14-02-2026

6201CMD30300125ELITE021 MD

PHYSICS

1) A heat engine is a device :-

(1) which converts mechanical energy into heat energy

(2) which converts heat energy into mechanical energy
(3) absorbs heat from a sink at a lower temperature and rejects to the source at high temperature
(4) none of the above

2) If the mass shown in figure is slightly displaced and then let go, then the system shall oscillate

with a time period of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

A particle executing SHM represented by

Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Position of the particle) (Time)

(A) Maximum positive

(i) 0
displacement

(B) Maximum positive velocity

(ii)
 (C) Maximum negative
acceleration (iii)

(D) Maximum positive

(iv) T
acceleration

(E) Zero displacement

(v)
(1) A – ii; B – iv; C – iii; D – v; E – i
(2) A – i; B – iv; C – v; D – iii; E – ii
(3) A – iii; B – (i, iv); C – iii; D – v; E – (i, ii, iv)
(4) A – (i, iii); B – (iii, iv); C – v; D – (i, ii); E – (iv, v)

4) If in a linear SHM, time is counted from positive extreme position, then which of the given graphs
will demonstrate this SHM? ( displacement from mean position)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A particle executing S.H.M. has a maximum acceleration 60 cm/sec2 and maximum speed of 30
cm/sec the time period of oscillation :-

(1) π sec

(2)

(3) 2π sec

(4)

6) Starting from the mean position a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 2s. Its
kinetic energy will become 75% of the total energy after
(1)
sec.

(2)
sec.

(3)
sec.

(4)
sec.

7) A sound is produced in water and moves towards surface of water and some sound moves in air.
Velocity of sound in water is 1450 m/s and that in air is 330 m/s. When sound moves from water to
air then the effect on frequency f and wave length λ will be :-

(1) f and λ will remain same

(2) f remains same but λ decrease
(3) f remains same but λ increase
(4) f increase and λ decrease

8) Stationary waves are produced in 20 m long streched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments
and wave velocity is 40 m/sec, then the frequency is-

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 5 Hz
(3) 4 Hz
(4) 2Hz

9)

The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 N/m2
pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 × 105
N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in m/s is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) When a metalic sheet is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC its area increases by 0.05%. What is the
coefficient of superficial expansion :-

(1) 5 × 10–3/ºC
(2) 5 × 10–4/ºC
(3) 5 × 10–5/ºC
(4) 5 × 10–6/ºC
11) Liquids A and B are at 30°C and 20°C. When their equal masses are mixed, the temperature of
the mixture is found to be 26°C. The specific heats of A and B are in the ratio of

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 4 : 3

12)

Statement I :- In transverse wave particle velocity is perpendicular to the direction of wave velocity.
Statement II :- In wave motion energy is always transfered in the direction of wave propagation.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

13) The equation of a progressive wave is given by y = 5sin(100πt – 0.4πx) where y and x are in m
and t is in s :-
(a) The amplitude of the wave is 5 m.
(b) The wavelength of the wave is 5 m.
(c) The frequency of the wave is 50 Hz.
(d) The velocity of the wave is 250 m s–1.

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) All are correct

14) For a closed organ pipe, match the entries of column I with the entries of coloum II.

Column-I Column-II
Third overtone frequency is x
(A) times the fundamental (P) 3
frequency. Here x is equal to
Number of nodes in second
(B) (Q) 4
overtone
Number of antinodes in
(C) (R) 5
second overtone
(S) 7
(1) A → S, B → P, C → P
(2) A → R, B → P, C → Q
(3) A → P, B → R, C → Q
(4) A → R, B → P, C → P

15) The variation of PV graph with V of a fixed mass of a ideal gas at constant temperature is
graphically represented as shown in figure:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A string vibrates according to the equation cos20πt, where x and y are in cm
and t in sec. The distance between two adjacent nodes is :-

(1) 3 cm
(2) 4.5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

17) In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressure P1 and P2 ?
(1) Cannot be predicted
(2) P2 = P1
(3) P2 > P1
(4) P2 < P1

18) A gas is taken through the path A → B → C → A, as shown, What is the work done by the gas for A

→ B → C path ?

(1) –2000 J
(2) 2000 J
(3) 1000 J
(4) Zero

19) Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the pressure of
A being thrice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 2 times the density of
B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

20) The volume of a poly atomic gas compressed adiabatically to of the orginal
volume. If the original pressure of the gas is P0 then new pressure will be :

(1) 16P0
(2) 81P0
(3) 264 P0
(4) None of these
21) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Freezing point of water (p) 0 K

(b) Boiling point of water (q) 0°C

(c) Maximum density of water (r) 100°C

(d) Absolute zero (s) 4°C

(1) (a)–(p), (b)–(r), (c)–(s), (d)–(r)
(2) (a)–(q), (b)–(r), (c)–(s), (d)–(p)
(3) (a)–(p), (b)–(s), (c)–(r), (d)–(q)
(4) (a)–(r), (b)–(q), (c)–(p), (d)–(s)

22) According to kinetic theory of gases :-

(A) Collisions are always elastic
(B) There is no force of attraction among the molecules
(C) Only a small number of molecules have very high velocity
(D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

23) A monoatomic molecule has

(1) 1 degree of freedom

(2) 3 degree of freedom
(3) 5 degree of freedom
(4) 6 degree of freedom

24) If 10 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 g water at 20°C, the final temperature will be:- (
, )

(1) 50°C
(2) 10°C
(3) 0°C
(4) 15°C

25) One mole ideal gas is compressed adiabatically at 27°C. Its temperature becomes 102°C. The
work done in this process will be : (γ = 1.5)

(1) -1245 J
(2) -625 J
(3) 1245 J
(4) 625 J

26) An iron bar 1 m long and 10–3 m2 in cross-sectional area is heated from 0°C to 100°C without
being allowed to bend or expand. Find the compressive force developed inside the bar. (Young's
modulus = 1011 N/m2, = 10–6/°C)

(1) 10,000 N
(2) 1000 N
(3) 5000N
(4) 105 N

27) Suppose there is a hole in a copper plate. On heating the plate, diameter of hole, would :

(1) always increase

(2) always decrease
(3) always remain the same
(4) none of these

28) Oxygen and Hydrogen are at the temperature T. The ratio of the mean kinetic energy of oxygen
molecule to that of the Hydrogen molecule will be-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

29) An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the
figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which

represents the adiabatic process among 1,2,3 and 4 is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

30) One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes. It firstly
undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at
constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two processes is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB.

