16-04-2026

1001CMD303052250111 MD

PHYSICS

1) A boat is moving towards east with velocity 4m/s with respect to river water and river is flowing
towards north with velocity 2 m/s. The wind is blowing towards north with velocity 6 m/s. The
direction of waving of the flag hoisted on the boat, will be :-

(1) North-west
(2) South-East
(3) tan–1(1/2) with east
(4) North

2) A particle is projected from horizontal making an angle 60° with initial velocity 40 m/sec. The
approximate time taken by the particle to make angle 45° from horizontal, is :

(1) 15 sec.
(2) 2.0 sec.
(3) 20 sec.
(4) 1.5 sec.

3) The value of upto appropriate significant figures is

(1) 28.7217
(2) 28.72
(3) 28.7
(4) 29

4) A stone is rotated in a vertical circle with the help of a string. Speed at bottommost point is
, where R is the radius of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

5) Two 50 gm ice cubes are dropped into 250 gm of water into a glass. If the water was initially at a
temperature of 25°C and the temperature of ice –15°C. Then the final amount of water in the
mixture is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) The (P – T) graph for given mass of an ideal gas is shown :-

(1) VA > VB
(2) VA < VB
(3) VA = VB
(4) None of these

7) A sphere and a cube of same material and same volume are heated upto same temperature and
allowed to cool in the same surroundings. The ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted will be:-

(1) 1 : 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) One mole of a gas mixture is heated under constant pressure, and heat supplied Q is plotted
against temperature difference acquired. Find the approximate value of γ for mixture :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In equation , match the following for :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Kinetic energy (P) Half the maximum value

 (B) Potential energy (Q) 3/4 times the maximum value

(C) Acceleration (R) 1/4 times the maximum value

(S) Equal the maximum value

(1) A → P, B → S, C → R
(2) A → R, B → Q, C → P
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → P
(4) A → Q, B → R, C → P

10) An oil drop has a charge –9.6 × 10–19 C and has a mass 1.6 × 10–15gm. When allowed to fall, due
to air resistance it attains a constant velocity. Then if a uniform electric field is to be applied
vertically to make the oil drop ascend up with the same constant speed, which of the following is
correct :-
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
the electric field intensity is and directed upward

(2)
the electric field intensity is and directed downward

(3)
the intensity of the electric field is and directed downward

(4)
the intensity of the electric field is and directed upward

11) A charge Q is distributed over three concentric spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c ) such
that their surface charge densities are equal to one another. The total potential at a point at distance
r from their common centre, where r < a, would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In the given circuit, it is observed that the current I is independent of the value of the resistance

R6. Then the resistance values must satisfy-

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

13)
Calculate current in 5V battery :-

(1)
A

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

14) Two resistances of 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in series with a battery of emf 4 volt and
negligible internal resistance. A voltmeter of resistance 200 Ω is used to measure voltage across the
two resistance separately. Calculate the voltage indicated when voltmeter connected across 100 Ω :-

(1) 1 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 4 V

15) A capacitor stores 60μC charge when connected across a battery. When the gap between the
plates is filled with a dielectric, a charge of 120μC flows through the battery. The dielectric constant
of the material inserted is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

16) The time period of a thin bar magnet in uniform magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into two
equal parts perpendicular to its length, the time period of each part in the same field will be :-

(1) T/2
(2) T
(3)
(4) 2T

17) An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right angle as shown. A current I flows
through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1. Now, another infinitely

long straight conductor QS is connected at Q so that the current is in QR as well as in QS, the

current in PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2. The ratio is given by-

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4) 2

18) Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum.

Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

19) Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the corresponding vector at any time is along the

x-axis, the direction of vector at that time is along

(1) y-axis
(2) x-axis
(3) +z-axis
(4) –z-axis

20) The magnification of an object is m1 when placed 25cm away from a mirror & m2 when object is
moved 15cm further away from its initial position. If , the focal length of the mirror is :

(1) 10cm
(2) 30cm
(3) 15cm
(4) 20cm

21) Consider following statements for refraction of light through isosceles prism, when angle of
deviation is minimum.
(A) The refracted ray inside prism becomes parallel to the base.
(B) Larger angle prisms provide smaller angle of minimum deviation.
(C) Angle of incidence and angle of emergence becomes equal.
(D) There are always two sets of angle of incidence for which deviation will be same except at
minimum deviation setting.
(E) Angle of refraction becomes double of prism angle.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, C and D Only

(2) B, C and D Only
(3) A, B and E Only
(4) B, D and E Only

22) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : For a simple microscope, the angular size of the object equals the angular size of the
image.
Reason R : Magnification is achieved as the small object can be kept much closer to the eye than 25
cm and hence it subtends a large angle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) A is true but R is false

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true

23) In a certain double slit experimental arrangement interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are
observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the set up unaltered, if the source is
replaced by another source of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe width will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1.0 mm
(3) 1.2 mm
(4) 1.5 mm

24) In a single slit diffraction pattern, angular width of central bright maximum, increases when
I. The slit width is decreased
II. The distance between the slit and the screen is increased
III. Light of longer wavelength is used
Select the correct alternative :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II only
(3) I, III only
(4) II, III only

25)
Find out value of Y :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A + B
(4) A . B

26) An intrinsic semiconductor has a resistivity of 0.5 Ωm at room temperature. Find the intrinsic
carrier concentration if the mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.39 m2V–1s–1 and 0.11 m2V–1s–1
respectively :-

(1) 1.2 × 1018 m–3

(2) 2.5 × 1019 m–3
(3) 1.9 × 1020 m–3
(4) 3.1 × 1021 m–3

27) If momentum (p), area (A) and time (t) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula :-

(1) [p1 A–1 t–1]

(2) [p2 A1 t1]
(3) [p1 A–1/2 t1]
(4) [p1 A1/2 t–1]

28) A physical quantity σ is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of P, Q,

R and S are 2%, 1%, 3%, 6% respectively. Then find out the % error in σ.

