08-09-2024

1001CMD303055240007 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional change in
the density of glycerin for a rise of 20°C in its temperature, is :-

(1) 0.010
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.020
(4) 0.025

2) A new scale of temperature (which is linear) called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of
water are 39°W and 339°W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale,
corresponding to a temperature of 39°C on the Celsius scale ?

(1) 200° W
(2) 156° W
(3) 78° W
(4) 117° W

3) A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-half of the heat produced
is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is :
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]

(1) 34 km
(2) 544 km
(3) 136 km
(4) 68 km

4) When the ideal gas from a big container is shifted into a small container then pressure increases
because

(1) The velocity of the molecule increases

(2) The energy of the molecule increases
(3) The molecules strikes the wall of the container more often.
(4) The momentum of the molecule increases

5) For hydrogen gas CP – CV = a and for nitrogen gas CP – CV = b then the relation between a and b is
(where CP & CV are gram specific heats)

(1) a = 16 b
(2) b = 16 a
(3) a = 14b
(4) None of these

6) A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at
wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's constant, b
= 2.88 × 106 nmK. Which of the following is correct?

(1) U1 = 0
(2) U3 = 0
(3) U1 > U2
(4) U2 > U1

7) An object kept in a large room having air temperature of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool from 80°C
to 70°C. The time taken to cool for the same object from 70°C to 60°C would be nearly :-

(1) 10 min
(2) 12 min
(3) 20 min
(4) 15 min

8) Three stars A, B, C have surface temperatures TA, TB, TC respectively. Star A appears bluish, star B
appears reddish and star C yellowish. Hence,

(1) TA > TB > TC

(2) TB > TC > TA
(3) TC > TB > TA
(4) TA > TC > TB

9) A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all made of same substance and all have same mass.
These are heated to 200°C and then placed in a room, then the :

(1) Temperature of circular plate drops to room temperature at first.

(2) Temperature of cube drops to room temperature at last
(3) Temperature of thin circular plate drops to room temperature at last
(4) Temperature of all the three drops to room temperature at the same time

10) Two rods made of copper and steel are connected in series such that both are of same length
and their free ends are maintained at 100°C and 0°C. If conductivity of copper is 4 times of steel
then find the temperature of junction assuming them of same cross section.

(1) 20°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 60°C
(4) 80°C
11) Two monoatomic ideal gas at temperature T1 and T2 are mixed. There is no loss of energy. If the
mass of molecules of the two gases are m1 and m2 and number of their molecules are n1 and n2
respectively, then temperature of the mixture will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°[Link] density is : (R
= 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 0.02 kg/m3

(2) 0.5 kg/m3
(3) 0.2 kg/m3
(4) 0.1 kg/m3

13) A vessel has 6g of oxygen at pressure P and temperature 400 K. A small hole is made in it so that
oxygen leaks out. How much oxygen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2 and temperature is 300 K ?

(1) 3g
(2) 2g
(3) 4g
(4) 5g

14) A particle moves 15 m in east direction. Suddenly it takes a sharp right turn and moves 20 m in
South direction. The direction of displacement of the particle can be written as :-

(1) 37o S of E
(2) 53o S of E
(3) 37o N of E
(4) 53° N of E

15) Assertion (A) :- If the displacement of a body is zero, the distance covered by it may not be
zero.
Reason (R) :- The displacement depends only on end points while distance covered (path length)
depends on a actual path.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
16) If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/sec. then find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 11 m/sec.
(2) 8 m/sec.
(3) 6 m/sec.
(4) 7 m/sec.

17)

Mark the correct statement.

(1) If speed of a body is varying, its velocity must be varying and it must have zero acceleration
(2) If velocity of a body is varying, its speed must be varying
(3) A body moving with varying velocity may have constant speed
A body moving with varying speed may have constant velocity if its direction of motion remains
(4)
constant

18)

The velocity of a particle moving on the x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in m/s and X is in m.
Find its acceleration in m/s2 when passing through the point X = 2m :-

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 11
(4) 30

19) A car starts traveling with constant acceleration along a straight track. It travels 22 m distance
in the sixth second. The constant acceleration of the car is :-

(1) 8.8 ms–2

(2) 4 ms–2
(3) 2 ms–2
(4) Cannot be calculated

20) An object is dropped from the top of a tower. It travels a distance 'x' in the first second of its
motion and a distance '7x' in the last second. Height of the tower is (take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 60 m
(2) 70 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 90 m

21) Two particles are projected vertically upwards with the same velocity on two different planets
with acceleration due to gravities g1 and g2 respectively. If they fall back to their initial points of
projection after lapse of time t1 and t2 respectively, then
(1) t1 t2 = g1 g2
(2) t1g1 = t2 g2
(3) t1 g2 = t2 g1
(4) t1 + t2 = g1 + g2

22) The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The maximum acceleration in m/s2 is:-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

23) A ball is projected with kinetic energy E at an angle of 45° to the horizontal. At the highest point
during its flight, its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) E/2
(3)
(4) E

24) A body is thrown with some velocity from the ground. Maximum height attained when it is
thrown at 60° to the horizontal is 90 m. What is the height attained when it is thrown at 30° to the
horizontal ?

(1) 90 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 15 m

25) The speed at the maximum height of a projectile is time of its intial speed 'u' of projection.
Its range on the horizontal plane :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26)

The maximum value of y = sin x cos x is :

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

27)

The value of (sin 180° + cos90°)2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

28) If y = a(1 – cosx) where a is constant then find =?