When path ACB is used, 60 J of heat flows into the system and 30 J of
work is done by the system. If path ADB, is used work done by the system is 10 J. The heat Flow into
the system in path ADB is:

(1) 80 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 40 J

32) Match list-I with list-II for ideal gas and select correct answer :-

List-I List-II

A Isothermal process P No heat exchange

 B Adiabatic process Q Constant internal energy

C Isochoric process R Constant pressure

D Isobaric process S Work done is zero

A B C D

(1) Q P R S

(2) P Q R S

(3) Q P S R

(4) P Q S R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) In the cyclic process shown in the V-P diagram, the magnitude of the work done is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P(P2V2 – P1V1)

34) A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y = 0.25 cos (2πt – 2πx). The equation
of a wave is with double the amplitude and half frequency but travelling in the opposite direction in
the same medium will be

(1) y = 0.5 cos (πt + πx)

(2) y = 0.5 cos(2πt – 2πx)
(3) y = 0.25 cos(πt + 2πx)
(4) y = 0.5 cos(4πt + 4πx)

35) An ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial state i to final state f. Choose the
correct alternatives.
(1) dU = 0
(2) dQ = dU
(3) dQ = dW
(4) Both (1) & (3) correct

36) A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting
all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

(1) 4 RT
(2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT
(4) 11 RT

37) A diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. the fraction of the heat energy used to increase
the internal energy is.

(1) 3/5
(2) 3/7
(3) 5/7
(4) 7/9

38) A cyclic process ABCD is shown in figure P-V diagram. Which of the following curves represent

the same process?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A gas is expanded from volume V1 to volume V2 in three processes, shown in the figure. If UA, UB,
UC and UD represent the internal energies of the gas in state A, B, C and D respectively, the which of

the following is not correct

(1) UB – UA > 0
(2) UC – UA = 0
(3) UD – UA < 0
(4) UB = UC = UD
40) The phase difference between two points is π/3. If the frequency of wave is 50 Hz, then what is
the distance between two points? (given v = 330 m/s)

(1) 2.2 m
(2) 1.1 m
(3) 0.6 m
(4) 1.7 m

41) Match the following :

Column I Column II
(A) Conversion of a liquid into solid is (p) Regelation
(B) Conversion of a liquid into vapour is (q) Sublimation
Conversion of solid into vapour
(C) (r) Freezing
directly
(D) Melting of ice caused by pressure is (s) Vaporisation
(1) A - r, B - s, C - p, D - q
(2) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(3) A - q, B - p, C - s, D - r
(4) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s

42) A wave motion is described by y(x, t) = asin(kx - ωt). Then the ratio of the maximum particle
velocity to the wave velocity is:

(1)

(2)

(3) ka
(4) ωa

43) The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional change in
the density of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is :-

(1) 0.010
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.020
(4) 0.025

44) Match the following columns for the processes with ideal gas :-

Column-I Column-II

A Isothermal process 1 ΔQ = ΔU

B adiabatic process 2 ΔQ = 0

C Isochoric process 3 ΔU = 0
 D Cyclic process 4 ΔQ = ΔW

Choose the correct option regarding above columns.

(1) A=2,3, B=1, C=2, D=3,4
(2) A=3,4, B=1, C=2, D=2,1
(3) A=3,4, B=2, C=1, D=3,4
(4) A=1,2, B=2, C=1, D=3,4

45) A solid material is supplied with heat at a constant rate. The temperature of material is changing
with heat input as shown in the figure. What does slope BC represent.

(1) latent heat of liquid

(2) latent heat of vapour
(3) heat capacity of solid
(4) inverse of heat capacity of liquid

CHEMISTRY

1) Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of their reactivity towards ESR :-

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > B > A > C
(3) B > D > A > C
(4) D > A > B > C

2) Find the product "X" :-

+ Br–Cl "X"

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In the nitration of benzene which of the following act as electrophile ?

(1)

(2)
(3) HNO3
(4)

4) Which of the following reaction is known as friedal craft reaction :-

(1)

(2) CH4 + SO2 + Cl2 CH3–SO2Cl

(3)

(4) CH2 = CH2 CH3–CH2–Cl

5) What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of

FeBr3 ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) In which of the following compound meta directing group is absent ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following reaction result in the formation of cumene?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Most reactive compound towards ESR is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A ; A can be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) No reaction

10) In the reaction the major product formed is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) The major product in the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Cumene is prepared by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

13) Which can form benzoic acid on heating with KMnO4/H⊕ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All
14) Z ; Identify Z :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?

(1) group activates the benzene ring for the attack of an electrophile at o and p- positions
(2) Halogens are moderately deactivating group in the case of aryl halides
(3) Chlorobenzene is more reactive than benzene towards the electrophilic substitution reaction
(4) is a meta directing group

16) What is the final product (B) in the following reaction?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following is major product of given reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

18)
Y is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following compound does not give benzoic acid on reaction with acidified potassium
permanganate ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Identify the position where electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is most favourable :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A & C

21) In the sequence of the given reaction identify 'X' and 'Y' :-

X Y

(1) Triozonide Glyoxal

(2) Diozonide Succinic acid

(3) Mono ozonide Benzoic acid

(4) Tri ozonide Benzaldehyde

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
22) What is the hybridization of the central atom in SiO2.

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) sp3d

23) Which of the following reaction is/are correct?

–
(1) BCl3 + H2O → [B(OH)4]

(2) AlCl3 + H2O [Al(H2O)6]3+

+3 –
(3) 2Al(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2Al (aq) + 6Cl (aq) + 3H2(g)
(4) All of these

24) The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tℓ increases in the sequence

(1) Tℓ < In < Ga < Al

(2) In < Tℓ < Ga < Al
(3) Ga < In < Al < Tℓ
(4) Al < Ga < In < Tℓ

25) Inorganic graphite is :-

(1) B3N3H6
(2) B2H6
(3) (BN)X
(4) BF3

26) Maximum number of atoms in same plane in B2H6 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8

27) The ion(s) that act/s as an oxidising agent in solution is/are

(1) Tl+3 & Al+3

(2) Tl+3 only
(3) Tl+
(4) B+3 only

28) H3BO3 Acid Anhydride

In the given chemical reaction, acid is :-

(1) Orthoboric acid

(2) Metaboric acid
(3) Pyroboric acid
(4) Boron sesqueoxide

29) In BX3, the B–X bond length is less than the theoretical value, Because (X = F)

(1) sp3 hybridisation of B, is responsible for B–X small bond length

(2) Due to back bonding B–X have double bond character
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Due to large size of X, B–X bond length decreases

30) Which of the following do not contain dangling bonds–

(1) Diamond
(2) Fullerene
(3) Graphite
(4) All of these

31) Borax Na2B4O7 . 10H2O is actually :-

(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O
(2) Na2[B4O4(OH)6].7H2O
(3) Na2[B4O3(OH)8].6H2O
(4) Na2[B4O2(OH)10].5H2O

32)

The repeating structure unit in silicone is :

(1) SiO2

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) In the structure of diborane :-

(1) All hydrogen atoms lie in one plane and boron atoms lie in a plane perpendicular to this plane.
2 boron atoms and 4 terminal hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane and 2 bridging hydrogen
(2)
atoms lie in the perpendicular plane.
4 bridging hydrogen atoms and boron atoms lie in one plane and two terminal hydrogen atoms
(3)
lie in a plane perpendicular to this plane.
(4) All the atoms are in the same plane.

