13-04-2026

5001CMD303031250028 MD

PHYSICS

1) What is wrong statement for equipotential surface for uniform electric field :

(1) Equipotential surface is flat

(2) Equipotential surface is spherical
(3) Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface
(4) Work done is zero

2) In the given fig. the location of zero potential point is :-

(1) 20 cm right from 4q

(2) 100 cm left from 4q
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None

3) Consider a non-conducting shell as shown in figure. Two point charges are inside the shell and

two are outside the shell. If we apply Gauss's law over the non-conducting shell as

gaussian surface, the on LHS of Gauss's equation is due to

(1) q1 & q2 alone

(2) all charges q1, q2, q3 & q4
(3) q1, q2 & q3 alone
(4) we can't take non-conducting shell as Gaussian surface

4) What is the angle between an electric dipole moment and the electric field strength due to it on
its axial line?

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) None of the above
5) Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate is :-

(1) x = –2Q, x' = 0

(2) x = +2Q, x' = 0
(3) x = –2Q, x' = +4Q
(4) x = –4Q, x' = +2Q

6) An ammeter reads upto 1A. Its resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of the
required shunt is :-

(1) 0.03 Ω
(2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω
(4) 0.09 Ω

7) A wire of resistance R is divided in 10 equal parts. These parts are connected in parallel, the
equivalent resistance of such connection will be :-

(1) 0.01 R
(2) 0.1 R
(3) 10 R
(4) 100 R

8) In this circuit, the value of I2 is :-

(1) 0.2 A
(2) 0.3 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.6 A

9) Figure shows currents in a part of an electric circuit, then current I is :-

(1) 1.7 A
(2) 3.7 A
(3) 1.3 A
(4) 1 A

10) A 10 V battery with internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected across a variable resistance R. The
value of R for which the power delivered to it is maximum, is equal to :-

(1) 0.5 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 1.5 Ω
(4) 2 Ω

11) The time constant of given circuit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) RC

(4)

12) A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V and disconnected from the
source of emf. A slab of dielectric is then inserted between the plates. Which of the following three
quantities change?
(i) The potential difference
(ii) The capacitance
(iii) The charge on the plates

(1) only (i) and (ii)

(2) only (i) and (iii)
(3) only (ii) and (iii)
(4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

13) In the figure shown there are two semicircles of radii r1 and r2 in which a current i is flowing.

The magnetic induction at the centre O will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Work done on an electron moving in a solenoid along its axis

is equal to :-

(1) Zero
(2) –evB

(3)

(4) None of the above

15) A proton, deutron and an α–particle are accelerated by same potential difference, enters in
uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. Then ratio of radii of circular path :-

(1)
(2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1

16) The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is
independent of its-

(1) speed
(2) mass
(3) charge
(4) magnetic induction

17) Three long straight parallel wires, carrying current, are arranged as shown in figure. The force

experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C is :

(1) 10–3 N
(2) 2.5 × 10–3 N
(3) zero
(4) 1.5 × 10–3 N

18) Relative perimitivity and permeability of a material are εr and µr respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material :-

(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) , = 0.5
(4) ,

19) Magnetic flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec)
according to the equation . What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25
s?

(1) 1.2 A
(2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 A
(4) 0.2 A

20)

Three inductances are connected as shown below. the equivalent inductance will be

(1) 0.25 H
(2) 0.75 H
(3) 0.01 H
(4) 1 H

21) Assertion :– When a conducting rod moves in uniform transverse magnetic field with uniform
speed which is perpendicular to its length, then potential difference may develop across its ends.
Reason :– In any conductor, free electrons and free positive ions are available.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

22) A 100% efficient transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 25 turns in its secondary coil. If
the current in the secondary coil is 4 amp, then the current in the primary coil is :
(1) 1 amp
(2) 4 amp
(3) 8 amp
(4) 16 amp

23) If magnetic field in a plane electro magnetic wave is given by By = 4 × 10–6 sin (2000 πx – 2 ×
1011 πt)T then frequency of the wave is :

(1) 2 × 1011 Hz
(2) 3 × 1011 Hz
(3) 1011 Hz

(4)

24) A complex current wave is given by

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt) A. Its average value over one time period is given as :-

(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) A
(4) 0

25) If effective current in the given circuit is 2A, then what is the impedance of the circuit ?

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 75 Ω
(4) 150 Ω

26) In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter

readings will respectively be -

(1) 0 V, 6 A
(2) 150 V, 6 A
(3) 150 V, 3 A
(4) 0 V, 8 A

27) The power factor of an A.C. circuit having resistance R and inductance L connected in series and
angular frequency ω will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the impedance Z = 20Ω The phase difference
between the current and the voltage is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

29) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 'θ'. If deviation is 120° than θ will be :

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

30) The light ray is incidence at angle of 60° on a prism of angle 45°. When the light ray falls on the
other surface at 90°, the refractive index of the material of prism µ and the angle of deviation δ are
given by :-

(1) µ = , δ = 30°
(2) µ = 1.5, δ = 15°

(3)
µ= , δ = 30°

(4)
µ= , δ = 15°

31) What is the refractive index of a material of a plano-convex lens. If the radius of curvature of the
convex surface is 10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30

cm. The distance of image from the surface will be :-

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

33) Magnifying power of astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 5. The distance between
lenses is 24 cm. Focal length of the lenses are :-

(1) 4 cm, 16 cm
(2) 3 cm, 15 cm
(3) 6 cm, 18 cm
(4) 4 cm, 20 cm

34) In young's double slit experiment the distance between the two coherent sources is 2mm and the
screen is at a distance of 1m. If the fringe width is found to be 0.03cm, then the wavelength of the
light used is :-

(1) 4000 Å
(2) 5000 Å
(3) 5890 Å
(4) 6000 Å

35) In Young's double slit experiment we get 60 fringes in the field of view of monochromatic light of
wavelength 4000 Å. If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 Å, then the number of fringes
obtained in the same field of view are :-

(1) 60
(2) 90
(3) 40
(4) 1.5

36) An unpolarised beam of intensity I0 is incident on a pair of nicols making an angle of 60° with
each other. The intensity of light emerging from the pair is :-
(1) I0
(2) I0/2
(3) I0/4
(4) I0/8

37) The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current I flowing in

the circuit

(1) 1.71 A
(2) 2.00 A
(3) 2.31 A
(4) 1.33 A

38) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the 1kΩ is :-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

39) Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates ?

(1) OR
(2) NAND
(3) AND
(4) NOR

40) A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The
stopping potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V0. if the same surface is illuminated
with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface
for photoelectric effect is :-
(1) 4 λ

(2)

(3)

(4) 6 λ

41) In Photo Electric Effect value of Kmax is equal to K0. If frequency of incident light is doubled than
Kmax is 3K0. If frequency of incident light is three times, of its first value, then calculate Kmax.

(1) K0
(2) 3K0
(3) 5K0
(4) 6K0

42) When a radioactive isotope 88Ra228 decays in series by the emission of 3 alpha particles and a
beta particle, the nucleus finally formed is

228
(1) 84X
(2) X222
86

(3) X216
83

215
(4) 83X

43) For nuclear reaction :

235
92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ..........+3 0n1

(1) Kr89
26

89
(2) 36Kr
(3) Sr90
26

89
(4) 38Sr

44) If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having the same wavelength, it
implies that they have the same :-

(1) Energy
(2) Momentum
(3) Velocity
(4) Angular momentum

45) The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : – 1
(3) 2 : – 1
(4) 1 : – 2

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + O2(g). Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate
expression :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The rate equation for the reaction;

2A + B → C is rate = K [A] [B].
The correct statement about this is :

(1) K is independent of [A] and [B]

(2) t1/2 is constant
(3) Unit of K is s–1
(4) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A

3) The rate law for the reaction A+ B → C is : Rate = k[A] [B]1/3 . If the concentration of B is
increased by eight times while that of A is reduce to half then the rate of reaction becomes :

(1) Twice
(2) Thrice
(3) No change
(4) Half

4) Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearence of CO2 is 0.40 mol/ℓ- sec., the rate of disappereance of O2 is–

(1) 10 mol/ℓ- sec.

