18-04-2026

5001CMD303031250029 MD

PHYSICS

1) If y = find :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A projectile is fired from the level ground at an angle above the horizontal. The elevation angle
of the highest point as seen from the launch point is related to by the relation

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following equations is dimensionally incorrect ?

(E = energy, U = potential energy,
P = momentum, m = mass, v = speed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

The equation of the stationary wave is :

Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) The unit of ct is same as that of λ
(2) The unit of x is same as that of λ
(3) The unit of 2πc/λ is same as that of 2πx/λt
(4) The unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λ

5) A moving car possessed average velocities of 5 ms–1, 10 ms–1 and 15 ms–1 in the first, second and
third seconds respectively. What is the total distance covered by the car in these three seconds?

(1) 15 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 55 m
(4) None of these

6) A man walks on a equilateral triangle along path ABC with constant speed then the ratio of

average speed and magnitude of average velocity for A to C :-

(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)

(4) None

7) A ball is projected vertically down with an intial velocity from a height of 20 m onto a horizontal
floor. During the impact it loses 50% of its energy and rebounds to the same height. The initial
velocity of its projection is :-

(1) 20 ms–1
(2) 15 ms–1
(3) 10 ms–1
(4) 5 ms–1

8) A disc of radius R is removed from a uniform square plate of side '4R' as shown in figure. Find the
distance of center of mass of remaining system from center of square plate.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A rod of length L has non-uniformly distributed mass along its length. For its mass per unit length

varying with distance x from one end as (L + x). Find the position of centre of mass of this
system.

(1) L/4
(2) L/2
(3) 3L/9
(4) 5L/9

10) In a cylindrical vessel containing a liquid of density ρ, there are two holes in the side walls at
heights of h1 and h2 respectively such that the range of projection is same. The height of a hole for
which the range of efflux would be maximum.

(1) h2 - h1
(2) h2 + h1

(3)

(4)

11) The surface tension of a liquid is 5 Newton per metre. If its film is held on a ring of area 0.02
metres2, its surface energy is about :

(1) 5 × 10–2 J
(2) 2.5 × 10–2 J
(3) 2 × 10–1 J
(4) 3 × 10–1 J

12) The acceleration due to gravity 'g' and mean density of earth 'ρ' are related by which of the
following relation ? (G = gravitational constant and R = Radius of earth)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) What should be the velocity of a body thrown vertically upwards from the surface of earth (mass
M and radius R) so that it may reach at a height of 7R :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the
chain and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain, that can
hang over one edge of the table is :-

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 35%
(4) 15%

15) Four spheres of diameter 2a and mass M are placed with their centres on the four corners of a
square of side b. Then moment of inertia of the system about an axis about one of the sides of the
square is :-

(1) Ma2 + 2Mb2

(2) Ma2
(3) Ma2 + 4Mb2

(4)
Ma2 + 2Mb2

16) A wheel whose radius is r and moment of inertia about its-own axis is I, can rotate freely about
its own horizontal axis. A rope is wrapped on the wheel. A body of mass m is suspended from the
free end of the rope. The body is released from rest. The velocity of the body after falling a distance
h would be-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The motion of a particle represented by y = sinωt – cosωt is :-

(1) NOT S.H.M.

(2)
S.H.M. with period , amplitude
(3) S.H.M. with complicated period, amplitude 1

(4)
S.H.M. with period , amplitude

18) Starting from the mean position a body oscillates simple harmonically with a time period of 2s.
After what time will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy ?

(1)
s

(2)
s

(3)
s

(4)
s

19) Calculate the energy radiated per minute from the filament of an incandescent lamp at 2000K if
the surface area is 5 × 10–5 m2 and its emissivity is 0.85, σ = 5.7 × 10–8 MKS units.

(1) 1230J
(2) 2215J
(3) 2115J
(4) 2325J

20) Oxygen and Hydrogen are at the temperature T. the ratio of the mean kinetic energy of oxygen
molecules to that of the Hydrogen molecules will be.

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

21) Consider a slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal
conductivities K and 2K, respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab in parallel
combination :-

(1)
K
(2) K

(3)

(4)
K

22) A gas is taken through the cycle A→B→C→A, as shown, the net work done by the gas is

(1) –2000 J
(2) 2000 J
(3) 1000 J
(4) 750 J

23) An inductive circuit contains resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 20 H. If an A.C. voltage
of 120 volt and frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would be nearly

(1) 0.016 amp.

(2) 0.16 amp.
(3) 0.48 amp.
(4) 0.80 amp.

24) In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the

voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively :

(1) 100 V, 2.0 A

(2) 150 V, 2.2 A
(3) 220 V, 2.2 A
(4) 220 V, 2.0 A

25) In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are 70 V, 0, 10V respectively. Then
(1) the point D will be at a potential of 60V
(2) the point D will be at a potential of 20V
(3) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 9:2:3
(4) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 3:2:1

26) Three identical bulbs are connected in series as shown. When switch is closed :-

(1) Both bulbs A and B become dimmer

(2) Both bulbs A and B become brighter
(3) Brightness of bulbs remains unchanged
(4) A becomes brighter and B becomes dimmer

27) The charge supplied by source varies with time t as Q = at – bt2. The total heat produced in

resistor 2R is (Assume direction of current is not changing) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a
resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery
of negligible resistance is :

(1) 6Ω, 5.0 amp

(2) 10Ω, 0.1 amp
(3) 4Ω, 1.0 amp
(4) 12Ω, 0.5 amp

29) A wire of resistance R is stretched till its radius is half of the original value. Then, the resistance
of the stretched wire is :-

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) 8R
(4) 16R

30) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will
experience.

(1) A torque as well as a translational force.

(2) A torque only.
(3) A translational force only in the direction of the field.
(4) A translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field.

31) In a region of space the electric field is given by . The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 units in x-y plane is.

(1) 800 units

(2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(4) 1500 units

32) PQRS is a square loop made of uniform conducting wire. If the current enters the loop at P and

leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be :-

(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop
(2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop

33) A current i is flowing in a straight conductor of length L. The magnetic induction at a point on its

axis at a distance from its centre will be :

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) In the figure shown, a charge q with mass (m) moving with a velocity v along the x-axis enter
into a region of uniform magnetic field. If particle is capable to enter the region x > b then velocity v

should be greater than :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In a hydrogen atom, total energy of electron is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A particle of mass 4M at rest disintegrates into two particles of mass M and 3M respectively
having non zero velocities. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of particle of mass M to that of mass
3M will be :

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 :
(4) 1 : 1

37) An electron released by a redioactive nucleus that causes a neutron to change into a proton in
called :

(1) β+ decay
(2) β- decay
(3) α decay
(4) γ decay

38)

Energy released in the fission of a single 92U235 nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of 92U235 fuelled
reactor operating at a power level of 32 kW is :-

(1) 32 × 1013 /sec

(2) 1015 /sec
(3) 1011 /sec
(4) 1012 /sec

39) If the radius of a nucleus of mass number 3 is R, then the radius of a nucleus of mass number 81
is

(1) 3R
(2) 9R
(3) (27)1/2 R
(4) 27R

40) An object is approaching a fixed plane mirror with speed 15 ms–1 making an angle of 135° with

the normal to the mirror. The speed of image w.r.t. mirror is :–

(1) 15 ms–1

(2)

(3)
(4) 30 ms–1

41)

A glass Slab (μ = 1.5) of thickness 6 cm is placed over a paper. What is the shift in the letters :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 1 cm
(4) None of these

42) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains.