34) The hybrid states of central atom in diborane, diamond and graphite are respectively :-

(1) sp2, sp3, sp2

(2) sp3, sp3, sp2
(3) sp3, sp3, sp3
(4) sp, sp2, sp3

35) Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the structure of diborane.

(1) All the terminal B-H bond length are equal.

The terminal B-H bond is a 2-centre,
(2)
3-electron bond.
The terminal B-H bond is a 2-centre,
(3)
2-electron bond.

(4)
The bridge is a 3-centre, 2-electron bond.

36) Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

(1) B2H6
(2) BN
(3) B
(4) B4C

37) Which one of the following has highest Lewis acid strength ?

(1) BI3
(2) BBr3
(3) BF3
(4) BCl3

38) How many banana bond in B2H6?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) The number of OH units directly linked to boron atoms in Na2B4O7.10H2O is -

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 10

40) Which of the following properties correctly explain SiO2

(1) Linear, basic

(2) Tetrahedral, acidic
(3) Tetrahedral, basic
(4) Linear, acidic

41)

The best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds is

(1) Crystallisation
(2) Distillation
(3) Sublimation
(4) Chromatography

42) In Dumas method for the estimation of nitrogen the sample is heated with copper oxide and the
gas evolved is passed over :

(1) Ni
(2) Copper gauze
(3) Pd
(4) Copper oxide

43) In given question total correct Statements are:

(i) Dumas method is used for estimation of nitrogen.
(ii) Kjeldahl's method is used for estimation of nitrogen.
(iii) Carius method is used for Halogen only
(iv) I2O5 is used during estimation of phosphorus.
(v) (NH4)3.PO4.12MoO3 is used for estimation of phosphorous

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

44) Statement I : Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorous present in organic compound
cannot be detect directly, they are identify by Lassaigne's test.
Statement II : The element present in the compound are converted from covalent form into the
ionic form by fusing the compound with sodium metal.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I and II both are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I, II both are incorrect

45) Which method is used to separate different fractions of Crude oil in petroleum industry?

(1) Sublimation
(2) Crystalisation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Chromatography

BOTANY

1) Main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells, is :-

(1) Nucleoplasm
(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell membrane

2) According to five kingdom system of classification Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Euglena, Amoeba

and paramoecium are placed in which kingdom?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

3)

‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ (i.e., living fluid infectant) term has given by

(1) Mayer
(2) Ivanowsky
(3) Beijerinck
(4) Bawden and Pirie

4)

Coenocytic mycelium is a characteristic feature of

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes
5) Choose the incorrect match :-

(1) Deuteromycetes - Agaricus

(2) Phycomycetes - Albugo
(3) Basidiomycetes - Ustilago
(4) Ascomycetes - Aspergillus

6) Typhoid, Mumps and Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are caused by, respectively :-

(1) Bacteria, Virus and Prions

(2) Virus, Bacteria and Mycoplasma
(3) Bacteria, Bacteria and prions
(4) Virus, Prion and Bacterium

7) Antherozoids of Bryophytes are :-

(1) Biflagellated spores

(2) Biflagellated gametes
(3) Multiflagellated spore
(4) Female gamete

8)

In pteridophytes reductional division occurs in

(1) Capsule
(2) Sporangium
(3) Gametophyte
(4) Prothallus

9) Pyrenoids are made up of protein & starch, They are located:-

(1) in the chloroplast

(2) on the chloroplast
(3) in the cytoplasm
(4) in the thylakoid

10) Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B, C and D):-
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

11) In mosses, the predominant stage of life cycle is :-

(1) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage sporophyte.
(2) The sporophytic green protonema and the green leafy stage.
(3) The gametophytic green protonema and the gametophytic leafy stage.
(4) The non-green protonema and the green leafy stage gametophyte.

12) Microtubules are absent in :-

(1) Axoneme of cilia

(2) Astral rays
(3) Centrosome
(4) Centromere

13) Select the wrong match :-

(1) Aleuroplast – Protein storage

(2) Elaioplast – Fat/oil storage
(3) Amyloplast – Starch storage
(4) Etioplast – Chlorophyll storage
14) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans

(2) It has 70S type of ribosome in organelles like plastids present in the cytoplasm
(3) Compartmentalisation is present
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present

15)

Statement I: Regeneration of RuBP is the crucial step for the Calvin cycle to continue the cycle
uninterrupted.
Statement II: ER helps in transport of substances, synthesis of protein, lipoprotein and glycogen.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

16) A cell organelle, that is present in animal cells but absent in almost all in plant cells is?

(1) Centrosome
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondrial
(4) Golgi complex

17) The length and width of chloroplast is :-

(1) 5 – 10 μm, 2 – 4 μm
(2) 1 – 4 μm, 0.5 μm
(3) 2 μm, 1.5 μm
(4) None of these

18)

Families included in order polymoniales are mainly based on

(1) Floral characters

(2) Number of leaves
(3) Colour of fruit
(4) Vegetative characters

19) Dyad of cells are formed after:-

(1) Prophase I
(2) Telophase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Anaphase I
20) A tetrad of meiosis-I consists of :-

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres

21) Read the following statements:

(A) Complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the beginning of the second phase of
mitotic karyokinesis.
(B) During metaphase, spindle fibres attaches to kinetochore of chromosomes.

(1) Only (B) is correct

(2) Both (A) & (B) are incorrect
(3) Only (A) is correct
(4) Both (A) & (B) are correct

22) If a diploid daughter cell formed after mitosis has 16 chromosomes and 2C content of DNA,
what would have been the chromosome number and DNA content in its parent cell ?

After G1 phase
(1) Content of DNA = 1C
Number of chromosomes = 16
After S-phase
(2) Content of DNA = 2C
Number of chromosomes = 32
After S-phase
(3) Content of DNA = 4C
Number of chromosomes = 16
In G2 phase
(4) Content of DNA = 2C
Number of chromosomes = 8

23) Find out the correct match ?