(2) 0.90 mol/ℓ- sec
(3) 0.60 mol/ℓ- sec
(4) 0.3 mol/ℓ- sec

5) For a 1st order reaction, slope of ln k vs graph is –4000 then activation energy in kcal/mol is :

(1) 8000
(2) 8
(3) 33.2
(4) 800

6) For a 1st order reaction, ratio of time required for 99.9% completion to time required for 90%
completion is :-

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 9

7) The element which can displace three other halogens from their compound is :-

(1) F
(2) Cl
(3) Br
(4) I

8) Select incorrect statement

Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration for both weak and strong
(1)
electrolytes
(2) Variation in molar conductivity with concentration is different for strong and weak electrolytes.
(3) Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration.
When concentration approaches zero, molar conductivity is known as limiting molar
(4)
conductivity.

9) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : In Electrolytic cell, Gibbs energy of the spontaneous redox reaction is converted into
electrical work.
Statement-II : The reversible work done by a galvanic cell is equal to decrease in its Gibb's energy.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true

10) An aqueous solution of CuCl2 is electrolysed with Pt electrodes, then product obtained at cathode
and anode are respectively-

(1) Cl2, Cu
(2) Cu, Cl2
(3) O2, Cu
(4) O2, H2
11) The standard reduction potential value of the metals A, B and C are 0.68, –2.50 and 0.50 V
respectively. The order of their reducing power is :

(1) A > B > C

(2) A > C > B
(3) C > B > A
(4) B > C > A

12) Assertion : For weak electrolytes molar conductivity (Λm) increases steeply with dilution
especially near lower concentration.
Reason : Weak electrolytes have lower degree of dissociation at higher concentration and molar
conductivity (Λm) increases steeply with dilution due to increase in degree of dissociation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

13) The vapour pressure of a aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole
fraction of solute is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Number of moles
(4) None

15) Value of Henry constant KH

(1) increases with increase in temperature.

(2) decreases with increase in temperature.
(3) remains constant.
(4) first increases then decreases.
16)
A is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) In the reaction

the product(s) formed is (are)

(1) (CH3)3C–OH and CH3CH2I

(2) (CH3)3C–I and CH3CH2OH
(3) (CH3)3C–I and CH3CH2I

(4)

18) Match List I with List II.

List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Reagents)

Hoffmann
(a) Degradation (I) Conc. KOH/Δ
Reaction
 Clemenson CHCl3,
(b) (II)
reduction NaOH/H3O+

Cannizaro
(c) (III) Br2, NaOH
reaction

Reimer-Tiemann
(d) (IV) Zn-Hg/HCl
reaction
(1) (a) – III, (b) – IV, (c) – II, (d) - I
(2) (a) – II, (b) – IV, (c) – I, (d) - III
(3) (a) – III, (b) – IV, (c) – I, (d) - II
(4) (a) – II, (b) – I, (c) – III, (d) - IV

19) Identify compound (A) in the following reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following product is formed in the given reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble.

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K

22) Select the wrong pair :-

(1) Cellulose – Polymer of β–D – Glucose
(2) Lactose – β – D – Galactose and
β – D – Glucose
(3) Sucrose – β – D – Glucose and
α – D – Fructose
(4) Starch – α – D – Glucose

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Product :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) When chlorine is treated with carboxylic acid in the presence of red phosphorus then α-chloro
acid will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - Zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction

25) Cannizzaro reaction is given by :-

(1) Aldehydes containing α-hydrogen atoms

(2) Aldehydes as well as ketones containing α-hydrogen atoms
(3) Aldehydes not containing α-hydrogen atoms
(4) Aldehydes containing β-hydrogen atoms

26) The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH2OH ——→ RCHO

(1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7
(3) CrO3
(4) PCC (Pyridinium chloro chromate)

27) Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis most easily

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following is most reactive for dehydrohalogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which
gives blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of-

(1) NaSCN
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Statement-I :- Nitrogen, Sulphur, Halogen and Phosphorous present in organic compound are
detected by "Lassaigne test". Statement-II :- In lassaigne test of nitrogen, black precipitate
indicates the presence of nitrogen.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

31) Which of the following ligand is hexadentate ligand ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) EAN of complex [Fe(C2O4)3]3– is :-

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 29
33) When 1 mole of the following complex is treated with excess of aqueous AgNO3 solution , 3
moles of AgCl was precipitated out.
The correct formula of the complex is

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

34) Oxidation and coordination number of central metal atom in [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 respectively are:-

(1) +3, 5
(2) +3, 6
(3) +4, 6
(4) +6, 3

35) Hybridisation of [Ni(CO)4] will be:-

(1) dsp2
(2) sp3d
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp3

36) Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature ?

(1) MnO
(2) Mn2O7
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO2

37) Which of the following pair of ions has same value of "spin-only" magnetic moment ?

(1) Ni2+, Cu2+

(2) Co3+, Fe2+
(3) Ti2+, V2+
(4) Mn2+, Zn2+

38) Which have highest enthalpy of atomisation in following ?

(1) V
(2) Mn
(3) Zn
(4) Sc

39) Melting point is minimum for :-

(1) Cr
(2) V
(3) Cu
(4) Zn

40) Which of the following does not give chromyl chloride test :-

(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) HgCl2
(4) NH4Cl

41)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I :- The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the
order-
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
Statement II :- The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
Choose correct answer from the options below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

42) Stability of dihalide of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases as follows -

(1) GeX2 < SiX2 < SnX2 < PbX2

(2) SiX2 < GeX2 < PbX2 < SnX2
(3) SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(4) PbX2 < SnX2 < GeX2 < SiX2

43) Hybridisation state of B in B2H6 :-

(1) sp3
(2) sp
(3) sp2
(4) dsp2

44) Among the following, the correct order of acidity is :-

(1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

(2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3

45) Which one of the following order is correct for the bond energies of halogen molecules?

(1) I2 > Cl2 > Br2

(2) Br2 > Cl2 > I2
(3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2
(4) Cl2 > Br2 > I2

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India ?

(1) Mango
(2) Groundnut
(3) Rice
(4) Maize

2) The species - area relationship studied by Alexander von Humboldt is a straight line on a
logarithmic scale and is represented by equation

in this equation 'S' stands for :-

(1) Species richness

(2) Area
(3) Slope of the line
(4) Regression coefficient

3) In 'rivet popper hypothemis' (Paul Ehrlich) rivet indicates :

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Organism
(4) Species

4) The Amazon rain forest 'lungs of Planet" harbouring probably millions of species is being cut &
cleared for which purpose –

(1) For cultivation of soyabeans

(2) For conservation of grasslands for raising beef cattles
(3) For cultivation of Medicinal plants
(4) Both (1) and (2)

5) The term biodiversity was popularised by

(1) Edward Wilson
(2) Robert Constanza
(3) P. Maheshwari
(4) Strausbergar

6) According Alexander Von Humbolt, in the graph of Species Area relation of Area A, B and C which
of the following area has steeper slope and maximum species richness respectively

(1) A
(2) A & B
(3) B
(4) C

7) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

8) Nt = N0ert this is for :-

(1) Exponential growth

(2) Sigmoid growth
(3) Logistic growth
(4) S-shaped growth

9) Organisms which breed only once in their life is :-

(1) Pacific salmon fish

(2) Pacific tuna fish
(3) Pacific shark
(4) Lion
10) The basic level of operation of Natural selection is

(1) Organism
(2) Population
(3) Communtiy
(4) Ecosystem

11) Which one is important for newly colonised habitat ?

