05-04-2026

1001CMD303052250106 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle is moving along a straight line such that square of its velocity varies with time as shown

in the figure. What is the acceleration of the particle at t = 4 s ?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1/4 m/s2
(3) 1/2 m/s2
(4) 0

2) Two bodies are thrown up at angles of 45° and 60° respectively with the horizontal. If both bodies
attain same maximum height, then the ratio of speed with which these are thrown is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The velocity versus displacement graph of particle moving on straight line is given as below the

corresponding acceleration versus velocity graph will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A ball is projected horizontally with velocity v0 from the top of a tower. The horizontal distance on
the ground is ηH, H is the height of tower. The speed of the ball when it reaches the ground is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) When a piece of wire is held diametrically in a screw gauge [pitch = 1 mm, number of division on
circular scale = 100], the readings obtained are as shown. Now if we measure the same with help of
vernier callipers [1 MSD = 1 mm, 10 divisions of vernier coinciding with 9 divisions of main scale]
having a negative zero error of 0.5 mm, then find which of the following figures correctly represents

the reading ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. Work
done by all the forces on the particle is :-

(1) 400 J
(2) – 400 J
(3) – 200 J
(4) 200 J

7) A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance
moved by the body in time t is proportional to :

(1) t1/2
(2) t3/4
(3) t3/2
(4) t2

8) An annular ring with inner and outer radii R1 and R2 respectively is rolling without slipping with a
uniform angular speed. The ratio of the forces experienced by the two particles situated on the inner
and outer parts of the ring, is

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The force required just to move a body up an inclined plane is double the force required just to
prevent the body sliding down. If the coefficient of friction is 0.25, the angle of inclination of the
plane is :-

(1) 37°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 53°

10) A person is sitting in a travelling train and facing the engine. He tosses up a coin and the coin
falls behind him. It can be concluded that the train is :

(1) Moving forward and gaining speed

(2) Moving forward and losing speed
(3) Moving forward with uniform speed
(4) Moving backward with uniform speed

11) If the density of material of cone and cylinder shown in figure is same, then which of the

following is correct about the y-coordinate of COM (yCOM) w.r.t. point O.

(1) yCOM > H

(2) yCOM = H
(3) yCOM < H
(4) None of the above

12) Match the column:-

 Column-II
Column-I
(Coefficient of
(Process of Collision)
restitution)

(a) Ball dropped on a perfectly rigid floor, rebounds to same height (1) e=0

(b) Two clay balls collide and stick together (2) e=1

(c) A superelastic collision (fictitious, where KE increases) (3) 0<e<1

(d) A glass ball dropped on a steel plate, rebound to a lesser height (4) e>1
(1) a→2;b→1;c→4;d→3
(2) a→1;b→2;c→3;d→4
(3) a→2;b→1;c→3;d→4
(4) a→4;b→1;c→2;d→3

13) Two particle A and B are joined together as shown in the diagram and revolving on the
horizontal circular path. Masses of A and B are 3m and 2m. P, V, E and F represent the linear
momentum, velocity, kinetic energy and centripetal force respectively then match the column :

Column-A Column-B

(i) (P)

(ii) (Q)

(iii) (R)

(iv) (S)

(1) (i) → S, (ii) → Q, (iii) → P, (iv) → R

(2) (i) → Q, (ii) → P, (iii) → R, (iv) → S
(3) (i) → R, (ii) → P, (iii) → S, (iv) → Q
(4) (i) → P, (ii) → R, (iii) → Q, (iv) → S

14) Distance travelled by a particle moving in a circle of radius 8m is x = 2t2, its acceleration after 2
sec will be in m/s2 :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 6
(4)
15) One mole of Argon gas undergoes a process given by PV3/2 = constant. If heat obtained by gas is
Q and molar specific heat in the process in C, then which of the following is correct if temperature of
gas changes by –26K? (R → gas constant)

(1) C = 0.5 R, Q = 13R

(2) C = –0.5 R, Q = 15R
(3) C = –0.5 R, Q = 13R
(4) C = 0, Q = 13R

16) The heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in the

adjacent figure is-

(1) 103 π J
(2) 102 π J
(3) 104 π J
(4) 107 π J

17) A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of water is
4200 J kg–1 K–1. The efficiency of heater is 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg of water from 10°C to
60°C is :-

(1) 400 min

(2) 300 sec
(3) 200 sec
(4) 300 min

18) The ratio of the densities of the two bodies is 3 : 4 and the ratio of specific heats is 4 : 3 . Find
the ratio of their thermal capacities for unit volume ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 6

19) Temperature difference of 120°C is maintained between two ends of a uniform rod AB of length

2L. Another bent rod PQ, of same cross-section and same material as AB and length , is connected
across AB (See figure). In steady state, temperature difference between P and Q will be close to :
(1) 40°C
(2) 45°C
(3) 50°C
(4) 55°C

20) Two electric lamps A and B radiate the same power. Their filaments have the same dimensions,

and have emissivities eA and eB. Their surface temperatures are TA and TB. The ratio will be equal
to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) When a mass m is connected individually to two springs S1 & S2, the frequencies are f1 & f2. if
both springs are attached as shown, the frequency of system will be –

(1) f1 + f2

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The bob of a simple pendulum of length L is released at time t = 0 from a position of
small angular displacement θ0. Its linear displacement at time t is given by :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) A particle executing SHM, starts from mean position. It passes through a certain point P at
time t1 = 0.5 s and t2 = 1.5 s with speed of 3 m/s. Find velocity at mean position :

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) m/ s
(4) None

24) The equation of a stationary wave is Y = 10 sin cos 20πt. The distance between two
consecutive nodes in meters is -

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 8

25) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency
500 Hz. The third harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives 2 beats per second, when
sounded with a source of frequency 1510 Hz. The unknown frequency is

(1) 510 Hz
(2) 504 Hz
(3) 496 Hz
(4) 490 Hz

26) Two waves having intensity I and 9I produce interference. If the resultant intensity at a point is
7I, what is the phase difference between the two waves :-

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

27) Match the column:

Column I Column II

A. Sound waves P. Electromagnetic wave

B. Waves in strings Q. Longitudinal wave

Waves in a long
C. R. Transverse wave
spring

Both transverse
D. Light waves S.
and longitudinal
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(2) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
(3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

28) Two liquids are at temperature 20°C and 40°C. When same mass of both of them is mixed then
temperature of mixture is 32°C. What is ratio of their specific heat of liquids :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (p) are taken as the
fundamental quantities, then the dimension of gravitational constant is :-

0
(1) c2g p–2
0
(2) c g2p–1
(3) cg3p–2
0
(4) c–1g p–1

30) A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m and unit of
time is γ s. What will be value of 5J in this new system :

(1) 5αβ2γ–2
(2) 5α–1β–2γ2
(3) 5α–2β–1γ–2
(4) 5α–1β2γ2

31)
A monkey of mass 1 kg is climbing on rope to just balance the weight of the block of mass 2kg. After
some time monkey stop moving with respect to string. Find change in acceleration of monkey.

