 watt/m2

er = ⇒
⇒ (I)GB = 0.8 × (I)IBB
⇒ (I)GB = 160 watt/m2

⇒ = 160
⇒ Q = 160 × A × t
⇒ Q = 160 × 20 × 60
⇒ Q = 192000J ⇒ = 192kJ

43) By WET
Wfriction + Wspring = ΔKE

⇒ x = 5.5 cm

44)

in air → ...(1)

In medium → ...(2)
Now equation (1) divided by (2)

fm = 60 cm

45) = =

Reading of = TPD of E1 ⇒ 1.45 = E + ir1

 ⇒ 1.45 = 1.3 + r1

⇒ = 0.15 ⇒ 4r1 = 3r1 + 3r2

⇒r1 = 3r2

CHEMISTRY

46) NCERT, Class12th , Part-I , Article No : 3.4,

[Link] : 79,80. Edition-2023-2024.

0
47) Zero Order : r = K[A]

First Order : Rate α [A]1, t1/2 =

Second Order : Rate α [A]2, t1/2 =

Rate Doubling : If [A] is quadrupled and rate doubles ⇒ rate α [A]0.5 → (Half order).

48) π1 = π2
(i1CRT) = i2(CRT)
i1 = i2
for Ca(NO3)2 & Na2SO4 ⇒ i = 3

49) (i) The vapor pressure of a liquid decreases with an increase in temperature. This
statement is incorrect. Vapor pressure increases with increasing temperature. Higher
temperatures provide more kinetic energy to the liquid molecules, allowing them to escape
into the gas phase more readily.
(ii) The liquid boils at the temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to the
atmospheric pressure.
This statement is correct. Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the
surrounding pressure (usually atmospheric pressure).
(iii) Vapor pressure of the solvent decreases in the presence of a non-volatile solute.
This statement is correct. This is known as Raoult's Law. A non-volatile solute reduces the
number of solvent molecules at the surface of the liquid, hindering their escape into the vapor
phase and thus lowering the vapor pressure.
(iv) Vapor pressure of the pure solvent and solution is a function of temperature.
This statement is correct. As discussed in statement (i), temperature directly affects vapor
pressure for both pure solvents and solutions.

50)

Given
A2– + B → A + B2–

B2– + C → No reaction
C2– + A → C + A2–

Conclusion

51) • Incorrect — PbO2 is the cathode, not the anode.

• Incorrect — Electrolyte is ~38% H2SO4, not 50%.
• Correct — During discharge, PbO2 → PbSO4 at the cathode.
• Incorrect — On charging, H2SO4 concentration increases, not decreases.

52) Molality =

53) 0.1 mol NH3 contain 0.1 mol N and 0.3 mol H atom

%H (by mass) = × 100 = 17.65%

and no. of atoms = 0.1 × 6.023 × 1023 × 4

54) • de-Broglie wavelength: λ = h / (mv)

• Uncertainty principle: Δx · Δp ≥ h / (4π)
• Given: Δx = λ / (4π)
Solution:
Δx · Δp = (λ / 4π) · Δp = h / 4π ⇒ Δp = h / λ

But ΔP = mΔv = h / λ ; Δv =
Δv = v

55) Original: KC = [Q]2 [R]

At new equilibrium,
KC = [2Q]2 [R]' = 4[Q]2 [R]'
From both equation (I) and (II)
[Q]2 [R] = 4 [Q]2 [R]'

⇒ [R]' =

56) For precipitation [Zn2+] [Cl–]2 > Ksp.

57)
58) ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

= – 90 –
= –92 kcal/mole
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

= –92 kcal –
= –92 kcal + 100 Kcal
= +8 kcal

equilibrium temp. =

59) By applying Hess law.

ΔH°solution = ΔH°lattice + ΔH°hydration

60)

FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O + KMnO4 Mn+2 + Fe+3

Fe2+ → Fe3+ ;
change in oxidation state = 1 → n-factor = 1;
Equivalent weight = 392 / 1 = 392

61) v/s Z graph ⇒ straight line.

62) NCERT Page No. # 85

63)

Bond order = [Nb – Na]

H2+ (1 electrons): σ1s1→ BO = 0.5
He2 (4 electrons): σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2 → BO = 0
N2+ (13 electrons): σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​ = ,​ → BO = 2.5

O2– (17 electron): σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ,​ =​ ,​ =​ → BO = 1.5

Hence, a–r, b–p, c–s, d–q.
Final answer :- (1)

64)

Multiple bond called as single super pair

 65)

66)

NCERT Pg. no. # 112

For greater covalent character of an ionic bond (i) small cation (ii) large anion.

67) Concept: EAN

Solution:

A. In sodium nitroprusside, Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], the complex ion is [Fe(CN)5NO]2–.

B. The oxidation number of iron (Fe) is calculated as +2 (with NO considered as NO+).
C. The coordination number of iron is 6 (five CN– and one NO ligand).
D. The Effective Atomic Number (EAN) of iron is

The EAN formula is: EAN = Z - Oxidation State + Electrons from Ligands.
= 26 - 2 + 12 = 36.