(1) 14%
(2) 12%
(3) 16%
(4) 8%

29) If the coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl surface is μ and the radius of the bowl is
r the maximum height to which the insect can crawl in the bowl is :-

(1)
r

(2)
r

(3)

(4) None of these

30) Match column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Definition of force (p) Newton's third law
(B) Measure of force (q) Impulse
(C) Effect of force (r) Newton's second law
(D) Recoiling of gun (s) Newton's first law
(1) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(3) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(4) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q

31) If the kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to time t, the magnitude of force acting on
the body is :-
(i) directly proportional to
(ii) inversely proportional to
(iii) directly proportional to the speed of the body
(iv) inversely proportional to the speed of the body

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iv)

32) Three particles of masses 10g, 20g and 40g are moving with velocities and (m/s)
respectively. If due to some mutual interaction, the first particle comes to rest and the velocity of

second particle becomes m/s, then the velocity of third particle is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making angle θ with the horizontal.
Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) mu2 sin θ cos θ

(3)

(4)

34) A solid cylinder is rolling down an inclined plane of height h and reaches the bottom with a
linear velocity v. If the mass of the cylinder is M and the radius is R, find the radius of gyration (K)
about the central axis parallel to the length of the cylinder.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are kept separated by a distance d. The potential at the point
where the gravitational field produced by them is zero, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Eight drops of a liquid of density ρ and each of radius a are falling through air with a constant
velocity 3.75 cms–1. When the eight drops coalesce to form a single drop then terminal velocity of the
new drop will be :-

(1) 15 × 10–2 ms–1

(2) 2.4 × 10–2 ms–1
(3) 0.75 × 10–2 ms–1
(4) 25 × 10–2 ms–1

37) Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface
tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3
obey:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A particle of mass m in a unidirectional potential field have potential energy U(x) = a + 2bx2;
where a and b are positive constants. Find time period of oscillation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Select the correct statement(s) :-

(A) Number of nodes equals to number of antinodes in closed organ pipe.
(B) In open organ pipe, if number of antinodes is m, then number of nodes will be m-1.
(C) If frequency of 4th harmonic of open organ pipe is 400 Hz, then frequency of 2nd overtone of
closed organ pipe of same length is 250 Hz.
(D) Time interval between successive maxima or minima (for superposition of two waves) is

(1) Only (A)

(2) Both (B) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All of these

40) A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant

velocity v as shown in figure. Then choose correct statements- (a)

Induced emf in rectangular loop remains constant
(b) Induced emf in circular loop remains constant
(c) Induced emf in rectangular loop varies
(d) Induced emf in circular loop varies

(1) a and b
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) c and d

41) A group of electric lamps having a total power consumption of 1000 watt is supplied by an AC
voltage, V = 200 sin (310 t + π/3)
If current is I = I0 sin 310t
Then the rms value of the electric current is :-

(1) 10 amp
(2)
(3) 20 amp
(4)

42) Photoelectric effect takes place in element A. Its work function is 2.5 eV and required
wavelength is λ = 5000 Å. An other element B is having work function of 3eV. Then find out the
wavelength that can produce photoelectric effect in B :-

(1) 4100 Å
(2) 5000 Å
(3) 6000 Å
(4) 6500 Å

43) The log E - logλ graph between the energy E of an electron and its de-Broglie wavelength λ will
be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is :-
(Here symbols have their usual meaning)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A nucleus X, initially at rest undergoes alpha decay according to the equation. :-
+Q

Given that : m(Y) = 228.03 u; m = 1.009 u

m = 4.003 u ; m =1.008 u and

2
c = 931.5 MeV/u, Q = 5.344 MeV
Binding energy (in MeV) for parent nucleus X is :-

(1) 1728.4
(2) 1823.2
(3) 1900.5
(4) 1680.8

CHEMISTRY

1) Calculate the bond length of C – X bond if C–C bond length is 1.54 Å and X – X bond length is 1.2
Å and EN of C and X are 2 and 3 respectively

(1) 2.74 Å
(2) 1.37 Å
(3) 1.46Å
(4) 1.28Å

2) Match the following electronic configurations with their properties :

(a) 2s22p6 (i) Smallest atomic radius

(b) 3s23p5 (ii) Highest IP
(c) 3s1 (iii) Highest EA
(d) 2s22p5 (iv) Most metallic
(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

3)

The incorrect order of bond angle :-

(1) > CF2Cl2
(2) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3
(3)
(4) PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3

4) Correct order of bond length is :

(1) > CO2 > CO; C–O bond length

– –2
(2) O2 < O2 < O2 ; O–O bond length
(3) O2 < O3 < H2O2 ; O–O bond length
(4) All of the above

5) Assertion :- The dipole moment of CH3F is lower than that of CH3Cl.

Reason :- C – F bond is more polar than C – Cl bond.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Match the following

Pair of species Similar properties

(A) SiO2 & SOCl2 (P) Hybridisation

(B) XeOF2 & ClF3 (Q) Lone pair (at central atom)

(C) SO2 & SO3 (R) No. of pπ – pπ bonds

(D) XeOF4 & SOF2 (S) Planar

(T) Polar
(1) A→P,R; B→P,S,T; C→P,R,S; D→T
(2) A→P,R; B→P,S,T; C→P,R,S; D→S,T
(3) A→P; B→P,Q,S,T; C→P,R,S; D→Q,T
(4) A→P,Q; B→P,S; C→R,S; D→S,T

7)

Which acid can reduce AgNO3 into metallic silver :-

(1) Hypophosphorous acid

(2) Orthophosphoric acid
(3) Pyrophosphoric acid
(4) Hypophosphoric acid

8) Match the column :

 Electronic
Metal
configuration

(A) Nd (i) 4f14 5d1 6s2

0
(B) Pm (ii) 4f14 6s2 5d

(C) Yb (iii) 4f4 6s2

(D) Lu (iv) 4f5 6s2

(1) A-iv; B-iii; C-i; D-iii
(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
(3) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
(4) A-iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i

9) The wavelength of light absorbed is highest in

3–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(2) [Fe(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(NO2)6]
3–
(4) [FeCl6]

10) Which of following statement is incorrect :-

Both geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ are optically inactive,

(1)
whereas are identical
(2) [Ca(Edta)]–2 is used to remove poisonous effect of Pb.
+
(3) NH4 (aq) + 2KI + HgI2 Salt of Millon's base of brown colour.
(4) CH2=CH2 ligand exist in same plane of remaining part of Zeise's salt

11) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) CFSE in weak ligand field for d configuration is –0.6 Δ0

4

2–
(2) Effective atomic number of Pt in [PtCl6] is 84 (Z of Pt = 78)
–
(3) Br is a weak field ligand than H2O
(4) [Cr(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 shows linkage isomerism

12) Which is incorrect statement ?

(1) Hg2Cl2 does not give chromyl chloride test

(2) H2S not give purple colour complex with sodium nitro prusside
(3) CuSO4 give deep blue soluble complex with excess NH4OH solution
(4) NH3 gas give blue colour ppt with Nesseler reagent

13)

Choose the correct matching :-

 Column-II
Column-I
(Colour
(Given Mixture)
Precipitate)

+2 Rosy Red
(P) Pb + dil HCl + H2S→ (A)
ppt.

(Q) Fe+3 + NaOH → (B) White ppt.

(R) Ni+2 + DMG solution → (C) Black ppt.