(1) yellow, orange, red

(2) violet, indigo, blue
(3) all colours
(4) all colours except green

43) Two coherent monochromatic light waves of intensities I and 9I are susperposed. The maximum
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are -

(1) 5I and I
(2) 16I and 4I
(3) 9I and I
(4) 9I and 3I

44) The width of a single slit, if the first minimum is observed at an angle of 2° with a light of
wavelength 6980 Å, (in mm) is :

(1) 0.2
(2) 2 × 10–5
(3) 2 × 105
(4) 0.02

45) Two polaroid are kept crossed to each other. Now one of them is rotated through an angle 45°.
The percentage of incident unpolarized light now transmitted through the system is :-

(1) 15%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 60%
 CHEMISTRY

1) Ratio of radius of atom to that of nucleus is of the order of :-

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–15
(3) 105
(4) 10–5

2)

Which of the following gaseous reaction will be favoured forward at low pressure :-

(1) N2 + O2 2NO
(2) H2 + I2 2HI
(3) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3

3) The equilibrium concentration of SO2, O2 and SO3 are 0.6M, 0.82 M and 1.90M. Calculate value of
KC for 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

(1) 12.2
(2) 24.4
(3) 48.4
(4) 64.8

4)

Decomposition of ammonia gas on the surface of metal catalyst at high pressure is an example of :-

(1) Zero order reaction

(2) First order reaction
(3) Second order reaction
(4) Third order reaction

5) For the same charge passed, deposited mole ratio of Ag, Cu and Al is :-

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3

(3)
1: :
(4) 3 : 2 : 1

6) Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance cell is 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013 S
cm–1. The value of cell constant is :-
(1) 3.9 cm–1
(2) 39 m–1
(3) 3.9 m–1
(4) None of these

7) Which of the following solution can be safely stored in copper vessel :-

(1) ZnSO4
(2) AgNO3
(3) AuCl
(4) All

8)

Determine the value of for the following reaction

2+ 2+ +4
Cu + Sn Cu + Sn
if equilibrium constant is 106.

(1) 0.1773 V
(2) 0.01773 V
(3) 0.2153 V
(4) 1.773 V

9) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.25 M HA solution?(Ka = 4 × 10–8)

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–4

10)

For pure water sum of concentration of H+ & OH– ion at 90°C is-

(1) 10–14 M
(2) 2×10–7 M
(3) 2×10–6 M
(4) 10–12 M

11) Molality(m) of 725 g water will be :-

(1) 18.2 m
(2) 55.5 m
(3) 42.1 m
(4) 30 m
12) Two liquids P and Q have vapour pressure 80 and 60 torr respectively vapour pressure of
solution on adding 2 mole of P and 3 mole of Q will be :-

(1) 68 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 72 torr
(4) 20 torr

13) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

14) : If the reaction started with 5 moles of A, 2 - moles of B then number of moles of
C formed is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

15) Assertion: for C(graphite) and Br2(ℓ) is not zero.

Reason: for every element in its standard state is taken as zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

16) What are the major products from the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17)
Identify A and B respectively ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Consider the reaction

X, here X is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Statement-I : The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with H2N-OH indicating the absence
of free –CHO group.
Statement-II : Glucose is found to exist in two different crystalline form which was named as α and
β glucose.

(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

20) + CO2
The above reaction is

(1) Kolbe's electrolysis

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Etard Reaction
(4) Kolbe Reaction

21) Statement-I : Benzaldehyde give both Tollen's & Fehling solution test. Statement-II :
Acetophenone give yellow PPT with I2/NaOH and 2, 4-DNP test.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

22) Match List-I with List -II.

List-II
List-I
(Reaction of carbonyl
(Products formed)
compound with)

(a) Cyanohydrin (i) NH2OH

(b) Acetal (ii) RNH2

(c) Schiff's base (iii) alcohol

(d) Oxime (iv) HCN

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d)- (i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d)- (iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d)- (i)
(4) (a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d)- (i)

23)
The most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which of the following is most acidic:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Match the following :-

(a) (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(b) CH3–COOK (q) Nitration

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s

(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s
(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

26) Which of the following is major product in the given reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The correct order for the rate of nucleophilic substitution is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) The IUPAC name for is :-

(1) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentanal

(2) 2–Formyl–1–hydroxy cyclopentane
(3) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde
(4) Cyclopentane–2–ol–1–al

29) Glycerol is separated from spent lye by :-

(1) Steam distillation

(2) Vaccum distillation
(3) Sublimation
(4) Simple distillation

30) The maximum value of dihedral angle in anti form of n-Butane is :-

(1) 180°
(2) 60°
(3) 360°
(4) 90°

31) Which amongst the following is not isoelectronic :-

(1) NO
(2) CN–1
(3) N2
(4)

32) Hybridization of XeO3 and XeO2F2 is :-

(1) sp3 and sp3d

(2) sp2 and sp
(3) sp3d2 and sp3d3
(4) None

33) Assertion (A) : Generally ionic bonds are formed between metal and nonmetals
Reason (R) : In ionic bonds electrons are shared

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

34) Which species do not exists:-

 –3
(1) AlF6
–
(2) BF4
–2
(3) BeF4
–2
(4) CCl6

35) The strongest CO bond is present in

+
(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
(4) all have equal strength

36) Which one of the following molecule contains no π-bond :-

(1) NO2
(2) CO2
(3) H2O
(4) SO2

37) Magnetic moment of [FeF6]–3 is :-

(1) 2.93
(2) 4.72
(3) 5.83
(4) 1.73

38) Which has regular tetrahedral geometry ?

(1) SF4
(2)
(3) XeF4
–2
(4) [Ni(CN)4]

39) Which of following ligand is bidentate :-

(1) EDTA
(2) en
–
(3) CH3COO
(4) Py

40) Which of the following does not give chromyl chloride test :

(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) NH4Cl
(4) HgCl2

41)

Which has maximum magnetic moment ?

(1) Co+2
(2) Mn+3
(3) Mn+2
(4) Cr+3

42) Boron forms BX3 type of halides. The CORRECT increasing order of Lewis-acid strength of these
halides is

(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3

(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(4) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3

43) Which of the following is correctly matched:-

+
(1) O2 , O2 = both paramagnetic
2-
(2) O2, O2 = both paramagnetic
- 2-
(3) O2 , O2 = both diamagnetic
+ 2-
(4) O2 , O2 = both paramagnetic

44) The thermal stability order for gp. 14 halides is :

(1) CX4 > SiX4 > GeX4 > SnX4

(2) SnX4 > GeX4 > SiX4 > CX4
(3) SiX4 > CX4 > GeX4 > SnX4
(4) None of these

45) The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shall.

(1) s > p > d > f

(2) s > p < d < f
(3) s > d > f > p
(4) s< p < d < f

BIOLOGY

1) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of cell cycle
The metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms of the
(2)
chromosome.
(3) The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm
(4) The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are smaller than the mitochondrial ribosomes.