(1) a (1 + sinx)
(2) a (sinx)
(3) –a cosx
(4) a (cos2x)

29) is :-

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 2

(4)

30) The value of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) For equation y = 2x – 5, plot a curve between x and y :–

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

32) If and | | = 5 units, | | = 3 units, | | = 4 units. Then angle between and is-

(1) 0°
(2) 37°
(3) 53°
(4) 90°

33) A particle is being acted upon by four forces of 30 N due east, 20 N due north, 50 N due west
and 40 N due south. The resultant force will be :-

(1) ° south to west

(2) ° south west
(3) ° north to east
(4) ° south to east

34)

Given that , if , then find out vector .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
35) Find the projection of on

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1)

Steam at 100°C is added slowly to 1400 g of water at 16°C until the temperature of water is raised
to 80°C. The mass of water present in the mixture

(LV = 540 cal/g) :

(1) 160 g
(2) 125 g
(3) 250 g
(4) 1560 g

2) A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 1000 watt power at 500 K. If the radius
were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :-

(1) 450
(2) 4000
(3) 1800
(4) 225

3) N molecules of an ideal gas at temperature T1 and pressure P1 are contained in a closed box. If the
molecules in the box gets doubled, Keeping total kinetic energy same. If new pressure is P2 and
temperature is T2, Then :

(1) P2 = P, T2 = T1
(2) P2 = P1, T2 = T1 / 2
(3) P2 = 2 P1, T2 = T1
(4) P2 = 2P1, T2 = T1 / 2

4) Two coaxial cylinders of radius R and 2R have conductivities K1 and K2. The ends of the cylinder
are maintained at temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). The equivalent conductivity of the system is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If the r.m.s. velocity of hydrogen becomes equal to the escape velocity from the earth surface,
then the temperature of hydrogen gas would be-

(1) 1060 K
(2) 5030 K
(3) 8270 K
(4) 104 K

6) A body moves from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and from B to C with a speed of 60 km/hr. If
AB = 6 BC, then average speed of the body between A to C is :-

(1) 21 km/hr
(2) 42 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr
(4) 48 km/hr

7) The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the equation : x = 8 + 12t – t3, where
x is in meter and t in second :-
(i) The initial velocity of particle is 12 m/s
(ii) The retardation of particle when velocity is zero is 12 m/s2
(iii) When acceleration is zero, position is 8m
(iv) The maximum velocity of particle is 12 m/s

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii ,iii
(4) All options are correct

8) A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After 2 seconds, another body B starts from rest
with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal distances in the 5th second. after the start of A, then the
ratio a1 : a2 is equal to :-

(1) 5 : 9
(2) 5 : 7
(3) 9 : 5
(4) 9 : 7

9)
A man in a balloon rising vertically with an acceleration of 5 m/s2 releases a ball 2 sec after the
balloon is let go from the ground. The greatest height above the ground reached by the ball is : (g =
10 m/sec2)

(1) 15 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 25 m

10) A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and t2 be the times at which it is at height h above
the point of projection while ascending and descending respectively, then h is :

(1) ½g t1 t2
(2) g t1 t2
(3) 2g t1 t2
(4) 4g t1 t2

11) Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at an angle 30°
and 60° with horizontal respectively. The ratio of their ranges respectively is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) :2
(2) 2 :
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 9

12) A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1.

When it is projected with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal, it reaches maximum
height H2. The relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is:-

(1)
(2) R = 4 (H1 – H2)
(3) R = 4 (H1 + H2)

(4)
R=

13) A stuntman plans to run along a roof top and then horizontally off it to land on the roof of next
building. The roof of the next building is 4.9 metres below the first one and 6.2 metres away from it.
What should be his minimum roof top speed in m/s, so that he can successfully make the jump ?

(1) 3.1
(2) 4.0
(3) 4.9
(4) 6.2

14)
The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by , where x and y are
measured in meter, The maximum height attained by the projectile will be :-

(1) 5 m
(2) m
(3) 200 m
(4) 10 m

15) The area of the parallelogram whose sides are represented by the vector and is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Use the data to determine the orders of A and B in the reaction ; A + B → products

Experiment [A], mol L–1 [B], Mol L–1 Rate, mol L–1 s–1

1 0.10 0.10 0.009

2 0.20 0.10 0.036

3 0.10 0.20 0.018

(1) Rate = k [A] [B]
(2) Rate = k [A]2 [B]
(3) Rate = k [A] [B]2
(4) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2

2)

Consider the following statements.

(i) Zero order reactions are completed in the time equal to twice of half life.
(ii) Concentration of reactant in first order reaction decreases exponentially with time.
(iii) Half life of first order reaction is affected by temperature
(iv) Rate constant of endothermic as well as exothermic reaction increases with increase in
temperature
The correct statement(s) is/are –

(1) (i) & (iii)

(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) All are correct

3) For the reaction,

H2O2 + 2H+ + 3I– → I3– + 2H2O

–
(1) Rate of disappearance of H2O2 will be three times the rate of disappearance of I

(2)
Rate of disappearance of H2O2 is of rate of formation of I3–
– –
(3) Rate of disappearance of I ions will be three times the rate of formation I3 ions

(4)
Rate of formation of H2O is of rate of formation of I3–

4) A first order reaction R → P is 50% completed in 20 minutes, then time taken for 87.5 %
completion is -

(1) 60 minutes
(2) 80 minutes
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 50 minutes

5) In the given plot between and intercept and slope are

respectively–

(1)
log A,
,
(2)

,
(3)

(4)
log A,

6) In the reaction : P + Q → R + S the time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time taken for
50% reaction of P. The concentration of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the figure. The
overall order of the reaction is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 1

7) Assertion : Half life period decreases on increasing the temperature.