(S) Zn+2 + KCN solution → (D) Brown ppt.

(1) P-C, Q-D, R-A, S-B
(2) P-C, Q-D, R-B, S-A
(3) P-B, Q-C, R-A, S-D
(4) P-D, Q-C, R-A, S-B

14) Which of the statements is not true?

(1) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange

(2) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
(3) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed
(4) The bond angle of Cr-O-Cr < O-Cr-O in K2Cr2O7

15) Which of the following order is not affected by Lanthanoid contraction ?

(a) Mn Zn (Size)
(b) Hf > Ti (Ionisation energy)
(c) Zr+4 Hf+4 (Ionic size)
(d) Y < La (Size)

(1) a & b
(2) a & c
(3) b & c
(4) a & d

16)
Product (E) is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Reaction-I

Ph–C≡C–CH3
Reaction-II

CH3–C≡C–CH3

Reaction-III

x, y & z are moles of used NaNH2. What is x + y + z ?

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 7

18) In following conversion

CH3CH=CH–O–CH2CH3
major product is :

(1) CH3CH=CHI and CH3CH2I

(2) CH3CH = CHI and CH3CH2OH
(3) CH3CH2CHO and CH3CH2I

(4)

19)
 ,
Final Product "D" is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A + HCHO (B)

B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) How many structural isomers are possible for the substituted Benzene derivatives with
molecular formula C9H12 is –

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 6

22) Rank the following in decreasing order of acidic strength?

(1) A > C > B > D
(2) A > D > C > B
(3) A > D > B > C
(4) D > A > C > B

23)
Major product (B) is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which of the following alkyl halide gives only one product [excluding stereoisomer] when
undergo E2 reaction –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following compound does not form alcohol while treating with grignard reagent
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Product, Product is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both 1 and 3

27) Mixture of 1g each of chlorobenzene, aniline and benzoic acid is dissolved in 50 ml ethyl acetate
and placed in a separating funnel, 5 M NaOH (30 mℓ) was added in the same funnel. The funnel was
shaken vigorously and kept aside. The ethyl acetate layer in the funnel contains -

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) Benzoic acid and aniline
(3) Benzoic acid and chloro benzene
(4) Chloro benzene and aniline

28) Residue (A) + HCl (dil.) → compound (B)

Structure of residue (A) and compound (B) formed respectively is –

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Match list-I with list-II.

List I
(Purification List II (Mixture of organic compounds)
technique)

A Distillation (Simple) I Diesel + Petrol

B Fractional distillation II Aniline + Water

C Steam Distillation III Glycerol + Spent lye

Distillation under
D IV Chloroform + Aniline
reduced pressure
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

30) The α-halix and β-pleated sheet structures of proteins are associated with its

(1) Quarternary structure

(2) Primary structure
(3) Secondary structure
(4) Tertiary structure

31) Two elements X and Y combine to form two compound X2Y3 and XY2. If 3.01 × 1023 molecules of
X2Y3 weigh 85 gm and atomic mass of Y is 30, then find number of moles in 5 gm of XY2

(1) 0.02
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.5

32) The molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 40 mL of pure methanol (d = 0.8 g mL–1) in 500
g of ethanol is-
(1) 10.8 m
(2) 11.2 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 10.4 m

33) Lattice energy and hydration energy for an ionic solid AB are +210 kJ mol–1 and –287 kJ
mol–1 respectively. At which of the following temperature will AB show maximum solubility :-

(1) 50°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 40°C
(4) 70°C

34) How many coulomb are required for the oxidation of 1 mol of H2O2 to O2?

(1) 9.65 × 104 C

(2) 93000 C
(3) 1.93 × 105 C
(4) 19.3 × 102 C

35) The ratio of the difference in energy between the first and the second Bohr orbit and difference
in energy between the second and the third Bohr orbit is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Gadolinium-153, which is used to detect osteoporosis (porous bones), has a half life of 243 days.
Which value is closest to the percentage of Gd-153 left in a patient's system after 2 years if its decay
follows first order ?

(1) 33%
(2) 26%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 6.25%

37) How many moles of hydrazine (N2H4) can be oxidized into N2 using 2/3 mole of bromate ions
:-

(1)

(2) 1
(3) 1.5

(4)

38)

Zn + 2H+ → Zn2+ + H2
If rate law of reaction is r = k[Zn][H+]2 and pH is decreased from 3 to 2, then rate becomes :-

(1)
times

(2)
times
(3) 100 times
(4) Unchanged

39) The equilibrium, NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g), is followed to set-up at 127°C in a closed vessel.
The total pressure at equilibrium was 20 atm. The Kc for the reaction is-

(1) 0.092 M2
(2) 1.085 M2
(3) 3.045 M2
(4) 4.14 M2

40) Assertion (A) : Raoult's law can be considered as a special case of Henry's law.
Reason (R) : Both ideal and non-ideal solutions obey Raoult's law.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

41) How much current of 60% current efficiency is required to deposit all copper ions from 250 ml of
1 M CuSO4 solution in 193 minute.

(1) 6.944 amp

(2) 69.44 amp
(3) 3.472 amp
(4) 34.72 amp

42) Solubility of AgI in presence of 0.05 M BaI2 is 10–15 M. Solubility of AgI is pure water will be :-

(1) 25 × 10–7 M
(2) 10–7 M
(3) 5 × 10–8 M
(4) 10–8 M

43) At 700 K if ΔG = –11.5 kJ, what is the value of ΔS(universe)

(1) –11.5 kJK–1

(2) –16.4 J K–1
(3) 16.4 J K–1
(4) –145 J K–1

44) Statement-I : Starch sol is an example of lyophillic sol.

Statement-II : Conversion of freshly prepared precipitate into a colloidal sol using suitable
electrolyte is called coagulation.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

45) What is the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 20 mL of 0.250M sodium formate with 20 mL of
0.250M HCOOH (pKb for HCOO– = 10.25) :-

(1) 3.75
(2) 4.18
(3) 5.22
(4) 6.81

BIOLOGY

1) Which type of vascular bundles are found in dicot stem ?

(1) Conjoint Collateral, closed

(2) Radial, open
(3) Conjoint Collateral, open
(4) Radial, Closed

2) Identify the incorrect statement –

All tissues on the inner side of the endodermis such a pericycle, vascular bundles, and pith
(1)
constitute the stele.
(2) Pith is large and well developed in monocot root.
(3) Monocot roots do not undergo any secondary growth.
(4) The monocot stem posses, parenchymatous hypodermis.