2) Identify the correct match and select the correct option from options given below:
A. Mitosis : Equational division
B. Meiosis: Reductional division
C. Mitochondria: Organelle within organelle
D. Lysosomes : Digestion of macromolecules
E. Contractile vacuole: Amoeba

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B, C and E
(3) A, B, D and E
(4) A, B, C, D and E

3) Once heart cells become mature, they do not usually undergo cell division. The cell cycle of the
mature heart cells become arrested and this phase of cell cycle is known as :-

(1) G2 phase
(2) M-phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) G0 phase

4) The most convenient method of nomenclature system, used for nomenclature of maximum plants
is :-

(1) Polynomial nomenclature

(2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Trinomial nomenclature
(4) Both (1) & (2)

5) Practical classification of plants is mainly based on..........

(1) Flower
(2) Their shape
(3) Their uses
(4) Vegetative characters

6)

Heterocyst is a structure which is associated with

(1) Reproduction
(2) Respiration
(3) Nitrogen fixation
(4) Locomotion

7)

Dinoflagellates are called fire algae due to which character :-

(1) They appear like fire due to pigments

(2) They produce fire due to friction
(3) They occur on burnt places
(4) They show bioluminescence

8) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals :-

(1) Halophiles
(2) Acidophiles
(3) [Link]
(4) Methanogens

9) Which of the following option is incorrect about bacterial pili :-

(1) They are made up of pilin protein

(2) They are shorter than flagella
(3) They help in conjugation
(4) They play an important role in movement

10) Spores of slime moulds :-

(1) Have true cell wall

(2) Dispersed by air and water
(3) Are formed during favourable condition with out cell wall
(4) Are extremely susceptible

11) Euglenoids have :-

(1) Cellulosic cell wall

(2) Nitrogen fixation ability
(3) Pigments identical to higher plants
(4) Cilia for motility

12) In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, the ascospores and basidiospore are produced respectively
:-

(1) Exogenously and endogenously

(2) Endogenously and endogenously
(3) Exogenously and exogenously
(4) Endogenously and exogenously

13) Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) The sporophyte in mosses is less elaborate then in liver worts

(2) The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate then in liver worts
(3) The sporophyte is main plant body in mosses
(4) The sporophyte has only foot and seta in liver worts

14) Which of the following event is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in
evolution ?

(1) Development of the zygotes into young embryos within the monoecious gametophytes
(2) Development of zygotes into young sporophytes within the male gametophytes
(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within the female gametophytes
(4) Female gametophyte is retained on parental sporophyte for variable period.

15) Read statement A to D & find out how many is/are incorrect statement :
(A) In majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are of similar kinds.
(B) Genera like Selaginella & Salvinia produce two kind of spore.
(C) Female gametophytes is retained on parental sporophyte. This event is a precursor to the seed
habit.
(D) Red algae reproduce asexually via motile spores

(1) zero
(2) one
(3) two
(4) three

16) In which algae type of sexual reproduction is oogamous ?

(1) Albugo
(2) Volvox
(3) Mucor
(4) Puccinia

17) Choose the correct option of members of Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Fucus

(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

18) Lichens don’t grow in :

(1) Polluted areas

(2) Non polluted areas
(3) Areas with rich biodiversity
(4) Areas with poor biodiversity

19) The four sketches (A,B, C and D) given below represent four different organisms. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct stored food and class ?

Name of Stored
Class
Organism Food
(1) (D) Nostoc Glycogen Myxophyceae
Floridean
(2) (A) Volvox Chlorophyceae
starch
(3) (B) Laminaria Starch Phaeophyceae
Floridean
(4) (C) Polysiphonia Rhodophyceae
starch
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Select false statement?

(1) Ectomycorrhizal association is found in the roots of Pinus.

(2) BGA like- Nostoc punctiforme and Anabaena cycadae are found in the coralloid roots of Cycas.
(3) In conifers, the needle like leaves reduce the surface area. It is xerophytic adaptation.
(4) In Gymnosperm, ovules are covered by ovary wall.

21) Why in gymnosperm plants fruits are not formed?

(1) Endosperm is haploid.

(2) Ovules are unitegmic
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall.
(4) External fertilization.
22) Both ovary and fruit are present in :-

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Bryophyta

23) Example of cladode is :-

(1) Opuntia
(2) Eichhornia
(3) Euphorbia
(4) Asparagus

24) The stem develops from :-

(1) Internode
(2) Node
(3) Radicle
(4) Plumule of the embryo of germinating seed

25) The branch of biology which deals with the study of internal structure of plants is called.

(1) Morphology
(2) Biochemistry
(3) Physiology
(4) Anatomy

26) Apical meristem is present at.

(1) Root and shoot apex

(2) Between mature tissue
(3) Vascular cambium
(4) Cork cambium

27) Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplast and mitochondria is based on :-

(1) Proton gradient

(2) Accumulation of K+ ion
(3) Accumulation of Na+ ion
(4) Membrane Potential

28) Phosphorylation in mitochondria and chloroplast differ on the basis of requirment of:-

(1) A membrane
(2) ATPase
(3) Proton gradient
(4) Light

29) Monoecious plants with unisexual flowers will prevent :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

30)
Above diagram is shows

(1) Pentacarpellary apocarpous pistil of Papaver

(2) Pentacarpellary syncarpous pistil of Hibisus
(3) Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of Papaver
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil of Michelia

31) A diseased man marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five sons. All the
daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is :–

(1) Sex linked dominant

(2) Sex linked recessive
(3) Sex limited character
(4) Autosomal dominant

32) Pedigree analysis is used for :-

(1) To study of Mendelian disorder

(2) To study of multiple alleles
(3) To study of polygenic inheritance
(4) To study of structure of DNA

33) Frederick Griffith's experiment on streptococcus and mice demonstrates :-

(1) Transformation
(2) Transduction
(3) Transcription
(4) Translation
34) Which statement is true for transcription ?

(1) Both strands of DNA are copied during transcription

(2) The total DNA of organism gets transcribed
(3) Adenine forms base pair with uracil instead of thymine
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme catalyses process of transcription

35) In Lac operon, i-gene codes for :-

(1) Repressor protein

(2) β-galactosidase enzyme
(3) Activator protein
(4) Permease enzyme

36) Which of the following is a blood cholesterol lowering agent, produced by Monascus purpureus ?

(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Statins
(3) Streptokinase
(4) Amylase

37)

Which one of the following is being tried in India as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels ?

(1) Jatropha
(2) Musa
(3) Aegilops
(4) Azadirachta

38) What is correct :-

(1) A habitat can contain many ecological niches

(2) A ecological niche can contain many habitat
(3) Two different species can not have same niche in same ecosytem
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) An assemblage of population of plant, animal, bacteria and fungi that live in an area and interact
with each other to form :-

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Biotic community
(3) Ecology
(4) Environment

40) Biome having high temperature and high precipitation characteristics :-

(1) Desert
(2) Tundra
(3) Tropical forest
(4) Grassland

41) Which of the following is a functional characteristics of a community ?