(1) g
(2) g/3
(3) 2g/3
(4) g/4

32) A body of mass 3kg is under a force which causes a displacement in it, given by s = t2/3 (in m).
Find the work done by the force in 2 second.

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 2.6 J

33) A rod of length L and mass M is bent to form a semicircular ring as shown in the adjoining

figure. The moment of inertia about XY is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Assertion (A) : A couple does not exert a net force on an object even though it exerts a torque.
Reason (R) : Couple is a pair of two forces with equal magnitude but opposite directions acting
simultaneously on a body in different lines of action.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

35)

Find the value of mass m to keep the disc horizontal. (Given string is attached at point B on disc.)
(1) M

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of earth ρ are related by which of the
following relations ?
[G = gravitational constant and R = radius of earth] :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Potential energy of a 3kg body at the surface of a planet is –54J, then escape velocity will be:

(1) 18 m/s
(2) 162 m/s
(3) 36 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

38) Two solid spherical planets of equal radii R having masses 4M and 9M and their centres are
separated by a distance 6R. A projectile of mass m is sent from the planet of mass 4 M towards the
heavier planet. What is the distance r of the point from the lighter planet where the gravitational
force on the projectile is zero ?

(1) 1.4 R
(2) 1.8 R
(3) 1.5 R
(4) 2.4 R

39) Young's modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. A steel wire has a length of 1 m and area of cross
section 1 mm2. The work required to increase its length by 1 mm is :-

(1) 0.1 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 100 J

40) A liquid x of density 3.36 g/cm3 is poured in a U tube which contains Hg. Another liquid y is
poured in left arm with height 8 cm upper levels of x and y are same then density of y is:
(1) 0.8 g/cm3
(2) 1.2 g/cm3
(3) 1.4 g/cm3
(4) 1.6 g/cm3

41) A rectangular tank is filled completely with water. A hole at its bottom is unplugged. The graph
between the velocity of efflux (through a small hole) vs depth of water h from the top of tank.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same length and material is represented
by the four lines OA, OB, OC and OD as shown in the figure. Which line represents the thinnest
wire?

(1) line OB
(2) line OA
(3) line OD
(4) line OC

43) A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water
solution. Which of the following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the
mainscale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale
is :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

45) In a resonance tube, the first resonance with a tuning fork occurs at 16 cm and second at 49 cm.
If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the frequency of tuning fork is (in Hz) :-

(1) 500
(2) 300
(3) 330
(4) 165

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct order of acid character of the following compounds is :

(1) III > II > I > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

2) Which of the following compound is added to the sodium extract before addition of silver nitrate
for testing of halogens ?

(1) Nitric acid

(2) Ammonia
(3) Hydrochloric acid
(4) Sodium hydroxide

3) CH3CHCl2 X Y Z is :-

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–COOH

(4)

4) Which alkyl bromide will produce only one alkene upon dehydrohalogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) Match the Column I with Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) Aromatic

(B) (Q) Non-aromatic

(C) (R) Anti-aromatic

Follows
(D) (S)
Huckel Rule

(1) (A)–Q ; (B)–P,S ; (C)–P,S ; (D)–R

(2) (A)–P,S ; (B)–P,R ; (C)–P,S ; (D)–R,S
(3) (A)–Q,S ; (B)–R,S ; (C)–P,S ; (D)–Q,S
(4) (A)–P,S ; (B)–P,S ; (C)–R,S ; (D)–R

6) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers
shown?

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more steric strain

7) In which pair's I more stable than II

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

Choose the correct IUPAC name of compound :

(1) 3-methyl-5-bromo benzene carbaldehyde

(2) 3-formyl-5-bromo phenyl methyl ether
(3) 3-bromo-5-methoxy benzaldehyde
(4) 3-formyl-5-bromo-1-methoxy benzene

9) Which of following compound has keto content more than enol content :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Correct order of indicated bond-length

(1) ℓ2 > ℓ3 > ℓ1

(2) ℓ3 > ℓ1 > ℓ2
(3) ℓ3 > ℓ2 > ℓ1
(4) ℓ1 > ℓ3 > ℓ2

11)

Identify product (A) & (B) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In which of the following reaction benzene is not formed as major product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of
nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25
mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is :-

(1) 18.20
(2) 16.76
(3) 15.76
(4) 17.36

14) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Separation of
Fractional
(a) aniline-water (i)
distillation
mixture

Distillation
Separation of
under reduced
(b) aniline-chloroform (ii)
pressure
mixture

Separation of
(c) glycerol from (iii) Distillation
spent-lye

Separation of
(d) different fractions (iv) Steam distillation
of crude oil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

15) An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio.
Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product "B" is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) Which of the following option is incorrectly matched according to given property.

(1) F < Cl < Br < I [Atomic radius]

(2) Cl > F > Br > I [Electron Gain Enthalpy]
(3) O > S > Se > Te > Po [Electron Gain Enthalpy]
(4) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs [Ionisation Enthalpy]

17) Which of the following is the correct order of acidic, basic, amphoteric and neutral oxide
respectively.

(1) As2O3, Na2O, N2O, Cl2O7

(2) Cl2O7, Na2O, N2O, As2O3
(3) N2O, Cl2O7, As2O3, Na2O
(4) Cl2O7, Na2O, As2O3, N2O

18) Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding C2 molecule by molecular orbital
theory.

(1) It is diamagnetic
(2) Double bond in C2 consists of both pi bonds
(3) Double bond in C2 consists one sigma and one pi bond
(4) It has no unpaired electron

19) Boiling point of HF is greater than HCl due to presence of ______

(1) Intra molecular Hydrogen bonding

(2) Intermolecular Hydrogen bonding
(3) Vander Waal force of attraction
(4) Covalent bond

20) The shape of the following species are XeF4, BrF5, SF4 respectively -

(1) Square planar, Square pyramidal, See-Saw

(2) Square pyramidal, See-Saw, Square planar
(3) Octahedral, Square planar, Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) Tetrahedral, Pyramidal, Trigonal bipyramidal

21) Statement I : A molecular orbital is polycentric

Statement II : The electron probability distribution around a group of nuceli is given by a molecular
orbital
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

22) The correct order of increasing bond length of N = O, C = C, C = O, C = N is ________.

(1) C = O < C = C < C = N < N = O

(2) C = O < C = N < C = O < N = O
(3) C = O < N = O < C = C < C = N
(4) C = N < C = C < N = O < C = O

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) Noble gases have large positive electron gain enthalpy

Electronegativity of any given element is not constant, it varies depending on the element to
(2)
which it is bound.
(3) The process of adding electrons to the atom always endothermic
(4) The ionisation enthalpy is expressed in units of kJ/mole.

24) Statement-I : The hybridised orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape.
Statement-II : The hybrid orbitals are more effective in forming stable bonds than the pure atomic
orbitals.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

25) Which of the following represent incorrect match according to given property.

(1) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 [Lattice energy]

(2) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI [Covalent character]
(3) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 [Boiling point]
(4) F–F > Cl–Cl > Br–Br [Bond dissociation energy]

26) Correct match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option given below.