(1) Metaphase - Decondensation of chromosomes

(2) Anaphase - Splitting of centromere
(3) Telophase - DNA synthesis
(4) S-phase - Chromosomes become double

24) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence :-

(A) Terminilisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction of chromosomes
(E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

25) Axillary bud is derived from:-

(1) Root apical meristem

(2) Phellogen
(3) Shoot apical meristem
(4) Mesophyll of leaf

26) Tepals of Gramineae family is termed as :-

(1) Ligules
(2) Lodicules
(3) Glumes
(4) Spurs

27) Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represent the

related floral formula :-

(1) Pea
(2) Brinjal
(3) Lily
(4) Mustard

28) Match the following column l and column ll :

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii

29)

Assertion (A): Monstera and banyan tree show adventitious roots.

Reason (R): In these plants roots arise from part of plant other than radicle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

30) Bicarpellary ovary with false septum and unequal length of stamens in its flower is seen in :

(1) Solanum
(2) Brassica
(3) Aloe
(4) Sesbania

31)

Statement-I: Cuticle is absent in root.

Statement-II: Trichomes are present on young stems.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

32) Bulliform cells present on :-

(1) Both sides of dicot leaf

(2) Upper epidermis of monocot leaf
(3) Upper and lower epidermis of leaf
(4) Lower epidermis of dicot leaf
33) In stem, the metaxylem lies toward ............ and protoxylem lies toward the ............ respectively.

(1) Below, above

(2) Centre, periphery
(3) Periphery, centre
(4) Pith, pericycle

34) Dicot stem differs from dicot root in

(1) presence of cortex

(2) absence of endodermis
(3) absence of pericycle
(4) presence of hypodermis

35) A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is :-

(1) Presence of p-protein

(2) Enucleate condition
(3) Thick secondary walls
(4) Pores on lateral walls

36) How many PGAL are produced by glycolysis of 3 molecules of glucose? How many ATP are
released by respiration of these PGAL till formation CO2 and H2O?

(1) 4 PGAL-40 ATP

(2) 6 PGAL-120 ATP
(3) 4 PGAL-80 ATP
(4) 6 PGAL-160 ATP

37) Which one of the following is complex V of the ETS of inner mitochondrial membrane ?

(1) NADH dehydrogenase

(2) ATP synthase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Ubiquinone

38) FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of which of the following ?

(1) α-ketoglutrate → Succinyl CoA

(2) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
(3) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(4) Fumaric acid → Malic acid

39)

The electron carrier between complex III and IV is

(1) Water soluble
(2) Cyt C
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) UQ

40) During Photosynthesis, Synthesis of ATP occurs due to ........ process.

(1) Photophosphorylation
(2) Oxidative Phosphorylation
(3) Phosphorylation at substrate level
(4) All of the above

41) As compare to a C3 plant how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of
one molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plant ?

(1) 0
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 12

42) Statement-I : Light and dark reaction are directly light driven.
Statement-II : Stroma lamellae lack PS-II and NADP reductase.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

43) Assertion : O2 release occurs at grana thylakoid.

Reason :- Photolysis of water is associated with PS-II present on grana thylakoid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

44) Which one of the following hormone plays important role in seed development, maturation and
dormancy :-

(1) ABA
(2) IAA
(3) GA
(4) CK

45) In the expression of exponential growth 'r' is referred to as?

(1) Growth rate
(2) Efficiency index
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Time of growth

ZOOLOGY

1) Which structure is not correctly matched with its physiological function in cockroaches?

(1) Gastric caecae – digestion

(2) Malpighian tubules – Excretion
(3) Trachea – Respiration
(4) Ocellus – Vision

2) Total number of ganglia present in nervous system of cockroach ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 13

3) Find the odd one out :-

(1) Exocoetus
(2) Catla
(3) Clarias
(4) Scoliodon

4) Choose the correct statement:

(1) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.

(2) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum
(3) All mammals are viviparous
(4) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.

5) Notochord is restricted in tail of ?

(1) All chordates

(2) Hemichordates
(3) Urochordates
(4) Cephalochordates

6) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II
 A. Porifera i. Canal system

B. Aschelminthes ii. Water-vascular system

C. Annelida iii. Muscular pharynx

D. Arthropoda iv. Jointed appendages

E. Echinodermata v. Metameres
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – v, D – iv, E – i
(2) A – ii, B – v, C – iii, D – iv, E – i
(3) A – i, B – iii, C – v, D – iv, E – ii
(4) A – i, B – v, C – iii, D – iv, E – ii

7) The phylum in which often females are longer than males is-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

8) Select the incorrect statement for frog :-

(1) Frog has the ability to change its body colour

(2) Internal fertilization takes place in frog
(3) Sexual dimorphism is present in frog
(4) Frog shows indirect development

9) Which option is not correct for adult Rana tigrina?

(1) Excretory product – Ammonia

(2) Respiratory structure– Lungs and skin
(3) Heart – 3 chambered
(4) Alimentary canal – short

10) Assertion :- Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by

neurotransmitters.
Reason :- Transmission across a synapse usually requires neurotransmitters because there is small
space, synaptic cleft, that separates one neuron from another.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

11) The correct sequence of meninges from outer to the inner side is

(1) Arachnoid – piamater – duramater

(2) Arachnoid – duramater – piamater
(3) Piamater – arachnoid – duramater
(4) Duramater – arachnoid – piamater

12) Antagonistic hormone of parathormone is

(1) ADH
(2) Insulin
(3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) Thyroxine

13) Match List - I with List - II

List - I List - II

Establish a barrier that prevents

(a) (i) leakage of extracellular fluid across
Adhering junctions
a layer of cells

Functions like rivets and fasten

(b) Tight junctions (ii)
cells together into strong sheets

Pass information through neuro-

(c) Gap junctions (iii)
transmitters from one cell to another

Provide cytoplasmic channels from

(d) Synaptic junctions (iv) one cell to adjacent cell for
communication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

14)

Some enzymes require metal ions for their activity 'X' is a cofactor for proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase. Here 'X' is

(1) Magnesium
(2) Zinc
(3) Iron
(4) Copper

15) Match List - I with List - II.

List -I List – II
C = C double
(a) Protein (i)
bonds
 Unsaturated Phosphodiester
(b) (ii)
fatty acid bonds
Glycosidic
(c) Nucleic acid (iii)
bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

16) Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure :

(1) Inulin, insulin

(2) Chitin, Cholesterol
(3) Glycerol, trypsin
(4) Cellulose, lecithin

17) The acid insoluble fraction of the tissue has

(1) Amino acids, Proteins and nucleic acids

(2) Monosaccharides and polysaccharides
(3) Nucleic acids, nucleotides and nitrogen base
(4) Proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides and lipids

18)
Above structure shows which biomolecule ?