Reason : Half life period for first order reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

8) For the reaction

2H2 + 2NO → N2 + 2H2O
the following mechanism has been proposed :-
(i) 2NO N2O2 (fast)
(ii) N2O2 + H2 → N2O + H2O (slow)
(iii) N2O + H2 → N2 + H2O (fast)
then what will be the rate law of this reaction ?

2
(1) k[NO][H2]
(2) k[NO][H2]
0 3
(3) k[NO] [H2]
2
(4) k[NO] [H2]

9)

A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)

The curves M and N represent the variation of energy with reaction coordinate for the reaction in
absence and presence of catalyst

Which value represents the activation energy (Ea) for the backward reaction in the presence of
catalyst
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) S + P
(4) P + Q

10) Match the graphical study with the order of the reactions :

I II III
(1)
A B C
I II III
(2)
B C A
I II III
(3)
C B A
I II III
(4)
C A B

11) Which of the following forms maximum boiling azeotrope ?

(1) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3

(2) C6H6 and C6H5–CH3
(3) CCl4 + C6H6
(4) C2H5OH + H2O

12) Statement-I : In maximum boiling azeotrope, the boiling point of azeotrope is higher than
boiling point of its pure components.
Statement-II : In Azeotropic mixture, mole fraction of component in liquid & vapour phase are
equal.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I & statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I & statement-II is incorrect

13) Henry's law constant for the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mmHg.
Calculate the solubility (in mole fraction) of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.

(1) 178 × 10-5

(2) 278 × 10-5
(3) 10-3
(4) 10-6
14) If the pressure in a reaction vessel for the following reaction is increased by decreasing the
volume what will happen to the concentration of CO and CO2 ?
H2O(g) + CO(g) ⇌ H2(g)+CO2(g) + Heat

(1) Both the [CO] and [CO2] will decrease

(2) Neither the [CO] nor the [CO2] will change
(3) [CO] will decrease and [CO2] will increase
(4) Both the [CO] and [CO2] will increase

15) At 1000 K and 2 atm pressure, a gaseous mixture of CO(g) and CO2(g) in equilibrium with solid
carbon has 84% CO(g) by mass. Calculate KP for the reaction :
C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

(1) 14.73
(2) 28.4
(3) 32.62
(4) 8.52

16) for the following reaction will be

CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ CO2(g)

(1) RT

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) For which reaction KP < KC

(1) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(3) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)
(4) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)

18) Assuming the reaction A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ C(g) to be exothermic, the yield of the product (C)
increases with :-
(a) Increase in temperature
(b) Increase in pressure
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(e) Removal of (C)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b
(3) b & e
(4) a & e

19) Assertion : The reaction at equilibrium is not affected by changing the

volume.
Reason : Equilibrium constant KC does not depend on volume of the container.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

20) For the reaction 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) the value of KC = 17 mol2 L–2. If at some time the
concentration of NH3, N2 and H2 were found to be 0.20, 1.0 and 1.0 mol L–1 respectively. Then
determine the direction in which the reaction will move?

(1) Forward
(2) Backward
(3) Does not move
(4) Can't predict

21) The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of the container is reduced to half of its original
volume, the value of Kp for the reaction at the same temperature will be :

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 16
(4) 4

22) If K1 and K2 are the respective equilibrium constants for the two reactions :-
: K1
: K2
The equilibrium constant for the reaction will be

(1) K2/K1
(2) K1.K2
(3) K1/K2
(4) K1.K2.K3

23) Most stable Alkene is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which of the following has least pKa value :-

(1) CH3 –COOH

(2)

(3)

(4) Cl3C–COOH

25) Ka increases in benzoic acid, if substituent 'X' bonded at para position then 'X' is :-

(1) – CH3
(2) – NO2
(3) – CH2–CH3
(4) – OCH3

26) (I) (II) (III) (IV)

Which of the given compounds cannot exhibit tautomerism ?

(1) I and IV
(2) III and IV
(3) Only III
(4) Only IV

27) The correct stability order for the following carbocations is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

28) Which of the following has minimum heat of Hydrogination :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All have same HOH

29) Which of the following is minimum basic :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which is incorrect for stability order :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) Compare stability order of given free Radical

i. ii. iii. iv.

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i > ii > iv > iii
(3) ii > i > iv > iii
(4) ii > i > iii > iv

32) Which of the following is maximum basic –

(1) (C2H5)2NH
(2) (CH3)3N
(3) (CH3)2NH
(4) CH3NH2

33) Statement-I :- Phenol is million time more acidic than ethanol.

Statement-II :- CF3COOH is strongest organic carboxylic acid.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

34) Statement-I :- PhCH2NH2 is more basic than NH3.

Statement-II :- (C2H5)2NH is more basic than (CH3)2NH.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

35) Statement-I :- If molecule/ion has equivalent resonating structure then bond length will also be
equal.
Statement-II :- Electromeric effect dominates over inductive effect.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
 SECTION-B

1) For the reaction,

2NO(g) + 2H2(g) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
The rate expression can be written in the following ways :

The relationship between k1, k2, k3, k4 is :-

(1) k2 = k1 = k3 = k4
(2) k2 = 2k1 = k3 = k4
(3) k2 = 2k3 = k1 = k4
(4) k2 = k1 = k3 = 2k4

2) The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation k = 4.5 × 1011 e–28000/T , calculate Ea.

(1) 233 kJ mol–1

(2) 208 kJ mol–1
(3) 188 kJ mol–1
(4) 252 kJ mol–1

3) Which of the following statement is correct regarding Arrhenius equation :-

(1) A high activation energy implies a fast reaction.

Rate constant increases with increase in temperature due to increase in the number of
(2)
collisions.
Higher the magnitude of activation energy stronger the temperature dependence of rate
(3)
constant.
(4) Collision theory is applicable for all type of reactions.