3) Exalbuminous seed store their reserve food mainly in :-

(1) Cotyledon
(2) Seed coat
(3) Endosperm
(4) Perisperm

4) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A Actinomorphic i Bilateral symmetry a Mustard

B Perigynous ii Inferior ovary b Rose

C Zygomorphic iii Radial symmetry c Pea

D Epigynous iv Half-inferior ovary d Guava

(1) A-i-a ; B-ii-b ; C-iii-c ; D-iv-d
(2) A-iii-c ; B-iv-d ; C-i-a ; D-ii-b
(3) A-iii-a ; B-iv-b ; C-i-c ; D-ii-d
(4) A-i-c ; B-ii-d ; C-iii-a ; D-iv-b

5) Arrangement of ovules within ovary is known as placentation. The placentation are of different
type. Given below are two statements for above structure.
Statement-I : In marginal placentation placenta forms a ridge along ventral suture of ovary and
ovules are born on the ridge forming two rows.
Statement-II : Mustard and Argemone have unilocular ovary but it later on become bilocular due to
formation of septa of true type during placentation.
Select the correct option in the light of above statement.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

6) Which of the following statements is incorrect about double fertilization ?

(1) Double fertilization is an event unique to flowering plants.

(2) After double fertilization, a mature ovule has 1 diploid & 1 triploid cell.
(3) The central cell after triple fusion become the primary endosperm cell.
(4) Out of two, one male gamete move towards the haploid secondary nucleus & get fused.

7) Which cells of the ovules have abundant reserve food materials?

(1) Hilum
(2) Integument
(3) Nucellus
(4) Funicle

8) Residual persistent Nucellus in some seeds such as blackpepper, beat, and castor is represented
by?
(1) Integument
(2) Perisperm
(3) Ovule
(4) Hilum

9) Biological concept of species was given by:

(1) Aristotle
(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) John Ray
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

10) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding amoeboid protozoans ?

(1) These organism live in fresh water, sea water or most soil.
(2) They move and capture their prey by cilia.
(3) Marine forms have silica shells on their surface.
(4) Some of them are parasite.

11) Statement I : Fungi make mycorrhizal association with roots of Cycas.

Statement II : Mycorrhizal association facilitate the exchange of nutrients between the fungus and
the plants.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

12) How many member from the following can formes ascospores during sexual reproduction.
(I) Penicillium (II) Yeast
(III) Agaricus (IV) Aspergillus
(V) Claviceps (VI) Neurospora

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

13) Select the mismatch :

(1) Pinus - Monoecious

(2) Salvinia - Heterosporous
(3) Equisetum - Homosporous
(4) Cycas - Monoecious

14) Match the column-I with column-II

 Column-I Column-II
(Classes) (Example)

I. Sphenopsida a. Polysiphonia

II. Phaeophyceae b. Selaginella

III. Lycopsida c. Dictyota

IV. Rhodophyceae d. Equisetum

(1) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(2) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(3) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

15) Assertion (A) : Male gametophytic generation in gymnosperms is highly reduced.

Reason (R) : It is confined to only a limited number of cells.
Options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

16) The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is :-

(A) Gametes fused to produce zygote
(B) Formation of sporophyte
(C) Meiotic division to produce haploid spores
(D) Gametophyte produce gametes
(E) The spores Germinate to deveoped into gametophytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.

(1) D,A,C,B,E
(2) A,B,E,D,C
(3) B,A,C,E,D
(4) D, A, B,C,E

17) Which of the following is most abundant protein on the earth?

(1) Collagen
(2) Trypsin
(3) RuBisCO
(4) Insulin

18)

Match List-I with List-II with respect to average composition of cells.

 List-I List-II

A Nucleic acid I 1%

B Proteins II 3%

C Ions III 10-15%

D Carbohydrates IV 5-7%
(1) A-IV ; B-III ; C-II ; D-I
(2) A-IV ; B-III ; C-I ; D-II
(3) A-III ; B-IV ; C-I ; D-II
(4) A-IV ; B-II ; C-I ; D-III

19) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

The rate of chemical reaction doubles or decreases by half for every 10°C change in either
(1)
direction.
(2) In the absence of any enzyme, CO2 and H2O form 200 molecules of H2CO3 in an hour.
(3) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures.
(4) Catalytic nature of enzyme is due to its secondary structure only.

20) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Accessory pigments enable a wider range of wavelength of light to be utilised for photosynthesis
(2) Chlorophyll 'a' is visualised as bright/blue green coloured on chromatogram.
(3) The maximum absorption by Chlorophyll 'a' is found in the blue and red regions
(4) Chlorophyll 'b' is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.

21) Match list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

Accessory Yellow green in

(A) (I)
pigments chromatogram

Protect
Most of the
(B) (II) chlorophyll 'a' from
photosynthesis
photo-oxidation

Paper Blue &

(C) (III)
chromatography Red light

Separation
(D) Chlorophyll-b (IV)
of pigments

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
22) Statement-I : The breaking of C—C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the
cells leading to release of considerable amount of energy is called respiration.
Statement-II : The compounds that are oxidised during the respiration are known as respiratory
substrates.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

23) Which of the following statements is correct?

All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose without the help
(1)
of oxygen.
The conversion of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA) to 2-phosphoglyceric acid (2-PGA), is an ATP
(2)
yielding process.
The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving
(3)
three molecules of O2.
Cytochrome 'c' is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner membrane of
(4)
mitochondria and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex II and III.

24) Which of the following are true about fermentation process?

(A) Pyruvic acid is the final hydrogen acceptor in lactic acid fermentation.
(B) Decarboxylation takes place during lactic acid fermentation.
(C) Equal amount of ATP is synthesised in both lactic acid fermentation and alcohol fermentation.
(D) Both reduction and decarboxylation process take place during alcohol fermentation.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B, C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, C and D only

25) Assertion :- Ethylene helps the plant to increase their absorption surface area.
Reason :- Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair formation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

26) Which of the following is a function of auxin ?

(1) Inhibition of cell division

(2) Promotion of cell elongation
(3) Inhibition of flowering in pineapple
(4) Inhibition of apical dominance

27) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In monohybrid cross Mendel found that the F1 always resembled either one of the
parents and that the trait of the other parent was not seen in them.
Statement-II : In a typical test cross an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with
the recessive parent instead of self-crossing.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

28) Which of the following is incorrect combination ?

(1) Colourblindness - Sex linked recessive

(2) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosome linked recessive
(3) Phenylketonuria - Autosome linked dominant
(4) Thalassemia - Autosome linked recessive

29) Which of the following statement is not true with respect to Polygenic Inheritance ?

(1) Traits which are generally controlled by three or more genes and are called polygenic traits.
Besides the involvement of multiple genes polygenic inheritance does not take into account the
(2)
influence of environment.
(3) Human skin colour is another classic example of polygenic inheritance.
In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects the contribution of each alleles i.e., the effect of each
(4)
allele is additive.