(1) Stratification
(2) Mineral cycling
(3) Physiognomy
(4) Size of organism

42) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) Gir National Park - Asiatic lion - Gujarat

(2) Corbett National Park - Elephant - Maharastra
(3) Kaziranga National Park - Rhinoceros -Assam
(4) Kanha National Park - Tiger - Madhya Pradesh

43) Match the column I, II, III & choose the correct options for resources :

Inexhanstible Renewable Conventional

(a) Wind energy Forest Solar energy
(b) Tidal energy Animals Hydropower
(c) Solar energy Wild life Wood
(d) Rainfail Water Coal
(1) a and d are incorrect
(2) b and d are incorrect
(3) a, b, c are correct
(4) b, c, d are correct

44) Assertion A: Biodiversity hotspots, though covering less than 2% of the earth's land area, are
home to a disproportionately high number of species.
Reason R: Protecting biodiversity hotspots can significantly reduce the rate of mass extinctions.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) Assertion : Gelidium and Gracilaria are members of rhodophyceae.

Reason : They are autotrophic, marine organism and they have predominance of the red pigment r-
phycoerythrin in their body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Which one of the following statement regarding coelom is correct ?

(1) Round worms are pseudocoelomate

(2) Mollusca are acoelomate
(3) Arthropods are acoelomate
(4) Flatworms are coelomate.

47) Which of the following organism neither have notochord nor vertebral column in adult stage?

(1) Cephalochordates
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Herdmania
(4) Scoliodon

48) Which one is a typical chordate animal ?

(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Herdmania
(3) Ascidia
(4) Balanoglossus

49) Cnidarians exhibits two basic forms-polyp and medusa, which of the following animals are found
in medusoids form ?
(a) Hydra (b) Adamsia
(c) Aurelia (d) Jellyfish

(1) only a and b

(2) only a and c
(3) only a and d
(4) only c and d

50) Observe the following diagrams and identify alphabetized items :-

(1) A-Adrenal gland, B-Kidney, C-Cortex,D-Medulla

(2) A-JGA, B-Kidney, C-Cortex, D-Medulla
(3) A-Adrenal gland, B-Kidney, C-Medulla, D-Cortex
(4) A-Adrenal gland, B-Kidney, C-Pars distails, D-Pars intermedia
51) Which of the following is incorrect for Rana ?

(1) Sexes are separate

(2) Fertilization is external
(3) Are oviparous and development is indirect
(4) Lacks cloaca

52) In frog, heart beat is controlled by :-

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Mid brain

53) Select the correct rout for the passape of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

54) Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood, a condition called:-

(1) Uremia
(2) Glomerulonephritis
(3) Renal calculi
(4) Ketonuria

55) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder of Alveoli.

Reason : One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is increased.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

56) Assertion (A): Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of renal failures.
Reason (R): A functioning kidney is used in transplantation from a donor, preferably a close
relative.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

57) Find out the incorrect statements and choose the correct option accordingly.
(I) Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients hormones, etc..
(II) Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger proteins and RBCs
(III) Exchange of the nutrients and gases, etc, between the blood and cells always occurs through
tissue fluid
(IV) Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution as that of the plasma.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) IV and III
(4) None of the above

58) Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct option

List-I List-II
(Biological molecule) (Biological function)

(a) Insulin i. Respiratory pigment

(b) Trypsin ii. Enzyme

(c) Thrombokinase iii. Hormone

(d) Hemoglobin iv. Biocatalyst

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(3) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
(4) a–iv, b–iii, c–i, d–ii

59) Assertion (A) : Our lungs remove approximately 200 ml CO2 per minute.
Reason (R) : 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml CO2 in alveoli and every
minute approximately 5 litres deoxygenated blood reach to lungs.

(1) A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

60) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(2) Glycosurea and ketonurea is indicative of diabetes insipidus.
(3) In normal blood pressure pumping pressure is 120 mm Hg.
Coronary system of blood vessels is exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the
(4)
cardiac musculature.

61) Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Asthma → Wheezing sound

(2) Emphysema → Decreased respiratory surface
(3) Cardiac arrest → Sudden damage of heart muscle
(4) Uremia → Accumulation of urea in blood

62) What is true for Bt-toxin:-

(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in bacterium

(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to acidic pH in gut of insect
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to alkaline pH in gut of insects
(4) Bt-toxin is formed by Biotechnology

63) Which enzyme was targeted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 year old
girl?

(1) Monamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

64) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

65) pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in [Link] is a/an :-

(1) Original bacterial plasmid

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid
(3) Viral genome
(4) Transposon

66) The C-peptide is :-

(1) Not present in proinsulin

(2) Present in mature insulin
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin
(4) Also present in artificial insulin

67) How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use in world ?

(1) 10
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 50
68) Toxin which is responsible for chill and high fever during the disease which is caused by
Plasmodium ?

(1) haemoglobin
(2) Produced by gametocyte (Haemozoin)
(3) Produced by mosquito (female anopheles)
(4) Produced by Plasmodium (Haemozoin)

69) Gene therapy performed for correction of disorders :-

(1) Is always a temporary cure.

(2) Could be permanent cure if gene is introduced in the early embryonic stages.
(3) Has not been tried for humans.
(4) Involves removal of introns & joining of exons.

70) The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of

(1) Selectable makker

(2) Ligases
(3) Restriction enzyme
(4) Probe

71) According to EFB, ''The integration of natural science and organism, cells, parts there of and
molecular analogues for products and services is known as :-

(1) Biochemistry
(2) Bioinformatics
(3) Biotechnology
(4) Biology

72) Which is incorrect match ?

(1) DNA ligase – Molecular glue

(2) DNA polymerase – Require RNA primer for replication
(3) ECoRI – Cut DNA molecule at pallindrome between nucleotide G & C
(4) RNA plymerase - 3 type in eulcaryote

73) Restriction enzymes are also called :-

(1) Molecular markers

(2) Vectors
(3) Carriers
(4) Molecular scissors

74) BamH I site is present at :-

(1) ampR gene
(2) tetR gene
(3) Ori
(4) rop

75) During depolarisation of nerve :-

(1) Na+ VGC – Close, K+ VGC – open

(2) Na+ VGC – Open, Na+-K+ pump – open
(3) K+ VGC – Close, Na+-K+ pump – close
(4) Na+ VGC – Open, K+ leak channel close

76) Male sexual behaviour is influenced by :-

(1) ACTH
(2) Oestrogen
(3) Testosterone
(4) Progesterone

77) SA node is called pacemaker because :

(1) Only it can generate action potential

(2) It is present in the right upper corner of the right atrium
(3) It can generate the maximum number of action potentials
(4) It is made up of cardiac muscle nodal tissue

78) Choose the correct option :-

Hormone Disorder

(A) Thyroxine (a) Acromegaly

(B) Growth Hormone (b) Osteoporosis

(C) Parathormone (c) Addison disease

Adrenal Cortex
(D) (d) Grave's disease
hormone
(1) A-d ; B-c ; C-b ; D-a
(2) A-b ; B-a ; C-d ; D-c
(3) A-d ; B-a ; C-b ; D-c
(4) A-c ; B-a ; C-d ; D-b

79) Hyper tension indicated by blood pressure :-

(1) 120/80 or less

(2) 140/90 or less
(3) 90/140 or high
(4) 140/90 or high

80) The adrenal cortex hormone, which are involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called ?

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Gonadocorticoids
(3) Mineralocorticoids
(4) Glucocorticoid

81)

Which statement is incorrect regarding thymus gland ?