4) Which integrated equation is correct for the following 1st order reaction started with only A(g) in a
closed rigid vessel :
A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g)
Pi = Initial pressure
Pt = Total pressure at time 't'

(1)
K=

(2)
K=

(3)
K=

(4)
K=
5) A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27°C and in 5 min at 47°C. The energy of
activation of the reaction is :

(1) 43.85 kJ/mol

(2) 55.14 kJ/mol
(3) 11.97 kJ/mol
(4) 6.65 kJ/mol

6) Assertion : Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm water.
Reason : At a given pressure, the solubility of oxygen gas in water increases with decrease in
temperature

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

7)

4 mole of HI is placed in a 10 L vessel initially. The equilibrium constant for the reaction : H2(g) +
I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) is 4. Find the equilibrium concentration of H2 ?

(1) 1.6 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.4 M
(4) 0.04 M

8) 9.2g of N2O4 is taken in a 2L vessel and heated till the following equilibrium is attained N2O4(g)
⇌ 2NO2(g). At equilibrium 50% N2O4 is dissociated calculate the Kc ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

9) Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container

N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)]
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the
following statements holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (KP) and degree of dissociation
(1)?

(1) neither KP nor α changes

(2) both KP and α change
(3) KP changes, but α does not change
(4) KP does not change but α changes

10) An endothermic reaction can be represented by the graph : (Kp is equilibrium constant)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The order of stability of following Tautomeric compound is :-

(1) II > III > I

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > II > I
(4) II > I > III

12) Which of the following order of pKa is correct ?

(1) RCOOH < ROH < HOH < HC≡CH
(2) RCOOH < HOH < ROH < HC≡CH
(3) RCOOH < HOH < HC≡CH < ROH
(4) RCOOH < HC≡CH < HOH < ROH

13) The decreasing order of stability of following carbocations is :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) II > III > I > IV

14) Statement-I : Carboxylic acid reacts with NaHCO3 to evolve carbon dioxide.
Statement-II : Carboxylic acids are weaker acids than carbonic acid.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

15) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Delocalisation of C–H σ(sigma) electron is hyper conjugation

(2) Delocalisation of π or lone pair of e– is called resonance
(3) Partial displacement of σ(sigma) bonded electron is inductive effect
(4) Electromeric effect is permanent effect

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given below:-

 A B C D

Red White Columnar

Mesophyll
(1) blood blood epithelial
cells
cells cells cells

White Red Columnar

Mesophyll
(2) blood blood epithelial
cells
cells ​cells ​cells

Red White Columnar

Mesophyll
(3) blood ​blood epithelial
​cells
​cells cells ​cells

White Red Columnar

Mesophyll
(4) ​blood blood epithelial
​cells
cells ​cells ​cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Double stranded circular DNA in human cell is observed in :

(1) Nucleus
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) 2 and 3 both

3) Match the cell organelles given in column-I with their function in Column-II and select the correct
option given below :
 Column-I Column-II
(Cell organelle) (Function)

A. Golgi body P. Protein synthesis

B. Ribosome Q. Formation of glycoprotein

C. Lysosome R. Hydrolysis of macro molecule

D. Mitochondria S. Oxidation of food

(1) A:Q, B:P, C:S, D:R
(2) A:Q, B:P, C:R, D:S
(3) A:P, B:Q, C:R, D:S
(4) A:P, B:Q, C:S, D:R

4) Which one is membrane bound spherical structure formed by the process of packaging in the
golgi appratus :

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Lysosome
(3) RER
(4) Nucleus

5) Crossing over occurs in which phase of meiosis?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

6) In human cell there are 23 bivalents in metaphase-I what will be the number of chromosomes in
each daughter cells after meiosis-I and meiosis-II :-

(1) 46 and 46
(2) 92 and 46
(3) 46 and 23
(4) 23 and 23

7) The given figures represent stage of meiosis – I. identify the stages with key features and select
the correct option :-

(i) Crossing over

(ii) The bivalent chromosome align on the equatorial plate
(iii) The homologous chromosomes separate.
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iii
(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii

8) Match the items in column I with those in column II and identify the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II
A Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle I Anaphase
B Tubulin proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues II Prophase
C Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes III Interphase
D Movement of chromatids towards opposite poles IV Metaphas
The correct match is :-
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

9) During an anaphasic movements of chromosomes, ______ of each chromosome is/are towards the
pole and ____ of the chromosome trails behind :-

(1) Centromere, arms

(2) arms, Centromere
(3) Chromatids, Centromere
(4) DNA, centriole

10) Connell's elegant field experiment explains.

(1) Inferior eliminated by superior

(2) Superior eliminated by inferior
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Mutualism

11)
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the above given figure ?

One petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female bumble bee in size, colour
(1)
and markings.
(2) The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the flower.
(3) The flower employs 'Sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a particular species of bumble bee.
(4) Male bee pseudocopulates with the flower.

12) Which one of the following pair is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) Release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) The amount of stored organic matter in plant tissue after respiratory (metabolic) utilisation is
called:-

(1) G.P.P.
(2) N.P.P.
(3) N.C.P.
(4) Secondary productivity

14) The pyramid of numbers is inverted in the case of:-

(1) Parasitic food chain

(2) Grassland Ecosystem
(3) Aquatic Ecosystem
(4) Lake Ecosystem

15)
Above diagram shows proportionate number of species of major taxa of plants, identify the A, B, C
plant group :-

A B C

(1) Lichens Angiosperms Algae

(2) Angiosperms Algae Lichen's

(3) Lichens Algae Angiosperms

 (4) Algae Lichens Angiosperms
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) For the given graph identify X, Y and Z :

(1) X = Area, Y = Slope of line, Z = Species richness

(2) X = Area, Y = Species richness, Z = Intercept
(3) X = Species richness, Y= Slope of line, Z = Area
(4) X = Species richness, Y = Area, Z = Slope of line

17) Which one of the following areas of India is not a hotspot of Biodiversity?