68)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 134

69) • (A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]: Square planar → cis/trans geometrical isomerism → correct.

• (B) Optical isomers: Non-superimposable mirror images → called enantiomers → correct.
• (C) Chlorophyll: Contains magnesium in a porphyrin ring → correct.
• (D) Ethylenediamine (en): Bidentate ligand, not monodentate → incorrect.
Final Answer: Option (2)

70)

Concept :- Oxyacid's of Phosphorus

Solution :-
(1) Correct order of acids eq H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
(2) H3PO4 → Oxidising agent
H3PO3 → Can act as both oxidising and reducing agent
H3PO2 → Reducing agent
(3) H3PO2 is monobasic oxide
(4) This is these statement as in all oxyacids phosphorus is tetrahedral in nature.
Answer :- 4
The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three
71)

Solution : C60 actually contains 12 pentagonal and 20 hexagonal rings, not the reverse.
Hence, the given statement about ring count is incorrect.
Final Answer: Option (3)

72)

1. Kernite:
Kernite is a borate mineral with the chemical formula Na2B4O7·4H2O.
This match is correct.
2. Borax:
Borax is another borate mineral with the chemical formula Na2B4O7·10H2O. This match is
incorrect. The correct formula for borax has 10 water molecules, not 8.
3. Cryolite:
Cryolite is a fluoride mineral with the chemical formula Na3AlF6.
4. Phosphinic Acid:
Phosphinic acid (also known as hypophosphorous acid) has the chemical formula H3PO2.
This match is correct.
Answer:
Option : 2

73) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 225

Fact for vanadium, Zn has fulfilled confi.

74)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 238

75)

(A) Lake Test → Al+3

(B) Nessler's Reagent →
(C) Potassium sulphocyanide → Fe+3
(D) Brown ring Test →

76)
4–Chloro–2–ethyl–3–methylpenta–2, 4–dienal
77)

78)

1. Statement (1): Aniline is a Lewis base and reacts with the Lewis acid catalyst AlCl3 (used in
Friedel-Crafts) to form a deactivating salt. This prevents the reaction. This statement is
Correct.
2. Statement (2): The -NH2 group is highly activating and very susceptible to oxidation. Direct
nitration with strong oxidizing acids (conc. HNO3 + H2SO4) leads to the formation of tarry
oxidation products. This statement is Correct.
3. Statement (3): In the strongly acidic nitration medium, aniline is protonated to form the
anilinium ion (C6H5NH3+). This -NH3 group is a deactivating, meta-directing group, leading to
+

a substantial yield of m-nitroaniline. This statement is Correct.

4. Since statements (1), (2), and (3) are all correct, the correct option is (4).

79)

The reactions of benzenediazonium chloride can be matched as follows:

(A) The reaction of a diazonium salt with CuCl/HCl is the Sandmeyer reaction (iv), which yields
chlorobenzene.
(B) The reaction with Cu/HCl is the Gattermann reaction (iii), which also forms chlorobenzene.
(C) The reaction is the Balz-Schiemann reaction (ii), which yields fluorobenzene.
(D) The reaction with phenol in an alkaline medium is a Coupling reaction (i), which forms an
azo dye.
All these reactions are nucleophilic aromatic substitutions. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i).

80)

FACT

81)

All CH3 groups are at maximum distance.

82)
A & C are position isomer.

83)
Benzylic substitution occurs by FRSR

84)

Answer Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct → Denaturation occurs by change in pH and temperature.
Statement 2: Incorrect → Denaturation does not affect the primary structure (sequence of
amino acids).
Statement 3: Correct → Denaturation leads to loss of secondary and tertiary structure.
Statement 4: Correct → Sequence of amino acids remains unchanged.
Thus, the incorrect statement is loss of primary structure.

85)

86) NCERT fact

87)

88)

CH3 – Cl CH3–CH3

CH3 – CH2 – COONa CH3–CH3

CH3–Cl CH3–CH3

CH3–Cl CH4

89)

Presence of Chiral carbon.

90)

Bredt's Rule
BIOLOGY

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NCERT Page No. # 114, 115

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112) NCERT-12th_ Pg. # 244, 245

113) NCERT-12th (Eng)_ Pg. # 245

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115) NCERT XII (Eng) pg. # 236

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133) NCERT Pg # 97

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148) NCERT pg. # 208

149) NCERT Pg. # 223, 224, 225

150) NCERT Page No. # (E) 223, 224, 225 (H) 244, 245, 246

151) NCERT Page No. # (E) 233, 224, 225, (H) 244, 245, 246

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Module

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िहं दी - Pg. # 137,172

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िहदी_Pg. # 149

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179) New NCERT XI, Pg. # 83

180) Old NCERT XI, Pg. # 111 and 115