(1) Birth rate

(2) Death rate
(3) Dispersion (Migration)
(4) All

12) Natural capacity of a population to grow at its maximum rate is called :

(1) Mortality
(2) Biotic potential
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) Vitality

13)
Above pyramid showing -

(1) Pyramid of number in a grassland

(2) Pyramid of Biomass in lake
(3) Pyramid of Biomass in ocean
(4) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem

14) If 10 individuals in a garden population of 50 rose died in a month. Find out death rate ?

(1) 0.1 per rose per month

(2) 0.2 per rose per month
(3) 0.3 per rose per month
(4) 0.4 per rose per month

15) World-summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in _____ :-

(1) Johannesburg
(2) Kyoto
(3) Rio de janeiro
(4) Copenhagen

16) Which is / are correct about Amazon? A. It is called Lungs of the planet.
B. It is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or for conversion to grasslands for raising
beef cattle.
C. It produces 20% of total O2 in earth’s atmosphere
D. It harbours probably million of species.

(1) A,B
(2) A,B,C
(3) B,C,D
(4) A, B, C, D

17) Which statement is true for Connell's elegant field experiment?

(1) Performed on prickly pear cactus

(2) Shows resource partitioning
(3) Was performed in rocky sea coast of Scotland
(4) Was done on pisaster fish

18) Match the following column :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Competitive exclusion principle (i) Paul Ehrlich

Alexander Van
(B) Rivet popper hypothesis (ii)
Humboldt

(C) Species area relationship (iii) Gause

(D) Global species diversity estimate (iv) Robert May

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

19) Which one of the following is a wrong statement ?

(1) Ecology at the organismic level is essentially known as physiological ecology.

The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pugmarks and fecal
(2)
pellets.
(3) Aravali hills are example of sacred groves.
(4) In an aquatic ecosystem, DFC (Detrius food chain) is the major conduit for energy flow.

20) Who is the father of ecology in India?

(1) Ramdeo Misra

(2) Reiter
(3) Haeckel
(4) Warming
21) Assertion : The root hairs help to absorb water and minerals from soil.
Reason : Cuticle is absent on epidermis of shoot.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Assertion: Both apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems.
Reason: Primary meristem appear early in life of a plant and contribute to the formation of primary
plant body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

23) Identify the picture given below :-

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Complex tissue
(4) Sclerenchyma

24) Represented figures below are the types of vascular bundles. Which of the following option could

be correct regarding them ? A Β

(1) Radial Conjoint, open
(2) Conjoint, open Conjoint, closed
(3) Conjoint, closed Conjoint, open
(4) Conjoint, closed Radial

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Select the incorrect matching :

(1) Protophloem – Narrow sieve tubes

(2) Metaphloem – Bigger sieve tubes
(3) Gymnosperm – Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(4) Phloem fibres – Elongated, Branched and Needle like apices

26) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Vessel is an example of dead syncyte.

(2) Sieve tube is an example of living syncyte.
(3) Sieve tube element & companion cells are living.
(4) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of dicotyledons.

27)

Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column
Column II Column III
I

Exarch Radial vascular

(i) Root
xylem bundles

Exarch Conjoint vascular

(ii) Stem
xylem bundles

Endarch Conjoint open

(iii) Leaf
xylem vascular bundles
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

28) Select the mismatched in given column–I & II :-

Column-I Column-Il

I Internode elongation Apical meristem

II Increase the girth of plant organ Lateral meristem

III Increase the width of leaf lamina Marginal meristem

IV Development of primary vascular tissue Vascular cambium

(1) I & IV
(2) I & III
(3) III & IV
(4) I & II

29)

How many of the following tissues are secondary in origin ?

Intra fascicular cambium, Inter fascicular cambium, Cork cambium, Marginal meristem, Root apical
meristem.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

30) Leaf mesophyll is included in :-

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All of the above

31) The hanging structures that support a banyan tree are :-

(1) Stilt root

(2) Climbing root
(3) Prop root
(4) Buttress root

32) Phylloclade is found in

(1) Opuntia and cactus

(2) Babool and mango
(3) Ficus and Brinjal
(4) Banana and Turmeric

33) In Brinjal flowers are :-

(1) Hypogynous
(2) Epigynous
(3) Perigynous
(4) Both hypogynous & perigynous

34)

Tap root develops from :-

(1) Radicle
(2) Stem
(3) Leaf
(4) Plumule

35) Function of stem are :

(1) Conduct water, minerals and photosynthate
(2) Some perform storage of food, support and protection
(3) Some perform function of vegetative propagation
(4) All of these

36) Regions of root from base to root tip are :-

(1) Maturation zone, Cell division zone, Elongation zone

(2) Maturation zone, Elongation zone, Cell division zone
(3) Cell division zone, Elongation zone, Maturation zone
(4) Elongation zone, Cell division zone, Maturation zone

37) In the following representation A and B is - Pneumococcus S Strain → injected into Mice → A
Pneumococcus R Strain → injected into Mice → B

A → Mice die
(1)
B → Mice live
A → Mice die
(2)
B → Mice die
A → Mice live
(3)
B → Mice live
A → Mice live
(4)
B → Mice die

38) In histone protein which amino acids are present more abundantly:-

(1) Lysine and alanine

(2) Arginine and valine
(3) Glycine and arginine
(4) Lysine and arginine

39) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

40) Which of the following compounds are pyrimidines ?

(1) Adenine, Guanine, Thymine

(2) Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil
(3) Adenine, Uracil, Guanine
(4) Thymine, Uracil, Adenine

41) Monoecious plants with unisexual flowers will prevent :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

42) Which of the following ovule is also called inverted ovule ?

(1) Orthotropous
(2) Anatropous
(3) Campylotropous
(4) Amphitropous

43) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

44) Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in :-

(1) over 90% angiosperms

(2) over 50% of angiosperms
(3) over 60% of angiosperms
(4) over 40% of angiosperms

45) In most of angiosperms pollen grain shed at :

(1) Two celled stage

(2) Three celled stage
(3) Four celled stage
(4) Five celled stage

46) Protein encoded by a gene cryII Ab control :-

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton boll worm
(3) Beetles
(4) Mosquitoes

47) When DNA is transcribed into mRNA, usually the mRNA remained single-stranded, but in some
cases an RNA can be dsRNA which initiates.

(1) RNA i
(2) PCR
(3) DNA finger printing
(4) Gene cloning

48) An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is called :-

(1) Gene therapy

(2) Cloning
(3) Mutation
(4) Selection

49) Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin by
genetic engineering?

(1) Splitting A & B polypeptide chains

(2) Addition of C-peptides to pro-insulin
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
(4) Removal of D-peptide from immature insulin

50) Toxin protein crystals of Bacillus thuringiensis cannot kill the bacteria. Why?

(1) The toxin cannot pass through bacterial cell wall

(2) It is produced as protoxin which gets activated to toxin in the insect gut
(3) The toxin gets activated to protoxin in the insect gut
(4) The toxin cannot pass through the bacterial cell membrane

51) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

52) Elephantiasis is caused by :

(1) Entamoeba histolytica

(2) Ascaris
(3) Wuchereria
(4) Microsporum

53) Which of the following is a fungal disease -

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Cholera
(3) Small pox
(4) Ringworm
54) Which of the following is not the causative agent of ringworm?