(1) It is a lobular structure

(2) Located on the dorsal side of the heart
(3) It secretes peptide hormone called thymosin
(4) Thymosin plays a major role in differentiation of T-lymphocytes

82) Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called :-

(1) Prolactin
(2) Progestrone
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Testosterone

83) How many carbohydrates in the list given below are polysaccharide in nature :-
Cellulose, Starch, Glycogen, Chitin, inulin, Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2

84) Most of the biological activities of proteins are due to :-

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration

85) According to recapitulation theory :

(1) Every animal begins as an egg

(2) Damaged body parts are formed new
(3) Offsprings are like parents
(4) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
86) The first flying animals on earth were :-

(1) Insects
(2) Birds
(3) Reptiles
(4) Mammals

87) Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by –

(1) Dinosaurs were dominant and first birds appeared

(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared

88) What is most important for origin of life ?

(1) Carbon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Water
(4) Nitrogen

89) A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4 then what will be
the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the
population ?

(1) 0.36 (AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16 (aa)

(2) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(3) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(4) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

90) What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors?

(1) Upright posture

(2) Shortening of jaws
(3) Binocular vision
(4) Increasing brain capacity
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 1 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 4 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) y =
here, u = x, v = sinx

or

y=

2)

3) Least count = 1MSD – 1VSD

but 30 VSD = 29 MSD ⇒ VSD = MSD

Therefore L.C. = 1 MSD –

4) Unit of is sec–1 while → unit less

5)

conceptual
 6)

Let the constant speed is V, then

average speed = V

average velocity =

7)

conceptual

8)

conceptual

9)

conceptual

10)

Explain Question :
To find the height at which a hole should be placed to maximize the horizontal range of the
jet.

Concept:
This question is based on Range of Efflux

Formula : H = h1 + h2
Solution :

If H is the height of the liquid surface, then for same range

H = h1 + h2
And for maximum range

Final answer : Option (4)

11)

SE = 2T(A) = 2 × 5 × 0.02
= 2 × 10–1 J

12)

conceptual

13) ΔU = Uh – UR =
for h = 7R

∴ ΔU =
If the particle is launched with initial velocity v from the surface of earth, then
Loss in its KE = Gain in its PE

14)

conceptual

15)

I=2× +2×

=2×

I= Hence option (4)

16)

conceptual

17)
18)

K.E. = [Link] cos2ωt

ωt =

t= sec.

19)

Conceptual

20)

Conceptual

21)

Explanation Question:
We have to find equivalent thermal conductivity in parallel combination (ii) Thermal
resistance.
Concept:
This question is based on (i) equivalent thermal conductivity in parallel combination (ii)
Thermal resistance.
Solution:
Req =

2Keq = 3K

Keq =
​Final Answer: (3)

22) Question Explanation:

We have to calculate work done by gas.

Concept:
Work done by gas is equal to area under the curve of P-V diagram.

Solution:
Work done = Area of triangle ABC

=
= 750 J

Final Answer: Option(4)

23) Z2 = R2 + XL2
XL = 2πfL = 2π × 60 × 20
XL = 2400π , R = 10Ω
As XL >>> R So, Z2 XL 2 r Z XL = 2400π Ω

I= = = 0.016 A
24) V3 = 220 volt, I = = 2.2A

25) I1 = I2 + I3

⇒ 420– 6V0 = 2V0 – 20 + 3V0 ⇒ V0 = 40V

IAD = IDB = 2A & IDC = 1A

26) After switch is closed, C will be short-circuited so it will not glow & A & B will be more
bright as effective. Resistance decreases so ‘P’ will increase.

27)

∵ Q ;= at – bt2

hence
Also current through 2R resistance will be

I/3 i.e.
I will be zero when a – 2bt = 0

∵H=

here H =

H=

=
=

28)
Resistance of the part AC
and

In balanced condition

Equivalent resistance so current drawn from battery .

29)

Explain Question : When a wire is stretched without changing its volume, its length and
cross-sectional area change inversely. Resistance depends on both length and area.

Concept : This question is based on for constant volume : A1L1 = A2L2, So that L2 = L1
Solution:

Since A ∝ r2 and r2 = , we can find the new length and resistance ratio so that

L2 = L L2 = 4L

Solution : R2 = 16R
Final answer : 4

30)

Conceptual

31)

Conceptual

32)

Explain the Question : The question asks about the magnetic field at the center of a square
loop when the current splits into two unequal paths.

Concept : This question is based on magnetic field at the center due to current segment for α1
= α2.
 =

Solution : Current divides as i1 = , i2 = . Contributions from the two paths are equal in
magnitude but opposite in direction.
Bnet = Bpath(1) – Bpath(2)

→ net magnetic fields at the center = 0.

Final answer : Option (2)

33)

Conceptual

34) Explain Question:

A charged particle of charge q and mass m moves with velocity v along the x-axis and enters a
region of uniform magnetic field B (into the plane). The magnetic field region starts at x = a
and ends at x = b. Find the minimum velocity v so that the particle can cross the region and
reach x > b.

Concept:
Motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field (circular motion).

Solution:
In a uniform magnetic field, the particle moves along a circular path of radius r = mv / (qB)
For the particle to just reach x > b, the horizontal displacement inside the field must be at
least (b – a).
So,
r ≥ (b – a)

Final answer: Option (3)

35) Explanation Question:

Derive the expression for the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in terms of orbital
radius r.

Concept:
Bohr's model and electrostatic energy.

Solution:
Coulomb force gives centripetal force:

Kinetic energy

potential energy

Total energy

Final Answer: Option (3)

36) Explanation Question: A particle at rest breaks into two particles with masses M and
3M. We need the ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths.

Concept: • Conservation of momentum. • de broglie wavelength definition.

Solution:
Initially, total momentum = 0. After decay, momenta are equal and opposite:
.

de Broglie wavelength .
Since magnitudes of P are equal .
Ratio .

Final Answer: Option (4)

37)

38) Question Explanation:

A 235U reactor operates at 32 kW power. Each fission releases 200 MeV. We must find the
fission rate (number of fissions per second).

Concept:
Power = Energy released per fission x fission rate
Unit conversions between MeV and joules

Solution:
Power P = 32kW = 32 × 103 W = 32 × 103 J / s
Energy per fission Ef = 200 MeV 1 eV = 1.6 × 1019 J ⇒ 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10–13 J
Ef = 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J = 3.2 × 10–11 J Fission rate R = per second
Final Answer: Option (2)

40) For given situation : Speed of image = speed of object

42) A QUESTION EXPLANATION: We need to determine which colors emerge into the air.

B CONCEPT: Colors with Shorter Wavelengths (Blue, Indigo, Violet) These colors have a
higher refractive index than green. This means their critical angles are smaller than green's. If
green light is at its critical angle, blue, Indigo, and violet light will have already undergone
total intemal reflection. They will not emerge into the air Yellow, Orange, Red light has a lower
refractive index than green light, so red light will have a larger critical angle. They will be able
to refract into the air.

C FORMULA: not required

D CALCULATION: not required
E ANSWER: option 1 Yellow, orange, red
F QUESTION LEVEL: Medium

43) Explain Question:

To find the maximum and minimum possible intensities for two coherent sower I and 9I.

Concept:
Maximum and minimum intensities relation,

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

44) Explain the Question : To find the width of slit, if first minimum is observed at in angle
of 2°.
 Concept : This question is based on Fraunhofer diffraction

Solution :
Δx = a sin θ = nλ
n=1

a ≈ 0.02 mm

Final Answer : Option (4)

45)

Intensity of transmitted light from second polaroid.