(1) Western Ghat

(2) Gangatic Plain
(3) The Himalayas
(4) Indo-Burma

18) How many of the following statements are true :

(A) Ecosystem are exempted from second law of thermodynamics
(B) Trophic level represents species, not function.
(C) Pyramid of Biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(D) Molluscs are common herbivores in aquatic ecosystem.
(E) The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator bird.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 1

19) Match the column I with column II :

 Column-I Column-II

Species area
(1) Paul Ehrlich (a)
relationship

Alexander Von Rivet popper

(2) (b)
Humboldt Hypothesis

Long term ecosystem

(3) Robert May (c)
experiments

Global species
(4) David Tilman (d)
diversity i.e. 7 million
(1) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d)
(2) (1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(c), (4)-(a)
(3) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)
(4) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a)

20) The organisms which breed only once in their life time are :

(1) Bamboo, mango

(2) Pacific salmon fish, Oysters
(3) Pacific salmon fish, bamboo
(4) Birds & mammals

21) Humus is :
(a) Dark in colour
(b) Undergoes decomposition rapidly
(c) Amorphous
(d) Colloidal in nature

(1) All are correct except (b) & (d)

(2) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
(3) All are correct except (b)
(4) Only (a), (c) are correct

22) Statement-I :- The hotspots are the regions of accelerated habitat loss.
Statement-II :- Hotspots are the region of high level of species richness.

(1) Both statement I & II are correct

(2) Both statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

23) The interaction between clown fish & sea-anemone is a type of :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Protocoperation
(4) Commensalism

24) Feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the inhibitory presence of the other
species even if resources are abundant. This is known as :

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Interference competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

25) Match the following & find the correct combination :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Marine fish (i) Brood parasitism

(b) Cuscutta (ii) Copepods

(c) Cattle egret (iii) Grazing cattle

(d) Koel (iv) Parasite

a b c d

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) iv ii iii i

(4) i iii iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Statement-I :- The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of lipid.
Statement-II :- In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER.

(1) Both statement I & II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I & II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

27) Match the columns and choose the correct combination :

Column-I Column-II
Species % of threat of extinction

(a) Birds (i) 23%

(b) Mammals (ii) 32%

 (c) Amphibians (iii) 12%

(d) Gymnosperms (iv) 31%

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

28) Assertion (A) :- In most ecosystem, all the pyramids of number, energy and biomass are
upright.
Reason (R) :- In a food chain producers are more in number & biomass than the herbivores &
Herbivores are more in number & biomass than carnivores.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false

(2) Both (A) & (R) are false
(3) Both (A) & (R) are true & the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)

29) Functional aspect of an ecosystem are :

(A) Productivity (B) Decomposition
(C) Energy flow (D) Nutrient cycling

(1) Only A & C

(2) Only B & C
(3) Only A, B & C
(4) A, B, C & D

30) Statement-I :- India has 4.2 percent of world's land area.

Statement-II :- India shares 9.1 percent of global species diversity.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

31) Living cell was firstly seen & described by :

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Robert Hooke
(3) R. Virchow
(4) Anton V. Leeuwenhoek

32) RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in :

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Protein synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Starch synthesis

33) Flat membranous tubules connecting the thylakoids in chloroplast is known as :

(1) Granal thylakoid

(2) Grana
(3) Stroma thylakoid/lamellae
(4) All of the above

34) The convex-face of cisternae of Golgi body is also known as :

(i) Cis-face (ii) forming face
(iii) Trans-face (iv) maturing face

(1) (i) & (ii)

(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (iv) & (iii)
(4) (i) & (iv)

35) Match the columns and choose the correct combination :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Terminalization of chiasmata (i) Pachytene

(B) Synapsis (ii) Zygotene

(C) Chiasmata (iii) Diplotene

(D) Crossing over (iv) Diakinesis

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

SECTION-B

1) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequences

(A) Terminilisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction of chromosome
(E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D
2) Identify the following stages (A) and (B) of mitosis and select the right option :-

Stage Description Key event

Chromosomes highly
(1) (B) Metaphase Chromosomes move to equator
condensed

Chromatin condensation
(2) (A) Early prophase Centrioles duplicates
start

Daughter chromatids move to

(3) (A) Telophase Centromere divides
opposite poles

Chromosomes are made up Golgi complex, ER, nucleolus,

(4) (B) Late prophase
of two chromatids Nuclear envelope disappear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Mutualism and proto-cooperation are :-

(1) Positive interactions

(2) Negative interactions
(3) Positive and negative respectively
(4) Negative and positive respectively

4) They may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the other organism and reduce its
population density, they might render the organism more vulnerable to predation by making it
physically weak. They are :-

(1) Predator
(2) Parasites
(3) Ammensals
(4) Commensal

5) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 i. Visiting
flamingoes and
1. Mutualism a. (+, –) resident fishes in
south american
lakes
ii. Starfish Pisaster
2. Competition b. (+, 0) in american pacific
coast
iii. Cattle egret birds
3. Predation c. (+, +)
and cattle
4. Commensalism d. (–, –) iv. Lichens
(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

6) How many statement are incorrect :-

(1) The number of trophic levels in the grazing food chain is restricted.
Organism at each trophic level depend on those at the lower trophic level for their energy
(2)
demands
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the
(3)
standing crop
(4) Decomposers has the largest population in food chain