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophytom
(3) Ascaris
(4) Epidermophyton

55) Match the column-I and II and choose the correct option -

Column-I Column-II

A Filaria a Trichophyton

B Ringworm b Wuchereria

C Malaria c Plasmodium

D Typhoid d Salmonella typhi

(1) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d
(2) A-d, B-b, C-c, D-a
(3) A-a, B-c, C-d, D-b
(4) A-b, B-a, C-c, D-d

56) Choose the right symphtoms of Amoebiasis ?

(1) Diarrhoea, Coughing, Abdomanal pain

(2) Constipation, Abdominal pain and Cramps
(3) Fever with chills, Constipation, Abdominal pain.
(4) Diarrhorea, Stool with excess mucous, abdominal pain.

57) Where will you look for the sporozoite of malarial parasite?

(1) White blood all of human

(2) Spleen of infected human.
(3) Salivary gland of infected male anopheles mosquito.
(4) Saliva of infected female anopheles mosquito.

58) Wucheria, the filarial worms lives for many year, usually in the _______ of the lower limb.

(1) Coronary artery

(2) Lymphatic vessels
(3) Nerve supply
(4) Bones

59) The original drifted population is known as

(1) Drifted population

(2) Founders
(3) Converge population
(4) None of these

60) When migration of a section of population takes place gene frequencies change

(1) At the place where the new population migrated

(2) At the place from where the population have migrated
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Remains same at both the places

61) If frequencies p and q are for two alleles A and a in a population then the value of p2 + 2pq + q2
=

(1) Zero
(2) >1
(3) <1
(4) 1

62) Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that

(1) The organism with better adaptation to the environment survives.

(2) Organism with mutations forms new species
(3) Living forms have evolved from rotten compounds
(4) Allele frequency in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation

63)

Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life ?

(1) H2
(2) NH3
(3) CH4
(4) O2

64)

Which of the following modes of nutrition is most primitive ?

(1) Chemoautotroph
(2) Chemoheterotroph
(3) Anaerobic photo autotroph
(4) Aerobic photo autotroph

65)

The biggest land reptiles is -

(1) Pteranodon
(2) Tyrannosaurus
(3) Stegosaurus
(4) Triceratop

66)

Flippers of penguins and dolphins are example of -

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Vestigeal organ
(4) Divergent evolution

67)

Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around -

(1) 50 mya
(2) 200 mya
(3) 500 mya
(4) 320 mya

68) According to Darwin the evolution is :

(1) Slow process

(2) Directional process
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Fast and Random process

69) In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common
ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:-

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Vegetarian
(3) Seed-eating
(4) Cactus eating

70) Appearance of antibiotic-resistance bacteria is an example of:

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Transduction
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

71) Which of the following is an example of analogous organs?

(1) Hands of man and wings of bat
(2) Forelegs of horse and wings of butterfly
(3) Lungs of birds and gills of fishes
(4) Wings of mosquito and wings of butterfly

72) The cranial capacity of Homo sapiens sapiens is :

(1) 1400 - 1600 cc

(2) 390 - 510 cc
(3) 800 - 1200 cc
(4) 650 - 800 cc

73) Fossil man having cranial capacity similar to that of modern man was :

(1) Australopithecus
(2) Java Man
(3) Neanderthan Man
(4) Homo habilis

74) Which accessory reproductive gland secretes fructose?

(1) Cowper’s gland

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Bartholin gland
(4) Seminal vesicle

75) Which one of the following structural and functional unit of testes?

(1) Sertoli cells

(2) Leydig’s cells
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Tubuli recti

76) Which layer of uterus undergoes cyclic changes during menstural cycle ?

(1) Myometrium
(2) Endometrium
(3) Perimetrium
(4) All of the above

77) Which of the following is unpaired structure in human being ?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Cowper gland
(3) Prostate gland
(4) Testes
78) When spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process that is called.

(1) Spermiation
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Spermatogenesis
(4) Gametogenesis

79) Assertion : Zona pellucida is present just out the egg.

Reason : Zone pellucida is a non-cellular and secreted by follicular cells of follicle.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) During implantation, the blastocyst becomes embeded in the which layer of uterus :-

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Endometrium
(3) Myometrium
(4) Trophoblast

81) Which type of cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissue and organs in embryo ?

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Amniogenic cells
(3) Inner cell mass
(4) Extra embryonic mesoderm

82) Which of the following stimulates the secretion of some factors from Sertoli cells which help in
the process of spermiogenesis?

(1) LH
(2) Androgens
(3) FSH
(4) GnRH

83) A diagram of human ovum is given below and structures are labelled as A, B, C and D. Identify
the structure which is secreted by secondary oocyte and choose the correct option about that
structure.

(1) B, Corona radiata which is a non cellular layer

(2) A, Zona pellucida which is a cellular layer
(3) C, Zona pellucida which is a non-cellular layer
(4) A, Zona pellucida which is a non-cellular layer

84) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens then
Androgens stimulate the process of spermiogenesis.
Statement 2: Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the
secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone which is a pituitary hormone.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

85) Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ___(i)____ and in female ___(ii)____.
(i) (ii)
(1) Tubectomy Vasectomy
(2) Orchiectomy Oophorectomy
(3) Vasectomy Tubectomy
(4) Vasectomy Hysterectomy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Which method blocks gamete transport and prevent conception ?

(1) Natural method

(2) Barrier method
(3) Intra uterine devices
(4) Surgical method
87) Which one of the following set of examples related to IUD are matched correctly ?

Name of IUD Example

(1) Non-medicated Progestasert

(2) Cu+2 releasing IUD Multiload 375

Hormone
(3) Lippes loop
releasing IUD

(4) Inert IUD LNG-20

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Assertion (A) : Contraceptive methods are useful in prevention of unwanted pregnancy.
Reason (R) : An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly, cheap, with least or no side effects,
easily available and effective.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

89) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable ?

(1) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis

(2) Syphilis and trichomoniasis
(3) Hepatitis – B and Genital herpes
(4) Genital herpes and Genital warts

90) Assertion :- CuT is an effective contraceptive.

Reason :- It decreases sperms motility and fertilization capacity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 4 2 1 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 4 4 1 4 4 1 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Calculation: 1. Equipotential surfaces in a uniform electric field are flat, not spherical.
2. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to the equipotential surface.
3. Work done on a charge moving along an equipotential surface is zero because the
displacement is perpendicular to the electric field.
Answer:
The wrong statement is: 2. Equipotential surface is spherical (This is incorrect because in a
uniform electric field, the equipotential surfaces are flat planes).

2) Solution:

Potential . For zero potential, the distance from the smaller charge (4q) must be
less then the distance from the larger charge (5q).
Zero potential occurs at two points:
Calculation :

100 - 2x = 3x
x = 20 cm

100+2y =3y
y = 100 cm

Final answer : Option (3)

3)

Explain Question : Asking about the correct group of changes due to which electric field
exist on the Gaussian's surface.

Concept : This question is based on Gauss's law.

Solution :

In Gauss's theorem, in on LHS of equation is the at any point on surface due to

all the charges present in space. Here only four point charges are given so is due to all 4 charges.
There is no restriction in choosing Gaussian surface it can be hypothetical, conducting or non
conducting.

Final Answer: option (2)

4) QUESTION EXPLANATION : An electric dipole produces an electric field. The angle

between the dipole moment vector and the electric field due to the dipole on its axial line is
asked.
CONCEPT : Electric field due to an electric dipole (axial line)
FORMULA

On axial line:

SOLUTION :

A. The electric dipole moment is directed from negative charge to positive charge.

B. On the axial line of the dipole, the electric field produced by the dipole is along the same
direction as .

C. Hence, the angle between and is zero.

FINAL ANSWER : (1)

5) Explanation the Question:

We are given three parallel metal plates with total charges of 3Q, –2Q, and Q respectively.
When placed near each other, the charge on each plate redistributes onto its two surfaces.
find the specific charges x (on the left surface) and x' (on the right surface) of the middle plate.
Concept:
This question is based on
Charge Distribution on Parallel Conducting Plates.
Formula: Qtotal = Q1 + Q2 + Q3
Outermost charge Qa = Qf = Qtotal/2
Solution:
QTotal = 3Q + Q – 2Q = 2Q charge on outer surfaces of first and third plates

6) S = = 0.09 Ω
7) ये क भाग का ितरोध r = R/10
माना तु य ितरोध rR है तब

........