Column-II
Column-I
(IUPAC official
(Atomic number)
name)

(A) 106 (p) Nihonium

(B) 113 (q) Tennessine

(C) 108 (r) Seaborgium

(D) 117 (s) Hassium

(1) (A - r) , (B - p), (C - q), (D - s)
(2) (A - r) , (B - p), (C - s), (D - q)
(3) (A - p) , (B - r), (C - s), (D - q)
(4) (A - s) , (B - p), (C - q), (D - r)

27) In H spectrum a certain electronic transition from an excited state to ground state in multistep
produces 15 lines. Find number of lines in visible region.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

28) Assertion (A) : At constant volume addition of inert gas has no effect on equilibrium.
Reason (R) : Addition of inert gas at constant volume does not change the partial pressure or the
molar concentrations of the substances involved in the reaction.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is a correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

29) Match Column-I with Column-II -

Column-I Column-II
(Orbital) (Nodal properties)

Number of radial
(a) 5s (P)
node = 1

Number of angular
(b) 3dyz (Q)
node = 0

Sum of radial and

(c) 4dxy (R)
angular node = 3

Number of radial
(d) 3px (S)
node = 0
(1) (a) → (Q); (b) → (S); (c) → (P,R); (d) → (P)
(2) (a)→(Q,R); (b) → (Q,S); (c) → (S); (d) → (P)
(3) (a)→ (R,S); (b) → (P,Q); (c) → (R); (d) → (R)
(4) (a) → (P); (b) → (Q,R); (c) → (S); (d) → (R)

30) Which of the pair of two orbitals are located along the axis and not between the axis ?

(1) ,
(2) , pz
(3) dyz, px
(4)

31) The value of stoichiometric coefficients (a, b, c, d and e) for the following reaction is :
aPtCl4 + bXeF2 → cPtF6 + dClF + eXe

(1) a = 2, b = 5, c = 2, d = 4, e = 5
(2) a = 1, b = 4, c = 1, d = 4, e = 4
(3) a = 1, b = 5, c = 1, d = 4, e = 5
(4) a = 1, b = 4, c = 1, d = 2, e = 4

32) The pair of compounds in which the metals are in their highest oxidation state is

(1) MnO2, FeCl3

–
(2) MnO4 , CrO2Cl2
(3) MnCl2, CrCl3
2–
(4) [NiCl4] , Hg2Cl2

33) Which of the following is a redox reaction ?

(1) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl

(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(3) Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn(CN)2
(4) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O

34) For a reaction 2NO2 + , if equilibrium constant is kp, then kp for this reaction 2N2O5
4NO2 + O2 will be:-

2
(1) kp

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) 2CO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g), the dissociation of 2 moles of CO2 is carried out in container with
volume 5 L. If at equilibrium 60% CO2 is dissociated then total number of moles at equilibrium will
be :-

(1) 2.3
(2) 2.6
(3) 3.0
(4) 3.2

36) If initially 1 mol each of A and B is taken in the reaction A + B C + D, the degree of
dissociation would be :- [K is equilibrium constant]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) 1 mole of each of H2(g) and I2(g) are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80%
of the hydrogen is converted to HI(g), the KC at this temperature is :-

(1) 64
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 256

38)

For the reaction,

4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(ℓ),

ΔH = positive. At equilibrium which factor will not effect the concentration of NH3 is.
(1) Change in pressure
(2) Change in volume
(3) Catalyst
(4) Change in temperature

39) 56 g of red hot iron is treated with 36 mL water. The weight of Fe3O4 produced would be (Atomic
weight of Fe = 56)
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(ℓ) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2↑

(1) 77.33 g
(2) 11.6 g
(3) 232 g
(4) 58 g

40) The mass percent of oxygen in NaOH is ?

(1) 40
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 1

41)

Match the following

 Entropy
Reaction
change

A liquid
(a) (i) ΔS = 0
vaporises

Reaction is non
spontaneous at
(b) (ii) ΔS = Positive
all temperatures
and ΔH is positive

Reversible
adiabatic
(c) (iii) ΔS = negative
expansion
of an ideal gas
(1) (a) - ii, (b) - i, (c) - iii
(2) (a) - i, (b) - ii, (c) - iii
(3) (a) - iii, (b) - ii, (c) - i
(4) (a) - ii, (b) - iii, (c) - i

42) Statement-I : To some extent ℓ also determines the energy of the orbital in multi electron atom.
Statement-II : ms refers to orientation of the spin of electron.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

43) Statement (I) : ΔG is known as free energy of reaction.

Statement (II) : ΔHsys is the enthalpy change of reaction, TΔSsys is the energy which is not available
to do useful work hence ΔG is net energy available to do useful work.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

44)

Which of the following reaction(s) represents enthalpy of atomization.

(a) H2(g) → 2H(g)

(b) NH3(g) → N(g) + H(g)

(c) CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g)
(d) Na(s) → Na(g)
(e) SO2(g) → S(s) + O2(g)

(1) a & c only

(2) a, c & d only
(3) a, b, c and d only
(4) a, b, c & e only

45) If H+ + OH– → H2O + 13.7 kCal, then heat of complete neutralisation of 1 gm molecules of
H2SO4 with strong base in excess will be :

(1) –13.7 kCal

(2) – 27.4 kCal
(3) – 6.85 k Cal
(4) – 3.425 kCal

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is correct for transferases ?

(1) They catalyse oxidoreduction between two substrates.

(2) They are responsible for transfer of e– and H+.
(3) They catalyse a transfer of a group other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates.
(4) The example of these is aldolase.

2) ___________ structure is the most stable structure of protein.

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary

3) Statement (I) : Alkaloid, flavonoids, rubber, essential oils etc are secondary metabolites.
Statement (II) : Nucleotides and amino acids are primary metabolites.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

4) Maltose has _____ glycosidic bond between α-D glucose & α-D glucose.

(1) 1' - 4''

(2) 1' - 2''
(3) 1' - 1''
(4) 4' - 2''

5) Identify incorrect statement from the options given below :

(1) Mesophyll cells of the leaves, have a large number of chloroplasts.

(2) Chloroplast align themselves along the walls of the mesophyll cells according to light intensity
(3) There is no division of labour within the chloroplast.
(4) Membrane system of chloroplast is responsible for trapping the light energy.

6) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Synthesis of ATP
A. i Light reaction
and NADPH

Enzymatic reaction In membrane

B ii
(synthesise sugar) system

Photochemical
C iii In stroma
reactions

Dark Not directly

D iv
reactions light driven

Choose correct answer from options given below :

(1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

7) Which of the following is/are green house crops ?