7) Match the column-I with column-II and III :-

I II III

Top 4th trophic level Birds, Fishes

1 a i
consumer (Top carnivore) wolf

Secondary
2 b 3rd trophic level ii Man, Lion
consumer

Primary Phytoplankton
3 c 1st trophic level iii
consumer grasses, tree

Primary Zooplankton grass

4 d 2nd trophic level iv
producer hopper and cow

(1) 1–a–ii, 2–b–iii, 3–d–iv, 4–c–i

(2) 1–a–ii, 2–b–i, 3–c–iii, 4–d–iv
(3) 1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iv
(4) 1–a–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iii

8) The human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts, they are :-

(1) Snail and fish

(2) Ticks and snail
(3) Snail and pig
(4) Pig and fish
9) Assertion (A) :- Nicotine, caffeine, quainine, strychnine & opium are produced by plants actually
as defences against grazers & browsers.
Reason (R) :- Thorns of Acacia & Cactus are most common physiological means of defence.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & the reason is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false

10) Primary productivity of an ecosystem depends upon :

(1) Its species composition

(2) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
(3) Environmental factors of that Area
(4) All of these

11) Read the following statements :

(i) In aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
(ii) In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through DFC than through GFC.
(iii) DFC may be connected with the GFC at some level.
(iv) The base of each pyramid represents the producers.
(v) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called stratification.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)

(2) (i) only
(3) (iv) only
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

12) Statement-I : Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.
Statement-II : Sparrow belongs to primary consumer when it eats insects & worms.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I & II are correct
(4) Both statement I & II are incorrect

13) Structural components of ecosystem are all except :

(1) Stratification
(2) Species composition
(3) Species diversity
(4) Nutrient cycling

14) Which of the following is true ?

(1) Mammals are more diverse than fishes

(2) Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity as compared to Eastern ghats
(3) Algae is less diverse than lichens
(4) Fungi are more diverse than Angiosperms

15) Which of the following is broadly utilitarian role of ecosystem :

(1) Dyes
(2) Medicines
(3) Oxygen
(4) Fire wood

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) What is type of chromosome having a middle centromere :

(1) Metacentric
(2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Telocentric
(4) Acrocentric

2) During which of the given phases homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids
remain associated at their centromere :

(1) Anaphase of mitosis

(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-I

3) Which of the following stage corresponds to the interval between mitosis & initiation of DNA
Replication :

(1) S-Phase
(2) G2-Phase
(3) M-Phase
(4) G1-Phase

4) Cytokinesis in animal is by :

(1) Furrow formation

(2) Cell plate formation
(3) Middle lamella formation
(4) Cell wall formation
5) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Metaphase → Spindle fibers attach to secondary constriction of chromosome

(2) Anaphase → Chromosome are moved to equator
(3) Telophase → Nuclear membrane breaks
(4) Prophase → Chromosomal material condense to form compact chromosome

6) Terminalisation of chiasmata seen in :

(1) Pachytene
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

7) Match column-I with column-II & select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cell theory (i) Robert brown

(B) Omniscellula-e cellula (ii) Rudolf virchow

(C) Fluid mosaic model (iii) Schleiden & Schwann

(D) Discovery of nucleus (iv) Singer & Nicolson

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

8) The core of cilia & flagella is known as :

(1) Central sheath

(2) Central microtubules
(3) Axoneme
(4) Bridge

9) Statement-I :- Ribosomes are the granular structure first observed by Camillo Golgi.
Statement-II :- Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic Acid (RNA) & proteins.

(1) Both statement I & II are correct

(2) Both statement I & II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

10)

Fill in the blanks and choose correct option respectively

The.......cells themselve do not secrete antibodies but help......cell to produce them
(1) B, T
(2) T, B
(3) APC, T
(4) T, mast cell

11) Which of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro organism in human
body ?
(A) Epithelium of Respiratory tract
(B) Monocyte
(C) Tear
(D) Skin
(E) Saliva (F) Acid in stomach
(G) N-K-cell

(1) E, F, G
(2) B, C, E
(3) C, E, F
(4) A, B, D

12) _(A)_ worm cause slowly developing _(B)_ inflammation of (C) vessels of lower limb resulting
in gross deformities.
Identify (A), (B), (C) from following options respectively.

(1) Tape, acute, blood

(2) Ring, chronic lymph
(3) Filarial, acute, lymph
(4) Filarial, chronic, lymph

13) Which property of acquired immunity is the basis of concept of vaccination?

(1) Discrimination between self & nonself

(2) Specificity
(3) Memory
(4) Diversity

14)

Which of the following is incorrect for acquired immunity?

(1) Memory based

(2) Primary response is rapid.
(3) Pathogen specific
(4) Major role of B-cell & T-cell

15) Which pair is matched correctly ?

 Flowering branch of
(1)
Datura

Chemical structure of
(2)
morphine

Leaves of Cannabis
(3)
sativa

(4) Opium poppy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp is seen
in which disease:-

(1) Ascariasis
(2) Filariasis
(3) Amoebiasis
(4) Ringworms

17) Oncogenic transformation is related with -

(1) Tetanus
(2) Dengue
(3) Cancer
(4) Typhoid
18) Which of the following is an example of active immunity :-

(1) Antiserum
(2) Antivenom
(3) Antibodies passing from mother to foetus through placenta during pregnancy
(4) Vaccine

19) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Saliva
(4) Antibodies

20) In malaria, chill and high fever recurring every three to four days is due to ?

(1) Bursting of hepatocytes.

Due to high number of sporozoites in blood.
(2)

(3) Due to deficiency of RBC.

(4) Due to Haemozoin.