I = cos2(θ) where θ = 45°

I0 → Intensity of incident light

= cos2(45)

=
⇒ 25% of I0

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation:

Find the order of the ratio of the radius of an atom to the radius of its nucleus.

Concept:
This question is based on Typical atomic radius typical nuclear radius

Solution:

Final Answer : Option (3)

47)

Question Explanation: We need to find which gaseous reaction is favored forward at low
pressure.
Concept : Le Chatelier's principle: reactions producing more gas moles favored at low
pressure.
Solution:
(1) N2 + O2 2NO → 2 moles → 2 moles → no change
 (2) H2 + I2 2HI → 2 → 2 no change
(3) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 → 1 → 2 moles → forward favored at low P
(4) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 → 4 → 2 → backward favored at low P
Final answer: option (3)

When pressure decreases reaction moves towards more number of moles.

48) NCERT Pg. # 232

49)

Conceptual

50) One Faraday charge will deposit one equivalent of metal at electrodes. The mole ratio for

Ag, Cu and Al will be 1 : :

51) K =
∵ 0.013 =

= 3.9 cm–1

52) Explanation: Which solution can be safely stored in a copper vessel:

Given Data:
• Options: ZnSO4, AgNO3, AuCl, All
• Vessel material: Copper (Cu)
Concept: (Vessel metal & Reactivity)

A. Electrochemical Reactivity: A metal can safely store a solution of another metal's salt if the
vessel metal is less reactive than the metal ioins in the solution.
B. If the vessel metal is more reactive, it will displace the ions, causing corrosion.
C. Reactivity Series (simplified): Zn > Cu > Ag > Au

ZnSO4: Zinc (Zn) is more reactive than copper (Cu). Therefore, Cu will not displace Zn. Safe.
Final Answer:
Only ZnSO4 can be safely stored in a copper vessel.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

53)

at equilibrium Ecell = 0

=
 = 0.1773

54) Asking About :- Hydronium ion [H3O+]

Concept :- Based on O strand's dilution LAW
Soln / Explanation :- Ace. to strand's dilution law for weak electrolyte

=
[H+] = 10–4
[H3O+] = 10–4
Option -4 is correct answer

55)

Conceptual

56)

Explain the Question : Find the molality of pure water (self-molality).

Concept : This question is based on molality of a pure solvent =

.
Solution : Weight of water = 725 gm
density = 1 g/ml

Final answer : 2

57)

Conceptual

58) A. Question
The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) in the reaction,
NaOH + H₃PO₄ → NaH₂PO₄ + H₂O, is:
B. Given Data
• Reaction: NaOH + H₃PO₄ → NaH₂PO₄ + H₂O
• Phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) is a triprotic acid, but in this reaction, only one proton is neutralized
(as indicated by the formation of NaH₂PO₄).
E. Final Answer
The equivalent weight of H₃PO₄ in this reaction is 98.
(Option 4)

59) CONCEPTUAL
 60) NCERT-XI, part-1, Pg.#163

61)

Question Explanation: Aryl-alkyl ether cleavage by $\text{HI}$.

Concept: Cleavage of aryl-alkyl ethers.

Solution: The reaction is the cleavage of Phenyl benzyl ether with $\mathbf{\text{HI}}$
and heat. Cleavage of the $\text{aryl-O}$ bond ($\text{Ph}-\text{O}$) is highly resistant due
to the $\mathbf{\text{partial double bond character}}$ from resonance. Therefore, the
$\mathbf{\text{alkyl}-\text{O}}$ bond (benzylic $\text{O}-\text{CH}_2\text{Ph}$) cleaves.

A. The $\text{I}^-$ nucleophile attacks the carbon that yields the most stable
carbocation ($\text{S}_{\text{N}}1$ favored). The benzyl carbocation
($\mathbf{\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_2^+}$) is resonance-stabilized.

B. $\text{I}^-$ attacks the $\text{benzylic}$ carbon, yielding Benzyl iodide

($\mathbf{\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_2\text{I}}$).

C. The aromatic portion retains the $\text{OH}$ group, forming Phenol

($\mathbf{\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{OH}}$).

Final Answer: $\text{Phenol} + \text{Benzyl iodide}$

62)

Question Explanation: Identify 'A' and 'B' in the following reaction sequence.

Concept: This question based on Oxidation of alkyl benzene

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (1)

63)

Explain Question: In the given reaction major product Y is.

Concept: This question is based on Reaction of diazonium salt.
Solution:
Final answer: 4

64)

Explanation:
Determine the correctness of statements about glucose penta-acetate reactivity and existence
of α/β crystalline forms.

Concept:
Cyclic hemiacetal, Pentaacetate reactivity, Anomeric forms, Mutarotation

Solution:
Key Rule: Cyclic acetals masks the aldehyde; anomers give α/β forms.
• Statement-I: Correct — Pentaacetable lacks free CHO, so no oxime with H2N-OH.
• Statement-II: Correct — Glucose has α and β forms due to the anomeric OH at CI.
Simple reaction: Glucose pentaacetate +H2N-OH-> No reaction (no free CHO).

Final answer: Option (1)

65) Explain Question:

The question asks you to identify the name of the reaction where phenol reacts with carbon
dioxide (CO2) in the presence of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and heat, followed by acidification,
to produce a compound (salicylic acid). You need to recognize the reaction type based on the
reagents and conditions.

Concept:
• Kolbe Reaction: A chemical reaction where phenol reacts with CO2 and NaOH under heat,
followed by acidification, to form salicylic acid. It is a method for ortho-carboxylation of
phenols.

Solution:
The carboxylation of phenol under CO₂/NaOH followed by acidification to give salicylic acid is
the classic Kolbe (Kolbe–Schmitt) reaction. Answer: 4) Kolbe Reaction.

Final answer: Option (4)

66)

Explaining the Question :-

The question asks to evaluate two statements for test of carbonyls
Concept:-
This question based on Distinction tests for aldehydes and methyl ketones
Solution :-
Statement-I : Benzaldehyde and Tollen's/Fehling's tests
• Tollen's test detects aldehydes. Benzaldehyde, being an aromatic aldehyde, gives a positive
Tollen's test (silver mirror)
• Fehling's test, however, is specific for aliphatic aldehydes. Aromatic aldehydes like
 benzaldehyde do not give a positive Fehling's test.
So, Statement-I is incorrect.
Staement-II : Acetophenone and I2/NaOH + 2,4-DNP
• Acetophenone has a methyl ketone group, so it gives a positive iodoform test (yellow
precipitate of CHI3).
• It also contains a carbonyl group, so it reacts with 2,4-DNP to form a yellow/orange
precipitate.
So, Statement-II is correct.
Final Answer :- (3)

67)

68) ; most stable because tropylium cation is aromatic compound.

69)

Question Explanation: Identify the most acidic compound among Benzoic acid, o-
Nitrophenol, p-Nitrophenol, and p-Nitrobenzoic acid.

Concept: Acidic strength, Carboxylic acid vs Phenol, Electron Withdrawing Group (EWG), M
effect, I effect, conjugate base stability.