(1) Tomato
(2) Bell pepper
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Both (1) and (2)

8) Identify the below graph :

(1) Action spectrum of photosynthesis

(2) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
(3) Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(4) Action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a

9) Identify the correct statements :

A. Light reaction or photochemical phase includes light absorption, water splitting and oxygen
release only.
B. Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATP synthase.
C. Cyclic photophosphorylation also occurs when light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available
for excitation.
D. Peak of light absorption of the reaction center is same in both the photosystems.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and D only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C only

10) In a coupled reaction GTP is converted to GDP with the simultaneous synthesis of ATP from ADP.
This reaction is related with :

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(3) Fermentation
(4) ETS

11) Identify the correct sequence of electron transport in ETS -

(1) Complex - I complex -II

(2) Complex - II complex - I

(3) Complex - II complex - III

(4) Complex - III complex - V

12) Identify the correct statement from following statements :-

None of the intermediates in the respiratory pathway are utilised to synthesize any other
(1)
compound.
(2) Neither photosynthesis nor respiration is an amphibolic pathway

(3)
RQ =
(4) Ultimately aerobic respiration, releases CO2 & H2O

13) Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

A Glucose → Glucose-6-Phosphate I Hexokinase

Fructose-6-Phosphate → Fructose-1,6-
B II Phosphofructokinase
bisphosphate

C Phosphoenol pyruvate → Pyruvate III Pyruvate kinase

 D Oxaloacetic acid + Acetyl coA Citric IV Citrate synthase
acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

14) Statement-I :- During fermentation the reducing agent is NADH + H+.

Statement-II :- NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+ in both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Only Statement I is correct
(3) Only Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

15)

Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

A GA3 i Stress Hormone

B Kinetin ii Apical dominance

C ABA iii Brewing industry

D IBA iv Coconut milk

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i

16) The volatile substance is released from ripened oranges that __A__ the ripening of stored un-
ripened banana. It was identified as __B__.

(1) A-Reduced , B-Ascisic acid

(2) A-Hastened, B-Ethylene
(3) A-Stop, B-Auxin
(4) A-Hastened, B-Cytokinins

17) Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in :-

(1) Rice
(2) Potato
(3) Pineapples
(4) Cherry

18) How many of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(a) Cells differentiate and mature to perform specific functions is termed as differentiation.
(b) Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium formed from fully differentiated parenchyma cells.
(c) PGRs are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition.
(d) Only auxin breaks seed and bud dormancy, initiates germination in peanut seeds.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

19) Fill in the blank in given statement.

The cell of elongation zone has increased _A_, cell enlargement and new _B_ deposition.
Choose correct answer from option given below.

A. Vacuolation
(1)
B. Cell Wall
A. Water
(2)
B. Cell Wall
A. Vacuolation
(3)
B. Protoplasm
A. Reserved food
(4)
B. Ergastic material

20) Kelps are related with :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

21) Examine the figure given below and choose the structure in which asexual buds are produced :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

22) Match the following genera with their respective divisions:-

(a) Ginkgo (p) Angiospermae

(b) Sphagnum (q) Gymnospermae

(c) Adiantum (r) Bryophyta

(d) Eucalyptus (s) Pteridophyta

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (p) (q) (r) (s)
2 (s) (p) (q) (r)
3 (q) (s) (r) (p)
4 (q) (r) (s) (p)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which of the following is not a character related to red algae ?

(1) Sexual reproduction is oogamous.

(2) They occur in both well lighted areas and great depths of oceans.
(3) The stored food is cyanophycean starch, very similar to amylopectin and glycogen.
(4) They reproduce asexually by non motile spores.

24) Identify the set of correct statements.

A. The seed habit is considered an important step in evolution.
B. The prothallus of pteridophyta represents the gametophyte.
C. Equisetum is heterosporous pteridophyte.
D. The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical area.
E. The pteridophytes include horsetails and ferns.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C, D and E only

(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) A, B, D and E only

25) The development of pollen grain in gymnosperm take place with in __x__ retained on the
parental __y__.

(1) x - Archegonia, y - gametophyte

(2) x - Antheridium, y - sporophyll
(3) x - Microsporangia, y - sporophyte
(4) x - Megasporangia, y - gametophyte

26) Which of the following group of organisms includes chemoautotrophs, according to five kingdom
classification?

(1) Monera
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

27) Which one is an incorrectly matched pair ?

(1) Phycomycetes - Mucor, Albugo

(2) Ascomycetes - Neurospora, Aspergillus
(3) Basidiomycetes - Puccinia, Agaricus
(4) Deuteromycetes - Ustilago, Trichoderma

28) Assertion : A virus is a nucleoprotein and the genetic material is infectious.

Reason : No virus contains both RNA and DNA.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is NOT correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

29) Identify the given figure and select the correct statements regarding it ?

(i) It is Paramoecium, having mixotrophic nutrition.

(ii) It is Euglena having one functional flagellum.
(iii) It is Euglena having pigments identical to higher plants.
(iv) It is Paramoecium, a ciliated protozoan.

(1) (i) & (iv)

(2) only (i)
(3) only (iii)
(4) (ii) & (iii)

30) Identify the mismatched one :-

(1) Desmids These are members of kingdom protista.

(2) Slime moulds Under suitable conditions these form plasmodium.

(3) Ciliated protozoans These possess two cillia-one large and another small.
 (4) Mycoplasma These can survive without oxygen.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Statement-I : Sporozoans have an infectious spore like stage in their life cycle. The most
notorious is Plasmodium which causes malaria, a disease which has a staggering effect on human
population.
Statement-II : Slime moulds spores are dispersed by air currents.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

32) In which of the following organisms reproduction is not synonymous with growth ?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Unicellular algae
(3) Amoeba
(4) Housefly

33) Which of the following statement regarding nomenclature is correct?

(1) Generic name always begins with capital letter whereas specific epithet with small letter.
(2) Scientific name should be printed in italics.
(3) Scientific name when typed or handwritten should be underlined.
(4) All of the above

34) Arrange the following in ascending order of similar characteristics.

I. Family II. Genus
III. Class IV. Species

(1) Class < Family < Genus < Species

(2) Family < Class < Genus < Species
(3) Species < Order < Family < Class
(4) Class < Genus < Species < Family

35) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (i) Osmoregulation

(B) Lysosome (ii) Digestion of protein

(C) Golgi apparatus (iii) Steroidal hormone synthesis

 (D) Contractile vacuole (iv) Formation of glycolipid
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding eukaryotic cell.

(1) The eukaryotes include all the protist, plant, animal and fungi.
(2) All eukaryotic cell are not identical.
(3) Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear evelope.
(4) Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found only in eukaryotic cells.

37) Plasmodesmata are :

(1) Cemented layers between the cells

(2) Locomotory structure
(3) Membrane connecting the nucleus with plasmalemna
(4) Connections between the cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells

38) Nucleoprotein fibers are called chromatin net. These are observed during :-

(1) Interphase nucleus

(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Late prophase

39) The organelle considered as the site of aerobic respiration :-

(1) Produce cellular energy in the form of glucose

(2) Outer membrane forms number of infoldings known as cristae
(3) Divide by fission like division
(4) Matrix possesses single, circular and single stranded DNA molecule

40) Read the statements carefully :

(a) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the __A__ into proteins.
(b) ER divides the __B__ space into luminal (inside ER) and extra luminal (cytoplasm) compartments.
(c) Nucleolus is a site for active __C__ synthesis.
(d) Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the __D__
Identify A,B,C and D respectively :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) tRNA Intracellular mRNA cell wall

(2) rRNA Intracellular tRNA cell membrane

(3) mRNA Intracellular rRNA cell membrane

 (4) tRNA Intercellular mRNA cell wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) If the amount of DNA in end of S-phase of onion root cell is 40 pg, what would be the amount of
DNA in the cell at the time of entry in cell cycle at G1 stage?