21) When the functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely affected,
characterised by various signs and symptoms, this is called :

(1) Allergy
(2) Toxicity
(3) Immunity
(4) Disease

22) All the blood cells including lymphocytes are produced by :

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Lymph nodes

23) Cannabinoid receptors present principally in the

(1) Heart
(2) Brain
(3) Liver
(4) Kidney

24) Malignant malaria is caused by ?

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Plasmodium malariae
(4) Retro virus

25) "Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released". In case of HIV
infection given statement is true for which cell ?

(1) Macrophage
(2) T-helper
(3) T-killer
(4) B-lymphocyte

26) The figure below show diagrammatic representation of lymphoid organs. Select the correct

option having label which shows primary lymphoid organ :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A and B both

27) Diagram showing ringworm affected area of skin. Which is not related with disease ?

(1) Microporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria

28) Read the following statements-

(A) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cell and protect non infected cell from further viral
infection
(B) Greeks like Hippocrates disproved the good humor hypothesis of health
(C) Cellular immune response is responsible for graft rejection
(D) Antibody is represented as H2L2
How many statement are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Match these columns

Column-I Column-II

(A) Acid in stomach and tears from eye (i) Cellular immunity

(B) Antibody (ii) Physical barrier

(C) T-Lymphocyte (iii) Humoral immunity

(D) Mucous coating (iv) Physiological Barrier

(1) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

30) Which of the following is correct matching ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Wuchereria Bancrofti (i) Neoplastic transformation

(B) Malaria (ii) Filariasis

(C) Cancer (iii) Contaminated needles

(D) AIDS (iv) Plasmodium

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) ii iii iv i

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) ii iv i iii

(4) ii iv iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Given below are two statement one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A):- AIDS is caused by the HIV
Reason (R) :- HIV is a member of a group of viruses called retrovirus
Choose the most appropriate answer

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

32) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) :- Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicit a highly intensified
anamnestic response
Reason (R) :- This is the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter
Choose the most appropriate answer

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

33) Pneumonia is not caused by ?

(1) Haemophilus influenzac

(2) Streptococcus Pneumoniae
(3) Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS patients
(4) Salmonella typhi

34) The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
could not be treated by

(1) Adrenalin
(2) Steroids
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Histamine

35) Secretions' of the body like saliva tears, sebum contains ______ which destroy microbes.

(1) Natural killer cell

(2) Interferon
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Lysozyme

SECTION-B

1) How many are example of ex-situ conservation ?

Seed bank, Zoological park, Botanical garden, Wild life safari park, National parks, Biosphere
reserves, Wild life sanctuaries.
(1) Seven
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

2) Statement-I :- The vacuole is bound by a single membrane called Tonoplast.

Statement-II :- In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy upto 90 percent of the volume of the cell.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I & II are correct
(4) Both statement I & II are incorrect

3) Match column I with column II & select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Centrosome (I) Cell division

(b) Ribosome (II) Cellular respiration

(c) Golgi apparatus (III) Protein synthesis

(d) Mitochondria (IV) Glycoprotein

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

4) Cell wall of plants consists of :

(1) Cellulose & pectin's only

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose & pectin's only
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin & protein
(4) Hemicellulose & proteins only

5) Assertion (A) :- If initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C in S-phase.

Reason (R) :- S-phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication take place.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & the (R) is a correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but the (R) is the
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false

6) Meiosis-II initiated immediately after :

(1) Telophase-I
(2) Prophase
(3) Cytokinesis-I
(4) Chromosome have fully elongated

7) Which of the following is correct matching ?

Wuchereria
(A) (i) House fly
bancrofti

Common round Female

(B) (ii)
worm anopheles

Entamoeba
(C) (iii) Female culex
histolytica

Plasmodium contaminated
(D) (iv)
falciparum food & water

A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) In which body part of female anopheles, mature infective stage of plasmodium (sporozoits) are
stored ?

(1) Intestine
(2) Crop
(3) Salivary gland
(4) RBC

9) Primary lymphoid organ is -

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Spleen
(3) Tonsils
(4) MALT

10) Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) Passive immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response
(2) Osteoarthritis which affects many people in our society is an autoimmune disease
(3) After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to primary lymphoid organs
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
(4)
is called allergy.
11) Given below are two statements
Statement-I :- Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes thyroid disorder
Statement-II :- Bacteria like haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease pneumonia

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

12) Given below are two statements

Statement-I :- Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs is abruptly discontinued.
Statement-II :- Withdrawal syndrome is manifested in the form of reckless behavior vandalism and
violence.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

13) Given below are pairs of pathogens diseases and causative agent category which of these is
incorrectly matched ?

Disease Pathogen Causative agent

(1) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria

(2) Filariasis Microsporum Virus

Ascaris
(3) Ascariasis Round worm
Lumbricoids

(4) Common cold Rhinovirus Virus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which of the following substances are not misused by certain sportsperson to enhance their
performance

(1) Anabolic steroids

(2) Narcotic analgesics
(3) Diuretics
(4) Antibiotics

15) Which of the following drugs are obtained from same source ?

(1) Opium and Ganja

(2) Morphine and Bhang
(3) Cocaine and Hashish
(4) Hashish and Marijuana
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 4 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 1 4 2 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 1 4 4 4 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
fractional change

=
= 1 – (1 + γΔT)–1
= 1 – (1 – γΔT)
∵ (1+x)n 1 + nx
= γΔT
= 5 × 10–4 × 20 = 0.01

2)

⇒
⇒ x = 117 + 39
= 156

3) = mL

⇒h= = = 68 km.