Solution:

A. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols because the carboxylate ion is stabilized by
two equivalent resonance structures where the negative charge is on electronegative oxygen
atoms.
B. The presence of a Nitro group (–NO2), a strong electron-withdrawing group via –M and –I
effects, further increases acidity by stabilizing the conjugate base.
C. Therefore, p-Nitrobenzoic acid is stronger than Benzoic acid and both nitrophenols.

Final Answer: Option (4)

 70)

(a) (q) Nitration

(b) CH3–COOK (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

71)

72) 1° RX > 2°RX > 3°RX ⇒ SN2 Rate

73) Question Explanation :

IUPAC name of given structure.

Concept :
This question is based on IUPAC rules of nomenclature.

Solution :

IUPAC Name :
2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde There are two functional groups out of which principal
functional group is addehyde and alcohol is substituent. Prefix for –OH = hydroxy
Suffix for –CHO = carbaldehyde, as carbon of addehyde is not part of parent carbon chain.
Parent carbon chain is cyclic ring as principal functional group is directly attched to
cyclopentane Numbering is done in ring such that carbon having –CHO gets lowest number,
followed by numbering to the side of substituent –OH.
Hence,
Option (3) is correct : 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde

74) Question Explanation:

The question asks which method is used to separate glycerol from spent lye (a by-product of
the soap industry).
Concept:
Separation technique depends on boiling point and thermal stability of glycerol.

Solution:
Glycerol has a very high boiling point (−290oC) and decomposes if distilled under normal
pressure.

To avoid decomposition, it is separated by vacuum distillation, which lowers the boiling point
and allows safe distillation.

Steam distillation is used for volatile compounds, not glycerol.

Sublimation is for solids that directly vaporize (like camphor, iodine).

Simple distillation is unsuitable due to glycerol's high boiling point.

Final Answer: Option (2).

75)

Explaining the Question : The question asks for the dihedral angle (θ)-the angle between the
two terminal methyl groups (CH3)- when n-Butane is in its anti conformation.
Concept : This question is based on n conformational analysis, the anti form is the most stable
staggered arrangement. It occurs when the two largest groups (the methyl groups) are
positioned as far apart as possible to minimize steric strain and repulsion between electron
clouds.
Solution : When looking down the C2-C3 bond in a Newman projection: projection:
• fully Eclipsed: Methyl groups are at 0°
• Gauche: Methyl groups are at 60°
• Eclipsed: Methyl groups are at 120°
• Anti: Methyl groups are on exactly opposite sides, forming a straight line. This results in a
dihedral angle of 180°
Final Answer : 1

76)

NCERT BASED

77)

XeO3 = sp3
XeO2F2 = sp3d

78)

Conceptual

80)
Page-254, NCERT-XII, Part-I

81) no π-bond present

83)

Conceptual

84)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which ligand binds a metal ion through two atoms.

Concept:
This question is based on nature of ligands on the basis of denticity.

Solution:
(Bidentate ligand, Hexadentate ligand, monodentate ligand)

en ⇒ is a bidentate ligand

Final Answer - Option (2)

85)

Conceptual

86)

CONCEPTUAL

87) Octet of B is highly satisfied through strong back bonding by F where as octet of B is not
fulfilled in case of BI3 as I does weak back bond.
Hence BI3 will accept easily lone pair hence will act strong lewis acid wheer as BF3 will be
weak lewis acid.

88)

Conceptual

89)

Conceptual
BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question – The question asks which of the given statements is incorrect .

Concept – Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Solution –

A. Correct – M-phase is the most dramatic stage of the cell cycle.

B. Correct – A metacentric chromosome has the centromere in the middle forming equal
arms.

C. Correct – the nucleolus is not membrane-bound and its content is continuous with
nucleoplasm.

D. Incorrect – mitochondria and chloroplasts have 70S ribosomes; chloroplast ribosomes

are not smaller than mitochondrial ribosomes.

Final answer – 4. The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are smaller than the mitochondrial
ribosomes

92) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 88, 96

93) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the phase of the cell cycle where mature heart cells exist.

Concept :
This question is based on phase of the cell cycle.

Explanation:
"In some cells, like heart cells, the cells exit the cell cycle and enter an inactive stage called
G0 phase."

Final answer: 4

94) NCERT Pg. # 6

95) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 08 2nd Para.

96)
Solution:

The correct answer is 3. Nitrogen fixation.

A heterocyst is a specialized cell found in some cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) that provides
an anaerobic environment necessary for nitrogen fixation

97)

Solution:

The correct answer is 4. They show bioluminescence.

Dinoflagellates are called fire algae because some species can produce bioluminescence —
they emit a glowing light, especially when disturbed in water, creating a sparkling "fire-like"
effect.

98)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the specific type of microorganisms
responsible for producing methane gas in the digestive system (gut) of ruminant animals.

Concept : This question is based on Archaebacteria.

Solution : "Methanogens are a group of archaebacteria that produce methane in the guts of
ruminants."

Final Answer : option (4)

99)

Solution :
The correct answer is
4. They play an important role in movement.
Pili are involved in conjugation and attachment, not in movement. Flagella are responsible for
bacterial movement.

100) NCERT XIth Pg.#21

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

102)

Explain Question: Question asks about how ascospores in Ascomycetes and basidiospores in
Basidiomycetes are produced

Concept: Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

Solution:
In Ascomycetes, ascospores are produced inside a sac-like structure (ascus) → endogenous.

In Basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced on the surface of basidium → exogenous.

Final answer: 4

103)

NCERT XI, Pg # 36

104)

NCERT XI, Pg # 38

106)

NCERT Pg. No. 30

107)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the group of algae that belongs to the class
Rhodophyceae, commonly known as red algae
Concept : This question is based on Rhodophyceae - red algae
Explanation : “Members of Rhodophyceae (red algae) include Polysiphonia, Porphyra, and
Gelidium.”
Final answer : 2

108) NCERT(XII) Pg#132/142(H) Para:7.3

109)

Explain Question : The question has provided an image with four sketches (A, B, C, and D)
of different organisms and a table with four options. The task is to identify which option
correctly matches the organism, its stored food, and its class.
Concept : This question is based on types of algae
Explanation :
Polysiphonia (C) is a red alga, belonging to the class Rhodophyceae, and stores food
primarily as Floridean starch, which is characteristic of this group.
Final answer : 4

110)
NCERT-XI, Pg # 38

111)

Explain Question: The question is asking : Why gymnosperms do not form fruits.

Concept: Characteristics of Gymnosperms

Solution:

In Angiosperms: Ovules are enclosed in an ovary → after fertilization, the ovary wall converts
into fruit and ovule into seed.

In Gymnosperms: Ovules are naked (not enclosed by an ovary) → no ovary tissue → no fruit
formation, only seeds develop.

So the absence of an ovary in gymnosperms is the key reason why fruits are not formed.

Final answer: Option 3

112) NCERT Pg. # 41

113) NCERT XI Pg # 70

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 68, Para-1, Line-3

115) NCERT Pg # 84

116) NCERT Pg # 85

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 233

118) NCERT XI, Pg # 215

119)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 15

120) NCERT-XII Pg. # 25, Fig. 2.7 (b)

121) Sex linked dominant

122)
 To study of Mendelian disorder

123) NCERT Pg.#101

124)

NCERT - XII, Pg-107

125)

NCERT - XII, Pg-116

126) Explanation:
Monascus purpureus is a fungus that produces statins, which are compounds used to lower
blood cholesterol levels.