8)

10Ω parallel to 30Ω

⇒ Req =
By current division method

9) Explain Question:
Calculate the value of current I in the given branch of the circuit.

Concept:
Kirchhoff's Junction Law (Current Law) stating

Solution:
At the first junction (left), input currents are 2A and 2A.
Current in the middle branch = 2 + 2 = 4A.
At the second junction (right), input current is 4A and output currents are 1A, 1.3A, and I.
4 = 1 + 1.3 + I
4 = 2.3 + I
I = 1.7A

Final Answer: Option (1)

10) for maximum power Rinternal = Rext.

11)

Req.=

Time constant T = Req C =

12)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what happens to three physical quantities of a
parallel plate capacitor-potential difference (voltage), capacitance, and charge on the plates-
when it, initially charged and then disconnected from the power source, has a dielectric slab
inserted between its plates.

Underlying Concept: The key concepts involved are capacitance, dielectric materials, charge
conservation in isolated systems, and the relationship between charge, voltage, and
capacitance in a capacitor. When a dielectric is inserted into a capacitor, the capacitance
increases because the dielectric reduces the electric field within the capacitor. Since the
capacitor is disconnected (isolated), charge remains constant, leading to a change in voltage.

Relevant Formulas: 1. Initial capacitance:

2. Capacitance with dielectric:

3. Relationship among charge (Q), voltage (V), and capacitance (C):

4. New voltage after dielectric insertion:

where: - is the permittivity of free space, - is the plate area, - is the separation between
plates, - is the dielectric constant (>1). - is the charge, - is the potential difference
(voltage).

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Since the capacitor is disconnected, charge is constant.

Step 2: Dielectric increases capacitance: .

Step 3: Voltage after dielectric insertion:

Thus, voltage decreases by a factor of , whereas charge remains the same and capacitance
increases.

Tips and Tricks: To quickly decide which quantities change, recall: - Charge stays constant if
disconnected, - Capacitance changes with dielectric insertion, - Voltage depends inversely on
capacitance if charge is fixed.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the voltage remains constant after inserting the dielectric, or
thinking the charge changes in an isolated capacitor. Both are incorrect because the capacitor
is disconnected, no charge can enter or leave, and voltage depends on charge and capacitance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options including changes in charge are incorrect
because the capacitor is isolated, so charge cannot change. An option stating only voltage
changes is incorrect since capacitance also changes. Only the combination of changes in
potential difference and capacitance is correct.
13) Explain Question:
Find magnetic induction at center O for two semicircles.

Concept: Magnetic field due to semicircular arcs.

Solution:
• The figure shows two semicircles of radii r1 and r2 with common center O.
• Current i flows such that fields from both arcs act at O.
• Radial straight segments produce zero field at the center O.
• Depending on the current flow direction in the arcs, their fields either add or subtract.

Calculation:

Field from one semicircle:

Net magnetic induction at

Final answer

Final Answer: Option (3)

15) r =

r=

r∝

18) μr < 1
εr > 1

19) Explain the Question : To find induced current at t = 0.25 sec

Given ϕ = 6t2 – 5t + 1, R = 10 Ω
Concept : This question is based on

Induced current
Solution :

By using

Final Answer : (4)

20)
 Explain Question : To find equivalent inductance as given figure.

Concept : This question is based on combination of inductor.

Solution :

L2 and L3 are in parallel. Thus their combination gives

The L' and L1 are in series, thus the equivalent inductance is L = L1 + L' = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1H.

Final Answer : option (4)

21)

Remember that in metals, only electrons move freely; positive ions are fixed in the lattice. The
motional emf arises due to the force on these mobile electrons.

22)

Explanation:
We are given an ideal transformer with a primary coil having 100 turns, a secondary coil with
25 turns and a secondary current of 4 A. We need to find the primary current.

Concept:
For an ideal transformer, the relationship between currents and turns is given by:

Formula:

Calculation:

Ip = 4 × 0.25 = 1A

Level-Easy

24)

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt)

average value
< i > = 5 + 5 < sin (100 ωt) >
In one time period <sin(100ωt) > = 0
<i> = 5A
25) Explain Question: In series LR circuit voltages across L and R are given . We need to find
total impedance if current is 2 amp.

Concept: series RL circuit.

Solution:
Formula

(1)

(2)
VR = 90 V , VL = 120 V , I = 2 A

V
Now

Final answer: option (3)

26) Reading of volt meter

Reading of ammeter

V = VL – VC,
given circuit is at resonance ∵ XL = XC = 25 Ω

So VL = VC & i =

27) cos ϕ =

28) \(\cos \phi = \dfrac{R}{Z} = \dfrac{{10}}{{20}} = \dfrac{1}{2}\, \Rightarrow \,\phi =

{60^o}\)

29) Question Explanation :

To find the angle of deviation for plane mirror acceleration to give conducting
Concept :
This question is based on deviation by plane mirror.
δ = (180 – 2θ)
Solution :
δ = 180 – 2θ
120 = 180 – 2θ
θ = 30°
Final Answer : (4)
30)
From figure it is clear that
From A = r1 + r2
⇒ r1 = A = 45°

Also from i + e = A + δ ⇒ 60 + 0 = 45 + δ ⇒ δ = 15°

31)

μ=1+ =

32)

Explain the Question : A point object is placed 15 cm in front of a spherical surface of a

glass rod.
Air (μ1 = 1) → Glass (μ2 = 3/2), radius of curvature R = +30 cm (because center is to the right).
We must find the image position.
Concept : This question is based on refraction at a spherical surface.

Solution :
Given:
u = –15 cm (object on left of surface)
R = +30 cm
μ1 = 1
μ2 = 3/2

v = – 30 cm
Thus:
v = –30 cm
Negative v means the image forms 30 cm to the left of the surface.
Final answer : 1

33) M = =5 ∴ fo = 5fe
 fo + fe = 24 6fe = 24

and

34)

Conceptual

35)

n1λ1 = n2λ2
60 × 4000 × 10–10 = n2 × 6000 × 10–10

n2 = 40

36)

37)

38)

IL =

39)
Question Explanation
Identify the single logic gate that is equivalent to the combination of an NOR gate followed by
two NOT gates.
Concept:
This question involves logic Gate combinations and equivalency.
Formula Used :
De Morgan's theorem

Visual Aid :

Calculation:

is also correct
Which represents the output of AND gate
Answer : 3
The difficulty level is easy
 40) eVS = E – ϕ ⇒ VS =

0
here 3V = ...(1)

0
and V = ...(2)
equation (1) – 3 × equation (2)

0
⇒ 0=– ⇒ λ = 4λ

42) Question Explanation:

We start with 88Ra228 and it undergoes 3 α decays and 1β– decay. We must find the final
nucleus.
Concept:

A. Alpha decay: decreases Z by 2, A by 4

B. Beta decay: increases Z by 1, A unchanged

Solution:
Initial: Z = 88 A = 228
After 3 α decays:
Each α : Z decreases by 2, A decreases by 4
Total change: ΔZ = – 6, ΔA = – 12
So after a's only:
Z = 88 – 6 = 82, A = 228 – 12 = 216 → 82Pb216
Then 1 β– decay:
Z increases by 1, A same
A = 82 + 1 = 83, A = 216 → 83Bi216

Check options: 83X216 matches Option (3).