(1) 20 pg
(2) 40 pg
(3) 10 pg
(4) 5 pg

42) Identify the meiotic stage in which the sister chromatids separates :-

(1) Anaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Metaphase-II

43) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma

(1)
membrane.
Furrow formation starts in the centre of cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral
(2)
walls.
(3) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent plant cells.
During cytokinesis, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the two
(4)
daughter cells.

44) Which one of the following cell division stage is correctly described with its event?

(1) Anaphase The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.

(2) Diakinesis Beginning of dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
(3) Metaphase Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(4) Zygotene Appearance of recombination nodule.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Which of the following option is not true about anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I meiosis ?

Anaphase Anaphase
of mitosis of meiosis-I
 Centromere Centromere does
(1)
divides not divide

Each chromosome Each chromosome

(2)
has single chromatid has two chromatids

Total number of Total number of

(3) chromosome in a chromosome in
cell remains same a cell become double

Daughter chromosomes Chromosomes with

with single chromatids two chromatids move
(4)
move towards the towards the opposite
opposite poles poles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Which of the following sentence is incorrect regarding Hemichordata ?

(1) They have open type of circulatory system

(2) Respiration take place through Gills
(3) Fertilization is external in them
(4) Their excretory organ is Protonephridia

47) Identify the correct statements for bony fishes :-

(A) Body is not streamlined
(B) Skin is covered by placoid scales
(C) Air bladder and operculum present
(D) Mouth mostly terminal
(E) External fertilization

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, B, E
(3) C, D, E
(4) A, D, E

48) Which one of the following option is correct about the figures A, B and C given below?

A-Acoelomate, B-Pseudocoelomate,
(1)
C-Coelomate
A-Coelomate, B-Acoelomate,
(2)
C-Pseudocoelomate
 A-Pseudocoelomate, B-Coelomate,
(3)
C-Acoelomate
A-Acoelomate, B-Coelomate,
(4)
C-Pseudocoelomate

49) Column A has some characters and B has their examples. Select the option, which correctly
matches them :

Column-A Column-B
(P) Canal system (a) Asterias
(Q) Spiny body (b) Obelia
(R) Stomochord (c) Euspongia
(S) Metagenesis (d) Columba
(T) Pneumatic bone (e) Balanoglossus
(1) P-c, Q-a, R-e, S-b, T-d
(2) P-a, Q-c, R-b, S-e, T-d
(3) P-e, Q-a, R-c, S-d, T-b
(4) P-b, Q-c, R-a, S-d, T-e

50) Identify the organism from the following hints :-

(A) Fresh water habitat with streamlined body
(B) Two chambered heart
(C) Air bladder present to regulate buoyancy
(D) Four pair of gills with operculum

(1) Exocoetus
(2) Trygon
(3) Myxine
(4) Catla

51) Assertion : Adult echinoderms are the radially symmetrical animals with true coelom.
Reason : Echinoderms have larval stage which is bilaterally symmetrical.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False statements

52) Select correct option with reference to ground substances of given diagram.
(1) Solid and pliable
(2) Semi-solid and non-pliable
(3) Abundant elastic fibres
(4) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres

53) How many statements are correct for simple cuboidal epithelium?
(A) The function is secretion and absorption.
(B) It is single layer of cube like cells.
(C) It is commonly present in duct of glands and tubular part of nephron.
(D) The nucleus is located at the base.

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

54) Which of following is not a part of male cockroach ?

(1) Titillator
(2) Phallomer
(3) Collateral glands
(4) Pseudopenis

55)

In cockroach, the sense organs are :-

(1) Anal style

(2) Spiracles
(3) Anal cerci
(4) Phallomeres

56) Assertion : In male frog, internal connection present between testes and kidney.
Reason : In frog, after spermatogenesis , sperms enter into kidney through vasa-efferentia.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

57) Match the list I with list II given about structures of frog

List I List II

(i) Copulatory pad a 10–12

(ii) Egg b 10 pairs

(iii) Vas efferentia c 2500–3000

(iv) Cranial Nerves d First digit

(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-b

58) Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipient". This is due to

(1) Presence of anti-A and anti-B antibodies on RBCs

(2) Absence of anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
(3) Absence of antigen A and B on the surface of RBCs
(4) Absence of antigen A and B in Plasma

59) Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option given
below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance

(b) Globulin (ii) Blood Clotting

(c) Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

(1) a – iii; b – ii; c – i
(2) a – i; b – ii; c – iii
(3) a – i; b – iii; c – ii
(4) a – ii; b – iii; c – i

60) Identify correct location of SAN (sino-atrial node) :-

(1) Right upper corner of left atrium.

(2) Right upper corner of right atrium.
(3) Left upper corner of left atrium.
(4) Left lower corner of right atrium.

61) Assertion: Angina is common among the middle age and elderly.
Reason: Acute chest pain appear when not enough oxygen in reaching the heart muscle.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Due to atrial contraction flow of blood increases into vertricles by about 30 percent.
(2) The action potential is conducted to the atrial side by purkinje fibre.
(3) Ventricular systole causes the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve.
(4) When verticular pressure falls it causes the closure of semilunar valve.

63) Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in human beings ?

(1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(2) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by heamoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Cigarette smoking does not cause any harm
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in medulla region of the brain can increase the
(4)
duration of inspiration

64) Choose the correct chemical equation related to respiration.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65) Which of the given option correctly represents total lung capacity (TLC) ?

(1) VC + RV
(2) IC + ERV
(3) ERV + RV
(4) IC + RV

66) Statement-I : Lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air tight
chamber.
Statement-II : Any change is the volume of thoracic cavity is reflected in lungs cavity.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
67) Statement - I : Mechanism of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending
mainly in their Habitats & Level of organisation.
Statement - II : Sponges respire through Gills.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I Incorrect But Statement II correct

68) Identify the correct option for the part of nephron which is lined by single layer of cube like cells
with rounded nuclei in the centre along with minute finger like projections at free surface of the
cells.

(1) Passive reabsorption of most of the glucose and amino acids

(2) Active reabsorption of nitrogenous wastes like ammonia
(3) Minimum reabsorption
(4) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed

69) The outline of principal events of urination in human are given below
(a) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send signals to CNS
(b) The bladder fills with urine and become distended
(c) Micturition
(d) CNS passes motor messages to initiate the contraction of unstriped muscles of the bladder and
relaxation of the urethral sphincter
Correct sequence of events is

(1) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d)

(2) (d) → (c) → (b) → (a)
(3) (b) → (a) → (d) → (c)
(4) (c) → (b) → (a) → (d)

70) Match the animals with their primary forms of nitrogenous waste excretion :

Animals Group Excretory Waste

(1) Mammals (a) Ammonia

(2) Birds (b) Urea

(3) Bony fishes (c) Uric acid

(4) Insects (d) Carbon dioxide

(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-c
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

71) Give the below statement :-

Statement-I :- Some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of some animals to
maintain a desired osmolarity.
Statement-II :- Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in width, 5-7 cm in length, 2-3
cm in thickness.
Option :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct & statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & statement-II is correct.