(1) Adenosine
(2) Alanine
(3) Lecithin
(4) Cholesterol

19) Select the incorrect match about the disorders of excretory system.

(1) Artificial kidney - Uremia

(2) Renal failure - Kidney transplantation
(3) Renal calculi - Mass of cholesterol
(4) Glomerulonephritis - Inflamation of glomeruli of kidney

20) The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through
(1) endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
(2) epithelium of Bowman's capsule
(3) basement membrane between these two layers
(4) all the above

21) If DCT is removed from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected ?

(1) There will be no urine formation

(2) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(3) The urine will be more concentrated
(4) The urine will be more dilute

22) Read the following statements :-

(A) Peripheral nervous system is divided into somatic nervous system & autonomic nervous system.
(B) Central nervous system includes brain & vertebral column.
(C) Afferent nerve fibre transmit impulse from CNS to organ.
How many of the above statements is/are false ?

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & A
(4) All

23)

Which of the following is/are not correctly matched ?

(a) Ball and socket joint : Between humerus and glenoid cavity of scapula.
(b) Pivot joint : Between carpal and meta carpal
(c) Saddle joint : Between atlas and axis.

(d) Gliding joint : Between the carpals.

(1) b and c
(2) a and d
(3) a only
(4) b only

24) Choose the wrong options for myosin filaments-

(1) These are thicker in diameter

(2) HMM has an active site for actin
(3) The LMM has an active enzyme ATPase
(4) These are rich in mitochondria

25) Which of the following is responsible for right shift of O2 dissociation curve ?

(1) Low PCO2

(2) High PO2
(3) Less H+
(4) Low pH

26) Select the incorrect statement about heart :

(1) Human heart has four chambers

(2) Left ventricle is largest
(3) S.A. node present in left ventricle
(4) Left auricle recieve blood from lungs

27) The cardiac output of a person is 4.2 lit/minute and pulse rate is 60/minute. Calculate the stroke
volume :

(1) 70 ml
(2) 90 ml
(3) 3.80 ml
(4) 100 ml

28) Identify the type of pulmonary volume / capacity on the basis of quantity of air present in the
lungs given below.
(I) 1100 ml to 1200 ml.
(II) 500 ml.
(III) 5000 ml to 6000 ml.
Choose the correct option ?

(1) I – Vital capacity , II – Functional residual capacity , III – Residual volume

I – Residual volume , II – Tidal volume ,
(2)
III – Total lung capacity
(3) I – Expiratory capacity , II – Inspiratory capacity , III – Residual volume
(4) I – Tidal volume , II – Inspiratory reserve volume , III – Expiratory reserve volume

29) The respiratory and cardiac centres are located in:-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Diencephalon
(3) Crura cerebri
(4) Medulla oblongata

30) Matching of source and function.

(1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth, and maintenance of mammary glands.

(2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of the sleep-wake cycle.
Progesterone - corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex
(3)
organs.
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure.
31) Read the following statments:-
Statement-I :- Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory
rhythm to suit the demand of body tissue.
Statement-II :- Pneumotaxic center can moderate the function of respiratory rythm centers.

(1) Statement-I and II are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but II is incorrect
(4) Statement-II is correct but I is incorrect

32) The typical Lubb-Dub sounds heard in the heart beat of a healthy person are due to :-

(1) Closing of the tricuspid and bicuspid valve

(2) Blood flow through the aorta
(3) Closing of the AV and semilunar valves
(4) Closing of the semilunar valves

33) When heart muscles are suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply, this condition called
as :

(1) Heart failure

(2) Heart attack
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) Congentive heart failure

34) Some statements are given, read them and choose disorder :-
(i) Allergic condition
(ii) Difficulty in breathing
(iii) Increased IgE
(iv) Wheezing sound

(1) Emphysema
(2) Anthracis
(3) Silicosis
(4) Asthma

35) Statement - I : Hypothalamus regulate the urge for eating

Statement - II : Medulla contain gastric secretion region which regulate Hypothalamus for eating.

(1) Statement - I and Statement - II both are correct.

(2) Statement - I is correct but Statement II incorrect
(3) Statement - II is wrong but Statement - I is correct.
(4) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are wrong.

36) What is the role of the midbrain?

(1) Processing auditory and visual information

(2) Regulating hunger and thirst
(3) Controlling hormone secretion
(4) Coordinating voluntary movements

37) Identify the amino acids marked as A, B and C :-

(1) A = Alanine, B = Serine, C = Glycine

(2) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Arginine
(3) A = Glutamic acid, B = Serine, C = Alanine
(4) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Alanine

38) Which of the following structures/cells of testes is incorrectly matched with its functions?

(1) Seminiferous tubules - Spermatogenesis

(2) Sertoli cells - Secretion of FSH
(3) Interstitial cells - Secretion of testosterone
(4) Sertoli cells - Nourishment of developing spermatogenic cells

39)

Responses of the endocrine system are _________ and __________ than the responses of the nervous
sytem.

(1) rapid, long-lasting

(2) rapid, briefer
(3) slower, long-lasting
(4) slower, briefer

40) Blood flows through lungs and back to the heart is called :-

(1) Unidirectional circulation

(2) Branchial circulation
(3) Pulmonary circulation
(4) Cutaneous circulation

41) During a cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out approximately A ml of blood. Which is called
B :–

(1) A = 5000 ml, B = Cardiac output

(2) A = 70 ml, B = Stroke volume
(3) A = 50 ml, B = Endsystolic volume
(4) A = 50 ml, B = stroke volume
42) Find the true statement for ctenophora:

(1) Locomotion by comb like ciliary plates

(2) Asexual reproduction by budding
(3) Fertilisation only internal
(4) Tentacles are two or multiples of two

43) Ammonia which is produced by metabolism is converted into ___________ in the liver of mammals
and released into ___________ which is filtered and ___________ out by kidney

(1) A–Uric acid, B–Blood, C–excreted

(2) A–Urea, B–Blood, C–excreted
(3) A–Amino acid, B–Blood, C–excreted
(4) A–Sugar, B–Blood, C–excreted

44) The effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney is to increase the

(1) Excretion of water

(2) Excretion of Na’
(3) Permeability of the DCT of nephron to water
(4) None of the above

45) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 'F' actin and two other protein namely........and.......?