Final Answer: Option (3)

43)

By balancing equation.
235
92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ZXA + 3 0n1
Z = 92 – 56 = 36, A = 235 + 1 – 144 – 3 = 89

44)

λ=
So for same wavelength, momentum is also same.

45) Etotal = – KE ⇒
CHEMISTRY

46) Explain Question:

To select correct Relationship among the given expression.

Concept:
Use RoR in the form of stoichiometry of a chemical reaction.

Solution:

Rate of reaction =

Final answer: Option (3)

48)

ri = k[A][B]1/3

rf = k × × (8[B])1/3
= k[A][B]1/3
rf = ri

49) Question Explanation: Use stoichiometric coefficients to relate the rate of appearance of
CO2 to the rate of disappearance of O2.
Concept: This question is based on stoichiometric rate relationships.
Solution:
Given: Rate of appearance of CO2 = +0.40 mol L-1 s-1

Stoichiometric Relation:

Substitute

Final Answer: Option (3)

50) Explanation the Question: The question provides the slope of a first-order reaction's
Arrhenius plot (In k vs 1/T) and asks for the activation energy (Ea) in kcal/mol.
Concept: This question is based on Arrhenius Equation
Solution:

In(k) =

Slope (m) = –
We are given: Slope (m) = –4000 K

–4000 K = –
Ea = 4000 K × R
Ea = 4000 K × 2 cal K–1 mol–1

Final Answer: Option 2

51)

Question Explanation : We must find the ratio of times for 99.9% and 90% completion of a
first-order reaction.

Concept :This question is based on the first-order integrated rate law:

Solution :
Given Formula:

for 99.9% completion:

for 90% completion: .

=
Ratio:

Final Answer : (3)

52)

Question Explanation:
Which elements cab displace other three halgons.
Concept:
Application of ECS
Solution:
Oxidising power ∝ SRP volume
Order of SRP value: F2 Cl2 > Br2 > I2
∴ order of oxidisin power :

Final answer: Option (1)

53) Explain Question:

To identify an incorrect statement.

Concept:
Factors affecting electrolytic conductance.

Solution:
• Conductivity (k): It decreases with dilution because the number of ions per unit volume
decreases.
• Molar Conductivity (⋀m): Defined as ⋀m = к / C, it increases with dilution because ion
mobility increases due to reduced inter-ionic attractions.
• Strong vs. Weak Electrolytes: Strong electrolytes show a linear increase in ⋀m with ,
while weak electrolytes follow Kohirausch's Law and exhibit a sharp increase due to
incomplete dissociation at higher concentrations.
Option analysis:
1. Correct, Conductivity (K) always decreases with decrease in concentration, for both strong
and weak electrolytes because k α С.
2. Correct, Variation in molar conductivity with concentration, strong electrolytes show a
different trend compared to weak electrolytes.
3. Incorrect, Molar conductivity (⋀m) increases with dilution, not decreases.
4. Correct, At infinite dilution (C → 0), molar conductivity is called limiting molar conductivity
(⋀m°).

Final Answer: Option (3)

54) Explain Question:

Evaluating statements about energy conversion in electrochemical cells.

Concept:
Thermodynamics of Galvanic and Electrolytic Cells.

Solution:
• Statement-I: In an electrolytic cell, electrical energy is used to drive a non-spontaneous
redox reaction. The conversion of spontaneous redox energy into electrical work occurs in a
galvanic cell, not an electrolytic one. Thus, Statement-I is incorrect.
• Statement-II: For a galvanic cell to produce maximum work, charge must flow reversibly.
This maximum electrical work is equal to the decrease in Gibbs energy of the system. Thus,
Statement-II is correct.

Final Answer: Option (4)

55)

Conceptual
56) SRP↑ Reducing ↓
power

57) Explain the Question : Explain how molar conductivity of weak electrolytes changes with
dilution and why.
Concept : This question is based on molar conductivity increases with dilution due to ion
dissociation.
Solution : For weak electrolytes, dilution increases dissociation, increasing Λm sharply -
reason correctly explains assertion.
Final Answer : 4

58) Question Explanation: Find the mole fraction of glucose (XB) using the relative lowering
of vapour pressure

Concept: Relative lowering of vapour pressure equals mole fraction of solute, ΔP / P₀ = XB.

Solution
Given: Vapour pressure of solution = 750 mmHg, pure water at 373 K ≈ 760 mmHg.
Pure solvent vapour pressure P₀ = 760 mmHg
Solution vapour pressure P = 750 mmHg
So, ΔP = P₀ − P = 760 − 750 = 10 mmHg

Mole fraction of solute: XB = ΔP / P₀ = 10 / 760 = 1/76

Final Answer: Option (4)

59)

Conceptual

60)

Conceptual

61)

Explain question:
Identify intermediate compound "A" formed when isopropyl benzene reacts with O2, followed
by hydrolysis to give phenol and acetone.

Concept:
Autoxidation of Alkylbenzenes, Hydroperoxide Formation, Acidic Cleavage

Solution:
 Final answer: option (1)

62) Question Explanation:

The question asks to predict the products formed when an ether reacts with one mole of HI.

Concept: This question is based on Ether Cleavage by Hydrogen Halides

Ethers are cleaved by strong hydrogen halides (HI > HBr > HCl) after protonation of the
ether oxygen.
The reaction pathway depends on the nature of the alkyl groups attached to oxygen.

Solution:

A. If the ether contains a tertiary alkyl group, cleavage occurs via an SN1 mechanism.

B. Protonation of the ether oxygen makes the C–O bond weak.

C. The bond breaks to form a stable tertiary carbocation.

D. The carbocation is then attacked by iodide ion (I⁻).

Final Answer: Option (2)

63) Reactions Reagent used

(A) Hoffmann degradation Br2/NaOH
(B) Clemenson reduction Zn– Hg/HCl
(C) Cannizaro reaction [Link]/Δ
(D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction CHCl3, NaOH/H3O+

64) Question Explanation : Asks which compound (A) gives benzaldehyde after treatment
with SnCl2 / HCl and H3O⊕

Concept : Function group conversion, reduction.

 Solution :

A. SnCl2 / HCl reduces aromatic nitro or nitrile groups

B. Hydrolysis completes coversion to aldehyde

Final Answer : Option (3)

65) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Edition 2023-24, Pg. # 272

66)

Explain Question : Identify which one of the following vitamin is water soluble.
Concept : This question is based on classification of vitamins.
Solution :
Water soluble vitamins
⇒ Dissolve in water
⇒ Not stored in body
⇒ Excess excreted via urine
⇒ Vitamin-B complex and vitamin C
Hence vitamin B is water soluble.
Final answer : 2

67)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the wrong pair among biomolecule
linkages.
Concept : This question is based on composition of common carbohydrates.
Answer Explanation:

Compound Given Pair Correct Pair Status

Cellulose Polymer of β-D-glucose Polymer of β-D-glucose Correct

Lactose β-D-galactose + β-D-glucose β-D-galactose + β-D-glucose Correct

Sucrose β-D-glucose + α-D-fructose α-D-glucose + β-D-fructose Wrong

Starch Polymer of α-D-glucose Polymer of α-D-glucose Correct

Thus (3) is the wrong pair.

Final Answer: Option (3)

69)

Name reaction

70) Explanation the Question: Which compounds give cannizzaro reaction?