72) Which of the following sets of statements are correct ?

(A) JG cells release angiotensinogen in blood.
(B) ANF can cause vasodilation.
(C) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of ANF.
(D) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A, B and C
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) Only B

73)

The urine formed is a light yellow coloured and having pH ___A___. On an average, ___B___ of urea is
excreted out per day.
Select the option which correctly represent A & B in the above mentioned statement.

(1) A-(6), B-(50-55 gm)

(2) A-(3), B-(20-25 gm)
(3) A-(6), B-(25-30 gm)
(4) A-(5), B-(15-20 gm)

74) The part of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement,
pleasure, rage, fear etc.

(1) Limbic system

(2) Brain stem
(3) Medulla
(4) Both (1) & (3)

75) Based on the number of axon and dendrites, the neurons are divided into three types
(i) Multipolar neuron found in __A__.
(ii) Bipolar neuron found in __B__.
(iii) Unipolar neuron found in __C__.

A - Medulla oblongata ; B - Embryonic stage ;

(1)
C - Cranial nerve
 A - Cerebellum ; B - Embryonic stage ;
(2)
C - Dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord
A - Cerebral cortex ; B - Retina ;
(3)
C - embryonic stage
A - Pons ; B - Cerebral cortex ;
(4)
C - embryonic stage

76) Choose the correct statement from given below.

(1) Hypothalamus lies at the base of cerebellum

(2) Cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus Albicans.
A large region in cerebral cortex that are neither clearly sensory nor motor called association
(3)
area.
(4) Cerebrum wraps around pons.

77) In reference to given diagram, choose the correct set of option after reading following

statements :- a. The flow of impulse is from A to C

b. The flow of impulse is from C to A
c. A is in a state of polarisation
d. C is in a state of polarisation

(1) a, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) b, d

78) The function of oestrogen hormone in human female is except :-

(1) Stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs.

(2) Development of growing ovarian follicles
(3) Appearance of female secondary sex characters
(4) Support Pregnancy

79) Match the hormone with its primary function :

Column-A Column-B

Stimulates ovarian follicle

(1) Estrogen (A)
development

(2) Progesterone (B) Supports pregnancy

Stimulates growth of female

(3) PRL (C)
secondary sex organs

(4) Follicle-stimulating hormone (D) Stimulates milk secretion

(1) (1)-(D), (2)-(C), (3)-(B), (4)-(A)
(2) (1)-(C), (2)-(B), (3)-(D), (4)-(A)
(3) (1)-(A), (2)-(B), (3)-(C), (4)-(D)
(4) (1)-(B), (2)-(A), (3)-(C), (4)-(D)

80) Assertion : Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases blood calcium levels.

Reason : PTH acts on bones and stimulates bone resorption, releasing calcium into the
bloodstream.

(1) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.

(2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is and reason both are wrong.

81) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Pars distalis produces six trophic hormones.

Pineal gland secretes melanin, which plays a very Important role in the regulation of 24-hour
(2) (diurnal) rhythms of our body (e.g., rhythms of sleep and state of being awake, body
temperature, etc.)
The thyroid gland secrete thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which increases the blood Ca2+ levels and plays
(3)
a major role in calcium homeostasis
(4) GIP stimulate gastric secretion and motility

82)

In humans ___A___ parathyroid glands are present on the ___B___ the thyroid gland-

(1) A - Two, B - Back

(2) A - Two, B - Front
(3) A - Four, B - Front
(4) A - Four, B - Back

83)

Which of the following is not a function of cortisol ?

(1) Hyperglycemia
(2) Stimulate inflammation
(3) Gluconeogenesis
(4) Stimulate RBC production

84) Find out correct statement regarding adrenal cortex hormone ?

Underproduction of hormone alters carbohydrate metabolism causing acute weakness and

(1)
fatigue.
(2) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are commonly called as catecholamines.
(3) Cortisol is involved in maintaining the hepatic portal circulation.
(4) Androgenic proteins play a role in the growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair.

85) Identify A, B, C and D in the given statement.

Exopthalmic goitre is a form of , characterised by enlargement of the , protrusion of
the eye ball, basal metabolic rate and weight , also called Graves' disease.

A-Hypothyroidism, B-thyroid gland,

(1)
C-decreased, D-gain
A-Hypothyroidism, B-Pituitary gland,
(2)
C-increased, D-loss
A-Hyperthyroidism, B-Pituitary gland,
(3)
C-increased, D-gain
A-Hyperthyroidism, B-Thyroid gland,
(4)
C-increased, D-loss

86) Correctly match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Amoeboid movement (i) Trachea

(B) Ciliary movement (ii) Macrophage

(C) Flagellar movement (iii) Limbs

(D) Muscular movement (iv) Spermatozoa

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)

87) How many of the statements given below are/is correct ?

(a) Muscles have special properties like excitability, contractility, extensibility and elasticity.
(b) Muscles are mesodermal in origin.
(c) 40-50% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by blood

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None is correct

88) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Activity of smooth muscles is not under voluntary control.
Statement-II : Smooth muscle assist in transportation of food through the digestive tract.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statemen-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statemen-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

89) Match the following columns.

Column 1 Column 2

A Sternum I Synovial fluid

B Glenoid cavity II Vertebrae

C Freely movable joint III Pectoral girdle

D Cartilaginous joint IV Flat bones

Codes
A B C D

(1) II I III IV

(2) IV III I II

(3) II I IV III

(4) IV I II III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Statement-I : Our vertebral column formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebra and is
dorsally placed.
Statement-II : There are 10 pair of ribs. Each ribs is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the
vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 4 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 4 4 1 1 4 4 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) H =

Given =

3) v = kx

a∝x

a∝
a∝v

4)
x = ηH
v0T = ηH
=

v=

5) From screw guage

zero error = + 0.20 mm
Diameter of Chalk = 3.5 – 0.2
= 3.3 mm
for vernier calliper
zero error = – 0.05 cm
Thus it must show = 0.33 – 0.05
= 0.28 cm

6)

Initial KE =

= × 2 × (20)2 = 400
Final KE = 0 ∴ Work done = – 400 J

7) If power is constant then by using the relation P = F.v we can state that a.v = constant then
using dv/dt = k/v we get v = (2kt)1/2 then using dx/dt = (2kt)1/2 on integrating we get
displacement is directly proportional to t3/2.