30) Statement-I : Pedigree is a record of some genetic characters or diseases for two or more
generation in a family.
Statement-II : Pedigree analysis provides valuable information's regarding genetical make up of
human beings.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

31) Stem height of tobacco plant with genotype aaBbCc is 30 cm and the minimum is 20 cm. Find
out the height of plant with genotype AABBCC.

(1) 30 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 50 cm

32) Which of the following is not related to DNA ?

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) N-glycosidic bond
(3) Deoxythymidylic acid
(4) Deoxyuridylic acid

33) Which of the following enzyme facilitate opening of DNA helix at the time of transcription ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) DNA helicase
(3) RNA polymerase
(4) RNA ligase

34) In a ds DNA sequence of one strand is 5' ATGAGCTTCCGTCTA 3'. Find out sequence of RNA
during transcription ?

(1) 3' UACAGCTTCCGTCTA 5'

(2) 5' UACAGCTTCCGTCTA 3'
(3) 3' AUGAGCUUCCGUCTA 5'
(4) 5' AUGAGCUUCCGUCUA 3'

35) From the following identify the correct combination of salient features of the genetic code.

(1) Universal, Non ambiguous, Overlapping

(2) Degenerate, Over lapping, comma less
(3) Universal, Unambiguous, Degenerate
(4) Degenerate, Nonoverlapping, ambiguous

36) Statement-I : Severo Ochoa enzyme was used for enzymatic synthesis of RNA.
Statement-II : Hargobind khorana developed the chemical method for synthesizing RNA molecule.
Select the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Only statement-I is correct.
(3) Only statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

37)

Select the correct statements :-

(A) In bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs.
(B) tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code during transcription
(C) All three RNAs (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA) are needed to synthesise a protein in the cell.
(D) rRNA, reads the genetic code during translation.
(E) 'rRNA' play structural and catalytic role during transcription
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and B only

(2) B and D only
(3) B and E only
(4) A and C only

38) Statement-I : Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources
that are limited
Statement-II : If two species compete for the same resources they could avoid competition by
resource partitioning.

(1) Both Statement-I & II are true.

(2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
(3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
(4) Both Statement-I & II are false.

39) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : When Darwin spoke of the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest in
nature. He was convinced that interspecific competition is potent force in organic evolution.
Statement (II) : Resources need not to be limiting for competition to occur, in interference
competition, the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to interfering and inhibitory
presence of the other species.
In the light of above statement select the correct options :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

40) The algal bloom in a pond ecosystem can be an example of :-

(1) Parasitism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Predation

41) What percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is captured by plants?

(1) 50%
(2) 10%
(3) 2-10%
(4) 90%

42) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In most ecosystems all the pyramids of number and biomass are upright.
Reason (R): In a food chain generally producers are more in number and biomass than the
herbivores and herbivores are more in number and biomass than carnivores.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

43)

How many statements are true.

(a) India has 2.04 % of world area.
(b) India has 8.11% of global species diversity
(c) India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
(d) In India 45000 species of animals and 90,000 species of plants have been recorded.

(1) a, b and d are correct

(2) only d is correct
(3) a, d and c are correct
(4) only c is correct

44) An example of In-situ conservation is ?

(1) Hot spot

(2) Zoological parks
(3) Botanical gardens
(4) Wildlife safari parks

45) Which one aspect is not found to present in biodiversity hot spots ?

(1) High degree of threat

(2) Endemism
(3) Species richness
(4) Low interspecific competition

46) Choose the correct option which is common among the given animals.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) All have open circulatory system and jointed appendages.

(2) All have metameric segmentation.
(3) All have double solid dorsal nerve cord.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

47) True segmentation of body is first observed in the member of which phylum?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

48) Malphighian tubules are :

(1) Excretory organs of insects

(2) Excretory organs of annelids
(3) Respiratory organs of insects
(4) Respiratory organs of annelids

49) Which is correct about 'a'

(1) Mesoglea
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Ectoderm
(4) Endoderm

50) Find out correct statement for cockroach.

(1) Body wall consist of calcareous shell.

(2) Body cavity is pseudocoelom
(3) Coelom found in cavity of gonads
(4) Body cavity is filled with blood which is red in colour

51) Match the following columns with respect to frog :

Column-I Column-II

A Simple eye i Cerebellum

Possessing
B Hind brain ii
only one unit
 C Fertilization iii Urea

Excretory
D iv External
product

Codes :
A B C D

1 iv iii ii i

2 ii i iv iii

3 i ii iii iv

4 ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Identify the figure of epithelial tissue given below along with it's correct location and function.

Tissue Location Function

Move
Bronchioles
Ciliated particles
1 D and fallopian
epithelium in specific
tube
direction

Simple
2 C Squamous Pharynx Protection
epithelium

Keratinised
Secretion
stratified
3 B Stomach &
squamous
absorption
epithelium

Ciliated Forming
4 A Columnar Intestine diffusion
epithelium boundary
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Thymus gland secrete the peptide hormone called :

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Thymosin
(3) Parathyroid hormone
(4) Adrenaline

54) Androgen act on the __________ and influence the male sexual behaviour.

(1) Peripheral Nervous System

(2) Central Nervous System
(3) Autonomic Nervous System
(4) Visceral nervous system

55)

Glucagon, Insulin, Catecholamines, β-cells, Diabetes mellitus.

How many of the following are related to pancreas?

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

56) Which part of brain is responsible for urge for eating?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus Callosum
(4) Medulla Oblongata

57) Assertion : Outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a positive charge while its inner
surface becomes negatively charged and therefore is polarised.
Reason : Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the passive transport of
ions by the Na+-K+ pump.
Mark the correct choice-

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

58) Which type of muscle fibres also called aerobic muscle?

(1) Red muscle fibres
(2) Elastin fibres
(3) Reticular fibres
(4) White muscle fibres

59) Select the correct statements with respect to movement and locomotion:-
Statement (A): Cells of human body exhibit three main types of movements.
Statement (B): Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.
Statement (C): Macrophages shows amoeboid movement by forming pseudopodia.

(1) Statement A, B is correct and C is incorrect.

(2) Statement A, C is correct and B is incorrect.
(3) Statement A, B, C all are correct.
(4) Statement B, C is correct and A is incorrect.

60) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Angina (i) Deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol

(B) Atherosclerosis (ii) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

(C) Asthma (iii) Alveolar walls are damaged.

Not enough oxygen is reaching the heart

(D) Emphysema (iv)
muscles.
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

61) How many of the following statements are incorrect ?