Concept:
This question is based on Cannizzaro, conditions.
Solution:
Aldehyde not containing alpha-hydrogen atoms give cannizzaro reaction.
Ex:- HCHO, CH3–CHO, Ph–CHO

71) Explanation the Question:

Identify the most suitable reagent for the conversion of R–CH2OH→RCHO
Concept:
This question is based on Oxidation of Alcohol

Solution:

• PCC is mild oxidising agent. It oxidised primary alcohol to aldehyde.

• Others (KMnO4, K2Cr2O7, CrO3) are strong oxidising agent, So futher oxidation are possible.
So PCC is the most suitable for above conversion.

Final Answer : Option (4)

72) Explain Question: The question asks to identify which chlorobenzene derivative
undergoes hydrolysis most easily. Hydrolysis of aryl halides typically occurs via Nucleophilic
Aromatic Substitution (SN ). Ar

Concept: The rate of SN depends on the presence of Electron Withdrawing Groups (EWG) like
Ar

–NO2. These groups stabilize the anionic intermediate (Meisenheimer complex) by reducing
electron density on the ring, especially when positioned ortho or para to the leaving group.

Solution:

• Option 1: Chlorobenzene (no EWG, very slow).

• Option 2: 1-chloro-2-nitrobenzene (one –NO2 at ortho).

• Option 3: 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene (two –NO2 at ortho/para).

• Option 4: 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene (three –NO2 at ortho/para).

As the number of –NO2 groups increases at ortho/para positions, the ring becomes more
electron-deficient, making it highly reactive toward nucleophilic attack. Option 4 reacts even
with warm water.

Final Answer: Option (4)

73)

Explain Question:

Identify the compound most reactive for Dehydrohalogenation.

Concept:
E-2 Reaction of Alkene Halide.

Solution:

Rate of E-2 Reaction a stability of alkene.

Hence option (2) is most reactive for dehydrohalogenation.

Final answer: option (2)

74) In case nitrogen and sulphur both are present in an organic compound, sodium
thiocyanate is formed, it give blood red colour and no prussian blue since there are no free
cyanide Ions
Na + C + N + S → NaSCN

Blood red

76)

Explain Question: Identify ligand that can bind through six donor atoms

Concept: Denticity of ligands

Solution:

(1) C₂O₄²⁻ (Oxalate): Bidentate ligand; coordinates through two oxygen atoms.

(2) EDTA⁴⁻: Hexadentate ligand; binds through 2 nitrogen and 4 oxygen atoms.

(3) H₂N–CH₂–CH₂–NH₂ (Ethylenediamine): Bidentate ligand; coordinates via two nitrogen

atoms.
(4) N(CH₂CH₂NH₂)₃ (Tris(2-aminoethyl)amine): Tetradentate ligand; coordinates through
four nitrogen atoms.

Final Answer: Option (2)

77)

Question explanation : The question is asking about the effective atomic number of iron
complexes.
Concept : This question is based on EAN = atomic number – oxidation state + electrons
donated by ligands.
Solution: Oxalate (C₂O₄²⁻) is a bidentate ligand donating 2 pairs = 4 electrons.
Three oxalates donate = 3 × 4 = 12 electrons.
Charge = –3 → Fe is in +3 oxidation state.
EAN = 26 – 3 + 12 = 35.
Final answer : Option 3

78)

Question Explanation: Identify complex releasing three chloride ions with AgNO₃ treatment.

Concept :

Outer-sphere Cl⁻ → gives AgCl precipitate

Inner-sphere Cl⁻ (coordinated) → does not precipitate with AgNO₃

Solution :

[Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ → 3 Cl⁻ outside → 3 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ → 2 Cl⁻ outside → 2 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl → 1 Cl⁻ outside → 1 mol AgCl

[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃] → 0 Cl⁻ outside → 0 mol AgCl

Only the first complex produces 3 moles of AgCl.

Final Answer: Option (1)

79) Explain Question:

The question is asking about the oxidation state and coordination number of Co in
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

Concept:
Oxidation number and ligands determine coordination.

Solution:
1. Oxidation state of Co:
 A. Complex: [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (since two Cl– are counter ions).
B. Let x = oxidation state of Co.

[Link] number: Co is bonded to 5NH3 + 1Cl– → total 6.

Final Answer: Option (2)

80)

Conceptual

81) Question Explanation : Identify which manganese oxide behaves as an acidic oxide.

Concept : Higher oxidation states of metals form acidic oxides due to strong covalency.

Solution : The acidic nature of metal oxides increases with oxidation state. Manganese in
Mn₂O₇ has the highest oxidation state of +7, leading to strong covalent bonding with oxygen.
Such highly oxidized oxides react with water to form acids. Therefore, Mn₂O₇ behaves as an
acidic oxide, unlike lower oxidation state oxides.

Final Answer: OPTION (2)

82) Co+3 = 4s° 3d6

Fe+2 = 4s° 3d6

83) NCERT Class XII, Part-I, Pg # 214

85)

Only Cl– gives chromyl chloride test not covalent molecule

86) mp & bp ⇒ H2S < H2 Se < H2Tc < H2O due to H.B. in H2O

87)

Explain Question:
The question asks which Group-14 element dihalides (SiX₂, GeX₂, SnX₂, PbX₂) are most stable,
and in what order their stability increases. You need to know how the stability of the +2
oxidation state changes down the group.

Concepts:
• Inert Pair Effect: The tendency of the s-electrons (ns²) to remain non-bonding increases down
the group, making the +2 oxidation state more stable for heavier elements.
• Oxidation States in Group-14: Elements in Group-14 can show +2 and +4 oxidation states;
the stability of +2 increases from Si to Pb.

Solution:
Inert pair effect - stability of lower O.S. increases on moving top to bottom in group 14.
+2 lower O. N (stability in crease downside).
+4 higher O.N (stability in crease upside).

Final Answer: Option (3)

88)

B2H6

89)

Explanation : Asking about correct order of acidity

Concept: Acidic character

Solution:

Acidic ∝ EN ∝

acidic strength : HClO(+1) < HClO2(+3)< HClO3 (+5)< HClO4 (+7)

Final answer: Option 2

90)

Asking for : Identify the correct order of bond energies for the halogen molecules Cl2​, Br2​,
and I2​.

Concept : Bond energy in diatomic halogens is primarily influenced by bond length. Down the
group, atomic size increases, leading to longer and weaker bonds, thus lower bond energies.

Solution : As we move down the halogen group (Cl, Br, I), the atomic size increases, resulting
in increased bond lengths in Cl2​, Br2​, and I2​.

Longer bonds are generally weaker. The approximate bond energies are: Cl2​ (242 kJ/mol), Br2​
(193 kJ/mol), and I2​ (151 kJ/mol).

This trend shows a decrease in bond energy with increasing atomic size.

Therefore, the correct order is Cl2​ > Br2​ > I2​.

Answer : Option : 4
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. No. 259

92)

NCERT BASED

94)

NCERT BASED

95)

NCERT XII Pg # 258

96)

Explain Question – The question asks which area (A, B, or C) in the Species-Area relationship
graph has the steepest slope and maximum species richness, based on Alexander von
Humboldt’s concept.

Concept – Species-Area Relationship .

Solution –

Line C has the steepest slope and reaches the highest species richness.

Therefore, Area C satisfies both conditions.

Final Answer – Option 4

97)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 194, 195

98)

NCERT XII, Page # 194

99) NCERT XII, Pg. # 196

100) NCERT XII Pg.# 227

101) NCERT-XII, Pg # 228

102) NCERT BASED

103) NCERT BASED

104) NCERT XII Pg # 229, para 13.2.2

105) NCERT BASED

106) NCERT BASED

111)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the assertion and reason related to the
Epidermal Tissue system.

Concept : Epidermal tissue system.