8) Since ω is constant, v would also be constant. So, no net force or torque is acting on ring.
The force experienced by any particle is only along radial direction, or we can say the
centripetal force.
The force experienced by inner part,
The force experienced by outer part,
9) Retardation in upward motion = g(sinθ + μcosθ)
∴ Force required just to move up Fup = mg (sinθ + µcosθ)
Similarly for down ward motion a = g(sinθ – µcosθ)
∴ Force required just to prevent the body sliding down Fdn = mg(sinθ – μcosθ)
According to problem Fup = 2Fdn
⇒ mg (sinθ + μcosθ) = 2mg (sinθ – μcosθ)
⇒ sinθ + μcosθ = 2 sinθ – 2μ cosθ
⇒ 3 μ cosθ = sinθ
⇒ tanθ = 3μ
⇒ θ = tan–1 (3μ) = tan–1(3 ×0.25) = tan–1 (0.75)
= 37°

10) The coin falls behind him it means the velocity of train was increasing otherwise the coin
fall directly into the hands of thrower.

11) ∵ Density of cone and cylinder is same

Mcylinder = M1 = ρπR2H

Mcone = M2 =

yCOM =

12)

For perfect elastic e = 1

For perfect inelastic e = 0
For inelastic 0 < e < 1

13) Take same angular speed; linear speed v α r, Use E = ,F= , P = mv.
ωA = ωB

→R

→P

→S

→Q
14) Tangential acceleration from and centripetal acceleration ,

x = 2t2 ⇒ At t = 2: v = 8m / s Tangential acceleration: Centripetal

acceleration: Total acceleration:

15) For polytropic process PVm = constant

(Here and )

Q = nCΔT = 1 (–0.5 R) (–26) = + 13R

16)

Qabs = W = Area of curve

= π[a] [b]
= π[10 × 10+3] × [10 × 10–3]
= 100 π J

17) P × t × η = msΔT
2000 × t × 0.7 = 2 × 1000 × 4.2 × 50
t = 300 s

18)

19)

; RPQ (Straight) = r

RPQ (Bend) = = 1.5r

∵ ΔT ∝ R [V = IR]

ΔTPQ = 45°C

20) The power radiated by a filament is P = eσ AT4

where e = emissivity, σ = Stefan's constant,
T= surface temperature. or

21) f1 = f2 =

f=

Solving we get f =

22)

As pendulum starts from EP

So equation of SHM is

θ = θ cos ωt where ω =
0

⇒
Linear displacement = x = Lθ

0
x = Lθ cos t

23)

T = 2(0.5 + 1.5)

T = 4 second, ω =
Start M.P.
x = A sin ωt
 v = Aω cos ωt
t = 0.5, v = 3

M.P.
V = Aω

m/s

24) λ=8

N–N= = = 4m

25)

For f1 = 504 Hz, third harmonic is 3 × 504 = 1512 Hz

For f2 = 496Hz, third harmonic is 3 × 496 = 1488 Hz
Case-I : (1512 – 1510) = 2 b/s
Case-II : (1488 – 1510) = 22 b/s
So f1 = 504 Hz

26)
Here, I1​=I, I2​=9I, and the resultant intensity IR​=7I.
Let's plug these values into the formula:

Now, solve for cosϕ: −3I=6Icosϕ

The angle ϕ for which cosϕ=−1/2 is 120°.

27)

Sound wave → Longitudinal wave

Strings → Transverse wave
Long spring → Mixed
Light → EMW

28) Heat lost = Heat gain

ms1 (32 – 20) = ms2 (40 – 32)
12s1 = 8s2
29) Let [G] ∝ cxgypz
by substituting the following dimensions
[G] = [M–1L3T–2], [c] = [LT–1], [g] = [LT–2]
[p] = [ML–1T–2]
and by comparing the powers of both sides
we can get x = 0, y = 2, z = – 1
0
∴[G] ∝ c g2p–1

30)

J→

31) to lift
T = 2g
T – 1g = 1 × a1

After monkey stop

Δa = g – =

32)

s= ⇒

i.e. v =
work done = ΔKE

WD =
at t = 0 vi = 0

at t = 2 sec vf = m/s

WD =

33) MI of given ring =

Where πR = L ⇒ R =

So, I=

34)

Couple is a pair of two equal and opposite force having different lines of action.
So Fnet = 0
But τnet ≠ 0

35)

To keep the disc horizontal

Net torque = 0 (about point A)
Mg(R) – T(2R) = 0
MgR – mg (2R) = 0 (T = mg)

36) g =

∴ M=r× ⇒ g=

⇒ ρ=

37)

U=–

Escape velocity (v) =

+54 = + (3)

= 18
v= = 6 m/s

38) The gravitational force on projectile of mass m at a distance r from a planet of mass 4M is
zero
∴
⇒ 4(6R–r)2 = 9r2
⇒ 2(6R – r) = 3r

⇒
⇒ r = 2.4 R.

39)

W = 0.1 J

40) For equilibrium

8 cm × ρy × g + 2 cm × ρHg × g = 10 cm × ρx × g
8 × ρy + 2 × 13.6 = 10 × 3.36

ρy = = 0.8 g/cm3

41)

42)

F= × Δℓ

slope (m) = tan θ =

tan θ ∝ A

43)

Surface tension of water is more than surface tension of soap solution.

44)

0.1 mm =
MSD = 1mm

45) λ = 2[0.49 – 0.16]

λ = 2[0.33]
CHEMISTRY

46) Solution:
Acidic strength Stability of conjugate base.

Delocalisation of charge in conjugate base.

Overall acidic strength order:

Final Answer: (4)

47) For testing of halogens, Nitric acid is added to the sodium extract because if CN– or S2– are
present then they will be oxidised and removed before the test of halides.

48)

49)

Solution:

Only 1 alkene
Final Answer: Option (2)

50)

Cyclic, planar, completely

conjugated system follow Huckel rule
(4n + 2) π e– rule) are aromatic

51) Gauche form is less stable than antiform because of more steric strain in gauche.

52)

neutral R.S. is more stable.

53)

Solution:

3-Bromo-5-methoxybenzaldehyde

Final Answer: (3)

54)

Solution:

Final Answer

The correct option is (3)

55)

Solution:
In alkenes C=C bond length increases due to
hyperconjugation effect and resonance.
Bond length ∝ reso ∝ H-effect
 so bond length order is : .

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)

56)

57) Concept:

Ans.(4)

58)

ω = 0.25 gm
V1 = 40 mL
T1 = 300 K
P1 = (725 – 25) = 700 mm
N.T.P.
T1 = 273 K
P2 = 760 mm
V2 = ?

V2 =

=
= 33.52 ml

%N=

= 16.76%

59)

NCERT Fact
60)

61) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

ΔHeg ⇒ [S > Se > Te > Po > O]

62) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

Cl2O7 Acidic
Na2O Basic
As2O3 Amphoteric
N2O Neutral

63) NCERT-11, Pg. # 130

C2 (12e–) = σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, [π(2px2) =π(2Py)2]
BO = 2[Both are pure π bond]
Because of the presence of four electrons in two pi molecular orbital

64) Due to presence of Inter molecular H-bond.

65) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116

XeF4 ⇒ sp3d2 [bp = 4, ℓp = 2]
BrF5 ⇒ sp3d2 [bp = 5, ℓp = 1]
SF4 ⇒ sp3d [bp = 4, ℓp = 1]

66)

NCERT-11, Chemical bonding M.O.T Postulates

67) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108

C=O<N=O<C=C<C=N
121 122 133 138 pm

68) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

Addition of e– in an atom may be endothermic or exothermic.

69) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 120

 70)
[Size of Anion ↑ ⇒ Covalent character ↑]
[BP ∝ molecular weight ∝ Vander waal force of Attraction]
Bond strength ⇒ F–F < Cl–Cl > Br–Br

71) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80

Z = 106 (Sg)
Z = 113 (Nh)
Z = 108 (Hs)
Z = 117 (Ts)

72) Total spectral line =

∴ n2 – n = 30
or n = 6
∴ lines in visible region = n – 2 = 4

73)

NCERT, Pg. # 211

74) This question is based on Angular nodes (ℓ), Radial nodes (n - ℓ - 1) Total nodes (n - 1)
(a) 5s (n = 5, ℓ = 0) has 0 angular nodes (ℓ = 0) This matches (Q).
(b) 3dyz (n = 3, ℓ = 2) has O radial nodes (n - ℓ - 1 = 3 - 2 - 1 = 0) This matches (S).
(c) 4dxy (n = 4, ℓ = 2) has 1 radial node (n - ℓ - 1 = 4 - 2 - 1 = 1)
and a total of 3 nodes (n - 1 = 4 - 1 = 3) . This matches (P) and (R).
(d) 3p (n = 3, ℓ = 1) has 1 radial node (n - ℓ - 1 = 3 - 1 - 1 = 1) This matches (P).
Therefore, the correct pairings are (a) → (Q), (b)→(S), (c) → (P,R), and (d) → (P).
Final Answer: (1)

75) NCERT, Pg.# 56

76) PtCl4 + 5XeF2 → PtF6 + 4ClF + 5Xe

77)

MnO4– , CrO2Cl2 → +7, +6

MnO2, FeCl3 → +4, +3
MnCl2, CrCl3 → +2, +3

[NiCl4]2–, Hg2Cl2 → +2, +1

78)

Question Explanation : The question asks which reaction is redox reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Redox Reaction.

Solution :

This reaction is Redox Reaction

– Other reaction involve double displacement, decomposition or acid-base reactions-without
oxidation state changes.

Final Answer: option (3)

79)

2NO2 + O2 N2O5 ; kp
So 4NO2 + O2 2N2O5 ;

So 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2;

80) 2CO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g) V = 5L

Initially 2 0 0
at Eq 2 – 1.2 1.2 0.6
= 0.8
neq = 0.8 + 1.2 + 0.6
= 2.6

81)

A + B ⇌ C + D
initial 1 1 0 0
At eqm 1–x 1–x x x

Degree of dissociation =

82) H2 + I2 2HI
1 1 0
 1–α 1–α 2α
= 1–0.8 1–0.8 2 × 0.8
= 0.2 = 0.2 = 1.6

∴ KC

83)

Catalyst do not change position of equilibrium.

84) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(ℓ) →

3×56g 4 ×18 g 232 gm
assume 1mL water = 1g
L.R is Fe

∴ 56 g Fe gives = g Fe3O4 = 77.33 g

85) % oxygen = = 40%

86)

(a) Liquid to gas → Entropy increases

(b) For ΔG to be +ve at all T, ΔS must be –ve

(c) Reversible process, ΔS = 0,

87)

NCERT, Pg. # 55

88)

NCERT, Pg. # 185

89)

Reaction (b) doesn't has one mole reactant in reaction (e) gaseous atoms are not formed.

90) Moles of H2SO4 = 1 mol

g eq. of H2SO4 = moles × V.F. = 1 × 2 = 2 g eq.
ΔH due to 2 g eq. = –13.7 × 2 = –27.4 kCal

BIOLOGY
91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158

92) NCERT XI Pg : 111-112

93) NCERT-XI Pg. # 146

94)

Maltose = a-D glucose (C1) → (C4)α–D glucose

95)

NCERT, Pg. # 136

96) NCERT, Pg. # 45

97) NCERT-XI, Pg # 150

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138, 139, 140, 142

100) NCERT Pg.159

101) NCERT Pg. # 160

102) NCERT Pg. # 161-164

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156, 158

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 175, 176, 177, 178

106) NCERT-XI, Pg # 248

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 177

Explain Question: The question asks that Ethylene initiate flowering and synchronise fruit
set in which of the following.
Concept: Ethylene.
Solution: Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in Pineapples.
So, the correct answer is: 3.
​Final answer: Option 3

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 245, 247, 250

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 242

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28, Fig. 3.2(b)

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30, 32, 33, 34

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 30 & 32

115) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 39

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 11

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17, 18

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

119) NCERT-XI, Pg # 21, Fig. 2.4(a)

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 20, 21
121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15, 16

122) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 4

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 4, 5

124) NCERT-XI Pg # 10, Fig. 1.1

125) NCERT XI, Pg. No. # 95, 96

126) Module Pg.# 148

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134,135

130) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 129, 133, 137, 138

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121, 122

132)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 127

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 166

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg, # 123, 126

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123, 124, 126,127

136) NCERT, Pg # 136

137)

NCERT, Pg. # 48

138)

NCERT, Pg. # 39

139) NCERT, Pg. # 40, 41, 45, 49

140)

NCERT, Pg. 48

141)

NCERT, Pg. # 45

142)

Module

143)

Module

144)

Module

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 113 (OLD)

146)

NCERT, Pg. # 83

147) NCERT Pg. # 82,83,84

148)

NCERT, Pg. # 195

149)
NCERT, Pg. # 193, 194

150)

NCERT, Pg. # 202

151) NCERT Pg. # 288

152)

NCERT, Pg. # 199, 200

153)

NCERT, Pg. # 191

154)

NCERT, Pg. # 190

155) NCERT, Pg. # 187

156) NCERT Pg # 185 (E, H)

157) NCERT Pg. # 183

158)

NCERT, Pg. # 209

159)

NCERT, Pg. # 212, 213

160) NCERT, Pg # 205-206

161) NCERT, Pg. # 291

162) NCERT, Pg. # 212

163)
NCERT, Pg. # 213

164) NCERT Pg. # 231.

165) NCERT Pg. # 231, 232

166)

NCERT Pg # 234 (18.4.1)

167) NCERT (18.3.1)

168) NCERT XI Pg. # 247

169) NCERT Pg.#246-247.

170) NCERT Pg.#242-243.

171) NCERT XI Pg. # 249, 250

172) NCERT, Pg. # 243

173)

NCERT, Pg. # 245

174) NCERT, Pg. # 243, 244

175) NCERT, Pg. # 243

176)

NCERT, Pg. # 217, 218

177) NCERT Pg. # 218

178) NCERT Pg. No. 218

179) NCERT Pg # 225

180) NCERT Pg.#225