5) gram specific heat difference is

for H2 cp–cv=a=

for O2 cp–cv=b=

a=
a = 14b

6) Maximum amount of emitted radiation corresponding to λm =

λm = = 500 nm
 From the graph U1 < U2 > U3

7)

....1

...2
on solving : t = 15 min

8)

By using Wien's law λmT = constant,

we have
As λB < λY < λR (VIBGYOR)
⇒ TA > TC > TB

9)

, Area is maximum for thin circular plate

10)

400 – 4T = T
T = 80°C

11)

Emix = E1 + E2

=
 12)

For an ideal gas sample

ρ= = = 0.199
ρ 0.2 kg/m3

13)

V = constant ⇒

Final mass M2 =

M2 = =4g
Leak out mass = M1 – M2 = 6 – 4 = 2 g

14)

θ = 53°, S of E

15) Conceptual.

16) ∵ v = 6t2 + 2t + 3

=6
∴S=2+1+3=6m
 Vavg =

17) In uniform circular motion speed is constant but velocity varies.

18) ∵ v = x2 + x

∴ = (x2 + x) (2x + 1)
at x = 2m, a = [(2)2 + 2] [2 × 2 + 1]
∴ a = 30 m/s2

21) t1 = and t2 =

where, u is initial velocity of each ball and t1, t2 are total times of [Link] here, g1 t1 = g2t2 = 2u

22)

Slope of v-t graph ⇒ acceleration

Maximum slope = Maximum acceleration

24)

⇒ h1 = 90 =

26) y = sinx cosx = × 2sinx cosx

y = × sin 2x
Maximum value of sin2x = 1

So, maximum value of y =

28) y = a(1 – cos x)

29)
=

34)

35) Projection of on

36)

Heat lost = Heat gain

mL + msΔT = msΔT
m × 540 + m × (100–80) × 1 = 1400(80–16)
m = 160 g
Total water = 1400 + 160 = 1560 g

37) P ∝ r2 T4

⇒
P2 = 1800 watt

38) K.E = NkT = same

NT = constant ⇒

and K.E = PV = same

V = const. then pressure is also constant.

40)

= 11.2 × 103 m/s

= 125 × 106
T = 104 K

44) Height travelled by ball (with balloon) in 2 sec

Velocity of the balloon after 2 sec

 v = at = 5 × 2 = 10 m/s

Now if the ball is released from the balloon then it acquire same velocity in upward direction.
Let it move up to maximum height h2.
v2 = u2 – 2gh2 ⇒ 0 = (10) – 2 × (10) × h2
∴ h2 = 5 m
Greatest height above the ground reached by the ball = h1 + h2 = 10 m + 5 m = 15 m

47)

R2 = 16 H1H2

50) Area =

CHEMISTRY

51) Rate = k [A]2 [B]

54) t87.5% = 3t1/2

55)

58)

r = K2 × [N2O2] × [H2]

keq =
∴ r = k × [NO]2 × [H2]

59)

fact

62) see theory

64)
Fact

65)

Let the total mass of gaseous mixture be 100 gm

KP =

73) Generally, stability of alkene ∝ Number of (α-H)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75)

Presence of –M at para position ses Ka

76)

For tautomerism - α-Hydrogen or allylic H-must be present bridge head hydrogen does not take part
in tautomerism.

90)

K27°C = × log = log2

K47°C = × log = log2

log

log
 = 55.14 kJ/mol

91) Ncert, Class 12th, part-1,

Article No: 1.3.2,
Pg No: 8, Edition - 2023-2024

98)

EDG stability and EWG ↓ Stability of carbocation OH at meta position is EWG due to –I effect.

99) Carboxylic acids are stronger than H2CO3.

100)

Electromeric effect is temporary effect.

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 127, Fig. 8.1

104)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 134

105)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

110)

NCERT Pg. # 235

111) NCERT-XIth Pg# 202

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243, 244

115) NCERT (XII) Pg # 218

116)

NCERT XII Pg.# 262

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg No. # 266

118)
NCERT-XII, Pg # 210-213

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 220

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 196

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 207

122)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 224

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 201

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 199

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 200

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 95

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 222

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 213

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 206

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 219

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 87

132)
NCERT-XI, Pg # 95

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 98

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 95

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 126

137)

NCERT Pg. # 165, 166

138)

NCERT Pg. # 232

139)

NCERT Pg # 234

140) NCERT-XII Pg#197 to 202

143)

NCERT-XII, [Link]. 235

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 198

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 207

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 210

147)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 210

148)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 206

149)
NCERT-XII, Pg # 218

150)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 224

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 101

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 127

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 121

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 124

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 123

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 126

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 88

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 99

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 98

162)

NCERT XII, Page # 149, 3rd para

173)

NCERT-XII Pg. No. 172 (H)

174)
NCERT-XII, Pg # 147
Malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is most harmful and may even cause death.

176)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 154, Fig. 8.5, Para-8.2.7

177)

NCERT Pg.# 149

178)

NCERT Pg.# 152 (E), 163 (H)

179)

NCERT Pg.# 150,151 (E), 162, 163 (H)

180)

NCERT Pg.# 160,158 (E), 147, 149 (H)

181)

NCERT Pg.# 154(E), 167 (H)

182)

NCERT Pg.# 151(E), 163 (H)

183)

NCERT Pg.# 147(E), 158 (H)

184)

NCERT Pg.# 153(E), 165 (H)

185)

NCERT Pg.# 150(E), 162 (H)

186)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223-224

187)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 96

188)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 97-98
 189)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 94

190)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 121

191)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 127

193)

NCERT XII Pg. # 148

195)

NCERT Pg.# 153 (E), 165 (H)

196)

NCERT Pg.# 146 (E), 158 (H)

197)

NCERT Pg.# 161(E), 174 (H)

198)

NCERT Pg.# 149(E), 160 (H)

199)

NCERT Pg.# 162(E), 175 (H)

200)

NCERT Pg.# 159(E), 172 (H)