(1) Troponin and Myosin

(2) Troponin and Actin
(3) Troponin and Tropomyosin
(4) Actin and Myosin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 4 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 2 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 (2) 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 1 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) The equivalent situation is a series combination of two springs of spring constants k and 2k.
If is the equivalent spring constant, then

3)

4)

6)

7)

8)

9) v ∝

⇒ ⇒v= m/s

10)

11)
 12)

13) The equation of a given progressive wave is

y = 5 sin(100πt – 0.4πx) .....(i)
The standard equation of a progressive wave is
y = a sin(ωt – kx) .....(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii), we get
a = 5 m, π = 100π rad s–1, k = 0.4πm–1
(1) Amplitude of the wave, a = 5 m

(2) Wavelength of the wave, λ =

(3) Frequency of the wave, υ =

(4) Velocity of the wave, v = υλ = (50 s–1) (5m)
= 250 m s–1

14) For pth overtone

n = (2P + 1)
No of nodes = No of antinodes = P + 1

15)

16)

Question Explanation : We need to find the separation between two adjacent nodes on the
strings, from the given equation.

Concept :Stationary waves in strings.

Solution :

, comparing with equation

⇒ λ = 3 cm,
distance between two adjacent nodes = λ/2 = 1.5 cm.

Final answer : Option(4)

17) PV = μRT ⇒

As θ2 > θ1 so
18) WABC = Area enclosed with volume axis

=
= 2000 J

19) ⇒

21) Conceptual.

24)

25)

26)

27)

28)

29)

1 : Isochoric
2 : Adiabatic
3 : Isothermal
4 : Isobaric

30) I → Isothermal expansion from

V → 3V (T = constant)
II → compressed at constant pressure from
3V → V (P = constant)
32)

(A) T = const. :
(B) Adiabatic : Q = 0
(C) V = const. : W = 0
(D) Isobaric : P = const.

33)

34)

35)

36) U = U1 + U2
=

=
= 5RT + 6RT = 11RT

37)

38)

39)
 40)

41)

Sublimation : Process of converting solid into vapour directly.

42)

43)

fractional change =
= 1 – (1 + γΔT)–1
= 1 – (1 – γΔT)
∵ (1+x)n 1 + nx
= γΔT
= 5 × 10–4 × 40 = 0.020

44) In isothermal process ΔT = 0 ⇒ ΔU = 0

ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW ⇒ ΔQ = 0 + ΔW
= ΔW ⇒ A → 3,4
In adiabatic process, ΔQ = 0 ⇒ B → 2
In isochoric process, ΔV = 0 ⇒ ΔW = PΔV = 0
⇒ ΔQ = ΔW + ΔU
⇒ ΔQ = 0 + ΔU = ΔU ⇒ C → 1
In cyclic process,
ΔU = 0, ΔQ = 0 + ΔW = ΔW ⇒ Δ → 3,4

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) Reactivity towards ESR ∝

47)
 48) act as electrophile in nitration of benzene.

49)

50)

51)

A) Question Explanation: The problem asks which compound does not contain a meta-
directing group.
B) Concept Used: Electron-withdrawing groups (EWGs), Electron-donating groups (EDGs),
Directing Effects, Activating and deactivating groups.
C) Answer Explanation: Meta-directing groups are typically strong electron-withdrawing
groups (–NO2, –CHO, –COOH, –CN, –SO3H, etc.) that deactivate the benzene ring and direct
incoming electrophiles to the meta position.

Both CH3 and OH are o,p-directing NO2, CHO, –COOH → meta directing
D) Final Answer: Option 3

52)

53)

Question Explanation : Identify most reactive towards ESR

Concept : ESR

Solution :

Rate of ESR ∝ no. of activating groups attached to benzene ring.

Both –OH and –CH3 groups are activating groups and increase electron density in the benzene
ring. So, ring becomes most reactive towards ESR.

Final answer : Option (3)

54) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about product of reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on In dioubotituted benzene if both the groups are +I/+M then
electrophile attack according to the group having more +I/+M.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (1)

55) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about product of reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on electrophile attack at electron rich site.

Solution :
Final Answer :
Option (4)

56) Explain Question :

Product of reaction

Concept : This Question is based on Electrophile attack at electron rich site.

Solution :

Final Answer :
option (4)

57) Question Explanation : Cumene is prepared by.

Concept : Freidel craft alkylation reaction.
Solution :
Final Answer : Option (4)

58) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about compound that forms benzoic acid on heating with KMnO4/H⊕.

Concept :
This question is based on Oxidation of side chain of aromatic hydrocarbon by strong oxidizing
agent KMnO4/H⊕.

Solution :
→ If carbon attached to benzene contains hydrogen or unsaturation then in presence
of KMnO4/H⊕ it is oxidized to bonzoic acid irrespective of number of carbon atoms.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

59) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about Product of reaction :

Concept :
This question is based on electrophile attack at electron rich site.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (1)

60) Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzene towards the electrophilic substitution reaction
due to -I effect.
61)

62) Explain Question – Major product.

Concept – This question based on Preparation of Cumene.

Solution –

Final Answer – Option (2)

63) Explain the question : Identify product y.

Concept : This question is based on oxidation followed by halogenation.
Solution :
 Final answer : 2

64) Explain Question – Compound that do not form benzoic acid on reaction with acidified
potassium Permanganate.[KMnO4]

Concept – This question based on Oxidation of side chain of aromatic hydrocarbon by strong
oxidizing agent KMnO4 / H+.

Solution –
Carbon attached to Benzene ring it contains hydrogen or unsaturation then it is oxidized to
benzoic acid irrespective of number of carbon atoms in presence of strong oxidizing agent
KMnO4 / H+.

Final Answer – Option (3)

65) Explain Question – Identify the position where attack of electrophile is most Favorable.

Concept – This question based on

A. Electrophile attack at electron rich site

B. +I / +M group increases electron density at ortho para position.

Solution –
Final Answer – Option (2)

66)

Explaining the Question :- Identify 'x' and 'y' in reaction sequence.

Concept:- This question is based on Ozonolysis of Benzene.
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (1)

67) SiO2/(SiO2)n has polymeric structure sp3 hybridised

68)

NCERT-XI, Pg.#319

69) In group 13, 14, 15 stability of lower oxidation state increases down the group (Inert pair
effect).
 70)

Concept: (Inorganic graphite)

(BN) (Born nitride):

A. Boron nitride can exist in various forms, including a layered hexagonal form that is isoelectric
and isostructural with graphite.
B. This form is often called inorganic graphite.

Final Answer Hence, option (3) is correct.

71)

Explanation -

The question asks you to determine the maximum number of atoms in a diborane (B₂H₆)
molecule that can lie in the same plane.

Concept - Diborane

Solution -
The two boron atoms and the four terminal hydrogen atoms lie in one plane ( total 6 atoms).