A. Plasma is a viscous fluid having straw colour.
B. Plasma has 16-18% proteineous substance.
C. Leucocyte are colourless due to lack of Hemoglobin.
D. Cortex extends between medullary pyramid to form column of bertini.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

62) Hypertension is the term for :-

(1) Blood pressure lower than normal

(2) Blood pressure higher than normal
(3) Blood pressure equal to the normal
(4) Stopping of heart beat.

63) Assertion : JGA is responsible to maintain GFR.

Reason : Increase in GFR activates the JG cells to release renin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

64) Which excretory material is most toxic ?

(1) NH3
(2) Urea
(3) Uric acid
(4) Guanine

65) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately __________ ml of CO2 to Alveoli.

(1) 5 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 4 ml
(4) 2 ml

66) Capacitation of sperm is provided by :-

(1) Urethra
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Cervix
(4) Seminal vesicle

67)

Secretions of male accessory glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in :

(1) Calcium
(2) Fructose
(3) Enzymes
(4) All of these

68) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called :-

(1) Morula
(2) Blastula
(3) Gastrula
(4) Foetus
69) How many of the following are correctly matched?
(i) After one month-Heart formed
(ii) End of second month-Limbs and digits are formed
(iii) First trimester-Major organ systems are formed
(iv) During fifth month-First movement
(v) End of second trimester-Fine hairs on body
Find the correct option :-

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 2

70) Identify the correct statement :-

(1) Secondary follicles are surrounded by granulosa cells and theca layer
(2) Primary follicle is characterised by antrum.
(3) Graffian follicles ruptures to release tertiary oocytes.
(4) Primary follicle is surrounded by granulosa cells and theca layer.

71) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding given contraceptive methods and their
actions ?

(1) Barrier methods-prevents fertilization

(2) Hormonal IUDs- prevents implantation
(3) Oral pills-prevents ovulation
(4) Vasectomy-prevents spermatogenesis

72) Read the following statements carefully -

(A) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by widal test.
(B) In severe Pneumonia the lips and finger nail may turn grey to bluish in colour.
(C) Common cold is vector borne disease.
(D) Haemozoin is released by Ruptured WBCs of infected person.
(E) During Allergy, IgA types of antibodies are formed.
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

73) Statement-I : Vaccines generate memory-B and T cells that recognise the pothogen quickly
Statement-II : Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before graft/transplant.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

74) Find 'A' & 'B' enzyme

(1) Protease, integrase

(2) Polymerase, integrase
(3) Integrase, polymerase
(4) Reverse transcriptase, Integrase

75) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution
Statement-II : First form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

76) Choose the incorrect matched pair :-

(1) Homo erectus – 900 cc

(2) Homo habilis – Ate meat
(3) Neanderthal man – Buried their dead
(4) Homo erectus – First man who used fire

77) Read the column-I & II and identify their correct match :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Prophase (i) Observed clearly under microscope

(B) Metaphase (ii) Formation of mitotic apparatus

 (C) Anaphase (iii) Centromeres split

(D) Telophase (iv) Cell plate formation

(v) Chiasmata

(vi) Homologous chromosome separate

(vii) ER reform
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-vi, D-vii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-vii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-vi, D-v
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-vi

78) Identify the given figure and choose correct answer :

(1) Homologous chromosome separation

(2) Splitting of the centromere of each chromosome
(3) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate
(4) Chromosome get enclosed by a nuclear envelope

79) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant at G1 stage has 20 chromosome with
20pg DNA then in anaphase cell will have :-

(1) 20 chromosomes/40pg DNA

(2) 40 chromosomes/40pg DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes/80pg DNA
(4) 10 chromosomes/40pg DNA

80) What is false for nucleolus ?

(1) It is not a membrane bound structure

(2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) Clearly visible during M-phase of cell cycle
(4) They become larger and more numerous in actively protein synthesizing cells

81) Identify correct statements from given below-

(I) Several ribosomes may attach to single mRNA and form a chain called polysome.
(II) ETS take place in matrix of mitochondria.
(III) Small, enzyme containing unit membranous structures are called microbodies that present in
both plant and animal cell.
(IV) The telocentric chromosome has terminal centromere.
(V) The flagella show 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules.
(1) I, III & V
(2) II, III & V
(3) I, III & IV
(4) I, IV & V

82)

Match the column.

(a) Thylakoid (i) Site of Krebs cycle reactions

Composed of cellulose, hemicellulose,

(b) Mitochondria (ii)
pectin and protein

(c) Cell wall (iii) Organised in stacks of grana

(d) Nucleus (iv) Primary site of DNA Replication

(1) c-i, b-iii, d-iv, a-ii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

83) Assertion (A) : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics resistance is a

cumbersome procedure.
Reason (R) : Selection due to inactivation of antibiotics requires simultaneous plating on two plates
having different antibiotics .
Select the correct option :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

84) Statement-I : The recombinant plasmids will lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of
foreign DNA but can still be selected out from non-recombinant ones by plating the transformants on
tetracycline containing medium.
Statement-II : A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline resistance gene. Non recombinants
would survive on the medium containing ampicillin but not tetracycline.
Choose correct option for given above statements :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

85) A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures requires a
vector, because vector provide :-

(1) Origin of replication site

(2) Origin of transcription site
(3) Origin of translation site
(4) All the above

86) Assertion (A) : Ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of all human activities
that might help or harm living organisms.
Reason (R) : Genetic modification of organisms can have predictable results when such organisms
are introduced into the ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

87) Fill up the blanks. I. Using ....A.... vectors, Nematode specific genes are introduced into the host
plant. II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B..... III. The genes .....C....
and .....D.... controls cotton bolloworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same form corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be :-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B-protection against nematodes,
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-Agrobacterium, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

88) Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix ‘‘Bt’’ means :–

(1) ‘‘Barium – treated’’ cotton seeds

(2) ‘‘Bigger thread’’ variety of cotton with better tensile strength.
(3) Produced by ‘‘biotechnology’’ using restriction enzymes and ligases.
(4) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis.