Solution :

The correct answer is 3. Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

Assertion: The statement that root hairs help to absorb water and minerals from the soil is
true. Root hairs are tiny, hair-like extensions of the root epidermal cells that significantly
increase the surface area for absorption of water and nutrients from the soil.

Reason: The statement that the cuticle is absent on the epidermis of the shoot is false. The
cuticle, a waxy layer, is very much present on the epidermis of the shoot (stems and leaves).
Its primary function is to prevent water loss through transpiration. If it were absent, plants
would lose excessive water, especially in dry conditions. The cuticle is, however, absent on the
root epidermis, which is essential for the absorption of water and minerals.

Final answer : option (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

112)

NCERT BASED

113) NCERT BASED

114)
NCERT-XI, Pg # 90
Fig. 6.5 (b), (c)

115) Question Explanation: Identifying incorrect phloem match.

Concept: Phloem Tissues
Solution: The incorrect matching is Phloem fibres - Elongated, Branched and Needle
like apices. While phloem fibers are elongated and have needle-like apices, they are not
branched. This is a characteristic feature of sclerenchyma cells.
Final Answer: Phloem fibres – Elongated, Branched and Needle like apices

116)

NCERT BASED

117) Question Explanation :

The question asks you to identify the correct row from a table that matches a plant organ
(Column I) with its characteristic vascular tissue arrangement (Column II) and overall vascular
bundle type (Column III).
Concept :
This question is based on Types of Vascular Bundles.
Solution :
In roots, xylem is exarch and vascular bundles are radial.
Final Answer :
Option (1)

118) Module–4, Pg. # 208,209,210

119)

NCERT BASED

120) Explain Question:

The question asks for the tissue system category to which leaf mesophyll cells belong.
Concept :
This question is based on Ground tissue system.
Explanation:
The mesophyll in the leaf is made of parenchyma cells which belong to the ground tissue
system.
Final answer : 2

121) Question Explanation :

The question is asks for the specific name of the distinctive hanging structures that provide
support to a banyan tree.

Concept :
This question is based on root modifications.
Solution :
"In banyan trees, prop roots arise from branches and grow downward to provide support,
acting like pillars"

Final Answer :
Option (3)

123)

NCERT # XIth pg. no. 73

124)

NCERT BASED

125)

Explain Question - question asks to identify the correct statement(s) about the functions of
stem.

Concept - Morphology of Flowering Plants -Stem : Functions of stem

Solution -
• Stem conducts water and minerals from roots and transports photosynthate from leaves.
• In some plants, stem performs storage of food, provides support and protection (thorns).
• Stem also helps in vegetative propagation (rhizome, tuber, runner, sucker).

Final answer - Option 4

126) NCERT Pg # 67

127)

Explain Question : The question tests understanding of Griffith's experiment involving

Pneumococcus bacteria (S and R strains) and their effect when injected into mice.

Concept : This question is based on Griffith's experiment

Solution : A: S strain → virulent → mice die

B: R strain → non-virulent → mice live

Final Answer : option (1)

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

130)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

131)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 15

133) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Ploidy of :
(i) nucellus = 2n
(ii) megaspore mother cell = 2n
(iii) functional megaspore = n
(iv) embryo sac = n
Final Answer : (3)

134) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
In over 60% of angiosperms pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage.
Hence, option (3) is correct.

135)

NCERT BASED

136)

Question Explanation – The question is asking which insect pest is controlled by the protein
encoded by the gene cryIIAb.

Concept – Bt toxin genes (cry genes) in genetically modified crops

Solution –cryIIAb specifically targets cotton bollworm.

Final Answer – Option 2 (Cotton boll worm)

137)

Question Explanation – The question is asking what process is initiated when

double‑stranded RNA (dsRNA) is formed instead of the usual single‑stranded mRNA.

Concept – RNA interference (RNAi).

Solution – Normally, mRNA is single‑stranded. In some cases, dsRNA is formed, which

triggers RNA interference (RNAi). This mechanism silences specific genes by degrading
complementary mRNA, thereby blocking gene expression.

Final Answer – Option 1 (RNAi)

138)
 Question Explanation: The question asks the term used when an abnormal gene is replaced
by a normal gene.

Concept: The question is based on gene therapy

Solution: The correct answer is gene therapy.

A. Gene therapy involves replacing or correcting defective genes with normal ones.
B. Cloning → Produces identical copies of organisms or cells, not gene replacement.
C. Mutation → Refers to changes in DNA sequence, not correction.
D. Selection → Refers to choosing organisms with desired traits, not gene replacement.

Final Answer: Option 1

140)

NCERT BASED

141)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.

Final answer : option (4)

142) NCERT Pg # 149

143)

Question Explanation: which of the following is a fungal disease?

Concept: helminthic and fungal disease

Solution: ringworm is a fungal disease caused by microsporum

Final answer: Option 4

144) NCERT Pg # 149

145) NCERT Pg # 149

146)

Explain question : This question asks about symptoms of amoebiasis.

Concept : This question is based on protozoan disease.
Solution : Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps are features of amoebiasis,
Final answer : option (2)

147) NCERT Pg # 148

148) NCERT Pg # 149

149)

NCERT Pg # 137

150)

NCERT Pg # 137

151)

NCERT Pg # 136

152)

NCERT Pg # 136

153)

NCERT BASED

154)

NCERT BASED

155) NCERT-Pg#130 fig no. 7.2

156)

Question explanation: Identify the type of organs represented by flippers of penguins and
dolphins.

Concept: Evolution

Solution:
A. Flippers of penguins (birds) and dolphins (mammals) perform the same function (swimming).
However, they have different evolutionary origins and internal structures.
B. Such organs are called analogous organs (same function, different origin).

Final answer: Option 2

157)

Question explanation: The question is asking about the approximate time when seaweeds
and a few plants first appeared on Earth.

Concept: Evolution – Geological Time Scale

Solution: Seaweeds and simple plants are believed to have existed around 320 million years
ago.

Final answer: 4

158)

NCERT BASED

159)

NCERT BASED

161)

Lungs of birds and gills of fishes because both have different ancestry.

162)

NCERT BASED

164)

NCERT BASED

165)

NCERT BASED

166)

NCERT BASED

167)
 NCERT BASED

168)

NCERT BASED

169)

NCERT BASED

170)

NCERT BASED

171)

NCERT BASED

172) Explain Question : The question asks which hormone stimulates Sertoli cells to secrete
factors aiding spermiogenesis.
Concept : This question is based on male reproductive system hormones
Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. FSH → Acts on Sertoli cells, stimulating them to release factors (like ABP, growth factors) that
support spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis.

A. LH → Acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone.

A. Androgens → Act directly on germ cells and stimulate the spermatogenesis but are produced
under LH stimulation.
B. GnRH → From hypothalamus, regulates LH & FSH release, not directly Sertoli cells.

Final Answer : option (3)

173) NCERT PAGE :- 51

174)

Explain Question : To Identify the correct statements.

Concept : hormonal regulation in male reproductive physiology

Solution :
Statement 1 is incorrect: LH acts on Leydig cells → produces androgens → stimulates
spermatogenesis. it does not stimulate spermiogenesis directly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: GnRH is secreted by the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.

Final Answer : option (2) Both the statements are incorrect

175) NCERT Pg#46

176) NCERT Pg#45

177)

Question Explanation – The question asks which IUD type and example pair is
correctly matched

Concept – Types of intrauterine devices (IUDs)

Solution –

Multiload 375 is a Cu²⁺ releasing IUD, so this pair is correct

Final Answer – Option (2)

178) NCERT, Pg. # 43

179)

Syphilis is caused by bacteria and can be completely cured with antibiotics(penicillin),

especially if caught early. Trichomoniasis is also curable with antibiotics.

180)

NCERT - XII, Pg. # 44