Final Answer - Option (3)

72)

Explain the Question : Identify which ion (s) behave as oxidising agents in aqueous solution.
Concept : This question is based on inert pair effect.
Solution : Tl3+ is unstable and readily gets reduced to the more stable Tl+ due to the inert pair
effect, hence acts as a strong oxidising agent; Al3+ and B3+ are stable.
Final answer : 2

73)

Explain Question : Question is asking about the acid in the given chemical reaction.

Concept : This question is based on General chemical reaction.

Solution :
H3BO3 HBO2 B2O3
HBO2 = Metaboric acid
Final Answer : option (2)

74) Explain Question: State why B–F bond in BF₃ is shorter than a single bond.
Concept: Back bonding
Solution: The F lone pair is donated to the vacant B(2p) orbital (pπ–pπ back bonding). This
introduces partial double bond character to the B–F bond, which makes the bond shorter
and stronger than a theoretical single bond.
Final Answer: Option (2)

75)

Explanation -

The question asks in which of the provided carbon allotropes (diamond, graphite, fullerene)
dangling bonds are absent.

Concept - allotropes of carbon

Solution -
Dangling bonds are absent in fullerene because its carbon atoms form a closed, cage-like
structure (like C60) where each carbon's valency is satisfied by bonding to three others,
leaving no unbonded electrons.

Final Answer - Option (2)

76)

Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O

77) Silicon is repeating unit of R2SiO

78) Explanation - Question asking about structure of Diborane.

Concept - Diborane Structure
Solution -

B2H6 Diborane

2 boron atoms and 4 terminal hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane and 2 bridging hydrogen
atoms lie in the perpendicular plane.

Final Answer - 2
 79)

Explain the Question : Determine hybridization of central atoms in three compounds.

Concept : This question is based on hybridization.
Solution : In diborane, B is sp3 (three bonds, one 3-center-2elecron bond). In diamond, C is sp3
(tetrahedral). In graphite, C is sp2 (planar layers).

Final answer : 2

80) Asking for: identifying the incorrect statement about the structure of diborane (B2H6)

Concept: Structure of diborane

Solution:
1. All the terminal B-H bond length are equal:

A. Diborane has two type of B-H bond: terminal and bridging

B. The terminal B-H bonds are normal covalent bonds and are equal in length
C. This statement is correct.

2. The terminal B-H bond is a 2-centre, 3-electron band,

A. A 2-centre, 3-electron band involves two atoms sharing three electrons. This is not the case in
diborane's terminal B-H bonds.
B. The terminal B-H bonds in diborane are regular 2-centre, 2-electron bonds (a regular covalent
bond where two aloms share two electrons)
C. This statement is incorrect.

3. The terminal B-H bond is a 2-centra, 2-electron bond.

A. As explained above, the terminal B-H bonds are normal covalent bonds where two atoms share
two electrons
B. This statement is correct.

4. The bridge BHB is a 3-contre, 2-electron bond.

A. Diborane has a unique structure with two bridging hydrogen atoms.

B. Each B-H-B bridge involves three atoms (two Boron and one Hydrogen) sharing only two
electrons. This is called a 3-centre, 2-electron bond.
C. This statement is correct.

Answer: Option: 2

81)

BN → called as inorganic graphite.

82)
 Explain the Question : Identify which boron trihalide shown the greatest tendency to accept
an electron pair.
Concept : This question is based on Lewis acid strength in boron trihalides.
Solution : Lewis acid strength increases as back bonding (pπ–pπ) from halogen to boron
decreases. Back bonding is strongest in BF3 and weakest in Bl3. Hence Bl3 is the strongest
Lewis acid.
Final answer : 1

84)

85) Explain Question: Identify structure and acid–base nature of SiO₂.

Concept: Covalent network structure & acidic oxide.
Solution: SiO₂ has a giant covalent structure where each Si atom is tetrahedrally bonded to
four O atoms. It reacts with bases → acidic in nature.

Final Answer: Option (2)

86) Question Explanation:

Identify the best and latest technique for the isolation, purification, and separation of organic
compounds.

Concept:
Purification Techniques, Analytical Chemistry, Modern Separation Science.

Solution:
Modern separation science prioritizes techniques offering high resolution, efficiency, and
speed for complex mixtures.

A. Crystallisation and sublimation are only suitable for solids.

B. Distillation is effective for liquids based on boiling point but is often inefficient for complex or
trace mixtures.
C. Chromatography (e.g., HPLC, GC) is the correct answer because it is the most powerful and
versatile family of techniques.

Versatility: Separates mixtures based on differential distribution between two phases

(stationary and mobile).
Efficiency: Standard method for separating components with extremely similar properties,
crucial for high-purity and trace analysis.

Therefore, Chromatography is generally considered the best and latest technique for separation and
purification

Final Answer: Option(4)

87) Explaining the Question – It is asking which substance the evolved gas is passed over
during the Dumas method of nitrogen estimation after the sample is heated with CuO.
Concept – Dumas Method is used to determine the percentage of nitrogen in an organic
compound.
Solution –
The compound is burned in the presence of copper oxide (CuO) which acts as an oxidizing
agent.
Nitrogen gas (N₂) and other gases like CO₂, H₂O, and oxides of nitrogen (NO, NO₂) are formed.
These nitrogen oxides are reduced to nitrogen gas (N₂) by passing them over heated copper
gauze.
NO+Cu→N2 +CuO
Copper here acts as a reducing agent to convert NO (and NO₂) to nitrogen gas (N₂).
Final Answer : (2)

88) Question Explanation:

The question asks how many given statements about estimation methods of elements are
correct.

Concept:
Dumas method, Kjeldahl method, Carius method, Estimation of phosphorus.

Solution:
(i) Dumas method → used for nitrogen estiation. Correct
(ii) Kjeldahl's method → also used for nitrogen estimation. Correct
(iii) Carius method → used for helgen and sulphur, not halogen only. Incorrect,
(iv) I2O5 → used for estimation of carbon (oxidises CO to CO2), not phosphorus. Incorrect,
(v) (NH4)3.PO4.12MoO3 → yellow ppt used for phosphorus estimation. Correct

Total correct statements = 3.

Final Answer: Option(2)

89) Statement I is correct because these elements are covalently bonded and
require conversion into ionic salts for detection.
Statement II is also correct because fusion with sodium metal converts elements
like nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens into water-soluble ionic forms such as NaCN, Na2S and
NaX.