89) Statement-I :- Streptokinase is an enzyme produced by the bacterium Streptococcus

and modified, is used to dissolve blood clot in treatment of heart attacks.
Statement-II :- Streptokinase act as a clot buster for removing clots from the blood vessels of
patients who have undergone heart attack.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

90) Lactic acid bacteria (LAB), particularly Lactobacillus, are widely used in the preparation of curd
and other fermented milk products. During fermentation, these bacteria convert lactose present in
milk into lactic acid. The accumulation of lactic acid lowers the pH, leading to coagulation of milk
proteins such as casein. In addition to improving texture and taste, LAB also enhance the nutritional
quality of curd by increasing vitamin B12 content and inhibiting the growth of harmful microbes in
the digestive tract.
Statements:
Statement-1 :- During curd formation, lactic acid bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid, which
lowers the pH of milk, causes coagulation of casein proteins, improves digestibility, enhances
vitamin B12 content, and suppresses the growth of pathogenic microorganisms in the gut.
Statement-2 :- The sour taste and thick consistency of curd are primarily due to the production of
carbon dioxide by lactic acid bacteria during aerobic respiration inside milk.
Options:

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct

(2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 3 1 4 3 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 3 1 4 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) direction of flag hosting is along

⇒ which is along North-West

2) At 45°, vx = vy
⇒ ux = uy – gt

t= = = 1.5 sec.

3)
from rule of least SF, No of SF in result should be 2
⇒ Result = 29

4) Solution :
Bottom :

Top :

vt2 = 8gR – 4gR = 4gR, (using conservation of mechanical energy)

Thus,
Tt : Tb = 3mg : 9mg = 1 : 3.

5) Heat loss by water to 0°C

Q1 = 250 × 1 × (25 – 0) = 6250 cal
Heat gain by ice to 0°C
Q2 = 2 × 50 × 0.5 × 15 + 2 × 50 × 80 = 8750 cal
∵ Q2 > Q1 hence full ice will not melt. Let mass of ice melted is m these
Heat loss = Heat gain
250 × 1 × (25 – 0) = 2 × 50 × 0.5 (0 – (–15)) + m × 80
 m = 68.75 gm

Hence final mass of water = 250 + 68.75 =

6)

Slope of graph =

Slope ∝

Since tan θA > tan θB ⇒ VA < VB

7)

Q = σA t (T4 - T0 )
4

If T, T0, σ and t are same for both bodies then

…..(i)
But according to problem, volume of sphere

= Volume of cube ⇒ ⇒
Substituting the value of a in equation (i) we get

8)

slope =

=
γ = 3γ – 3
2γ = 3

9)

K.E. = (K.E.)max

About P.E., it will be times of its maximum value

a = – ω2 = amax

10)

As drop fall with constant velocity then air resistance = mg = FA. If uniform electric field is
applied vertical to make the oil drop ascend up with the same constant speed.
Fe = mg + FA = 2mg
⇒ Fe = qE = 2mg

⇒E= =

E = × 102 N/C
If electrostatic force on negative charge is upward then electric field is downwards.

11)

Potential at point P,
Qa : Qb : Qc : : a2 : b2 : c2
{since σa = σb = σc}

∴ Correct answer is (2)

12)

Its a balanced WSB.

So
R1R4 = R2R3

13)

14)
Effective resistance of circuit

Reff = 200 + =

current in circuit Ieff = = A

so voltage across the voltmeter = 4 –

= 1 volt
Hence option (1)

15)

qi = 60μc, qf = 120 μc
∴ qf = Kqi
K= =3

16)

17)

18) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic

wave. If electric charges are present in this plane, they will be set and sustained in motion by
the electric and magnetic fields of the electromagnetic wave. The charge thus acquired energy
and momentum from the wave. This illustrate the fact that an electromagnetic wave like other
waves carries energy and momentum.

19) Direction of wave propagation is given by .

20)

m= ⇒ m1 = m2 =

on dividing =4 ⇒ f = –20 cm

21) δ = i + e – A.....(For δmin ⇒ i = e)

and refracted ray is parallel to base
A, C, D are correct

22)

; θ' is same for both object and image

 0
⇒ u < D ⇒ Hence m > 1

23)

β2 = 1.2 × 10–3m = 1.2 mm

24)

25)

26) = nie(μe + μn)

ni =

=
= 2.5 × 1019 m–3

27) Let, energy E = k pa Abtc ....(i)

where k is a dimensionless constant of proportionality. Equating dimensions on both sides of
(i), we get
0 0 0 0
[ML2T–2] = [MLT–1]a [M L2T ]b [M L T]c
= [MaLa+2bT–a+c]
Applying the principle of homogeneity of dimensions, we get
a=1 ....(ii)
a + 2b = 2 ....(iii)
–a + c = –2 ....(iv)
On solving eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get

a = 1, , c = –1
1 1/2 –1
∴ [E] = [p A t ]

28)

= ± [4+3+3+2]
= ± 12%

29)
N = mg cos θ & mg sin θ = µN
⇒ sin θ = µ cos θ ⇒ tan θ =µ

h = r (1– cos θ) = r

30) Newton’s first law defines force. Newton’s second law gives us a measure of force. Impulse
gives us the effect of force. Recoiling of gun is accounted for by Newton’s 3rd law.

31) K ∝ t ⇒ K = λt, where λ is a constant

a=

F = ma= ⇒F∝ , (ii) is O.K.

F=

(iv) is O.K.

32) From conservation of momentum,

33)
⇒ mu2 sinθ cosθ

34)

35)

Now potential,

36)

v′T = 4 vT = 4 × 3.75 cm/s = 15 × 10–2 ms–1

37)
here
h, T, r, g = constant
∴ cosθ ∝ ρ
∴ ρ ↑ → cosθ ↑ → θ ↓

38)
F = –4bx

39)

(A) → Theory based

for COP ⇒ No. of N = No. of AN
(B) For OOP,
No. of N = (No. of AN) – 1
(C) 4th Harmonic of OOP

For COP of same length

2nd OT freq.

⇒
(D) Beat freq. = f2 – f1 Hz = b
Time interval b/w two successive maxima or two successive minima.

40) - Rectangular loop: dA/dt is constant → emf remains constant

- Circular loop: dA/dt changes with position → emf varies

41)

P = VRMSIRMS cosϕ

1000 =
⇒ IRMS =

42)
⇒ hc = 5000 × 2.5 eV Å

0
⇒ λ = = 4133.3 Å
 ⇒ λ ≤ λ0 can produce photoelectric effect.

43)

y = – mx + C

44) mvr =
acceleration

a=
put n = 1

45) Q = (BE of y + BE of α) – BE of x
⇒ BE of x = (BE of y) + (BE of α) – Q value
= (Δmy + Δmα) × 931.5 MeV/u – 5.344 MeV
= [(90×1.008 + 138 ×1.009 – 228.03) +
(2 ×1.008 + 2 × 1.009–4.003)] × 931.5 MeV – 5.344 MeV
= (1828.54 – 5.344)MeV = 1823.2 MeV

CHEMISTRY

46)

δ = rA + rB – 0.09 Δ ∈ N equation

47)

Convert configuration in elements like (b) 3s23p5 is Cl hence show highest EA.