The correct answer is 2. Statins.

127)

NCERT BASED

128)

Explain Question: The question is asking which statements correctly describe the
relationship between habitat and ecological niche.

Concept: Ecological Niche

Solution:

A. A habitat can contain many ecological niches — Correct. A single habitat (like a forest) can
support many species, each having its own niche (role, resource use, and behavior).
B. An ecological niche can contain many habitats — Incorrect. A niche refers to a species’ role
and interactions, not a physical place containing habitats.
C. Two different species cannot have the same niche in the same ecosystem — Correct. No, two
species can occupy the same niche .

The correct Answer: Option 4 – Both (1) and (3)

Final answer: Option 4 – Both (1) and (3)

129)

Explain Question: The question is asking: What is formed when populations of plants,
animals, bacteria, and fungi live together and interact with each other in an area?
Concept: Ecological hierarchy

Solution:
Ecosystem → Includes both biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) components.
Biotic community → Includes only living organisms (plants, animals, microbes) interacting in
an area.
Ecology → The study of interactions, not the group itself.
Environment → Includes both living and non-living surroundings, not just the living
populations.
The Correct Answer: 2. Biotic community
Because the question mentions only living components (plants, animals, bacteria, fungi).

Final answer: 2. Biotic community

130) NCERT Pg. # 220, Fig. 13.1

131)

Explaining the Question : This question asks which option represents a functional
characteristic of a community.
Concept: This question is based on Community Function.
Solution: Mineral cycling refers to the movement and recycling of nutrients within a
community through producers, consumers, and decomposers. This describes how the
community functions rather than its physical appearance or structure.
Final Answer : (2)

132) MODULE

133) MODULE

134) Assertion (A): True — biodiversity hotspots occupy less than 2% of Earth’s land area but
host a very high number of species.
Reason (R): True — protecting hotspots helps reduce extinction, but this statement explains
the importance of conservation, not why hotspots have high biodiversity.
Therefore, both are true, but R does not explain A.

135) NCERT BASED

136)

NCERT XI Pg.# 43

137)

NCERT XI Pg.# 46
139) NCERT Pg. # 50

141)

NCERT BASED

142)

Question Explanation –
The question asks which part of the brain controls heartbeat in frog.

Concept – Control of heartbeat

Solution –
In frog, the medulla oblongata regulates vital involuntary activities like heartbeat and
breathing. Other brain parts are not involved in controlling heart rate.

Final Answer – Option 3

143) NCERT Pg. # 118

144)

NCERT BASED

145)

NCERT BASED

146)

Conceptual

147)

NCERT BASED

148) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 281, 263, 274

149)

NCERT BASED

150) NCERT Pg # 190, 202, 213

151) NCERT Pg # 190, 203, 213

152)

Explaining the Question: This question asks which statement correctly describes the
activation of Bt-toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.

Concept: Bt Cotton and Bt Toxin (Microbial Bio-Control Agents).

Solution : Correct. - Bt-protoxin becomes an active toxin only in the alkaline pH of the insect
midgut, where it gets solubilised and cleaved.

Final Answer: Option (3)

153)

Explain Question : Identify the enzyme targeted in the first successful gene therapy
treatment.

Concept : This question is based on Gene therapy.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.

Final answer : option (3)

154)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.

Final answer : option (4)

155) The correct answer is:

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid.
Explanation: pBR322 is a modified bacterial plasmid that is commonly used as a vector for
cloning genes in E. coli. It was engineered from a natural plasmid to include specific features
like antibiotic resistance markers, making it easier to select transformed cells.
156)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

157) NCERT, Pg # 210

158)

Question Explanation: Identify the toxin responsible for chills and high fever in malaria.
Concept: protozoans disease

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 (Produced by Plasmodium – Haemozoin) because

during the intraerythrocytic stage, Plasmodium digests hemoglobin and produces haemozoin,
a pigment/toxin that triggers chills, high fever, and immune responses in the host.

Final answer: Option 4

159) NCERT, Pg # 211

160)

NCERT BASED

161)

Conceptual

162)

NCERT XII, Pg # 196 to 197

163)

NCERT Pg # 195

164)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the location of the BamHI restriction site in
plasmid pBR322.

Concept: Recombinant DNA – Plasmid

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. In pBR322, the BamHI recognition site is located within the tetracycline resistance
(tetR) gene. This allows selection of recombinants by inactivating tetR when foreign DNA
 is inserted at this site.

Final Answer: Option 2

165)

Question Explanation: The question asks what happens during depolarisation of a nerve
fibre.

Concept: Nerve conduction

Solution: During depolarisation, voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open, Voltage-gated K⁺ channels

remain closed, Na⁺–K⁺ pump is not involved directly/closed during depolarisation. So, Option 3
is correct among given options.

Final answer: Option 3

166)

Question Explanation: The question asks which hormone influences male sexual behaviour.

Concept: The question is based on gonad(testis)

Solution: Testosterone, secreted by Leydig cells of testes, regulates libido and male sexual
behaviour.

Final answer: Option 3

167) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 284

169)

Question Explanation: Identify the blood pressure value that indicates hypertension.
Concept: Normal and high blood pressure range

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 – 140/90 or high.

Hypertension (high blood pressure) is generally indicated when systolic pressure is 140 mm
Hg or higher and/or diastolic pressure is 90 mm Hg or higher.

A. 120/80 mm Hg is considered normal.

B. Values below 140/90 mm Hg are not classified as hypertension.

Final Answer: Option 4

170) NCERT Pg # 335, 22.2.7

 171)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement about the thymus gland.
Concept: The question is based on thymus gland.

Solution:

A. (1) Correct: The thymus is a lobular structure, divided into lobules containing cortex and
medulla.

B. (2) Incorrect: The thymus gland is located between lungs behind sternum on the ventral
side of aorta/heart., not dorsal.

C. (3) Correct: It secretes thymosin, a peptide hormone.

D. (4) Correct: Thymosin promotes differentiation of T-lymphocytes, essential for adaptive

immunity.

Final answer: Option 2 Located on the dorsal side of the heart

172) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 337 para(22.2.10)

173)

Correct Answer is option (1).

Explanation:
1. Cellulose → Polysaccharide (Made of β-D-glucose; found in plant cell walls)
2. Starch → Polysaccharide (Made of α-D-glucose; energy storage in plants)
3. Glycogen → Polysaccharide (Made of a-D-glucose; energy storage in animals)
4. Chitin → Polysaccharide (Made of N-acetyl-D-gkycisanube; found in fungi & exoskeletons)
5. Inulin → Polysaccharide (Made of fructose; a storage carbohydrate in plants)

174)

Correct Answer option 3. Tertiary configuration

Explanation/Solution : The tertiary structure gives the protein its three-dimensional
shape, which is essential for its biological activity, including enzyme function, binding, and
interaction with other molecules.

175)

NCERT BASED

176) The correct answer is option 1: Insects.

Insects were the first animals to evolve flight, with the earliest fossils dating back to the
Carboniferous period, around 350 million years ago.
Birds, reptiles, and mammals evolved flight much later.

177) NCERT BASED

180)

NCERT Pg no 124, 125