90) Fractional distillation

BOTANY

91) Question Explanation : It is asking: Which part of the cell is the main site where most
biochemical and physiological activities occur in both plant and animal cells?
Concept : Cytoplasm
Solution : Cytoplasm is the site where most metabolic activities take place → glycolysis,
protein synthesis, cell signaling, organelle functions, etc.
Final Answer : Option (3)

92)

Kingdom Protista includes unicellular eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi.
Organisms like Amoeba and Paramoecium are protozoans, while Chlamydomonas, Chlorella,
and Euglena are types of unicellular algae or algae-like protists.

93)

Ncert page 20.

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

95)

Ncert page 17 and 18.

96)

Ncert page 14.

97)

Ncert page 29.

98)

Ncert page 30.

99)

Ncert page 26.

100) Ncert page 28 and 31.

 101) Ncert page 29.

102)

Microtubule is made up of Tubulin protein which is absent in centromere.

104)

Ncert page 91 and 98.

105)

Ncert page 102.

106)

Ncert page 91.

107)

Ncert page 98.

108)

Ncert page 7.

109) Ncert page 127.

110) Question Explanation

Composition of a meiotic tetrad.

Concept

Meiosis-I: Tetrad structure.

Solution

During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up in a process called synapsis.

Each chromosome at this stage consists of two sister chromatids. The paired homologous
chromosomes together form a bivalent, which is also known as a tetrad because it consists of
four chromatids (two from each homologous chromosome). Since each chromosome has its
own centromere, a bivalent (or tetrad) contains two centromeres.

Final Answer

Four chromatids and two centromeres

111) Ncert page 123.

112)

Based NCERT Page No. 122

113) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 121, 123, 124.

114)

Ncert page 126.

115) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 85 (old)

Module page

116)

Allen module.

117)

Ncert page 68.

118)

Ncert page 64.

119)

Ncert page 58.

120) Ncert page 65.

121)

Ncert page 72.

122)

Ncert page 76.

123) Ncert page 74.

 124) Ncert page 74 and 75.

125) Allen module page 89.

126)

Ncert page 156.

127)

Ncert page 160.

128)

Ncert page 159.

129)

Ncert page 160.

130)

Ncert page 140.

131)

Allen module.

132)

Pg. No. 136 - XI NCERT

133)

Ncert page 144.

134) The hormone that plays a crucial role in seed developments maturation, and dormancy is
Abscisic Acid (ABA).

135) Ncert page 170.

ZOOLOGY
136)

Old Ncert page 112.

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

138)

NCERT page no.57

139)

NCERT page no.56,57,58,59

140)

NCERT page no.55

141)

NCERT page no.49 to 54

142) NCERT pg. no. 52.

143)

Ncert page 83.

144)

Ncert page 83.

145)

NCERT Pg. # 319

146) Fact based question-module

147)

NCERT Pg. No. 243

148) Concept :
Intercellular junction
Formula : Solution/Explanation :
Intercellular junction and their functions

149)

NCERT Pg. # 159

150)

Ncert page 109 to 111.

151)

Inulin, insulin

152)

Question Explanation : Insoluble fraction of tissue

Concept : This question is based on Tissue analysis - Chemical

Solution : Protein, Nucleic Acid, Polysaccharide,

Lipids → Acid insoluble fraction → Most of the Macromolecules

Final Answer : option (4)

153)

Ncert page 107.

154)

NCERT Page No. # 298

155)

Ncert page 208.

156)

Ncert page 210.

157)

NCERT, Pg # 316
 158)

Question Explanation: We need to identify which joints are not correctly matched.

Concept: Joints

Solution:

A. (a) Ball and socket joint — Between humerus and glenoid cavity of scapula - Correct
(Shoulder joint)

B. (b) Pivot joint — Between carpal and metacarpal - Incorrect — Pivot joint is between
atlas and axis (neck region), not carpal–metacarpal.

C. (c) Saddle joint — Between atlas and axis - Incorrect — Saddle joint is present between
carpal and metacarpal of thumb. Atlas–axis is a pivot joint.

D. (d) Gliding joint — Between the carpals - Correct

So, incorrect matches are : (b) and (c)

Final answer: Option 1

159)

Ncert page 221.

160) NCERT Pg. # 274

161)

NCERT XI # 284,285

162)

Allen module.

163)

Let's analyze each volume/capacity and match it to the given values:

(I) 1100 ml to 1200 ml

A. This volume corresponds to the residual volume (RV). Residual volume is the amount of air
remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation.
 (II) 500 ml

A. This volume corresponds to the tidal volume (TV). Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled
or exhaled during normal breathing.

(III) 5000 ml to 6000 ml

A. This volume corresponds to the total lung capacity (TLC). Total lung capacity is the
maximum volume of air the lungs can hold.

Matching to the Options

A. I - Residual volume
B. II - Tidal volume
C. III - Total lung capacity

Therefore, the correct answer is:

2. I – Residual volume , II – Tidal volume , III – Total lung capacity

164)

NCERT XI Pg. No. 236

166) NCERT Page # 275

167)

Ncert page 199.

168) NCERT XIth Pg.#288

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275, Para-4

170) XIth NCERT Pg. # 236

171)

Ncert page 236.

172) NCERT Pg. # 145

173)

Ncert Page 338.

174)

Ncert Page 331.

175)

Ncert page 201.

176) NCERT para : 18.3.2 pg. 285

177)

Ncert page 42.

178)

Question Asking About :

Asks to fill in the blanks

Solution :
Ammonia is a toxic byproduct of protein metabolism. In the liver of mammals, it is converted
into a less toxic substance called urea through the urea cycle. This urea is then released into
the blood, which transports it to the kidneys. The kidneys then filter the blood and excrete the
urea in the urine.
Therefore, the correct sequence is Urea, Blood and excreted.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

179) Question Explanation: Asks you to arrange the given steps in the correct sequence to
illustrate how the body regulates fluid balance through the ADH pathway.
Explanation:

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), also called Vasopressin, is released from the posterior
pituitary gland and plays a key role in water reabsorption in the kidneys. ADH increases
the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting ducts to water,
allowing more water to be reabsorbed into the bloodstream, reducing urine output.

Correct Sequence of Events:

1 Excessive loss of fluid (Dehydration or low blood volume).

2 Stimulation of osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus due to increased blood osmolarity.
3. stimulation of the hypothalamus, which senses dehydration and triggers ADH release.
4 Release of ADH (Vasopressin) from the posterior pituitary gland.
5 ADH facilitates water reabsorption from distal tubules and collecting ducts, reducing
water loss in urine.
6 Increase in body fluid levels switches off osmoreceptors, suppressing further ADH
release.
This negative feedback mechanism ensures fluid balance in the body!
Therefore the correct sequence is: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: The correct answer is option (1)

180)

Ncert page 221.