48)
180° 134° 120°

49)

Apply resonance & MOT concept

50)

C-F bond is more polar in CF3 due to high ΔEN but its dipole moment is less than CH3Cl.

51)

According to structure

52)

Hypophosphorus acid has 2 P-H bond responsible for reducing nature.

53)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 110

54)

Weakest the ligand maximum will be absorbed wavelength.

55)

CH2=CH2 ligand is perpendicular to remaining part plane.

56)

EAN of Pt is here 78 – 4 + 12 = 86
57)

NH3 with Nesseler reagent gives brown complex.

58)

PbS – Black, Fe(OH)3 – Brown, Ni–dmg–Red, (Zn(CN)4)–3–white

59)

K2Cr2O7

Here θ2 > θ1
126° ≃ 109°28'

60)

Lanthanoids contraction applicable from Hf72 onwards.

61)

62)

Due to elimination & NSR reaction.

63) CH3–CH=CH– from unstable carb-cation, so it form alcohol and CH2–CH3 group from
alkylhalide. We know that OH group is not stable on double bonded carbon it show
tautomerism, that why CH3–CH=CH– group form aldehyde.
64)

Due Reimer Tiemann reaction followed by NSR

65)

66)

67) Due to EN ⇒

68)

69)

70)
Acid-base neutralization producing a hydrocarbon

71)

It is an SN2 reaction.

72)

Chloro benzene and aniline doesn't react with NaOH.

73)

74)

Fact Based

75)

Both are associated with secondary structure.

76) 3.01 × 1023 molecule X2Y3 → 85 gm

1 mole = 6.02 × 1023 molecule
X2Y3 → 85 × 2 = 170 gm
Also, 1 mole = molar mass of substance
∴ 2X + 3Y = 170 (X, Y = atomic masses)
X = 40 (since Y = 30)
Molar mass of XY2 = X + 2Y
= 40 + 2 × (30) = 100

Moles of XY2 =

77) Mass of methanol = d × V = 0.8 × 40 = 32 g

m=

78) ΔHdissolution = (ΔH)lattice + (ΔH)hydration

= (+210) + (–287)
 = –ve (Exothermic dissolution)
∴ S ↓ when T ↑
S = max. when T = min

79) H2O2 → O2 + 2H+ + 2e–

1 mol H2O2 ≡ 2 mol e–
≡ 2 × 96500 C ≡ 193000 C
= 1.93 × 10–5 C

80)

E1 – E2 = –13.6 × = –13.6 ×

E2 – E3 = –13.6 × = –13.6 ×

81) In 2 years (730 days) around three Half life has been passed so after three half life
remaining value of gadolinium will be 12.5%.

82)

geq. of N2H4 = geq. of

moles × (V.F. = 4) = mole × (V.F. = 6)

Mole of N2H4 = 1

83) (ii) Let r1 ∝ [H+] ⇒ r1 ∝ [10–3]x

[when pH = 3]
r2 = 100 r1 ∝ [10–2]x
[when pH = 2]

Thus,

84) NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)

Eq.

Kp = Kc × (RT)Δn
100 = Kc × [0.0821 × 400]2

Kc =
 85)

Raoult's law is special case of Henry's law only ideal solutions obey Raoult's law.

86)

I = 4.166 A current required when efficiency is 100%.

For 60% current efficiency =

I = 6.944 A.

87) [I–] from BaI2 = 2 × 0.05 = 0.1 M

K(sp)AgI = [Ag+] × [I–]
In presence of BaI2,
Ksp = (s = 10–15) × (0.1) = 10–16
In pure water,
Ksp = s2 = 10–16 ; s = 10–8 M

88) ΔG = –TΔSuniverse

ΔSuniverse =

89) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

90)

(HCOOH + HCOONa) = Acidic buffer

pH = (pKa = 14 –pKb) +
∵ [Salt] = [Acid]
pH = pKa = 3.75

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI Pg. # 73

92) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 76.

93)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 66

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62, 63

95) NCERT-XII, Page No. - XI, 65

96) NCERT-XII, Pg.#18.

97) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 9.

98) Module

99)

Allen module.

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 16

101) NCERT Pg.# 32

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17, 18

103) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 33, 32

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27, 32

105) NCERT XI Page No.: 33

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. 29

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110

108) NCERT-XI, Page # 109

109) NCERT XI Pg # 112, 113, 114

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137, 138

111) NCERT-XI, Pg#137,138

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 154

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 155, 156, 158, 160

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 157

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

116) NCERT-XI, Pg#175, 176

117) NCERT Pg.#55,58 (E), 62,65 (H)

118) NCERT Pg.#73-75

119) NCERT Pg.#69

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 73

121) NCERT-Pg. # 69

122) NCERT, Pg. # 81

123) NCERT, Pg. # 93-94

124) NCERT, Pg. # 92

125)

NCERT-Pg. # 96

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

127) NCERT, Pg. # 93 (E), 103 (H)

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

129) NCERT XII Pg. # 198, 199

130) NCERT Pg. # 197

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

132) NCERT 12th, Page No. # 213

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 219

134) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 224

135) NCERT Pg. # 224

136) NCERT, Pg. # 41

137) NCERT XIth Page # 52

138) NCERT XI Page # 53

139) NCERT XIth Page # 47

140) NCERT Page-111

141) NCERT page - 118 and 119

142) NCERT Page No. 101

143) NCERT_Page No.335

144) NCERT_Page No.338

145) NCERT_Page No. 337, 338

146) NCERT Page No # 321

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 317

148) NCERT-XI Page No. 223

149) NCERT Pg. # 217, 218

150) NCERT Pg. # 203,190

151)

NCERT, Pg. # 193, 194

152) NCERT Pg. # 202

153)

NCERT, Pg. # 212

154)

NCERT, Pg. # 205

155) NCERT Pg. # 190

156) NCERT Pg # 53

157)

NCERT, Pg. # 28

158) NCERT Pg # 58

159)

NCERT, Pg. # 38

160) NCERT Pg. # 32

161) NCERT-XII Pg#60,61

162) NCERT Pg. No. # 146-149, 153

163) NCERT Pg. No. # 152

164) NCERT Pg.# 138-140

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

166)

NCERT, Pg. 124, 125

167) NCERT, Pg # 123,124,126,127

168) NCERT Pg. No. # 126, 127

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121-124

170)

NCERT, Pg. # 100

171) NCERT Pg # 91, 97, 99, 100

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94, 97, 98, 100

173) NCERT Pg. # 170 (E) / 186 (H)

174) NCERT Pg. # 199

175)

NCERT, Pg. # 169

176) NCERT Pg. # 184

177)

NCERT, Pg. # 180

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

179) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153

180) NCERT XII, Pg. # 151